ISTQB Foundation Sample Question Paper No.

9
1. Deliverables of test design phase include all the following except
(Testing artifacts)
a) Test data
b) Test data plan
c) Test summary report
d) Test procedure plan
2. Which of the following is not decided in the test-planning phase?
(Testing
artifacts)
a) Schedules and deliverables
b) Hardware and software
c) Entry and exit criteria
d) Types of test cases
3. Typical defects that are easier to find in reviews than in dynamic
testing are:
A. deviations from standards,
B.requirement defects,
C.design defects,
D.insufficient maintainability and incorrect interface specifications.
E.All of the above.
4. Load Testing Tools (Per. Testing)a) reduces the time spent by the
testers
b) reduces the resources spent (hardware)
c) mostly used in web testing
d) all of the above
5. Reviews, static analysis and dynamic testing have the same
objective
A.identifying defects.
B. fixing defects.
C. 1 and 2
D. None
6. Defect arrival rate curve:
A. Shows the number of newly discovered defects per unit time
B. Shows the number of open defects per unit time.
C. Shows the cumulative total number of defects found up to this time.
D. Any of these, depending on the company.
7. What are the 2 major components taken into consideration with
risk analysis?

(Test Mgmt)
a) The probability the negative event will occur
b) The potential loss or impact associated with the event
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b
8. We can achieve complete statement coverage but still miss bugs
because:
A. The failure occurs only if you reach a statement taking the TRUE branch of
an IF
statement, and you got to the statement with a test that passed through the
FALSE
branch.
B. The failure depends on the program's inability to handle specific data
values,
rather than on the program's flow of control.
C. Both A and B
D. We are not required to test code that customers are unlikely to execute.
9. Who is responsible for conducting test readiness review?
(Performing
Test)
a. Test manager
b. Test engineer
c. both A & B
d. Project Manager
10. What if the project isn't big enough to justify extensive testing?
(Test Mgmt)
a) Use risk based analysis to find out which areas need to be tested
b) Use automation tool for testing
c) a and b
d) None of the above
11. What are the key features to be concentrated upon when doing
a testing for
world wide web sites (Test Execution)
a) Interaction between html pages
b) Performance on the client side
c) Security aspects
d) All of the above
12. What can be done if requirements are changing continuously?
(Test Mgmt)

a) Work with the project's stakeholders early on to understand how

requirements might change so that alternate test plans and strategies
can be worked out in advance, if possible.
b) Negotiate to allow only easily-implemented new requirements into the
project, while moving more difficult new requirements into future
versions of the application
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
13. The selection of test cases for regression testing (Testing
artifacts)
a) Requires knowledge on the bug fixes and how it affect the system
b) Includes the area of frequent defects
c) Includes the area which has undergone many/recent code changes
d) All of the above
14. Measurement dysfunction is a problem because:
A. Even though the numbers you look at appear better, to achieve these
numbers, people are doing other aspects of their work much less well.B. We
don't know how to measure a variable (our measurement is dysfunctional)
and
so we don't know how to interpret the result.
C. You are measuring the wrong thing and thus reaching the wrong
conclusions.
D. All of the above.
15. What do you mean by Having to say NO (test planning
process)
a. No, the problem is not with testers
b. No, the software is not ready for production
c. Both a & b
d. none of the above
16. According to the lecture, there are several risks of managing
your project's schedule
with a statistical reliability model. These include (choose one or
more of the following):
A. Testers spend more energy early in the product trying to find bugs than
preparing
to do the rest of the project's work more efficiently
B. Managers might not realize that the testing effort is ineffective, late in the
project,
because they expect a low rate of bug finding, so the low rate achieved
doesn't
alarm them.
C. It can increase the end-of-project pressure on testers to not find bugs, or

to not
report bugs.
D. All of the above
17. Operations testing is (Performing Test)
a. compliance testing
b. disaster testing
c. verifying compliance to rules
d. functional testing
e. ease of operations
18. Tools like change Man, Clear case are used as (test planning
process)
a. functional automation tools
b. performance testing tools
c. configuration management tools
d. none of the above.
19. Important consequences of the impossibility of complete testing
are (Choose one or more answers):
A. We can never be certain that the program is bug free.
B. We have no definite stopping point for testing, which makes it easier for
some
managers to argue for very little testing.
C. We have no easy answer for what testing tasks should always be required,
because every task takes time that could be spent on other high importance
tasks.
D. All of the above.
20. Which is not in sequence in 11 Step Software Testing process
(Testers
Role SDLC)
a Assess development plan and status
b Develop the test plan
c Test software design
d Test software requirement
21. In the MASPAR case study:A. Security failures were the result of
untested parts of code.
B. The development team achieved complete statement and branch
coverage but
missed a serious bug in the MASPAR operating system.
C. An error in the code was so obscure that you had to test the function with
almost
every input value to find its two special-case failures.

D. All of the above.

22. Complete statement and branch coverage means:
A. That you have tested every statement in the program.
B. That you have tested every statement and every branch in the program.
C. That you have tested every IF statement in the program.
D. That you have tested every combination of values of IF statements in the
program
23. What if the project isn't big enough to justify extensive testing?
(Test Mgmt)
a) Use risk based analysis to find out which areas need to be tested
b) Use automation tool for testing
c) a and b
d) None of the above
24. Security falls under (Performing Test)
a. compliance testing
b. disaster testing
c. verifying compliance to rules
d. functional testing
e. ease of operations
25. Which is the best definition of complete testing:
A. You have discovered every bug in the program.
B. You have tested every statement, branch, and combination of branches in
the
program.
C. You have completed every test in the test plan.
D. You have reached the scheduled ship date.
26. What is the concept of introducing a small change to the
program and having the
effects of that change show up in some test? (Testing concepts)
a) Desk checking
b) Debugging a program
c) A mutation error
d) Performance testing
e) Introducing mutations
Answers:
1-C
2-D
3-E
4-D

5-A
6-A
7-C
8-C
9-A
10 - A
11 - D
12 - C
13 - D
14 - A
15 - B
16 - D
17 - E
18 - C
19 - D
20 - C
21 - C
22 - B
23 - A
24 - A
25 - D
26 - E
ISTQB Foundation Sample Question Paper No. 14
1. What is failure?
A. Deviation from expected result to actual result
B. Defect in the software.
C. Error in the program code.
D. Fault in the system.
2. People who dont participate in technical reviews
A. Analysts
B. Management
C. Developers
D. Testers
3. What type of testing is done to supplement the rigorous testing?
A. Regression testing.
B. Integration testing.
C. Error Guessing
D. System testing.
4. Capture and replay facilities are least likely to be used to .
A. Performance testing
B. Recovery testing

C. GUI testing
D. User requirements.
5. What is the smallest number of test cases required to Provide
100% branch coverage?
If(x>y) x=x+1;
else y=y+1;
while(x>y)
{
y=x*y; x=x+1;
}
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
6. Cyclomatic complexity is used to calculate
A. number of independent paths in the basis set of a program
B. number of binary decisions + 1
C. upper bound for the number of tests that must be conducted to ensure
that all statements have been executed at least once
D. number of branches and decisions
7. If a candidate is given an exam of 40 questions, should get 25
marks to pass (61%) and should get 80% for distinction, what is
equivalence class.
A. 23, 24, 25
B. 0, 12, 25
C. 30, 36, 39
D. 32,37,40
8. Match the following:
1. Test estimation
2. Test control
3. Test monitoring
a. measures of tracking process
b. effort required to perform activities
c. reallocation of resources
A. 1-b, 2-c, 3-a
B. 1-b, 2-a, 3-c
C. 1-c, 2-a, 3-b
D. 1-a, 2-b, 3-c
9. One of the following is not a part of white box testing as per
BS7925-II standards.
A. Random testing

B. Data Flow testing.

C. Statement testing.
D. Syntax testing.
10. Exclusive use of white box testing in a test-phase will:
A. Ensure the test item is adequately tested.
B. Make the need for black-box testing redundant.
C. Run the risk that the requirements are not satisfied.
D. Suffices for the unit testing phase.
11. Match the following.
1. Configuration identification
2. Configuration control
3. Status reporting
4. Configuration auditing
a. Maintains of CIs in a library
b. Checks on the contents of the library
c. Function recording and tracking problems.
d. Requires the all CIs and their versions in the system are known
A. 1-d, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a.
B. 1-d, 2-a, 3-c, 4-b.
C. 1-a, 2-b, 3-d, 4-c.
D. 1-c, 2-b, 3-a, 4-d.
12. Cost of the reviews will not include.
A. Review process itself
B. Metrics analysis
C. Tool support.
D. Process improvement.
13. What type of testing will you perform on internet banking
solution?
A. System integration
B. Functional testing
C. Non-functional testing.
D. Requirements testing
14. Which tool will be used to test the flag memory leaks and
unassigned pointers
A. Dynamic analysis tool
B. Static Analysis tool.
C. Maintenance tool.
D. Configuration tool.
15. Which of the following is not included in Test Plan.
A. Features to be tested.

B. Environmental needs.
C. Suspension criteria.
D. Expected results.
16. A piece of software has been given.what tests in the Following
will you perform?
1) Test the areas most critical to business processes
2) Test the areas where faults will be maximum
3) Test the easiest functionalities
A. 1&2 are true and 3 is false.
B. 1,2&3 are true.
C. 1 is true, 2&3 are false.
D. 1&2 are false, 3 is true.
17. Amount of testing performed will not depend on
A. Risks involved
B. Contractual requirements
C. Legal requirements
D. Test data.
18. Which of the following provides the biggest potential cost
saving from use of CAST?
A. Test management
B. Test design
C. Test planning
D. Test execution
19. Testing is not done to .
A. Find faults
B. Improve quality
C. Check user friendliness.
D. Improve software accuracy
20. Software quality is not relevant to
A. Correctness
B. Usability
C. Viability
D. Reusability.
21. Which of the following are false?
A. Incidents should always be investigated and resolved.
B. Incidents occur when expected and actual results differ.
C. Incidents can be analyzed to assist in test process improvement.
D. An incident can be raised against documentation.
22. Which of the following is a type of non-functional testing?

A. Usability testing.
B. Statement Coverage.
C. Dataflow testing.
D. Cause-effect graphing.
23. To make a test effective it is most important that:
A. It is easy to execute.
B. It is designed to detect faults if present.
C. The expected outcome is specified before execution.
D. It is unlikely to delay progress.
24. Error guessing is:
A. An appropriate way of deriving system tests.
B. Only used if good requirements are not available.
C. Only used when good requirements are available.
D. The most appropriate way of deriving system tests.
25. A standard for software testing terminology is:
A. IEEE 802.11
B. ISO 9001
C. BS 7925-1
D. BS 7925-2
26. Which of the following is true of V-model?
A. It includes the verification of designs.
B. It states that modules are tested against user requirements.
C. It specifies the test techniques to be used.
D. It only models the testing phase.
27. Which of the following is NOT part of a high level test plan?
A. Functions not to be tested.
B. Environmental requirements.
C. Analysis of Specifications.
D. Entry and Exit criteria.
28. When do you stop testing?
A. When the specified number of faults are found.
B. When the test completion criteria are met.
C. When all high and medium priority tests are complete.
D. When all statements have been executed.
29. Which of the following is least important in test management?
A. Estimating test duration.
B. Incident Management.
C. Configuration Management.

D. De-bugging.
30. How would you estimate the amount of re-testing likely to be
required?
A. Metrics from previous similar projects.
B. Discussions with the development team.
C. Time allocated for regression testing.
D. Both A & B.
31. Which of the following statements is true of static analysis:
A. Compiling code is not a form of static analysis.
B. Static analysis need not be performed before imperative code is executed.
C. Static analysis can find faults that are hard to find with
dynamic testing.
D. Extensive statistic analysis will not be needed if white- Box testing is to be
performed.
32. Regression testing always involves
A. Testing whether a known software fault been fixed.
B. Executing a large number of different tests.
C. Testing whether modifications have introduced adverse side effects.
D. Using a test automation tool.
33. A field failure occurs when multiple users access a system.
Which of the following is true?
A. This is an acceptable risk of a multi-user system.
B. Insufficient functional testing has been performed.
C. This indicates an important non-functional requirement was not specified
and tested.
D. It is not possible to test against such events prior to release.
34. Integration testing in the large involves:
A. Testing the system when combined with other systems.
B. Testing a sub-system using stubs and drivers.
C. Testing a system with a large number of users.
D. Combing software components and testing them in one go.
35. Data flow analysis studies:
A. How rapidly data is transferred through a program.
B. The rate of change of data values as a program executes.
C. The use of data on paths through the code.
D. The intrinsic complexity of the code.
36. The oracle assumption is that:
A. There is some existing system against which test output may be checked.
B. The tester knows everything about the software under test.

C. The tester can routinely identify the correct outcome of a test.

D. Tools are used to check the results of testing.
36 The following text will be used in Q.37 and Q.38. In a system
designed to work out the tax to be paid:
An employee has $4000 of salary tax free
The next $1500 is taxed at 10%
The next $28000 is taxed at 22%
Any further amount is taxed at 40%
37. To the nearest $ which of these is a valid Boundary Value
Analysis test case?
A. $1500
B. $32001
C. $28000
D. $33501
38. Which of these groups of numbers would fall into the same
equivalence class?
A. $5800; $28000; $32000
B. $0; $200; $4200
C. $5200; $5500; $28000
D. $28001; $32000; $35000
39. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of User
Acceptance Testing?
A. Use of automated test execution tools.
B. Testing performed by users.
C. Testing against acceptance test criteria.
D. Integration of system with user documentation.
40. For software to be reliable it must:
A. Be easy to maintain.
B. Be unlikely to cause a failure.
C. Never fail under any circumstances.
D. Be written according to coding standards
Answers:
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. B
6. B
7. D
8. A

9. D
10. C
11. B
12. C
13. C
14. A
15. D
16. A
17. D
18. D
19. D
20. C
21. C
22. A
23. C
24. D
25. C
26. B
27. C
28. B
29. D
30. A
31. A
32. C
33. C
34. A
35. B
36. C
37. D
38. A
39. A
40. B

ISTQB Foundation Sample Question Paper No. 15

Q. 1: Given the following state transition table Which of the test
cases below will cover the following series of state transitions? S1
SO S1 S2 SO

A.
B.
C.
D.

D, A, B, C.
A, B, C, D.
D, A, B.
A, B, C.

Q. 2: From a Testing perspective, what are the MAIN purposes of

Configuration Management?:
i) Identifying the version of software under test. ii) Controlling the
version of testware items.
iii) Developing new testware items.
iv) Tracking changes to testware items.
v) Analysing the need for new testware items.
A. ii, iv and v.
B. ii, iii and iv.i,
C. i, ii and iv.
D. i, iii and v.
Q. 3: Which of the following is a MAJOR task of test planning?
A. Scheduling test analysis and design tasks.
B. Initiating corrective actions.
C. Monitoring progress and test coverage.
D. Measuring and analyzing results.
Q. 4: Which of the following BEST describes the difference between
an inspection and a walkthrough?
A. Both inspections and walkthroughs are led by the author.
B. An inspection is led by a moderator and a walkthrough is led by the
author.
C. Both inspections and walkthroughs are led by a trained moderator.
D. A walkthrough is led by the author. The author is not present during

inspections.
Q. 5: Where may functional testing be performed?
A. At system and acceptance testing levels only.
B. At all test levels.
C. At all levels above integration testing.
D. At the acceptance testing level only.
Q. 6: What is the MAIN objective when reviewing a software
deliverable?
A. To identify potential application failures by use of a test specification.
B. To identify defects in any software work product.
C. To identify spelling mistakes in a requirements specification.
D. To identify standards inconsistencies in the code.
Q. 7: Who would USUALLY perform debugging activities?
A.Developers.
B. Analysts.
C. Testers.
D. Incident Managers.
Q. 8: Which of the following would you NOT usually find on a
software incident report?
A. The name and/or organisational position of the person raising the
problem.
B. Version of the Software Under Test.
C. Suggestions as to how to fix the problem.
D. Actual and expected results.
Q. 9: Which of the following defines the expected results of a test?
A. Test case specification.
B. Test design specification.
C. Test procedure specification.
D. Test results.
Q. 10: Some tools are geared more for developer use. For the 5 tools
listed, which statement BEST details those for developers
i) Performance testing tools.
ii) Coverage measurement tools.
iii) Test comparators.

iv) Dynamic analysis tools.

v) Incident management tools.
A. i, iii. and iv. are more for developers.
B. ii. and iv. are more for developers.
C. ii, iii. and iv. are more for developers.
D. ii. and iii. are more for developers.
Q. 11: Which of the following is correct?
A. Impact analysis assesses the effect on the system of a defect found in
regression testing.
B. Impact analysis assesses the effect of a new person joining the regression
test team.
C. Impact analysis assesses whether or not a defect found in regression
testing has been
fixed correctly.
D. Impact analysis assesses the effect of a change to the system to
determine how much regression testing to do.
Q. 12: As part of which test process do you determine the exit
criteria?
A. Test planning.
B. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting.
C. Test closure.
D. Test control.
Q. 13: Given the following state transition diagram Which of the
following series of state transitions contains an INVALID transition
which may indicate a fault in the system design?
Exhibit:

A. Login Browse Basket Checkout Basket Checkout Pay Logout.

B. Login Browse Basket Checkout Pay Logout.
C. Login Browse Basket Checkout Basket Logout.
D. Login Browse Basket Browse Basket Checkout Pay Logout.
Q. 14: Which of the following is a MAJOR task of test implementation
and execution?
A. Measuring and analyzing results.
B. Reporting discrepancies as incidents.

C. Identifying test conditions or test requirements.

D. Assessing if more tests are needed.
Q. 15: What is beta testing?
A. Testing performed by potential customers at the developers location.
B. Testing performed by potential customers at their own locations.
C. Testing performed by product developers at the customer's location.
D. Testing performed by product developers at their own locations.
Q. 16: Given the following fragment of code, how many tests are
required for 100%
decision coverage?
if width > length then
biggest_dimension = width
if height > width then
biggest_dimension = height end_if
else
biggest_dimension = length if height > length
then
biggest_dimension = height end_if
end_if
A. 3
B. 4
C. 2
D. 1
Q. 17: You have designed test cases to provide 100% statement and
100% decision coverage for the following fragment of code.
if width > length then
biggest_dimension = width else
biggest_dimension = length end_if
The following has been added to the bottom of the code fragment
above.
print "Biggest dimension is " & biggest_dimension print "Width: " &
width
print "Length: " & length
How many more test cases are required?
A. One more test case will be required for 100 % decision coverage.

B. Two more test cases will be required for 100 % statement coverage, one of
which will be used to provide 100% decision coverage.
C. None, existing test cases can be used.
D. One more test case will be required for 100" statement coverage.
Q. 18: A thermometer measures temperature in whole degrees only.
If the temperature falls below 18 degrees, the heating is switched
off. It is switched on again when the temperature reaches 21
degrees. What are the best values in degrees to cover all
equivalence partitions?
A. 15, 19 and 25.
B. 17, 18 and19.
C. 18, 20 and22.
D. 16, 26 and 32.
Q. 19: Which activity in the fundamental test process creates test
suites for efficient test execution?
A. Implementation and execution.
B. Planning and control.
C. Analysis and design.
D. Test closure.
Q. 20: Which of the following is TRUE?
A. Confirmation testing is testing fixes to a set of defects and Regression
testing is testing to establish whether any defects have been introduced as a
result of changes.
B. Confirmation testing is testing to establish whether any defects have been
introduced as a result of changes and Regression testing is testing fixes to a
set of defects.
C. Confirmation testing and Regression testing are both testing to establish
whether any defects have been introduced as a result of changes.
D. Confirmation testing and Regression testing are both testing fixes to a set
of defects.
Q. 21: Given the following decision table: Which of the following test
cases and expected results is VALID?

A. 23 year old in insurance class A Premium is 0 and excess is,500.

B. 51 year old in insurance class C Premium is 0 and excess is 00.
C. 31 year old in insurance class B Premium is 0 and excess is ,500.
D. 43 year old in insurance class C Premium is 0 and excess is ,000.
Q. 22: When should configuration management procedures be
implemented?
A. During test planning.
B. During test analysis.
C. During test execution.
D. When evaluating exit criteria
Q. 23: Which of the following are characteristic of regression testing
?
i) Regression testing is run ONLY once
ii) Regression testing is used after fixes have been made
iii) Regression testing is often automated
iv) Regression tests need not be maintained
Options:
A. ii, iv.
B. ii, iii.
C. i, iii, iv.
D. iii.
Q. 24: A wholesaler sells printer cartridges. The minimum order
quantity is 5. There is a 20% discount for orders of 100 or more
printer cartridges. You have been asked to prepare test cases using
various values for the number of printer cartridges ordered. Which
of the following groups contain three test inputs that would be
generated using Boundary Value Analysis?

A. 5, 6, 20
B. 4, 5, 80
C. 4, 5, 99
D. 1, 20, 100
Q. 25: Which of the following activities should be performed during
the selection and implementation of a testing tool?
i) Investigate the organisation's test process. ii) Conduct a proof of
concept.
iii) Implement the selected tool on a project behind schedule to save
time.
iv) Identify coaching and mentoring requirements for the use of the
selected tool.
Options:
A. i, ii, iii.
B. ii, iii, iv.
C. i, iii, iv.
D. i, ii, iv.
Q. 26: What is the MAIN benefit of designing tests early in the life
cycle?
A. It is cheaper than designing tests during the test phases.
B. It helps prevent defects from being introduced into the code.
C. Tests designed early are more effective than tests designed later.
D. It saves time during the testing phases when testers are busy.
Q. 27: Which of the following benefits are MOST likely to be
achieved by using test tools?
i) Easy to access information about tests and testing.
ii) Reduced maintenance of testware.
iii) Easy and cheap to implement.
iv) Greater consistency of tests.
Options:
A. ii and iv
B. ii and iii
C. i and iv
D. i and iii

Q. 28: What is the KEY difference between preventative and reactive

approaches to testing?
A. Preventative tests and reactive tests are designed as early as possible.
B. Preventative tests are designed early; reactive tests are designed after the
software has been produced.
C. Preventative testing is always analytical; reactive testing is always
heuristic.
D. Preventative tests are designed after the software has been produced;
reactive tests are designed early in response to review comments.
Q. 29: What is the purpose of exit criteria?
A. To define when a test level is complete.
B. To determine when a test has completed.
C. To identify when a software system should be retired.
D. To determine whether a test has passed.
Q. 30: What determines the level of risk?
A. The cost of dealing with an adverse event if it occurs.
B. The probability that an adverse event will occur.
C. The amount of testing planned before release of a system.
D. The likelihood of an adverse event and the impact of the event.
Q. 31: With which of the following categories is a test comparator
tool USUALLY
associated?
A. Tool support for performance and monitoring.
B. Tool support for static testing.
C. Tool support for test execution and logging.
D. Tool support for the management of testing and tests.
Q. 32: Which activities form part of test planning?
i) Developing test cases.
ii) Defining the overall approach to testing.
iii) Assigning resources.
iv) Building the test environment
v) Writing test conditions.
A. i, ii & iv are true, iii & v are false.
B. ii & iii are true, i, iv & v are false.
C. iv & v are true, i, ii & iii are false.
D. i, ii & iii are true iv & v are false.

Q. 33: Match the following terms and statements.

1.Decision Table Testing
2.Decision Testing
3.State Transition Testing
4.Exploratory Testing
W. Testing carried out w boxes to achieve specific test objectives,
possibly to complement structured testing.
X. A test technique used which may be used to verify different
system re depending on current conditions or previous history.
Y. A test technique which combines combinations of inputs that
might not otherwise have
been exercised during testing.
Z. A form of control flow testing based on decision outcomes.
Options:
A. 1Y, 2Z, 3X, 4W.
B. 1X ,2W, 3Z, 4Y.
C. 1Z, 2X, 3W, 4Y.
D. 1Z, 2Y, 3X, 4W.
Q. 34: Which type of test design techniques does the following
statement best describe a procedure to derive test cases based on
the specification of a component?
A. Black Box Techniques.
B. White Box Techniques.
C. Glass Box Techniques.
D. Experience Based Techniques.
Q. 35: For which of the following would a static analysis tool be
MOST useful?
A. Supporting reviews.
B. Validating models of the software.
C. Testing code executed in a special test harness.
D. Enforcement of coding standards.
Q. 36: Which of the following types of defects is use case testing
MOST LIKELY to uncover?
i) Defects in the process flows during real-world use of the system.
ii) Defects in the interface parameters in integration testing.
iii) Integration defects caused by the interaction and interference of different

components.
iv) Defects in the system as it transitions between one state and another.
A. ii, iii.
B. i, iii.
C. iii, iv.
D. i, ii
Q. 37: Which of the following is MOST important in the selection of a
test approach?
A. Availability of tools to support the proposed techniques.
B. The budget allowed for training in proposed techniques.
C. Available skills and experience in the proposed techniques.
D. The willingness of the test team to learn new techniques.
Q. 38: Which of the following is a benefit of test independence?
A. It does not require familiarity with the code.
B. It is cheaper than using developers to test their own code.
C. It avoids author bias in defining effective tests.
D. Testers are better at finding defects than developers.
Q. 39: The above diagram represents the following paths through
the code.
A. vwy
B. vwz
C. vxy
D. vxz
What is the MINIMUM combination of paths required to provide full
statement coverage?
Exhibit:

A. A
B. ABD
C. ABCD
D. ACD
Q. 40: Which of the following is MOST characteristic of specification
based (black-box)
techniques?
A. Test cases can be easily automated.
B. Test cases are independent of each other.
C. Test cases are derived systematically from models of the system.
D. Test cases are derived systematically from the delivered code.
Answers:
Q. 1-A
Q. 2-C
Q. 3-A
Q. 4-B
Q. 5-B
Q. 6-B
Q. 7-A
Q. 8-C
Q. 9-A
Q. 10-B
Q. 11-D
Q. 12-A
Q. 13-C
Q. 14-B

Q.
Q.
Q.
Q.
Q.
Q.
Q.
Q.
Q.
Q.
Q.
Q.
Q.
Q.
Q.
Q.
Q.
Q.
Q.
Q.
Q.
Q.
Q.
Q.
Q.
Q.

15-B
16-B
17-C
18-A
19-A
20-A
21-A
22-A
23-B
24-C
25-D
26-B
27-C
28-B
29-A
30-D
31-C
32-B
33-A
34-A
35-D
36-B
37-C
38-C
39-A
40-C

ISTQB Foundation Sample Question Paper No. 16

Q. 1: Which of the following combinations correctly describes a valid
approach to component testing:
i) Functional testing of the component in isolation.
ii) Structure-based testing of the code without recording incidents.
iii) Automated tests that are run until the component passes. iv)
Functional testing of the interfaces between modules.
A. i and ii.
B. I, ii and iii
C. iii.
D. ii and iv
Q. 2: Which of the following is a purpose of the review planning
phase?
A. Log defects.
B. Explain the documents to the participants.
C. Gather metrics.

D. Allocate the individual roles.

Q. 3: A defect arrival rate curve:
A. Shows the number of newly discovered defects per unit time
B. Shows the number of open defects per unit time.
C. Shows the cumulative total number of defects found up to this time.
D. Any of these, depending on the company.
Q. 4: Which is the best definition of complete testing:
A. You have discovered every bug in the program.
B. You have tested every statement, branch, and combination of branches in
the program.
C. You have completed every test in the test plan.
D. You have reached the scheduled ship date.
Q. 5: Complete statement and branch coverage means:
A. That you have tested every statement in the program.
B. That you have tested every statement and every branch in the program.
C. That you have tested every IF statement in the program.
D. That you have tested every combination of values of IF statements in the
program
Q. 6: There are several risks of managing your project's schedule
with a statistical reliability model. These include (choose one or
more of the following):
A. Testers spend more energy early in the product trying to find bugs than
preparing to do the rest of the project's work more efficiently
B. Managers might not realize that the testing effort is ineffective, late in the
project, because they expect a low rate of bug finding, so the low rate
achieved doesn't alarm them.
C. It can increase the end-of-project pressure on testers to not find bugs, or
to not report bugs.
D. All of the above
Q. 7: Typical defects that are easier to find in reviews than in
dynamic testing are:
A. Deviations from standards,
B. Requirement defects,
C. Design defects,
D. Insufficient maintainability and incorrect interface specifications. E. All of
the above.
Q. 8: Reviews, static analysis and dynamic testing have the same
objective
A. Identifying defects.

B. Fixing defects.
C. A. and B
D. None of the above
Q. 9: We can achieve complete statement coverage but still miss
bugs because:
A. The failure occurs only if you reach a statement taking the TRUE branch of
an IF
statement, and you got to the statement with a test that passed through the
FALSE branch.
B. The failure depends on the program's inability to handle specific data
values, rather than on the program's flow of control.
C. We are not required to test code that customers are unlikely to execute.
D. All of the above
Q. 10: Measurement dysfunction is a problem because:
A. Even though the numbers you look at appear better, to achieve these
numbers, people are doing other aspects of their work much less well.
B. We don't know how to measure a variable (our measurement is
dysfunctional) and so we don't know how to interpret the result.
C. You are measuring the wrong thing and thus reaching the wrong
conclusions.
D. All of the above.
Q. 11: Important consequences of the impossibility of complete
testing are (Choose one or more answers):
A. We can never be certain that the program is bug free.
B. We have no definite stopping point for testing, which makes it easier for
some managers to argue for very little testing.
C. We have no easy answer for what testing tasks should always be required,
because every task takes time that could be spent on other high importance
tasks.
D. All of the above.
Q. 12: Poor software characteristics are
A. Only Project risks
B. Only Product risks
C. Project risks and Product risks
D. Project risks or Product risks
Q. 13: System testing should investigate
A. Non-functional requirements only not Functional requirements
B. Functional requirements only not non-functional requirements
C. Non-functional requirements and Functional requirements
D. Non-functional requirements or Functional requirements

Q. 14: Contract and regulation testing is a part of

A. System testing
B. Acceptance testing
C. Integration testing
D. Smoke testing
Q. 15: Find the correct flow of the phases of a formal review
A. Planning, Review meeting, Rework, Kick off
B. Planning, Individual preparation, Kick off, Rework
C. Planning, Review meeting, Rework, Follow up
D. Planning, Individual preparation, Follow up, Kick off
Q. 16: Which is not the testing objectives
A. Finding defects
B. Gaining confidence about the level of quality and providing information
C. Preventing defects.
D. Debugging defects
Q. 17: Maintenance releases and technical assistance centers are
examples of which of the following costs of quality?
A. External failure
B. Internal failure
C. Appraisal
D. Prevention
Q. 18: Which is not the project risks
A. Supplier issues
B. Organization factors
C. Technical issues
D. Error-prone software delivered
Q. 19: Bug life cycle
A. Open, Assigned, Fixed, Closed
B. Open, Fixed, Assigned, Closed
C. Assigned, Open, Closed, Fixed
D. Assigned, Open, Fixed, Closed
Q. 20: Who is responsible for document all the issues, problems and
open point that were identified during the review meeting
A. Moderator
B. Scribe
C. Reviewers
D. Author
Q. 21: X has given a data on a person age, which should be
between 1 to 99. Using

BVA which is the appropriate one

A. 0,1,2,99
B. 1, 99, 100, 98
C. 0, 1, 99, 100
D. 1, 0, 1, 99
Q. 22: Which is not a testing principle
A. Early testing
B. Defect clustering
C. Pesticide paradox
D. Exhaustive testing
Q. 23: A project that is in the implementation phase is six weeks
behind schedule.
The delivery date for the product is four months away. The project is
not allowed to slip the delivery date or compromise on the quality
standards established for his product. Which of the following
actions would bring this project back on schedule?
A. Eliminate some of the requirements that have not yet been implemented.
B. Add more engineers to the project to make up for lost work.
C. Ask the current developers to work overtime until the lost work is
recovered.
D. Hire more software quality assurance personnel.
Q. 24: The Testing will be performed by the people at client own
locations
A. Alpha testing
B. Field testing
C. Performance testing
D. System testing
Q. 25: Which of the following is the standard for the Software
product quality
A. ISO 1926
B. ISO 829
C. ISO 1012
D. ISO 1028
Q. 26: Which is not a black box testing technique
A. Equivalence partition
B. Decision tables
C. Transaction diagrams
D. Decision testing
Q. 27: Find the mismatch
A. Test data preparation tools Manipulate Data bases

B. Test design tools Generate test inputs

C. Requirement management tools Enables individual tests to be traceable
D. Configuration management tools Check for consistence
Q. 28: Use cases can be performed to test
A. Performance testing
B. Unit testing
C. Business scenarios
D. Static testing
Q. 29: Purpose of test design technique is
A. Identifying test conditions only, not Identifying test cases
B. Not Identifying test conditions, Identifying test cases only
C. Identifying test conditions and Identifying test cases
D. Identifying test conditions or Identifying test cases
Q. 30: One person has been dominating the current software
process improvement meeting. Which of the following techniques
should the facilitator use to bring other team members into the
discussion?
A. Confront the person and ask that other team members be allowed to
express their opinions.
B. Wait for the person to pause, acknowledge the person s opinion, and ask
for someone else s opinion.
C. Switch the topic to an issue about which the person does not have a
strong opinion.
D. Express an opinion that differs from the person s opinion in order to
encourage others to express their ideas.
Q. 31: Stochastic testing using statistical information or operational
profiles uses the following method
A. Heuristic testing approach
B. Methodical testing approach
C. Model based testing approach
D. Process or standard compliant testing approach
Q. 32: A software model that cant be used in functional testing
A. Process flow model
B. State transaction model
C. Menu structure model
D. Plain language specification model
Q. 33: Arc testing is known as
A. Branch testing
B. Agile testing
C. Beta testing

D. Ad-hoc testing
Q. 34: The purpose of exit criteria is
A. Define when to stop testing
B. End of test level
C. When a set of tests has achieved a specific pre condition
D. All of the above
Q. 35: The ____________ technique can be used to achieve input and
output coverage
A. Boundary value analysis
B. Equivalence partitioning
C. Decision table testing
D. State transition testing
Q. 36: The ____________ testing is performed at the developing
organizations site
A. Unit testing
B. Regression testing
C. Alpha testing
D. Integration testing
Q. 37: What is the main purpose of Informal review
A. Inexpensive way to get some benefit
B. Find defects
C. Learning, gaining understanding, effect finding
D. Discuss, make decisions, solve technical problems
Q. 38: Which is not a Component testing
A. Check the memory leaks
B. Check the robustness
C. Check the branch coverage
D. Check the decision tables
Q. 39: The software engineer's role in tool selection is
A. To identify, evaluate, and rank tools, and recommend tools to
management
B. To determine what kind of tool is needed, then find it and buy it
C. To initiate the tool search and present a case to management
D. To identify, evaluate and select the tools
Q. 40: Which is not the fundamental test process
A. Planning and control
B. Test closure activities
C. Analysis and design
D. None

Answers:
Q.1-B
Q.2-D
Q.3-A
Q.4-A
Q.5-B
Q.6-D
Q.7-E
Q.8-A
Q.9-B
Q.10-A
Q.11-D
Q.12-B
Q.13-C
Q.14-B
Q.15-C
Q.16-D
Q.17-A
Q.18-D
Q.19-A
Q.20-B
Q.21-C
Q.22-D
Q.23-A
Q.24-B
Q.25-A
Q.26-D
Q.27-D
Q.28-C
Q.29-C
Q.30-B
Q.31-C
Q.32-C
Q.33-A
Q.34-D
Q.35-B
Q.36-C
Q.37-A
Q.38-D
Q.39-A
Q.40-D
ISTQB Foundation Sample Question Paper No. 17

Q. 1: The
and
are used within individual workb
enches to produce the right output products.
A. Tools and techniques
B. Procedures and standards
C. Processes and walkthroughs
D. Reviews and update
Q. 2: Which is not the software characteristics
A. Reliability
B. Usability
C. Scalability
D. Maintainability
Q. 3: The principle of Cyclomatic complexity, considering L as edges
or links, N as nodes, P as independent paths
A. L-N +2P
B. N-L +2P
C. N-L +P
D. N-L +P
Q. 4: FPA is used to
A. To measure the functional requirements of the project
B. To measure the size of the functionality of an Information system
C. To measure the functional testing effort
D. To measure the functional flow
Q. 5: A
is the step-by-step method followed to ensure that
standards are met
A. SDLC
B. Project Plan
C. Policy
D. Procedure
Q. 6: Which is not a test Oracle
A. The existing system (For a bench mark)
B. The code
C. Individuals knowledge
D. User manual
Q. 7: PDCA is known as
A. Plan, Do, Check, Act
B. Plan, Do, Correct, Act
C. Plan, Debug, Check, Act
D. Plan, Do, Check, Accept
Q. 8: Which is the non-functional testing

A. Performance testing
B. Unit testing
C. Regression testing
D. Sanity testing
Q. 9: A Test Plan Outline contains which of the following:
i. Test Items
ii. Test Scripts
iii. Test Deliverables
iv. Responsibilities
A. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
B. i,iii,iv are true and ii is false
C. ii,iii are true and i and iv are false
D. i,ii are false and iii , iv are true
Q.
10: Testing where in we subject the target of the test , to varying w
orkloads to
measure and evaluate the performance behaviors andability of the t
arget and of the test to continue to function properly under these di
fferent workloads.
A. Load Testing
B. Integration Testing
C. System Testing
D. Usability Testing
Q. 11: Which of the following is the task of a Tester?
i. Interaction with the Test Tool Vendor to identify best ways to leve
rage test tool on the project.
ii. Prepare and acquire Test Data
iii. Implement Tests on all test levels, execute and log the tests.
iv. Create the Test Specifications
A. i, ii, iii is true and iv is false
B. ii,iii,iv is true and i is false
C. i is true and ii,iii,iv are false
D. iii and iv is correct and i and ii are incorrect
Q. 12: What can static analysis NOT find?
A. The use of a variable before it has been defined
B. Unreachable ("dead") code
C. Memory leaks
D. Array bound violations
Q. 13: White Box Techniques are also called as:
A. Structural Testing

B. Design Based Testin

C. Error Guessing Technique
D. Experience Based Technique
Q. 14: Reviewing the test Basis is a part of which phase
A. Test Analysis and Design
B. Test Implementation and execution
C. Test Closure Activities
D. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
Q. 15: Component Testing is also called as :i. Unit Testing
ii. Program Testing iii. Module Testing
iv. System Component Testing .
A. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
B. i,ii,iii,iv are false
C. i,ii,iv are true and iii is false
D. all of above is true
Q. 16: Which of the following is not a major task of Exit criteria?
A. Checking test logs against the exit criteria specified in test planning.
B. Logging the outcome of test execution.
C. Assessing if more tests are needed.
D. Writing a test summary report for stakeholders.
Q.
17:
Which of the following is true about Formal Review or Inspection:i. Led by Trained Moderator (not the author).
ii. No Pre Meeting Preparations
iii. Formal Follow up process.
iv. Main Objective is to find defects
A. ii is true and i,iii,iv are false
B. i,iii,iv are true and ii is false
C. i,iii,iv are false and ii is true
D. iii is true and I,ii,iv are false
Q.
18: The Phases of formal review process is mentioned below arrang
e them in the correct order.
i. Planning
ii. Review Meeting
iii. Rework
iv. Individual Preparations
v. Kick Off
vi. Follow Up

A.i,ii,iii,iv,v,vi
B.vi,i,ii,iii,iv,v
C.i,v,iv,ii,iii,vi
D.i,ii,iii,v,iv,vi
Q. 19: Testing activity which is performed to expose defects in the i
nterfaces and in the interaction between integrated components is :
A. System Level Testing
B. Integration Level Testing
C. Unit Level Testing
D. Component Testing
Q.
20: Methodologies adopted while performing Maintenance Testing:A. Breadth Test and Depth Test
B. Re-testing
C. Confirmation Testing
D. Sanity Testing
Q.
21: The Switch is switched off once the temperature falls below 18 a
nd then it is turned on when the temperature is more than 21. Whe
nthe temperature is more than
21. Identify the Equivalance values which belong to the same class.
A. 12,16,22
B. 24,27,17
C. 22,23,24
D. 14,15,19
Q. 22: What is an equivalence partition (also known as an equivalen
ce class)?
A. A set of test cases for testing classes of objects
B. An input or output range of values such that only one value in the range b
ecomes a test case
C. An input or output range of values such that each value in the range beco
mes a test case
D. An input or output range of values such that every tenth value in the rang
e becomes a test case.
Q. 23: Which of the following is not a part of the Test Implementatio
n and Execution
Phase
A. Creating test suites from the test cases
B. Executing test cases either manually or by using test execution tools

C. Comparing actual results

D. Designing the Tests
Q. 24: Link Testing is also called as :
A. Component Integration testing
B. Component System Testing
C. Component Sub System Testing
D. Maintenance testing
Q. 25: Who are the persons involved in a Formal Review :i. Manager
ii. Moderator
iii. Scribe / Recorder iv. Assistant Manager
A. i,ii,iii,iv are true
B. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false. C. ii,iii,iv are true and i is false.
D. i,iv are true and ii, iii are false.
Q.
26: Which of the following statements regarding static testing is fal
se:
A. Static testing requires the running of tests through the code
B. Static testing includes desk checking
C. Static testing includes techniques such as reviews and inspections
D. Static testing can give measurements such as cyclomatic complexity
Q. 27: Designing the test environment setup and identifying any required infrastructure and tools are a part o
f which phase
A. Test Implementation and execution
B. Test Analysis and Design
C. Evaluating the Exit Criteria and reporting
D. Test Closure Activities
Q.
28: A Type of functional Testing, which investigates the functions re
lating to detection of threats, such as virus from maliciousoutsiders
.
A. Security Testing
B. Recovery Testing
C. Performance Testing
D. Functionality Testing
Q.
29: A Person who documents all the issues, problems and open poin
ts that were identified during a formal review.

A. Moderator.
B. Scribe
C. Author
D. Manager
Q. 30: The Test Cases Derived from use cases
A. Are most useful in uncovering defects in the process flows during real worl
d use of the system
B. Are most useful in uncovering defects in the process flows during the testi
ng use of the system
C. Are most
useful in covering the defects in the process flows during real world use of th
e system
D. Are most useful in covering the defects at the Integration Level
Q.
31: One of the fields on a form contains a text box which accepts al
pha numeric values. Identify the Valid Equivalence class
A. BOOK
B. Book
C. Boo01k
D. book
Q. 32: In an
Examination a candidate has to score minimum of 24 marks in
order to clear the exam. The maximum that he can score is 40marks
. Identify the Valid Equivalence values if the student clears the exa
m.
A. 22,23,26
B. 21,39,40
C. 29,30,31
D. 0,15,22
Q. 33: Verification involves which of the following :i. Helps to check the Quality of the built product
ii. Helps to check that we have built the right product.
iii. Helps in developing the product
iv. Monitoring tool wastage and obsoleteness.
A. Options i,ii,iii,iv are true.
B. i is true and ii,iii,iv are false
C. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
D. ii is true and i,iii,iv are false.
Q. 34: A Project risk includes which of the following :
A. Organizational Factors

B. Poor Software characteristics

C. Error Prone software delivered.
D. Software that does not perform its intended functions
Q. 35: Which of the following is a
Key Characteristics of Walk Through
A. Scenario , Dry Run , Peer Group
B. Pre Meeting Preparations
C. Formal Follow Up Process
D. Includes Metrics
Q.
36: Which of the following techniques is NOT a White box technique
?
A. Statement Testing and coverage
B. Decision Testing and coverage
C. Condition Coverage
D. Boundary value analysis
Q. 37: Reporting Discrepancies as incidents is a part of which phase
:A. Test Analysis and Design
B. Test Implementation and execution
C. Test Closure Activities
D. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
Q. 38: In a risk-based approach the risks identified may be used to :
i. Determine the test technique to be employed
ii. Determine the extent of testing to be carried out
iii. Prioritize testing in an attempt to find critical defects as early as
possible.
iv. Determine the cost of the project
A. ii is True; i, iii, iv & v are False
B. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
C. ii & iii are True; i, iv are False
D. ii, iii & iv are True; i is false
Q. 39: Incidents would not be raised against:
A. Requirements
B. Documentation
C. Test cases
D. Improvements suggested by users
Q. 40: The Planning phase of a formal review includes the following
:-

A. Explaining the objectives

B. Selecting the personnel, allocating roles.
C. Follow up
D. Individual Meeting preparations
Answers:
Q.1-B
Q.2-C
Q.3-A
Q.4-B
Q.5-D
Q.6-B
Q.7-A
Q.8-A
Q.9-B
Q.10-A
Q.11-B
Q.12-C
Q.13-A
Q.14-A
Q.15-A
Q.16-B
Q.17-B
Q.18-C
Q.19-B
Q.20-A
Q.21-C
Q.22-B
Q.23-D
Q.24-A
Q.25-B
Q.26-A
Q.27-B
Q.28-A
Q.29-B
Q.30-A
Q.31-C
Q.32-C
Q.33-B
Q.34-A
Q.35-A
Q.36-D
Q.37-B
Q.38-B
Q.39-D
Q.40-B

ISTQB Foundation Sample Question Paper No. 18

Q. 1: Test Implementation and execution has which of the following
major tasks?
i. Developing and prioritizing test cases, creating test data, writing
test procedures and optionally preparing the test harnesses andwrit
ing automated test scripts.
ii. Creating the test suite from the test cases for efficient test
execution.
iii. Verifying that the test environment has been set up correctly.
iv. Determining the exit criteria.
A. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
B. i,,iv are true and ii is false
C. i,ii are true and iii,iv are false
D. ii,iii,iv are true and i is false
Q. 2: One of the fields on a form contains a text box which accepts n
umeric values in the range of 18 to 25. Identify the invalid Equivala
nceclass
A. 17
B. 19
C. 24
D. 21
Q. 3: Exhaustive Testing is
A. Is impractical but possible
B. Is practically possible
C. Is impractical and impossible
D. Is always possible
Q. 4: Hand over of Testware is a part of which Phase
A. Test Analysis and Design
B. Test Planning and control
C. Test Closure Activities
D. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
Q. 5: Which one is not comes under international standard
A. IEC
B. IEEE

C. ISO
D. All of the above
Q. 6: In which phase static tests are used
A. Requirements
B. Design
C. Coding
D. All of the above
Q. 7: What's the disadvantage of Black Box Testing
A.
Chances of having repetition of tests that are already done by programmer.
B. The test inputs needs to be from large sample space.
C. It is difficult to identify
all possible inputs in limited testing time. So writing test cases is
slow and difficult
D. All above
Q. 8: Static analysis tools are typically used by
A. Testers
B. Developers
C. Testers & Developers
D. None
Q. 9: Majority of system errors occur in the
A. Requirements Phase.
B. Analysis and Design Phase
C. Development Phase
D. Testing Phase

phase

Q. 10: The specification which describes steps required to operate t

he system and exercise test cases in order to implement theassocia
ted test design
A. Test Case Specification
B. Test Design Specification
C. Test Procedure Specification
D. None
Q. 11: How much percentage of the life cycle costs of a software are
spent on maintenance.
A. 10%
B. 30%
C. 50%
D. 70%

Q. 12: When a defect is detected and fixed then the software should
be retested to confirm that the original defect
has been successfullyremoved. This is called
A. Regression testing
B. Maintenance testing
C. Confirmation testing
D. None of the above
Q. 13: Equivalence testing divides the input domain into classes of
data from which test cases can be derived to reduce the total numb
erof test cases that must be developed.
A. True
B. False
Q. 14: When to stop Testing?
A. Stop when scheduled time for testing expires
B. Stop if 75% of the pre-defined number of errors is detected.
C. Stop when all the test cases execute with detecting few errors.
D. None above
Q. 15: With thorough testing it is possible to remove all defects fro
m a program prior to delivery to the customer.
A. True
B. False
Q. 16: Structure is unknown for which type of development project
A. Traditional system development
B. Iterative development
C. System maintenance
D. Purchased/contracted software
Q. 17:
indicates how important it is to fix the bug and wh
en it should be fixed
A. Severity
B. Priority
C. All of the above
D. None of the above
Q. 18: The person who leads the review of the document(s), plannin
g the review,running the meeting and follow-up after themeeting
A. Reviewer
B. Author
C. Moderator
D. Auditor

Q. 19: Performs sufficient testing to evaluate every possible path an

d condition in the application system. The only test
method thatguarantees the proper functioning of the application sy
stem is called as
A. Regression Testing
B. Exhaustive Testing
C. Basic Path Testing
D. Branch Testing
Q. 20: Quality Assurance is the process by which product quality is c
ompared with the application standards and the action taken whenn
onconformance is detected.
A. True
B. False
Q. 21: A formal assessment of a work product conducted by one or
more qualified independent reviewer to detect defects.
A. Inspection.
B. Walkthrough.
C. Review
D. Non Conformance
Q. 22: Test Case are grouped into Manageable (and scheduled) units
are called as
A. Test Harness
B. Test Suite
C. Test Cycle
D. Test Driver
Q. 23: Configuration and compatibility testing are typically good cho
ices for outsourcing
A. True
B. False
Q. 24: What type of tools to be used for Regression Testing
A. Performance
B. Record/Playback
C. A. & B.
D. None
Q. 25: System Integration testing should be done after
A. Integration testing
B. System testing
C. Unit testing
D. Component integration testing

Q.
26: During this event the entire system is tested to verify that all fu
nctional information structural and quality requirements have been
met. A predetermined combination of tests is designed that when e
xecuted
successfully satisfy management that the system meetsspecificatio
ns
A. Validation Testing
B. Integration Testing
C. User Acceptance Testing
D. System Testing
Q.
27: What is the normal order of activities in which software testing i
s organized?
A. Unit, integration, system, validation
B. System, integration, unit, validation
C. Unit, integration, validation, system
D. None of the above
Q.
28: The goal of a software tester is to find bugs, find them as early
as possible and make sure they get fixed.
A. True
B. False
Q. 29: Beta testing is performed at developing organization's site w
here as Alpha testing is performed by people at their own locations.
A. True
B. False
Q. 30: The principal attributes of tools and automation are
A. Speed & efficiency
B. Accuracy & precision
C. All of the above
D. None of the above
Q. 31: In
testing doesn't
know anything about the sofware being tested; it just clicks or type
s randomly.
A. Random testing
B. Gorilla testing
C. Adhoc testing
D. Dumb monkey testing

Q. 32: A
series of probing questions about the completeness and attributes
of an application system is called
A. Checklist
B. Checkpoint review
C. Decision table
D. Decision tree
Q.
33: The testing technique that requires devising test cases to demo
nstrate that each program function is operational is called
A. Black-box testing
B. Glass-box testing
C. Grey-box testing
D. White-box testing
Q. 34: A
white box testing technique that measures the number of or percen
tage of decision directions executed by the test case designedis call
ed
A. Condition coverage
B. Decision/Condition coverage
C. Decision Coverage
D. Branch coverage
Q.
35: Which summarizes the testing activities associated with one or
more test design specifications.
A. Test Summary report
B. Test Log
C. Test Incident Report
D. Test Script
Q. 36: Testing without a real plan and test cases is called --A. Gorilla testing
B. Monkey testing
C. Adhoc testing
D. All of the above
Q. 37: Which rule should not be followed for reviews
A. Defects and issues are identified and corrected
B. The product is reviewed not the producer
C. All members of the reviewing team are responsible for the result of the re
view
D. Each review has a clear predefined objective

Q.
38: Verification can be termed as 'Are we building the product right
?"
A. True
B. False
Q.
39: Which testing is used to verify that the system can perform pro
perly when internal program or system limitations have beenexceed
ed
A. Stress Testing
B. Load Testing
C. Performance Testing
D. Volume testing
Q. 40: Defects are recorded into three major purposes. They are:
1.To correct the defect
2.To report status of the application
3.To improve the software development process
A. True
B. False
Answers:
Q.1-A
Q.2-A
Q.3-A
Q.4-C
Q.5-B
Q.6-D
Q.7-D
Q.8-B
Q.9-A
Q.10-C
Q.11-D
Q.12-C
Q.13-A
Q.14-A
Q.15-B
Q.16-D
Q.17-C
Q.18-C
Q.19-C
Q.20-A
Q.21-A
Q.22-B
Q.23-A

Q.24-B
Q.25-C
Q.26-C
Q.27-A
Q.28-A
Q.29-B
Q.30-C
Q.31-D
Q.32-A
Q.33-C
Q.34-B
Q.35-C
Q.36-D
Q.37-C
Q.38-A
Q.39-A
Q.40-A
ISTQB Foundation Sample Question Paper No. 19
Q. 1: Drivers are tools used to control and operate the software bei
ng tested.
A. True
B. False
Q. 2: Typical defects discovered by static analysis includes
A. Programming standard violations
B. Referring a variable with an undefined value
C. Security vulnerabilities
D. All Above
Q. 3: EULA stands for
A. End Usability License Agreement
B. End User License Agreement
C. End User License Arrangement
D. End User License Attachment
Q. 4:
is a very early build intended for limited distributio
n to a few key customers and to marketing for demonstrationpurpos
es.
A. Alpha release
B. Beta release
C. Test release document
D. Build

Q. 5: CAST stands for

A. Computer Aided Software Testing
B. Computer Aided Software Tools
C. Computer Analysis Software Techniques
D. None
Q. 6: The tool modifies the program code or manipulates the operati
ng environment in any way is considered non-invasive
A. True
B. False
Q. 7: Which test may not mimic real world situations
A. Functional testing
B. Structural Testing
C. All of the above
D. None of the above
Q. 8:
includes both Black box and
White Box Testing features
A. Gray Box Testing
B. Hybrid Testing
C. A. & B.
D. None
Q. 9: Exhaustive testing is possible
A. True
B. False
Q. 10: Tool which stores requirement statements, check for consiste
ncy and allow
requirements to be prioritized and enable individualtests to be trac
eable to requirements, functions and features.
A. Incident management tools
B. Requirements management tools
C. Configuration management tools
D. None
Q. 11: The number of tests to test all control statements equals the
cyclomatic complexity
A. True
B. False
Q. 12: Boundary value analysis can only be used during white-box
testing.
A. True

B. False
Q. 13: Which of these are objectives for software testing?
A. Determine the productivity of programmers
B. Eliminate the need for future program maintenance
C. Eliminate every error prior to release
D. Uncover software errors
Q. 14: Failure is
A. Incorrect program behaviour due to a fault in the program
B. Bug found before product Release
C. Bug found after product Release
D. Bug found during Design phase
Q. 15: During the software development process, at what point can
the test process start?
A. When the code is complete.
B. When the design is complete.
C. When the software requirements have been approved.
D. When the first code module is ready for unit testing
Q. 16: "How much testing is enough?"
A. This question is impossible to answer
B. This question is easy to answer
C. The answer depends on the risk for your industry, contract and
special requirements
D. This answer depends on the maturity of your developers
Q. 17: Which of the following tools would be involved in the automa
tion of regression test?
A. Data tester
B. Boundary tester
C. Capture/Playback
D. Output comparator.
Q. 18: Incorrect form of Logic coverage is:
A. Statement Coverage
B. Pole Coverage
C. Condition Coverage
D. Path Coverage
Q. 19: Code Coverage is used as a measure of what?
A. Defects
B. Trends analysis
C. Test Effectiveness
D. Time Spent Testing

Q. 20: Fault Masking is

A. Error condition hiding another error condition
B. Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault
C. Masking a fault by developer
D. Masking a fault by a tester
Q.
21: Which of the following is not a quality characteristic listed in IS
O 9126
Standard?
A. Functionality
B. Usability
C. Supportability
D. Maintainability
Q. 22: One Key
reason why developers have difficulty testing their own work is :
A. Lack of technical documentation
B. Lack of test tools on the market for developers
C. Lack of training
D. Lack of Objectivity
Q. 23: Statement Coverage will not check for the following.
A. Missing Statements
B. Unused Branches
C. Dead Code
D. Unused Statement
Q. 24: Given the Following program
IF X <>= Z
THEN Statement 2;
END
McCabes Cyclomatic Complexity is :
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Q.
25: To test a function, the programmer has to write a
which calls the function to be tested and passes it test data.
A. Stub
B. Driver
C. Proxy

D. None of the above

Q. 26: Pick the best definition of quality
A. Quality is job one
B. Zero defects
C. Conformance to requirements
D. Work as designed
Q. 27: Boundary value testing
A. Is the same as equivalence partitioning tests
B. Test boundary conditions on, below and
above the edges of input and output equivalence classes
C. Tests combinations of input circumstances
D. Is used in white box testing strategy
Q. 28: An input field takes the year of birth between 1900 and 2004
The boundary values for testing this field are
A. 0,1900,2004,2005
B. 1900, 2004
C. 1899,1900,2004,2005
D. 1899, 1900, 1901,2003,2004,2005
Q.
29: How many test cases are necessary to cover all the possible seq
uences of statements (paths) for the following program fragment?
Assume that the two conditions are independent of each other:
if (Condition 1) then statement 1 else statement 2 fi
if (Condition 2)
then statement 3 fi
A. 2 Test Cases
B. 3 Test Cases
C. 4 Test Cases
D. Not achievable
Q. 30: A common test technique during component test is
A. Statement and branch testing
B. Usability testing
C. Security testing
D. Performance testing
Q. 31: In a review meeting a moderator is a person who
A. Takes minutes of the meeting
B. Mediates between people

C. Takes telephone calls

D. Writes the documents to be reviewed
Q. 32: Acceptance test cases are based on what?
A. Requirements
B. Design
C. Code
D. Decision table
Q.
33: Which one of the following are nonfunctional testing methods?
A. System testing
B. Usability testing
C. Performance testing
D. Both B & C
Q. 34: Independent Verification & Validation is
A. Done by the Developer
B. Done by the Test Engineers
C. Done By Management
D. Done by an Entity Outside the Projects sphere of influence
Q. 35: Defect Management process does not include
A. Defect prevention
B. Deliverable base-lining
C. Management reporting
D. None of the above
Q. 36: Which of the following could be a reason for a failure
1) Testing fault
2) Software fault
3) Design fault
4) Environment Fault
5) Documentation Fault
A. 2 is a valid reason; 1,3,4 & 5 are not
B. 1,2,3,4 are valid reasons; 5 is not
C. 1,2,3 are valid reasons; 4 & 5 are not
D. All of them are valid reasons for failure
Q. 37: Test are prioritized so that:
A. You shorten the time required for testing
B. You do the best testing in the time available
C. You do more effective testing
D. You find more faults

Q. 38: When a new testing tool is purchased, it should be used first

by:
A. A small team to establish the best way to use the tool
B. Everyone who may eventually have some use for the tool
C. The independent testing team
D. The vendor contractor to write the initial scripts
Q.39: During which test activity could faults be found most cost effe
ctively?
A. Execution
B. Design
C. Planning
D. Check Exit criteria completion
Q.40: What is the difference between testing software developed by
contractor outside your country, versus testing software developed
by a contractor within your country?
A. Does not meet people needs
B. Cultural difference
C. Loss of control over reallocation of resources
D. Relinquishment of control
Answers:
Q.1-A
Q.2-C
Q.3-B
Q.4-B
Q.5-A
Q.6-B
Q.7-B
Q.8-A
Q.9-B
Q.10-B
Q.11-A
Q.12-B
Q.13-D
Q.14-A
Q.15-C
Q.16-C
Q.17-C
Q.18-B
Q.19-C
Q.20-A
Q.21-C
Q.22-D
Q.23-A

Q.24-B
Q.25-B
Q.26-C
Q.27-B
Q.28-C
Q.29-C
Q.30-A
Q.31-B
Q.32-A
Q.33-D
Q.34-D
Q.35-B
Q.36-D
Q.37-B
Q.38-A
Q.39-C
Q.40-B
ISTQB Foundation Sample Question Paper No. 20
Q. 1: The inputs for developing a test plan are taken from
A. Project plan
B. Business plan
C. Support plan
D. None of the above
Q. 2: To test a function, the programmer has to write a
hich calls the function and passes it the test data.
A. Stub B. Driver C. Proxy
D. None of the above

,w

Q. 3: Which of the following is not a static testing technique

A. Error guessing
B. Walkthrough
C. Data flow analysis
D. Inspections
Q. 4: Which of the following statements about component testing is
not true?
A. Component testing should be performed by development
B. Component testing is also known as isolation or module testing
C. Component testing should have completion criteria planned
D. Component testing does not involve regression testing
Q. 5: Inspections can find all the following except

A. Variables not defined in the code

B. Spelling and grammar faults in the documents
C. Requirements that have been omitted from the design documents
D. How much of the code has been covered
Q. 6: Which of the following is not a characteristic for Testability?
A. Operability
B. Observability
C. Simplicity
D. Robustness
Q. 7: Software testing accounts to what percent of software develop
ment costs?
A. 10-20
B. 40-50
C. 70-80
D. 5-10
Q. 8: Equivalence partitioning is:
A. A black box testing technique used only by developers
B.
A black box testing technique than can only be used during system testing
C. A black box testing technique appropriate to all levels of testing
D. A white box testing technique appropriate for component testing
Q. 9: If an expected result is not specified then:
A. We cannot run the test
B. It may be difficult to repeat the test
C. It may be difficult to determine if the test has passed or failed
D. We cannot automate the user inputs
Q. 10: How much testing is enough
A. This question is impossible to answer
B. The answer depends on the risks for your industry, contract and special re
quirements
C. The answer depends on the maturity of your developers
D. The answer should be standardized for the software development industry
Q. 11: The purpose of requirement phase is
A. To freeze requirements
B. To understand user needs
C. To define the scope of testing
D. All of the above
Q. 12: Which of these can be successfully tested using Loop Testing
methodology?

A. Simple Loops
B. Nested Loops
C. Concatenated Loops
D. All of the above
Q. 13: Cyclomatic Complexity method comes under which testing me
thod.
A. White box
B. Black box
C. Green box
D. Yellow box
Q. 14: A reliable system will be one that:
A. Is unlikely to be completed on schedule
B. Is unlikely to cause a failure
C. Is likely to be fault-free
D. Is likely to be liked by the users
Q. 15: Which, in general, is the least required skill of a good tester?
A. Being diplomatic
B. Able to write software
C. Having good attention to detail
D. Able to be relied on
Q. 16: A regression test:
A. Will always be automated
B. Will help ensure unchanged areas of the software have not been affected
C. Will help ensure changed areas of the software have not been affected
D. Can only be run during user acceptance testing
Q. 17: Function/Test matrix is a type of
A. Interim Test report
B. Final test report
C. Project status report
D. Management report
Q. 18: The process starting with the terminal modules is called:
A. Top-down integration
B. Bottom-up integration
C. None of the above
D. Module integration
Q. 19: Verification is:
A. Checking that we are building the right system
B. Checking that we are building the system right
C. Performed by an independent test team

D. Making sure that it is what the user really wants

Q. 20: The difference between re-testing and regression testing is
A. Re-testing is running a test again; regression testing looks for unexpected
side effects
B. Re-testing looks for unexpected
side effects; regression testing is repeating those tests
C. Re-testing is done after faults are fixed; regression testing is done earlier
D. Re-testing uses different environments, regression testing uses the same
environment
E. Re-testing is done by developers, regression testing is done by
independent testers
Q. 21: Testing should be stopped when:
A. All the planned tests have been run
B. Time has run out
C. All faults have been fixed correctly
D. Both A. and C.
E. I depends on the risks for the system being tested
Q. 22: Which of the following is the main purpose of the integration
strategy for integration testing in the small?
A. To ensure that all of the small modules are tested adequately
B. To ensure that the system interfaces to other systems and networks
C. To specify which modules to combine when and how many at once
D. To ensure that the integration testing can be performed by a small team
E. To specify how the software should be divided into modules
Q.223: Which of the following is NOT part of configuration managem
ent:
A. Status accounting of configuration items
B. Auditing conformance to ISO9001
C. Identification of test versions
D. Record of changes to documentation over time
E. controlled library access
Q. 24:Regression testing should be performed:
v) Every week
w) After the software has changed
x) As often as possible
y) When the environment has changed
z) Wwhen the project manager says

A. v & w are true, x z are false

B. w, x & y are true, v & z are false
C. w & y are true, v, x & z are false
D. w is true, v, x y and z are false
E. All of the above are true
Q. 25: A tool that supports traceability, recording of incidents or sch
eduling of tests is called:
A. A dynamic analysis tool
B. A test execution tool
C. A debugging tool
D. A test management tool
E. A configuration management tool
Q. 26: The cost of fixing a fault:
A. Is not important
B. Increases as we move the product towards live use
C. Decreases as we move the product towards live use
D. Is more expensive if found in requirements than functional design
E. Can never be determined
Q. 27: Order numbers on a stock control system can range between
10000 and 99999 inclusive. Which of the following inputs might be a
result of designing tests for only valid equivalence classes and valid
boundaries:
A. 1000, 5000, 99999
B. 9999, 50000, 100000
C. 10000, 50000, 99999
D. 10000, 99999
E. 9999, 10000, 50000, 99999, 10000
Q. 28: When what is visible to end-users is a deviation from the
specific or expected behavior, this is called:
A. An error
B. A fault
C. A failure
D. A defect
E. A mistake
Q. 29: Which expression best
matches the following characteristics or review processes:
1. Led by author
2. Undocumented
3. No management participation
4. Led by a trained moderator or leader

5. Uses entry exit criteria

s) Inspection
t) Peer review
u) Informal review
v) Walkthrough
A. s = 4, t = 3, u = 2 and 5, v = 1
B. s = 4 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 1
C. s = 1 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 4
D. s = 5, t = 4, u = 3, v = 1 and 2
E. s = 4 and 5, t = 1, u = 2, v = 3
Q. 30: Given the following:
Switch PC on
Start "outlook"
IF outlook appears THEN Send an email
Close outlook
A. 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage
B. 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
C. 1 test for statement coverage. 3 for branch coverage
D. 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
E. 2 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
Q. 31: Test managers should not:
A. Report on deviations from the project plan
B. Sign the system off for release
C. Re-allocate resource to meet original plans
D. Rise incidents on faults that they have found
E. Provide information for risk analysis and quality improvement
Q. 32: Which of the following is NOT part of system testing:
A. Business process-based testing
B. Performance, load and stress testing
C. Requirements-based testing
D. Usability testing
E. Top-down integration testing
Q. 33: When a new testing tool is purchased, it should be used first
by:
A. A small team to establish the best way to use the tool
B. Everyone who may eventually have some use for the tool
C. The independent testing team
D. The managers to see what projects it should be used in
E. The vendor contractor to write the initial scripts

Q. 34: Which of the following is not part of performance testing:

A. Measuring response time
B. Measuring transaction rates
C. Recovery testing
D. Simulating many users
E. Generating many transactions
Q. 35: What is the purpose of test completion criteria in a test plan:
A. To know when a specific test has finished its execution
B. To ensure that the test case specification is complete
C. To set the criteria used in generating test inputs
D. To know when test planning is complete
E. To plan when to stop testing
Q. 36: Given the following code, which is true:
IF A > B THEN C = A B
ELSE
C = A + B ENDIF Read D
IF C = D Then Print "Error" ENDIF
A. 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
B. 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
C. 2 tests for statement coverage. 3 for branch coverage
D. 3 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
E. 3 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
Q. 37: Unreachable code would best be found using:
A. Code reviews
B. Code inspections
C. A coverage tool
D. A test management tool
E. A static analysis tool
Q. 38: What information need not be included in a test incident repo
rt:
A. How to fix the fault
B. How to reproduce the fault
C. Test environment details
D. Severity, priority
E. The actual and expected outcomes
Q. 39: Which of the following is NOT included in the Test Plan docu
ment of the Test

Documentation Standard:
A. Test items (i.e. software versions)
B. What is not to be tested
C. Test environments
D. Quality plans
E. Schedules and deadlines
Q. 40: IEEE 829 test plan documentation standard contains all of the
following except:
A. Test items
B. Test deliverables
C. Test tasks
D. Test environment
E. Test specification
Answers:
Q.1-A
Q.2-B
Q.3-A
Q.4-D
Q.5-D
Q.6-D
Q.7-B
Q.8-C
Q.9-C
Q.10-B
Q.11-D
Q.12-D
Q.13-A
Q.14-B
Q.15-B
Q.16-B
Q.17-C
Q.18-B
Q.19-B
Q.20-A
Q.21-E
Q.22-C
Q.23-B
Q.24-C
Q.25-E
Q.26-B
Q.27-C
Q.28-C
Q.29-B
Q.30-B

Q.31-C
Q.32-E
Q.33-A
Q.34-C
Q.35-E
Q.36-B
Q.37-A
Q.38-A
Q.39-D
Q.40-E