PHYSICAL AND OCCUPATIONAL THERAPY LICENSURE EXAMINATION

ANATOMY, PHYSIOLOGY AND KINESIOLOGY

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The following statements characterize, fibromyalgia syndrome, EXCEPT:

a. Frequently misdiagnosed and confused with myofascial pain syndrome, polymyositis, juvenile rheumatoid arthritis or systemic
lupus erythematosus.
b. A chronic pain disorder of unknown etiology.
c. There are widespread musculoskeletal aches and pains, stiffness and general fatigue.
d. A non-rheumatic disorder.
e. Median age of onset is from 29 to 37 years and medical presentation is 34 to 53 years.
The following statements describe the wrist: EXCEPT:
a. In abduction, the scaphoid, lunate, and triquetrium shift medially.
b. The scaphoid, lunate, and triquetrium shift laterally in adduction.
c. Due to reinforcement provided by fibers, the corpus is forced to move with the radius as a unit during pronation-supination.
d. Because the joint is ellipsoidal, movements can occur only in the three axes of the ellipse.
e. It can be flexed, extended, abducted or adducted.
The primary deficit that CVA patient must learn to compensate to be able to return to driving is
a. Dysarthria
d. hemianopsia
b. Homophobia
e. agraphia
c. Expressive aphasia
A polypropylene fixed or solid ankle-foot orthosis (AFO) is commonly prescribed to correct an equines gait pattern in children with
spastic cerebral palsy. The following statements described this AFO, EXCEPT:
a. Solid AFO covers the entire posterior calf and mediolateral borders and sole of the foot.
b. Rationale of use is based on the inhibitive or tone-reducing cast.
c. Reduces excessive ankle plantar flexion during stance.
d. There are straps across the anterior upper tibia and front of the ankle
e. It biomechanically controls the ankle by using a three-force system
Almost the whole of the broad sacral plexus narrows down to form a huge branch called:
a. Saphenous nerve
d. genitofemoral nerve
b. Sciatic nerve
e. obturator nerve
c. Femoral nerve
The angle formed by the tendons of the quadriceps and ligamentum patella with the center of the patella.
a. Genu Valgum
d. Q Angle
b. P Angle
e. Genu Varum
c. Genu Recurvatum
The following characterizes straight lateral knee instability, EXCEPT:
a. In isolated injury, the foot is fixed to the surfaces, with the knee in slight flexion
b. Structures involved include the lateral collateral ligament and the middle third of the lateral capsule.
c. A lateral force contacts the medial aspect of the knee
d. Involved structures include the medial collateral ligament and middle third of the medial capsule
e. Many of these lesions do not occur as isolated injuries.
The muscle length at which the maximum tension is attained.
a. Ascending limb
d. sacromere length-tension relationship
b. Plateau region
e. descending limb
c. Optimal length
The most appropriate position to test the strength of a patients middle trapezius is
a. Sitting unsupported
d. sitting supported
b. Prone
e. side lying
c. supine
When applied, second class levers can be levers
a. Of stability and speed
b. That work at a mechanical advantage
c. That operate at a mechanical disadvantage but on of speed.
d. That operate a mechanical disadvantage but one of stability
e. Of stability only.
The following can improve documentation, EXCEPT:
a. Properly sign any entries entered on the chart with the caregivers PRC license number and expiration date.
b. Writing must be legible and entries must be timely.
c. Record significant information about the clients conditions, progress or response to treatment
d. Use objective statements and provide continuity with status notes
e. Your own abbreviation may be used so long as you inform the facility
Skeletal muscles are called to perform different series of tasks and accomplish its task in the following manner, EXCEPT:
a. With a series of twitches
b. May produce a variety of time-varying forces between an impulsive force and titanic contraction.
c. May produce an impulsive force
d. May produce a steady titanic contraction.
Which of the following are TRUE of the palmar aponeurosis?
I.
The Palmaris Longus inserts into this triangular fibrous sheet that occupies the palm of the hand.
II.
It protects underlying structures and prevents the palm of the hand from being readily pinched.
III. The aponeurosis is present only when the Palmaris Longus is present.
IV. Allow the palm of the hand to be readily pinched.
V. The aponeurosis is present even when the Palmaris Longus is absent.
a. I, III and IV
d. I, II and V
b. II and V only
e. II, III and IV
c. I, and II only
The stability of the shoulder joint principally depends on:
a. Capsule
c. Muscles
b. Bony configuration
d. ligaments
The following are part of the extrapyramidal system, EXCEPT:
a. Cerebellospinal tract
c. reticulospinal tract
b. Vestibulospinal tract
d. corticospinal tract
Down syndrome exhibit various types of motor impairment that are as follows: EXCEPT:
a. Utilize different strategies to control their movements.
b. Movements are clumsy, i. e. slow and low efficacy.
c. Shorter reaction times.
d. Displays atypical sequences of motor development.
e. Delays in motor performance at a very young age.
The pulmonary artery leaves the heart via
a. Left aoristic
d. Right ventricle
b. It enters the heart
e. right auricle

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c. Left ventricle
18. Sends impulses to inhibitory interneurons to relax antagonist muscles.
a. Spindle
d. Golgi tendon organs
b. Annulospiral endings
e. Flower spray endings
c. Motor impulses
19. Stores and releases calcium ions during the contractile process
a. Myofilament
d. sarcoplasmic reticulum
b. Tubules
e. actin
c. myosin
20. A combination of the four primary movements in which each succeed one another.
a. Lateral rotation in the horizontal or transverse plane
b. Rotation in the sagittal plane
c. Adduction in the coronal or frontal plane
d. Circumduction
e. Medial rotation in the coronal plane
21. The following statements describe total contact casting, EXCEPT:
a. Promotes ulcer healing by increasing the weight bearing surface area and allow patient to remain ambulatory.
b. Are snug-fitting, below knee casts that protect insensitive limbs from repetitive trauma
c. Contraindicated for superficial plantar ulcers in the presence of decreased or absent sensation.
d. Is an effective therapy for healing chronic neuropathic plantar ulcers in individuals with chronic sensory neuropathies?
e. Contraindicated in deep foot ulcers where abscesses, osteomyelitis or similar deep infection or gangrene is present.
22. Which of the following statements is true of the Levator Palpebrae Superioris?
a. None of these
b. It is the highest muscles of the orbital cavity which raises the upper eyelid
c. All of these
d. The margins of the muscle in front are fixed to the medial and lateral sides of the orbital cavity to safeguard against the muscle
pulling the upper lid into the orbital cavity.
23. Skeletal muscles store just enough ATP to provide chemical energy for:
a. At lest 1 min. continuous contractions.
d. Minimum five strong muscles contractions.
b. At least 15 sec. continuous contractions
e. At most three strong muscle contractions.
c. At least 30 sec. continuous contractions
24. A therapist is treating a CVA patient with apraxia. All of the following techniques are commonly used to treat apraxia, EXCEPT:
a. Repetition of tasks may be necessary
b. The therapist should speak slowly and directly to the patient
c. Multiple step commands should be used for activities of daily living
d. A new task should be broken down into smaller components
25. A therapist is treating a patient with a dorsal scapular nerve injury. Which muscles would you expect to be most affected by this
condition?
a. Supraspinatus and infraspinatus
d. Serratus posterior and latissimus dorsi
b. Latissimus dorsi and teres motor
e. levator scapulae and rhomboids
c. Serratus anterior and pectoralis minor
26. Which of the following statements is true of the Radial Artery?
a. All of these
b. It runs down the lateral side of the front of the forearm supplying muscles along its course
c. It is principally concerned with supplying blood to the thumb and index finger, and in the formation of the deep-palmar arch
d. It reaches the wrist at the base of the thumb where its pulsation is readily felt
27. This structure is a modified skin that lines not only the inner surfaces of the lids but is also reflected on to the eyeball.
a. Cones
d. Lacrima
b. Canaliculus
e. Conjunctiva
c. Tarsal Gland
28. These muscles make up the thenar eminence.
a. Flexor Pollicis Brevis, Flexor Pollicis Longus and Opponens Pollicis
b. Abductor Pollicis Brevis, Flexor Pollicis Longus and Abductor Pollicis Longus
c. Abductor Pollicis Brevis, Abductor Pollicis Longus, and Opponens Pollicis
d. Abductor Pollicis Brevis, Opponens Pollicis and Flexor Pollicis Brevis
e. Flexor Pollicis Longus, Opponens Pollicis and Abductor Pollicis Longus
29. The muscles of mastication are composed of the following, EXCEPT:
a. Temporalis
d. Lateral Pterygoid
b. Digastric
e. Masseter
c. Medial pterygoid
30. The entire flexor pronator can be surgically removed from its common origin and transferred proximally onto the humerus to substitute
for a weak or absent:
a. Triceps
d. Coracobrachialis
b. Biceps muscle
e. Brachialis
c. Brachioradialis
31. During muscle contraction, they slide towards each other.
a. A-band
d. Z-discs
b. H-zone
e. Actin
c. Myosin
32. These fibers bring neurons of one part of the cortex of a hemisphere into communication with those of another part of the same
hemisphere.
a. Projection
d. Extrapyramidal
b. Association
e. Commissural
c. Assimilation
33. A therapist positions a patient in prone to measure knee flexion. Range of motion may be limited in this position due to
a. Passive insufficiency of the knee extensors
d. Passive insufficiency of the knee flexors
b. Passive insufficiency of sacrospinalis group
e. Active insufficiency of the knee flexors
c. Active insufficiency of the knee extensors
34. Which of the following statement describe the heart?
I.
During development, the heart undergoes rotation so that its right side is carried backwards and its left side forwards.
II.
It is about the size of a clenched fist and occupies central position in the thoracic cavity.
III.
It lies behind the body of the sternum and in front of the middle four thoracic vertebra (T. 5,6,7 and 8)
IV.
The left ventricle forms the posterior surface and occupies most of the superior border.
V.
The right ventricle occupies most of the anterior surface and forms all but the extremities of the inferior border.
a. II and V only
d. II, III and V
b. I, II and IV
e. II, III and IV
c. I and IV only

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35. This uncovering of the reactive site in the actin filament will result in
a. Flexion of myosin cross bridge
d. deformation of troponin
b. Release of calcium from SR site
e. sliding of actin and myosin
c. Attraction and lengthening of myosin cross bridge
36. Muscles which contract statically to support some pain of the body against the pull of contacting muscles are called:
a. Fixators
d. neutralizers
b. Synergists
e. antagonists
c. protagonist
37. A therapist treats a patient status post CVA. What action would most likely facilitate elbow extension in a patient with hemiplegia?
a. Turn the head to the unaffected side
b. Flex the lower extremities
c. Extend one of the lower extremities and the flex the upper opposing extremity
d. turn the head to the affected side
e. extend the lower extremities
38. Which of the following statements describe erythrocytes?
I.
These are formed in bone marrow where they pain through several stages before reaching maturity.
II.
A mature red cell is completely filled with hemoglobin, a highly specialized compound of protein and iron.
III.
The wall of each erythrocyte is made up of a number of ultimate compounds of carbohydrates and fats.
IV.
The life of an erythrocyte is about four months, and four million new cells every second of every minute must be produced.
V.
They are produced in red bone marrow and in the spleen and other lymphoid tissues.
a. I, II and III
d. II and IV only
b. II, III and IV
e. II, IV and V
c. II and V only
39. In the swollen ankle, pitting edema may be distinguished from synovial thickening in the following procedure.
a. Excess synovial fluid and pitting edema are detected by pressing over the area
b. They cannot be separately distinguished
c. Pitting edema is assessed by balloting the fluid, excess synovial fluid is detected by pressing over the area
d. Pitting edema and excess synovial fluid are both assessed by balloting the fluid
e. Pitting edema is detected by pressing over the area; excess synovial fluid is assessed by balloting the fluid.
40. Which of the following statements describe the Thyroid Gland?
I.
It produces thyroxin, a very important iodine compound.
II. It regulates the relative amounts of calcium in the blood and bones.
III. Absence of the thyroid gland results in a mentally defective dwarf known as a cretin.
IV. Its anemic blood supply is derived from the two superior thyroid arteries only.
V. It derives its profuse blood supply from the two superior thyroid arteries and two inferior thyroid arteries.
a. I, III and V
d. I, II and III
b. II, IV and V
e. II, III and V
c. II, III and IV
41. A therapist observes a patient in the rehab waiting room that appears to be experiencing a heart attack. The most Significant sign of a
heart attack is
a. Dizziness
d. chest pain
b. Sweating
e. shortness of breath
c. Nausea
42. Which of the following statements are TRUE:
I.
All of the Flexor Digitorum Profundus is supplied by the median nerve.
II. The median nerve supplies all of the Flexor Pollicis Longus.
III. Adjoining half of the Flexor Digitorum Profundus is supplied by the median nerve
IV. The ulnar nerve supplies the lateral half of the Profundus.
V. Median half of Profundus is supplied by the ulnar nerve.
a. II, III and V
d. I and III only
b. II, III and IV
e. III and IV only
c. I, II and V
43. A therapist evaluates a patient with bicipital tendinitis. These clinical findings are expected to be identified, EXCEPT:
a. Referred pain in the C7-C8 dermatome
b. Isometric resistance to the biceps brachial increases subjective pain level
c. A painful arc is noted with active range of motion to the involved shoulder
d. Tenderness to palpation exists over the bicipital tendon
44. Which of the following statements describe the spleen?
I.
It is a contact with the under surface of the dome of the diaphragm, thus enjoying the protection of the lower liver
II.
It is about the size of a persons fissured lies in the upper left part of the abdominal cavity in contract with the diaphragm
III.
It regulates the number of the red blood cells in circulation
IV.
It maintains the amount of glucose present in the body at a constant level.
V.
It produces lymphocytes and is the principal residence of reticulo-endothelial cells of the body.
a. I, III and IV
d. I and III only
b. III and V only
e. II, III and V
c. II, IV and V
45. The following statements describe the foots lateral aspect, EXCEPT:
a. The Peroneus brevis inserts into the styloid process of the fifth metatarsal
b. The lateral malleolus is more posterior than the medial malleolus
c. The anterolateral portion of the talar dome become palpable as the lateral malleolus rotates out from under the ankle mortis when
the foot is dorsiflexed
d. Directly behind the flare of the styloid process of the fifth metatarsal and in front of the cuboid lies a depression created by the
peroneus longus as it runs to the medial plantar foot surface
e. The peroneal tubercle lies on the calcaneus, distal to the lateral malleolus, a significant landmark because it separates the peroneus
brevis and longus tendons
46. When terminating treatment, the caregiver
a. Prepares and documents treatment plan and program.
b. Documents clients program and linked to functional outcomes
c. Establishes a functional diagnosis and outcome goals.
d. Documents and re-evaluates the clients functional outcome and establishes and documents follow-up date.
e. Evaluate patients response to treatment and determines progress toward accomplishment of functional outcomes.
47. The following statements describe the Ulnar Nerve, EXCEPT:
a. The deep branch supplies the adductor Pollicis and all the Interossei.
b. At about the midlength of the arm, it is found behind, and in contact with, the medial epicondyle of the humerus.
c. The deep branch supplies the hypothenar muscles and the medial two lumbricals.

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The only muscles it supplies above the wrist are the Flexor Carpi Ulnaris and the medial half of the Flexor Digitorum Profundus.
It divides into a superficial branch, a deep branch and an intermediate branch

48. Surgical removal of a piece of bone to realign bone and shift weight-bearing stress away from a worn area:
a. Osteotomy
d. None of these
b. Arthrodesis
e. Menisectomy
c. Debridement and synovectomy
49. A synovial joint is characterized by the following distinguishing feature/s, EXCEPT:
a. The hyaline cartilage is rich in blood vessels
b. Articular cartilage reduces to minimum friction between the articular capsules.
c. A lubricated articular cartilage
d. A potential cavity
e. A capsule of fibrous tissue line with synovial membrane.
50. In its most basic form, the sarcomere length-tension relationship illustrates that
a. Tension generated in skeletal muscles is a direct function of the magnitude of overlap between the actin and myosin filaments.
b. Muscle relative titanic tension is plotted as a function of sarcomere length.
c. As muscle length decreased, overlap between actin and myosin was not possible, and the amount of tension generated by the
muscle increased as sarcomere length decreased.
d. At very long and very short lengths, muscles generate tension, whereas at optimal lengths, muscles generate higher tensions.
e. Isometric contractions are performed at different lengths, and peak isometric tension is measured at each length.
51. The atlanto-axial joint is an example of this joint
a. Ball and socket
d. Pivot
b. Saddle
e. hinge
c. Wheel and axle
52. A 35 year-old male diagnosed with ankylosing spondylosis is referred in a home exercise program. A general treatment objective most
beneficial for the patient will be to strengthen the
a. Quadrates lumborum
d. rectus abdominis
b. Quadriceps
e. back extensors
c. Internal and external obliques
53. Functions of disc include:
a. Permit two types of movement to occur simultaneously
b. Lessen shock in a joint and adjust bone articulating surface of different shape to one another
c. Assist in lubrication of articular surfaces
d. All of these
54. If there is posterior cruciate instability, the tibia will exhibit this movement as it is pushed back.
a. Minor lateral movement
d. a lot of medial movement
b. Some anterior movement
e. some posterior movement
c. Extensive diagonal movement
55. The following statements are true of the Carpal Tunnel, EXCEPT:
a. Carpal bones border the tunnel posteriorly
b. The transverse carpal ligament runs between four prominences and form a fibrous sheath containing it anteriorly within a fibroosseous tunnel
c. Transports the ulnar nerve and finger flexor tendons from the forearm to the hand
d. Proximally defined by the pisiform and the tubercle of the navicular
e. Distally defined by the hook of the hamate and the tubercle of the trapezium
56. Which of the following statements describe the liver?
I.
It is the largest organ in the body weighing about one-fiftieth of the total body weight.
II.
It is a solid, radish brown, pliant organ situated mainly on the left side of the body.
III.
It produces lymphocytes and is the principal residence of reticulo-endothelial cells of the body
IV.
It is in contact with the under surface of the dome of the diaphragm, thus enjoying the protection of the lower ribs.
V.
It maintains the amount of glucose present in the body at a constant level.
a. IV and V only
d. II and V only
b. I, II and IV
e. I, II and III
c. I, IV and V
57. Which of the following structures prevent a lateral or medial dislocation of the knee joint?
a. Intercondylar eminences
c. Cruciate ligaments
b. All of these
d. Collateral ligaments
58. The joints of the pectoral girdle include of the following, EXCEPT:
a. Acromioclavicular
b. Coracoarcromial
c. Coracoclavicular
d. Sternoclavicular
59. This structure is in the central part of the mediastinal part of the medial surface and is a large area where bronchi and pulmonary vessels
plunge into the lung.
a. Root
d. Mediastinum
b. Upper Sternal Angle
e. Hilus
c. Apex
60. Portion between two Z-discs
a. H-zone
d. A-band
b. I-band
e. Sarcomere
c. Y-band
61. Person-level problems characterized by the inability to perform any of the activities considered usual for a human being, such as
limitations in walking or limited ability to communicate:
a. Disorder
d. Disabilities
b. Infirmity
e. Affliction
c. Impairments
62. Cerebrospinal fluid is formed primarily by specialized tissue in the ventricles called
a. Pia meter
d. Choroid plexus
b. Meninges
e. Dura mater
c. Anterior Commissural
63. Receives and transmits impulses from tissues directly concerned with musculoskeletal movements and postures.
a. Visceroceptors
d. Exteroceptors
b. Musculoceptors
e. Miessners corpuscles
c. Proprioceptors
64. The exchange of ions across the membrane when a stimulus is applied.
a. Repolarization
d. Depolarization
b. Impulse conduction
e. Irradiation

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Ionization

65. The following statements characterize syringomyelia, EXCEPT:

a. There is no sensory impairment in the lower extremities
b. There is progressive cavitation around or near the central canal of the spinal cord.
c. There is loss of pain and temperature sense with a segmental distribution in both upper extremities.
d. Even in later stages, paralysis and muscle atrophy of the segment involved does not occur.
e. Touch and pressure sense in the affected parts are preserved.
66. The following statements characterize lesions of the posterior roots, EXCEPT:
a. Each posterior root nerve possesses a posterior root ganglion, the cells of which give rise to peripheral and central nerve fibers.
b. There is no loss of associated muscle reflex
c. Injury usually results in pain and paresthesia that occur in the distribution of the affected rots.
d. Frequent of sensation in a dermatomal distribution is apparent.
67. Muscle contraction occurs if
a. Tension is generated in the muscle fibers resulting in shortening, lengthening or maintaining length.
b. The muscle resists stretching.
c. The muscle fiber shortens.
d. The muscle is in concentric status.
e. The angle of the joint either increases or decreases.
68. The following statements describe fatigue, EXCEPT:
a. Impairment of transmission at the myoneural junction
b. Increase in frequency of activation of each functioning motor unit
c. Impairment of excitation contraction coupling
d. Reduction of functioning motor units
69. A therapist completes a cognitive function test on a patient status post stoke. As part of the test, the therapist examines the patients
abstract ability. Which of the following tasks would be the most appropriate?
a. Verbalize a position statement
d. repetition of a series of numbers
b. Discuss how two objects are similar
e. a figure from a picture
c. Repetition of a series of letters
70. Not a true peripheral nerve, an evaginated fiber tract of the diencephalon:
a. Optic nerve
c. Oculomotor nerve
b. Trochlear nerve
d. Olfactory nerve
71. Composition of the human peripheral nervous system:
a. 10 pairs of cranial nerve and 32 pairs of spinal nerves
b. 12 pairs of cranial nerve and 31 pairs of spinal nerves
c. 11 pairs of cranial nerves and 32 pairs of spinal nerves
d. 12 pairs of cranial nerve and 32 pairs of spinal nerves
e. 12 pairs of cranial nerve and 33 pairs of spinal nerves
72. Afferent component of muscle stretch reflex that provide CNS information about the length and rate of change in length of striated
muscles.
a. I band
d. Extrafusal fiber
b. Intrafusal fiber
e. Z band
c. Muscle spindle
73. An isolated lesion of this nerve results in vertical diplopia and tilts his head to align the eyes:
a. Trochlear nerve
c. Facial nerve
b. Oculomotor nerve
d. Abducens nerve
74. Sudden stretch of a skeletal muscle results in a reflex contraction of that muscle mediated by a simple and usually monosynaptic reflex
arc. The following statements are true of the reflex arc, EXCEPT:
a. Intramedullary fibers synapse on the motor neurons in the neurons in the anterior horn of the spinal cord or on motor nuclei in the
lower brain stem.
b. The afferent side of the arc begins with muscle stretch receptors whose cell bodies are n the ventral root ganglia
c. Enhanced response in the reflex arc may mean disease of the cord, brain stem or hemispheres and is a basic characteristics of the
spastic state
d. The stretch reflex will be exaggerated when normal function of the pyramidal tract above the lower motor neuron is chronically
suppressed or destroyed.
e. The efferent side of the arc is the motor neuron with its axon and terminal structure which innervate the muscle
75. The exacerbating-remitting pattern of multiple sclerosis is characterized by:
a. A steady worsening of symptoms over time
b. Spasticity, fatigue and bladder dysfunction
c. Periods of impairment followed by partial remission of symptoms
d. Periods of impairment followed by full or partial remission of symptoms.
e. Evidence can be shown from the onset of their symptoms
76. Feedback information about the outcome of movements:
a. Performance of Results
d. Knowledge of Function
b. Result Oriented
e. Performance Orientation
c. Knowledge of Results
77. The following joint receptors provide the subcortical nuclei and cortex with constant information about position and movement, EXCEPT:
a. Golgi mazzoni corpuscles
c. Merkels disks
b. Type III Golgi type endings
d. Ruffini corpuscles
78. A therapist presents an educational seminar on cerebral palsy, where he discusses its numerous etiologies. The following are congenital
etiology of cerebral palsy, EXCEPT:
a. Meningitis
c. Syphilis
b. Rubella
d. toxoplasmosis
79. Electrical stimulation affects sensory and motor nerves in the following manner, EXCEPT:
a. Varying the waveform has not meaningful influence on their responses.
b. Both respond in a seemingly identical way to transcutaneous stimulation.
c. Sensory excitation always precede motor excitation irrespective of waveform
d. Motor nerve thresholds are higher than sensory
e. Motor excitation can precede sensory excitation depending on site of stimulation
80. To test this nerve, the subject is asked to turn the head to the left and then to the right while testing strength of contraction of
sternomastoid and trapezius muscle contraction by resisting movement:
a. Spinal accessory nerve
c. Hypoglossal nerve
b. Vagus nerve
d. Glossopharyngeal nerve
81. The following statements describe carpal tunnel syndrome, EXCEPT:
a. Weakness of the hand.

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82.

83.

84.

85.

86.

87.

88.

89.

90.
91.

92.

93.

94.
95.

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b. The pathophysiology remains unknown although mechanical and vascular factors can play a major role.
c. Often seen as the cause of progressive numbness or paresthesia of the fingers in the median nerve distribution
d. Numbness or pain that can radiate distally.
e. Nocturnal burning pain or hypesthesia.
The following statements apply to the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve, EXCEPT:
a. There is no atrophy and no motor or reflex change
b. Sensory and motor function is mediated by this nerve
c. Some sensory loss to pain and touch is typical
d. More apt to occur with metabolic disorders
e. Entrapment of this where it passes under the inguinal ligament medial to the anterior superior iliac spine results in a syndrome of
dysesthesia and pain along the lateral thigh called meralgia paresthetica
In thrombosis of the anterior spinal artery the following happens, EXCEPT:
a. Produce bilateral atrophy at the level of the lesion
b. Sudden onset of symptom with severe pain.
c. Damage to spinothalamic tract results in loss of pain and temperature sense
d. Produces flaccid paralysis at the level of the lesion.
e. Involvement of bilateral corticospinal tract results in flaccid paraplegia
Characterized by persistent posturing in one or more extremities, trunk, neck or face:
a. Athetosis
d. dystonia
b. Spasticity
e. chorea
c. ballisimus
Following statements characterize amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, EXCEPT:
a. Characterized by degeneration of neurons in the motor nuclei of the cranial nerves and anterior gray horns of the spinal cord.
b. A combined upper and lower motor neuron lesion that may involve the spinal or bulbar levels or both.
c. Sensory disturbance is an integral part of the disorder.
d. Involvement of the nuclei of the lower cranial nerves results in speaking and swallowing difficulty.
e. Progressively fatal disease of unknown origin.
Failure to integrate this reflex could explain a childs inability to flex their neck while in a supine position:
a. Abdominal reflex
d. symmetrical tonic neck
b. Tonic labyrinthine
e. asymmetrical tonic neck
d. Moro
Chiasmal lesions could result in the following visual field defects, EXCEPT:
a. Lesion involving both the optic nerve and the chiasm produces ipsilateral blindness and a temporal field defect in the other eye
b. Transection of the an optic nerve result in ipsilateral monocular blindness
c. Lesion of the right optic tract results in right homonymous hemianopsia
d. Chiasmal lesion produces bitemporal hemianopsia
Mobility aids such as a cane may be used other than in terms of biomechanical forces. The following demonstrate the timing
relationships between applied cane forces and duration of stance, EXCEPT:
a. Patients with Parkinsons are comfortable even though the force applied was less than that needed for physical support of the body
b. Persons with above know amputations applied small cane force prior to the stance phase with the prosthesis, suggesting the cane
provided sensory information before weight bearing.
c. Patients with ankle athropathy applied peak force late in the stance phase of the disable limb suggesting the cane was used to push
forward.
d. Persons with lowest extremity amputations shift their weight from a cane to prosthesis to avoid residual limb orientation at the
limb/socket interface.
e. Patients with degenerative joint disease of the hip applied an initial peak thrust early in the stance phase, suggesting that the cane
was used for restraint.
Excursion and increase in tension of the lumbosacral roots may be accomplished by the following demonstrations, EXCEPT:
a. Lateral rotation of the hip on straight leg raising
b. Straight leg with medial rotation of the hip.
c. Dorsiflexing the ankle at the end of straight leg raising
d. Flexing the trunk during straight leg raising
e. Straight leg raising
This process moves Na+ out of the cell and K+ into the cell and requires an energy source of adenosine triphosphate:
a. Passive distribution
c. Sodium-potassium pump
b. Chemical transduction
d. Active distribution
The adult brain consist of the.
a. Pons, Medulla Oblongata and Medulla
b. Cerebrum, Basal Ganglia, Thalamus and Epithalamus
c. Cerebellum, Ventricles and Medulla Oblongata
d. Cerebrum, Cerebellum and the Brain stem
e. Hypothalamus, Cerebellum, Brain Stem, Mesencephalon and Medulla Oblongata
In carpal tunnel syndrome, alteration in the size of the structures under the transverse carpal tunnel ligament such as occurs with
inflammation, edema or fascial scarring can affect the perineural vasculature. This inflammation process can result in the following
conditions, EXCEPT:
a. Fibroblastic proliferation secondary to chronic edema my result in interneural fibrosis of the median nerve
b. Self perpetuating cycle of hypoxia
c. Tingling in one or more digits in the median nerve distribution when the patients actively maintain maximal wrist flexion for one
minute
d. Leakage of edema from damaged capillary endothelium.
A severed peripheral nerve has some capacity to repair itself, and axis cylinders sprout from nerve endings at a rate of 1 to 2 mm per
day, with some going astray. Chance determines whether connections can be reestablished and function restored.
a. The first statement is true, the second statement is false
b. Both statements are false
c. Both statements are true
d. The first statement is false, the second statement is true
Muscular hypotonia is seen in the following conditions, EXCEPT:
a. Poliomyelitis
c. Peripheral nerve injury
b. Parkinsons syndrome
d. Cerebellar dysfunction
In patients with movement dysfunction, feedback on a patients movement performance is an integral approach to rehabilitation, and
may be provided in the following manner, EXCEPT:
a. Via augmented visual feedback
b. Center of pressure information during balance activities
c. As the patient attempts to perform a movement, feedback may be provided initially
d. Verbally, through the tactile cues transmitted by the therapists hands
Parkinson syndrome is a sign and symptom indicating this dysfunction
a. Spinal cord

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b.
c.
d.
e.

FEBRUARY 2000

Pyramidal
Extrapyramidal
basal ganglia
cerebellar

97. Following statements characterize Brown-Sequard syndrome, EXCEPT:

a. Anterolateral system damage results in loss of pain and temperature sensation on the same side of the body below level of the
injury
b. There is tactile discrimination on the same side of the body below the level of the injury with dorsal column damage
c. Simple touch sensation may be unimpaired due intact dorsal columns opposite the lesion.
d. Lateral column damage results in paralysis of muscles on the same side of body below the injury.
e. With dorsal column damage, there is loss of position and vibratory sense.
98. Small unmyelinated and slow conducting nerve fibers are of type
a. A-gamma
d. D
b. A-delta
e. B
c. C
99. Pain threshold is attained at this sound pressure level:
a. 125 dB
c. 120 dB
b. 115 dB
e. 130 dB
c. 100 dB
100. Concerns position sense, postural bone and movement when stimulated by deep pressure, quick stretch of tissues and vibration.
a. Pacinian corpuscles
d. Merkels disks
b. Miessners Corpuscles
e. Ruffini corpuscles
c. Golgi mazzoni corpuscles
101. This goniometric measurement should NOT be tested with the patient in supine?
a. Hip abduction
d. hip flexion
b. Shoulder extension
e. elbow extension
c. Knee flexion
102. These categories of nonorganic signs are used for patients with low back problems, EXCEPT:
a. Hip abduction
d. hip flexion
d. Shoulder extension
e. elbow extension
e. Knee flexion
103. A therapist prepares to conduct a manual muscle test of the hip flexors. Assuming a grade of poor, the most appropriate testing position
is
a. Sitting
d. prone
b. Supine
e. standing
c. sidelying
104. A 75 year-old patient with bilateral transfemoral amputations works on ambulation activities in an-outpatient rehab clinic. Which type of
assistive device would be most appropriate to utilize during the training session?
a. Cane
d. two canes
b. Two forearm crutches
e. quad cane
c. walker
105. The agonist maybe described as follows, EXCEPT:
a. Contracts actively to produce a concentric, isometric or eccentric contraction.
b. The principal muscle maintaining a posture
c. The principal muscle producing a joint motion
d. Contracts actively to produce a concentric and eccentric contraction.
e. Prime mover
106. Ergonomic design in office settings has become increasingly important particularly because of the increased use of computers. The
following are acceptable recommendations, EXCEPT:
a. Hard copy holder close to monitor to reduce eye motions and discomfort and allow proper neck posture.
b. Keyboard placed at 15 from elbow height with a slight incline
c. Padded wrist rest to reduce arm and shoulder discomfort.
d. Top of monitor placed at eye level to allow proper head and neck position.
e. Feet flat on the floor or footrest to provide stability
107. The muscle/s which keep the humeral head apposed to the glenoid cavity when carrying weight:
a. Supraspinatus
c. all of these
b. Infraspinatus
d. teres minor
108. The following ranges of motion may be attributed to the glenohumeral joint when the scapula is stabilized, EXCEPT:
a. Flexing the elbow to 90 degrees isolates rotation of the glenohumeral joint from forearm supination and pronation.
b. 40 to 60 degrees of hyperextension is available, limited by the superior and middle glenohumeral ligaments.
c. Abduction can passively reach 120 degrees where it is then limited by the inferior glenohumeral ligament.
d. Approximately 90 degrees of flexion take place.
e. When the glenohumeral joint is externally rotated to 90 degrees, active abduction is limited to 90 degrees by active insufficiency of
the brachialis muscles.
109. An attorney contacts you by phone and requests information on a patient he claims to represent. Questions asked include the extent of
the patients disability and their willingness to return to work. The most appropriate response would be to
a. Tell the attorney not to bother you at work
b. Answer the question asked by the attorney
c. Refer the attorney to supervisor
d. Instruct the attorney to complete the necessary paperwork and a copy of the patients therapy records will be sent to the appropriate
party.
e. Request the attorney to provide documented proof that he represents your patient and only then will you discuss the patients
situation
110. A therapist uses a bandage to construct a sling for a patient with a painful shoulder. The most appropriate bandage to utilize is
a. Four-inch elastic bandage
b. Six inch roller gauze
c. Triangular bandage
d. two inch roller gauze
e. six-inch elastic bandage
111. A therapist employed in a rehabilitation hospital utilizes the services of a therapy side. Which variable best determines the extent to
which therapy sides are involved in patient care activities:
a. The quantity of continuing education courses
d. the aide must be young and strong
b. The number of years of experience
e. the direction of the therapist
c. Scope of formal training

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112. A therapist utilizes continuous ultrasound to supply thermal effects to a patient rehabilitating from a lower extremity injury. During the
treatment session, the patient suddenly becomes start led and report feeling an electrical shock from the ultrasound machine. The most
appropriate therapist action is to:
a. Unplug the machine and label-defective, do not use
d. discontinue ultrasound treatment
b. Decrease the intensity of the ultrasound
e. reposition head placement location
c. Modify the cycle duty
113. The Continuing Professional Education (CPE) Council for PT and OT exercise powers and functions that include the following, EXCEPT:
a. To present periodic assessment and upgrade criteria for accreditation of CPE providers and CPE programs to the Commission for
approval.
b. Accept, evaluate and approve applications for exemptions from CPE requirements.
c. Periodically monitors the implementation of programs, activities or sources.
d. Accept, evaluate and approve applications for accreditation of CPE providers
e. Accept, evaluate and approve applications for accreditation of CPE programs, and determine the number of CPE credit units.
114. The Median Frequency during a sustained fatiguing isometric contractions shifts or compresses toward
a. Increased frequencies
d. alternating frequencies
b. Lower frequencies over time
e. higher frequencies over time.
c. Middle frequencies over time
115. Ulnar nerve paralysis will; manifest the following conditions, EXCEPT:
a. Abduction and adduction of all digits are not affected
b. If the MCP joints are in a flexed position, IP joints can be extended using the extensor digitorum.
c. The hypothenar group does not function.
d. The extensor digitorum is capable of extending the IP joints if the MCP joints are stabilized in a flexed position.
e. The 4th and 5th digits cannot be extended due to the absence of intrinsic muscles.
116. These fibers are concerned with the involuntary control of smooth muscles and glandular activities:
a. Autonomic Fibers
c. Sensory Fibers
b. None of these
d. Motor Fibers
117. The following statements characterize the hip abductors (HA), EXCEPT:
a. The main function of the muscles is to provide sagittal place stability for the hip during the single-limb support phase of walking.
b. The HA muscles must produce a torque large enough to match the torque produced by the body weight to achieve frontal plane
stability.
c. Reducing the need for excessive forces from the HA muscles should minimize the forces produced across he hip.
d. The sum of the HA muscle derived force plus the force of body weight may reach 3 to 3.5 times body weight during mid stance.
e. The force produced by the HA muscles is the largest contributor to the prosthetic hip reaction force.
118. Intervertebral joint palpation provides the clinician valuable information about joint behavior to apply a force to a joint and to evaluate
the joints response to that force. In the process, he/she must appreciate the following, EXCEPT:
a. The amount of movements produced at the joint and presence activity evoked during the movement
b. The speed and direction at which it is applied
c. The paint produced by the movement
d. The way in which the joint moves or resists movement in response to the given force
e. The amount of force applied to the muscle inserting into the joint
119. This surgical procedure is an advantageous consideration if only one side of the knee is worn
a. Arthroscopy
d. Osteotomy
b. Norkalb osteotomy
e. Brians arthroplasty
c. Knee arthroplasty
120. The following entries in the assessment section of SOAP notes are all correct, EXCEPT:
a. Right lower extremity muscle strength is within normal limits
b. Patient should be independent with straight cane by discharge date
c. Strength duration curves show radial nerve regeneration
d. Patient continues to make steady progress with upper extremity resistive exercises
121. The most common major orthopedic procedure performed in the elderly population is total hip arthroplasty. The following statements are
true, EXCEPT:
a. Protecting the prosthesis from unnecessary forces does not retard premature loosening.
b. Carrying a load in a single hand is an activity that likely places excessive force on the hip.
c. Mechanical factors such as micro motion and characteristics of implant materials contribute to prosthetic loosening.
d. Studies showed that loosening of cemented components occurred in 30 % to 40% of patients 10 years after surgery.
e. Biologic factors, including sepsis, and osteolytic responses to debris from implant are implicated to contribute to prosthetic
loosening.
122. The therapist the measuring shoulder external rotation. Proper positioning of the upper extremity in supine would best be describe as
a. Shoulder abducted to 90 degrees, elbow flexed to 45 degree
b. Shoulder in neutral, elbow flexed to 90 degrees
c. Shoulder abducted to 90 degrees, elbow fully extended
d. Shoulder abducted to 90 degrees, elbow flexed to 90 degree
e. Shoulder in neutral, elbow fully extended
123. This test describes the ability of the abdominal muscles to maintain the pelvis in a position of posterior pelvic tilt as the fully extended
legs are slowly lowered to the table from a position of 90 degrees of hip flexion.
a. Thomas test
d. Straight leg raising test
b. Double leg lowering test
e. Modified Thomas test
c. None of these
124. The following procedure describe hip adduction joint measurement, EXCEPT:
a. Movement arm remains parallel to anterior femur.
b. Plane of motion frontal.
c. Goniometer axis is centered over greater trochanter.
d. Client should avoid trunk rotation.
e. Client is positioned in supine or lying on side, knee extended
125. Splints that hold the joint at some constant position:
a. Dynamic-progressive
d. Static-Progressive
b. Dynamic
e. Static-progressive
c. Static
126. A therapist immerses a patients edematous ankle in cold water. When a body part comes in direct contact with the cold agent, the
energy is transferred through
a. Convection
c. Conduction
b. Evaporation
d. radiation
127. In Thomas test, shortened two-joint muscles are diagnosed when
a. The knee flexion ability is good but the thigh rises up off the table.
b. The leg is able to maintain contact with the table but the knee cannot flex past 70 degrees.

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c. The thigh rises off the table and the knee is unable to flex past 70 degrees
d. The posterior thigh of the first leg can lay flat on the table with approximately 80 degrees of knee flexion.
e. None of these
128. When measuring hip abduction the stationary arm of the goniometer should be positioned
a. Along the midline of the linea alba
b. Between anterior and superior iliac spines.
c. Along a line from the crest of the ilium, femur and greater trochanter
d. Parallel to the anterior aspect of the femur
e. Along the midline of the tibia
129. A rehabilitation hospital assembles a team of health professions to after comprehensive care for patients following amputation. Which
member of the team would be responsible for assisting the patient and family with financial matters and acting as a liaison with third
party payers?
a. Physical therapist
d. physiatrist
b. Occupational therapist
e. vocational counselor
c. Social worker
130. A patient sustains a deep laceration over the right anterior thigh after stumbling into a modality cart. The therapists immediate response
should be
a. Apply direct pressure over the wound
b. Apply Betadine to cleanse and sterilize the wound
c. Apply ice and elevate the leg
d. Apply sterile dressings
e. Document the incident in the patients chart
131. A therapist observes a video on the biomechanics of normal gait. The therapist notes that the subjects knee remains flexed during all of
the components of stance, EXCEPT:
a. Midstance
d. endstance
b. Heel strike
e. toe off
c. Fool flat
132. A therapist reviews the medical record of a patient with cancer. The medical record includes a number of advanced directives including a
do not resuscitate order. The therapist is very upset to learn this information and feels the patient is giving up hope. The most
appropriate actions is
a. Continue with the patients established care plan
b. Discuss your concerns with the patients physician
c. Explain the benefits of positive thinking to the patient
d. Inform the patient about other possible treatment alternatives
e. Explain your concerns to the patients family
133. When performing passive range of motion exercises to a quadriplegic in side lying, the most effective hand placement for hip extension
is
a. One hand at the heel, one hand supporting the knee
b. One hand at the heal, one hand stabilizing the pelvis
c. One hand at the heel, one hand supporting the mid thigh
d. One hand and forearm at the heel and knee, one hand stabilizing the thing
e. One hand and forearm supporting the leg at the knee, one stabilizing the pelvis
134. A stretching method in which the muscle is slowly elongated to tolerance, short of pain, and the position held with the muscle in this
greatest tolerated length.
a. Increase in gait speed is achieved by lengthening strides rather than by increasing the number of steps per minute
b. Loss of mobility at the ankle and foot, lack of distal muscular control, and absent proprioception all contribute to altered gait
characteristics.
c. These individuals have the potential for very high function because of their retention of normal hip and knee control
d. There is substantial reduction in free walking speed, as a result of both diminished stride length and cadence
e. Strength deficits in the remaining musculature often limit ambulation ability
135. The following are characteristic of below-knee amputees, EXCEPT:
a. Increase in gait speed is achieved by lengthening strides rather than by increasing the number of steps per minute
b. Loss of mobility at the ankle and foot, lack of distal muscular control, and absent proprioception all contribute to altered gait
characteristics.
c. These individuals have the potential for very high function because of their retention of normal hip and knee control
d. There is substantial reduction in free walking speed, as a result of both diminished stride length and cadence
e. Strength deficits in the remaining musculature often limit ambulation ability
136. The therapist examines a patient diagnosed with adhesive capsulitis. The examination reveals the patient has a significant capsular
tightness in the anterior-inferior aspect. The most likely resultant range of motion limitation is
a. Adduction and internal rotation
d. abduction and external rotation
b. Extension and external rotation
e. flexion and external rotation
c. Flexion and internal rotation
137. A patient in rehabilitation hospital begins to verbalize about the uselessness of life and the possibility of committing suicide. The most
important therapist action is
a. Ask nursing to check the patient every 15 minutes
b. Discuss the situations plan to his family
c. Discuss the situation with the patients case manager
d. Review the patients past medical history for signs and symptoms of mental illness
e. Suggest the patient be placed on a locked unit
138. When the rate of movement is constant, this contraction occurs:
a. Eccentric
c. Concentric
b. Isokinetic
d. Isometric
139. Resolution No. 217, Series of 1992 delists the names of delinquent professionals from the rolls of registered professionals if the
professional
a. Had been delinquent in the payment of the annual registration fees for at least three (3) years from the year it was last paid.
b. Had been delinquent in the payment of the annual registration fees for three (3) continuous years from the year it was last paid.
c. Had been delinquent in the payment of the annual registration fees for five (5) continuous years from the year it was last paid.
d. Had been delinquent in the payment of the annual registration fees for at least five (5) years from year it was last paid.
e. Completes only 20 CPE units per annum
140. A therapist observes a patient performing active hip abduction in supine. The patient appears to be moving through the full range of
motion but the goniometric measurements taken previously indicated the patient was limited by 10 degrees. What hip compensatory
measures might the patient use to seemingly increase hip abduction?
a. Hyperextension and internal rotation
d. flexion and internal rotation
b. Abduction with external rotation
e. flexion and external rotation
c. Hyperextension and external rotation
141. The following statements characterized postural drainage, EXCEPT:

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a.

Refers to placing the body in a position that allows gravity to assist drainage of mucus from the lung periphery to the segmental
bronchus and upper airway.
b. The duration of postural drainage may range from 15 to 20 minutes, depending on the patients tolerance to changes in position and
the amount of sputum production
c. Cooperative, spontaneously breathing patients who can cough effectively may not need postural drainage
d. Enhances peripheral lung clearance, increases functional residual capacity and accelerated mucus clearances
e. Fourteen positions are commonly used to drain 14 lung segments
142. In joint where movement takes place about three main axes, all of which pass through the joints center of rotation, it is said to possess
a. Three degree of freedom
d. freedom of movement
b. Universal movement
e. two degree of freedom
c. A degree of freedom
143. Forearm supination is measured with the moving arm of the goniometer placed on this side of the hand.
a. Dorsal
c. lateral
b. Volar
d. Medial
144. The following statements are true of the cruciate ligaments of the knee, EXCEPT:
a. External rotation of the leg reduces forward movement of the tibia on the femur even if the anterior cruciate ligament is torn
b. If the amount of forward movement of the tibia on the femur in internal rotation is equal to than in the neutral position, both the
anterior cruciate ligament and the posterolateral portion of the joint capsule may be torn
c. If forward movement with the leg in the neutral position both posterior cruciate ligaments and the posteromedial portion of the joint
capsule may be damaged.
d. If the tibia is pushed posteriorly and it moves backward on the femur, posterior draw sign in positive
e. The anterior cruciate may be torn if anterior draw sign positive.
145. A registered professional can be permanently exempt from Continuing Professional Education requirements
a. Upon reaching the age of 65 years old
b. By becoming a member of the Board of Examiners
c. Upon formally requesting for exemption for earning the PRC most outstanding professional award
d. Upon completing his/her doctoral degree
e. Upon written recommendations from the President and Dean of the University
146. The following statements apply to Bucks extension traction, EXCEPT:
a. A type of skin traction applied to the lower extremities
b. May be used to immobilize the forearm, or to treat shoulder problems
c. To decrease edema and promote venous blood return to the heart, an embolism stocking is first applied
d. Must be removed at least once every 8 hours from a period of 1 hour to avoid skin complication
e. Straps are tightened as you proceed up the leg; when the finger wont fit under the strap, tightness is about right
147. The following statements describe the medial compartment of the knee, EXCEPT:
a. The pes anserine group crosses the posterior medial are of the tibia at the level of the tibial tubercle
b. The semimembranosus muscle with its five branches is an important medial stabilizer that supports the posterior and
posteromedial capsule and attach to the medial meniscus and tibia
c. The posterior oblique ligament is important in controlling anteromedial rotator instability
d. The posterior cruciate ligament tightens as the tibia internally rotates on the femur
e. The anterior cruciate ligament, composed of posteromedial and anteromedial bundles is the main stabilizer of the knee
148. When measuring elbow flexion, the stationary arm of the goniometer should be aligned along the
a. Radius
d. humerus
b. Fifth metacarpal
e. ulna
c. Fifth phalanx
149. These neurons carry motor impulses from the brain to the motor neurons in the spinal cord:
a. Interneuron
c. Lower Motor Neuron
b. First-order Neuron
d. Upper Motor Neuron
150. Vertical deformities of the toes may be caused by the following, EXCEPT:
a. When wearing footwear regardless of fit
c. phalange fracture
b. Hallux valgus
d. peroneal nerve palsy
c. Inflammatory arthritis
151. A general term for a repetitive-induced tendon injury involving the synovial sheath:
a. Epicondylitis
d. tendinitis
b. Tenosynovitis
e. stenosis
c. Cystitis
152. A manager develops a policy on physical and occupational therapy utilization of continuing education resources. Which of the following
would be most appropriate action to enhance the quality of patient care?
a. First come first served basis, i. e., continuing education is offered to therapists who reserved first
b. Prioritize requests for continuing education resources based on established patient care standards
c. Offer continuing education resources to senior therapist is relation to their years of experience.
d. Establish a committee to review requests for continuing education resources
e. Divide the continuing education resources evenly among therapy staff.
153. Loss of the lower motor neuron to a muscle may result in the following, EXCEPT:
a. Progressive atrophy
b. Reflex response failure
c. Flaccidity
d. Contractile myofibrils may be replaced with fibrous connective tissue in about 6 months.
154. Assume a simulated muscle using two different moment arms, wherein muscle As moment arm is much less than in muscle B. This
means that
a. Muscle A will change length much less for a given change in joint angle compared with the same change in joint angle in muscle B
b. The active ROM for the muscle-joint in A will be much greater than, B, in spite of the fact that their muscular properties are identical
a. Statements A and B are both false
c. Statement A is true but statement B is false
b. Statements A and B are both true
d. Statement A is false but statement B is true
155. During ambulation, the leg is brought into the trailing position by the following, EXCEPT:
a. Extension of the hip
b. Anterior tilting of the pelvis
c. tightening of the rectus abdominis
d. extension of the lumbar spine
156. A therapist observes a patient exercising. It becomes obvious that the patient is not challenged by the exercise routine and is receiving
little benefit from the therapy. The most appropriate action for the therapist would be to
a. Modify the patients program as necessary
b. Tell the patient they are no longer benefiting from physical therapy
c. Remain silent since it is another therapists responsibility to modify the treatment plan
d. Consult with the supervising therapist and suggest treatment alternatives
e. Discuss with the consulting doctor your observation

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157. A therapist is treating a patient three days status post total hip replacement. The patient is in bed with a sling-pulley system. Assuming
an uncomplicated postoperative course, the following exercises are appropriate, EXCEPT:
a. Resisted abduction and adduction with the thigh supported in the sling
b. Active knee flexion and extension in the suspension sling
c. Bilateral ankle pumps
d. Active exercise to the upper extremities
158. A therapist orders a wheelchair for a patient with C4 quadriplegia. Which wheelchair would be most appropriate for the patient?
a. Manual wheelchair with hand rim projections
b. Manual wheelchair with lowered center of gravity
c. Electrical wheelchair with sip-and-puff controls
d. Manual wheelchair with friction surface hand rims
e. Electrical wheelchair with joystick controls
159. The hamstrings are composed of:
a. Semitendinosus and Semimembranosus
c. all of these
b. Gluteus Maximus and Biceps Femoris
d. None of these
160. The following statements describe the Board of Examiners for Physical and Occupational Therapy, EXCEPT
a. The Board is composed of a chairman and four members who shall be appointed by the President of the Philippines.
b. The appointees are submitted to the President of the Republic of the Philippines through the Professional Regulation Commission.
c. The chairman shall be a physiatrist and the four members shall be two professionally qualified physical therapists.
d. The chairman and the members are appointed from the list of qualified professionals submitted by their respective bonafide
national professional organization accredited by the Professional Regulation Commission.
e. The chairman and the members of the Board are appointed from recommendation submitted by any qualified professionals
161. When using functional electrical stimulation to minimize fatigue during repetitive muscle activation, we want the following setting to
produce targeted forces.
a. Highest frequency and highest intensity
c. lowest frequency and lowest intensity
b. Lowest frequency and highest intensity
d. highest frequency and lowest intensity
162. Credit units may be earned when undergoing the following programs/activities, EXCEPT:
a. Professional chair holder (10 cu per chair)
b. On the job local (5 cu per training) and international training (10 cu per training)
c. Distance inter and intra school quiz competition (1 cu)
d. Inventions (10-3 cu per invention
e. International study/observation tour (6 cu per hour)
163. Patients with anemia fatigue easily and treatments are modified accordingly. PT management include the following, EXCEPT:
a. If exercise is indicated, pacing and training that distribute the intensity of the workload can be used to promote physiological
recovery
b. Mobilization in conjunction with gravitational stimulus to elicit hemodynamic responses to gravity
c. Progressive training through low intensity but not by high intensity exercise
d. Progressive training by alternating high-intensity exercise and low intensity exercise or rest
e. Exercise stimuli such as walking and transferring to optimize ventilation, perfusion and to promote mucociliary transport.
164. A therapist attempts to clear a patients secretions after performing postural drainage techniques. What position would allow the patient
to produce the most forceful cough?
a. Supine
d. upright sitting
b. Prone
e. sidelying
c. Half sitting
165. A therapist examines a patient with cervical pain of unknown etiology. The therapist identifies shortening of the cervical spine extensor,
upper trapezius and levator scapulae. The most probable postural deviation is
a. Forward shoulders
d. lordosis
b. Kyphosis
e. forward head
c. Scapular retraction
166. During phase O of the cardiac action potential, there is rapid influx of these ions:
a. Sodium
b. Oxygen
c. Hydrogen
d. Potassium
e. calcium
167. The most dilute luminal fluid in the presence of anti-diuretic hormone is found in the
a. Proximal tubule
d. distal convoluted tubule
b. Proximal convoluted tube
e. thin descending limb of the loop of Henle
c. Thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle
168. The time a subject can maintain a horizontal, unsupported posture (a measure of mechanical capability and willingness) is a predictor for
first-time occurrence of low back pain in men. This test is known as:
a. Williams
d. Sorensen
b. Jorgensen
e. Biering
c. McKenzie
169. Which of the following bladder functions can be voluntarily controlled?
a. Relaxation of internal sphincter muscle
d. Generation of the micturition reflex
b. Contraction of the internal sphincter muscle
e. Intramural ureters
c. Contraction of the external sphincter muscle
170. This chemical disconnects action from myosin and is hydrolyzed by the myosin molecule to produce the energy required for muscle
contraction.
a. Adenosine Diphosphatase
d. Adenosine Hydrolysis
b. Inorganic Phosphate
e. Adenosine Triphosphate
c. Actomyosin Triphosphotase
171. Removing synovial fluid via arthrocentesis includes the following potential benefits, EXCEPT:
a. Provides relief in tense synovial effusions.
b. Improve the delivery of nutrients to cartilage and surrounding tissues.
c. Concomitant injection of corticosteroids can increase recurrence of joint effusion.
d. Decrease joint intra-articular pressure preventing synovial capillary perfusion
e. Remove white blood cells, a source of destructive enzymes, from the joint.
172. Glucose is primarily absorbed by this transport process
a. Secondary active transport
d. Simple Diffusion
b. Primary active transport
e. Facilitated Diffusion
c. Complex Diffusion
173. For a stroke volume of 70 ml and a heart rate of 70 beats per minute, the cardiac output is equal to
a. 2, 450 ml
d. 4,700 ml
b. 140 ml
e. 1,225 ml

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PHYSICAL AND OCCUPATIONAL THERAPY LICENSURE EXAMINATION

ANATOMY, PHYSIOLOGY AND KINESIOLOGY

FEBRUARY 2000

c. 1,633 ml
174. Stimulation of parasympathetic nervous system will result in
a. Tachycardia
d. bradycardia
b. Increased blood pressure
e. increased cardiac contractility
c. Cerebrovascular accident
175. The chemical substance that will activate trypsinogen into trypsin is
a. Enterokinase
d. intestinal lipase
b. Protein
e. hydrochloric acid
c. C1-ion

176. A neurotransmitter that increases K+ iron conductance will

a. Depolarize the cell membrane
b. Stimulate the neuron and propagate the action potential
c. Hyperpolarize the membrane
d. All of these
e. Bring the potential near its firing level
177. Decreases fluid volume in the vascular system by increasing fluid and electrolyte excretion:
a. Calcium channel blockers
d. Beta-adrenergic blockers
b. Alpha-adrenergic blockers
e. Angiotensin-converting (ACE) enzyme inhibitors
c. Diuretics
178. Of the total volume of water presented to gastrointestinal tract per 24 hours, the largest bulk is absorbed by the
a. Small intestine
d. large intestine
b. Stomach
e. esophagus
c. mouth
179. Dark bands/bands
a. Are also called I bands
b. M line is due to thick bulge in the thin filament
c. Have an H band in the center
d. Are preceded by a G band off center
e. Have a Z line in the middle
180. The segment of nephron which is permeable to water is the
a. Thin descending limb of the loop of Henle
d. Distal convoluted tubules
b. Proximal tubule
e. Thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle
c. Thin ascending limb of the loop of Henle
181. Compared to the actions potential in ventricular muscle, the action potential of the Sinu-atrial Node shows
a. No plateau
c. A high velocity down stroke
e. the T wave
b. A slow velocity of upstroke
d. Rapid influx of sodium ions
a.
b.

c.

C and E
B and C
D and E

d. A and C
e. A and B

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To God Be the Glory 103