Evoked Potential Practice Exam

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Evoked Potential Practice Exam

103 Questions |
By Jacobsd
Review questions for the ABRET EP examination
Start
Questions and Answers
1. The nucleus of an atom contains
A. Anions
B. Electrons
C. Protons
http://www.proprofs.com/quiz-school/story.php?title=evoked-potential-practice-exam[3/6/2017 12:57:54 PM]

D. Cations
2. If a 4 ohm resistor and a 2 ohm resistor are wired in series across a 6 volt battery, what is the
curernt across each resistor?
A. 1 amp
B. 2 amps
C. 1.5 amps across the larger adn 3 amps across the smaller
D. 4 amps across the larger and 1.5 amps across the smaller
3. If the volrage in a circuit is 400 volts and the resistance is 50 ohms, the current equals
A. 8 ohms
B. 20,000 ohms
C. 8 amperes
D. 20,000 amperes
4. Somatosensory Evoked Potential
A. Dorsal root
B. Ventral root
C. Choroid plexus
D. Anterior horn cell
5. Afferent Nerves
A. Control ability to speak
B. Control emotional responses
C. Conduct impulses toward the central nervous system
D. Conduct impules away from the central nervous system
6. Which of the folowing is involved in the visual system?
Discuss
A. Lateral geniculate
B. Dorsal column
C. Pyramidal tract
D. Medial Lemniscus

7. Blind Spot
A. Lens
B. Fovea
C. Macula
D. Optic Disc
8. Posterior Fossa
Discuss
A. Knee
B. Brain stem
C. Cauda equina
D. Temporal lobe
9. Which of the following cranial nerves is purely sensory?
A. III
B. VI
C. VIII
D. X
10. The decussation of the pyramids take place at what level?
A. Pons
B. Cervial medullary junction
C. Cerebellum
D. Diencephalon
11. Resting Membrane Potential
A. -7uV
B. -70uV
C. -7mV
D. -70mV
12. Which of the following most likely results in increased firing of a neuron?

A. Inhibitory presynaptic potential
B. Inhibitory postsynaptic potential
C. Excitatory postsynaptic potential
D. Hyperpolarization of resting membrane potential
13. Amplitude of an evoked potential depends on which of the following physiiological actions in a
sensory pathway?
A. The velocity of the neural impulses
B. The synchrony with which neural impulses travel
C. The number of normal neural generators sequentially excited
D. The number of cortical or subcortical generators simultaneously activated.
14. All components of brainstem auditory evoked potential waveforms reach adult configuratiion by
what age?
A. 1-2 months
B. 3-6 months
C. 1-2 years
D. 3-4 years
15. In what age group do early symptoms of multiple sclerosis usually occur?
A. Under 10 years
B. 15-40 years
C. 50-60 years
D. Over5 70 years
16. Paresthesia
A. Fainting
B. Tingling
C. Weakness
D. Dizziness
17. A patient with a left homonymous hemianopsia most likely has a lesion of the
A. Right midbrain

B. Right optic tract
C. Left temporal lobe
D. Left occipital cortex
18. Which of the following is a partial paralysis of the lower extremities?
Discuss
A. Hemiplegia
B. Hemiparesis
C. Paraplegia
D. Paraparesis
19. Compared to electrode impedance, the input impedance of the amplifier should be
A. Equal
B. Lower
C. Higher
D. Variable
20. What is the typical MINIMUM common mode rejction ratio of in-phase signals recommended for
evoked potential instruments?
A. 1,000:1
B. 5,000:1
C. 10,000:1
D. 50,000:1
21. Which of the following is the usual polarity convention for recording a brainstem auditory evoked
potential?
Discuss
A. Positivity at the ear produces an upward deflection
B. Negativity at the ear produces a downward deflection
C. Negativity at the vertex produces an upward deflection
D. Positivity at the vertex produces a downward deflection
22. Using an amplification factor of 500,000, a 1uV brainstem auditory evoked potential waveform will
be amplified to

A. 0.05 v
B. 0.50 v
C. 5.00 v
D. 50.00 v
23. When recording evoked potentials, which of the following filters does NOT produce a phase shift?
A. 60Hz
B. Notch
C. Digital
D. Passive RC
24. Which of the following would best enhance resolution of evoked potential waveforms?
A. Decrease sensitivity
B. Decrease filter band width
C. Increase stimulation rate
D. Increase number of averaged stimuli
25. Positive Delay
A. Averaging starts before stimulus onset
B. Averaging starts after stimulus onset
C. Averaging and stimulus onset occur simultaneously
D. Averaging and stimulus onset are independently triggered
26. If an evoked potential has a voltageof 10uV and the associated noise has a voltage of 50uV,
whatis the signal to noise ratio after 100 averaged responses?
Discuss
A. 1:1
B. 1:2
C. 2:1
D. 5:1
27. Which of the following results from averaging an evoked potential?
A. Noise is reduced

B. Random activity summates
C. Signal amplitude decreases
D. Stimulus artifact appears smaller
28. Which of the folowing is the most sensitive setting?
A. 10 millivolts per division
B. 20 millivolts per division
C. 10 microvolts per division
D. 20 microvolts per division
29. Voltage information is changed into numerical values for averaging by means of
A. Analog to analog conversion
B. Digital to digital conversion
C. Analog to digital conversion
D. Digital to analog conversion
30. What is the approximate amplitude resolution of a 10-bit digitizer witha range of plus or minus 5 uv?
Discuss
A. 0.01uV
B. 0.10uV
C. 1.00uV
D. 10.00uV
31. The recommended amplitude resolution of the analog to digital converter must be a MINIMUM of
A. 2 bits
B. 4 bits
C. 8 bits
D. 16 bits
32. If the fastest component of a complex waveform is near 100Hz, which of the following is the most
appropriate dwell time?
A. 5 msec
B. 10 msec

C. 20 msec
D. 50 msec
33. Which of the following is the time from the beginning to the end of each evoked potential sweep?
A. Rate
B. Latency
C. Real Time
D. Analysis Time
34. In which of the following is the sampling rate of an averager at least twice the frequency fo the
fastest sine wave compoenent in the signal to be resolved?
A. Ohm's Law
B. Wiener filtering
C. Nyquist frequency
D. Fourier analysis
35. Which of the following refers to the phenomenon of fast frequency components of an artifact or
signal showing up on an evoked potential at slower frequencies?
A. Delay
B. Smoothing
C. Aliasing
D. Blocking
36. If a signal averager samples every millisecond, what is the theoretical maximum frequency
resolution?
Discuss
A. 100 Hz
B. 500 Hz
C. 1000 Hz
D. 2000 Hz
37. Compared to surface electrodes, needle recording electrodes tend to have
A. Higher impedance
B. Better high frequency responses

C. Less risk of transmitting diseases
D. Less distortion of low frequencies
38. Which of the following is a key factor in the common mode rejection ratio?
Discuss
A. Electrode length
B. Electrode placement
C. Far field generators
D. Electrode impedance balance
39. Using the International 10-20 electrode placements, if the measurement from nasion to inion is 30
cm, what is the distance from Fz to Cz?
Discuss
A. 6 cm
B. 9 cm
C. 12 cm
D. 18 cm
40. For posterior tibial somatosensory evoked potentials, which of the following would be the best
ipsilateral location for the ground electrode?
A. Arm
B. Calf
C. Mastoid
D. Sole of the foot
41. Smaller surface of stimulating electrodes:
A. Higher current density
B. Lower current density
C. Constant current stimulation
D. Constant voltage stimulation
42. An electrode recording from Erb's point is placed
A. On the shoulder

B. 2-3 cm above the clavicle
C. Over the trapezius muscle
D. At the axilla
43. Accurate electrode placment ofCP4 is most critical for simulaton of what nerves?
A. Left median
B. Right median
C. Left tibial
D. Right tibial
44. Accuracy of electrode placement is MOST critical for which type of response?
A. Near field
B. Far field
C. Subcortical
D. Brainstem
45. The number of recording channels for full-field VEP should be
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
46. Subdermal electrodes
A. Are more susceptible to noise due to high impedance
B. Have low impedance due to small contact area
C. Require that electrode resistance be measured
D. Have long time constants compared to silver electrodes
47. The impedance of cup electrodes is:
A. Higher than needle elecrodes because of their size
B. Lower than needle electrodes because of metal type
C. Higher than needle electordes because of metal type
D. Lower than needle electrodes because of their size

48. The N13 of the median nerve somatosensory evoked potential is generated in the
A. Brachial plexus
B. Medial lemniscus
C. Cervical spinal cord
D. Primary somatosensory cortex
49. Where is the P100 waveform generated?
A. Optic nerve
B. Broca's area
C. Striate cortex
D. Lateral geniculate
50. Which of the following is characteristic of alternating click polarity?
A. Produces abnormal I-V latencies
B. Has no effect on wave I amplitude
C. Is recommended for testing premature infants
D. Cancels the stimulus artifact
51. Which of the following physiological responses can be altered by reversal of the click polarity?
A. Sonomotor potential
B. Cochlear microphonic
C. Summating potential
D. Acoustic nerve action potential
52. In a brainstem auditory evoked potential, decreaseing click intensity will result in
A. Increased wave I amplitude
B. Decreased wave V latency
C. Unchanged interpeak intervals
D. Decreased peak latencies
53. Identification of wave Vof the brainstem auditory evoked potential may require
Discuss

A. Tympanic electrodes
B. Bilateral stimulation
C. Decreasing stimulus intensity
D. Use of a noncephalic reference
54. The stimulus used in a brainstem auditory evoked potential study is a click with a peak acoustic
power in the range of
A. 100 to 400 Hz
B. 500 to 800 Hz
C. 1000 to 1500 Hz
D. 2000 to 4000 Hz
55. Delayed absolute latencies of brainstem auditory evoked potentials which mimic a conductive
hearing loss are most likely caused by
A. Otitis
B. Rhinitis
C. Gingivitis
D. Conjunctivitis
56. In the brainstem auditory evoked potential, which of the following is most likely to be associated
with bilaterally prolonged I-III intervals?
Discuss
A. Neurofibromatosis
B. Tuberous sclerosis
C. Tourette's syndrome
D. Sturge-Weber syndrome
57. Which of the following is the primary reason for performing multimodality evoked potentials on a
patient suspected of having multiple sclerosis?
A. To adjust dosage of medication
B. To relieve neurologic symptoms
C. To determine the presence of multifocal lesions
D. To evaluate peripheral nerve integrity

58. The brainstem auditory evoked potentials of a patient with a conductive hearing loss will show
which of the following?
A. Normal interpeak latencies
B. Decrease in latency of wave I only
C. Decrease in latency of all obligate waveforms
D. Increase in interpeak latencies
59. In which of the following conditions is the P100 of the pattern reversal visual evoked potential
prolonged?
A. Myopia
B. Conjunctivitis
C. Hysterical blindness
D. Optic nerve dysfunction
60. In a pattern reversal visual evoked potential, which of the following would be the most appropriate
check size in minutes of arc to stimulate the fovea?
Discuss
A. 6
B. 15
C. 32
D. 59
61. What is the equation for calculating visual angle in minutes of arc?
A. 2F/60
B. 3438/WxD
C. 3438 x W/D
D. 3438 x D/W
62. A W-shaped pattern reversal visual evoked potential may be resolved with
A. Electroretinography
B. Flash stimulation
C. Steady state stimulation
D. Partial field stimulation

63. If the distance between a patient and a pattern generator is reduced by one-half, the angle at the
eye subtended by each check is
A. Unchanged
B. Decreased by one half
C. Increased two times
D. Increased four times
64. Which of the following is the normal interocular latency difference of P100?
A. Less than 15 msec
B. 15 to 25 msec
C. 30 to 50 msec
D. More than 50 msec
65. Pattern reversal visual evoked potential latencies are most significantly affected by
A. Patient age
B. Ambient light
C. Ocular dominance
D. Refractive errors of less than 20/20
66. In posterior tibial nerve somatosensory evoked potentials, central conduction time is measured
between
A. PF-L3
B. L3-P37
C. L3-N45
D. P37-N45
67. Absence of all waveforms in a lower extremity somatosensory evoked potential is NOT caused by
which of the following?
A. Cortical lesions
B. Technical problems
C. Peripheral nerve lesion
D. Insufficient stimulation intensity
68. In median nerve somatosensory evoked potentials, central conduction time is measured between

A. N13 and N20
B. P14 and N13
C. Erb's point and N20
D. Erb's point and N13
69. Which of the following is an effect of temperature on somatosensory evoked potentials?
A. Cooler temperatures tend to accelerate central conduction time
B. Warmer temperatures tend to polarize the stimulus current
C. Cooler temperatures tend to slow peripheral conduction time
D. Warmer temperatures desensitize nerve endings
70. Which of the following symptoms is most closely correlated with somatosensory evoked potential
abnormalities?
A. Vertigo
B. Tinnitus
C. Hemiparesis
D. Proprioception deficit
71. What type of responses are subcortical evoked potentials?
A. Far field
B. Near field
C. Visual field
D. Receptive field
72. Near Field
A. Corrected visual acuity
B. Stimulus field close to the eyes
C. Area within three feet of eyes
D. Generators close to the recording electrodes
73. The latency-intensity function findings for this ear demonstrate
Discuss
A. Conductive hearing loss

B. Low frequency hearing loss
C. Retrocochlear hearing loss
D. High frequency hearing loss
74. Which of the following conditions is most likely shown in the diagram?
Discuss
A. Pontine glioma
B. Midbrain infarct
C. Acoustic neuroma
D. Chronic otitis media
75. Which of the following is determined by adding values and dividing by the number of values
included?
A. Mean
B. Mode
C. Median
D. Standard deviation
76. In intraoperative monitoring of somatosensory evoked potentials, which of the folloiwng waves is
LEAST affected by the anestheic agents?
A. P14
B. N27
C. N37
D. P37
77. Which of the following cranial nerves is most at risk during acoustic neuroma surgery?
A. VII
B. IX
C. X
D. XI
78. Which of the following waveforms is elicited by a subject attending to rare stimuli?
Discuss

A. N50
B. N100
C. P200
D. P300
79. Stimulus rates higher than 20 per second may reduce amplitudes of all but the following BAEP
peak:
A. V
B. III
C. II
D. I
80. The long latency auditory EP, also called the cognitive EP or oddball paradyme, is the
A. CNV
B. FFT
C. ECOG
D. P300
81. Which obligate peak of an MNSEP can vary in latency with level of alertness of the patient?
Discuss
A. N20
B. P14
C. N18
D. N13
82. What effect on P100 does a decrease in screen luminance have?
A. Latency increases, amplitude decreases
B. Amplitude increases, latency decreases
C. Latency decreased, amplitude decreases
D. Latency increases, amplitude increases
83. The recommended somatosensory electrode derivation to best record the N13 response is
A. C5s-Epc

B. C5s-Fpz
C. Cpi-Epc
D. C5s-Cpz
84. BAEPs are relatively independent of
A. Consciousness
B. Age
C. Stimulus intensity
D. Stimulus rate
85. The appropriate stimulus intensity of stimulating median nerve at the wrist for recording SEP is:
A. Below motor threshold
B. At motor threshold
C. Just above motor threshold
D. Highest tolerable intensity
86. Masking is recommended to eliminate
A. Asymmetry in latency and amplitude
B. False negative from the ipsilateral ear
C. Bone-conducted responses from the "non-stimulated" ear
D. False positive from the ipsilateral ear
87. The cochlea generates what EP response?
A. EcochG
B. Echo
C. ECOG
D. BAEP
88. Wave I of the auditory evoked potential cannot appear before
A. 1.4 msec
B. 1.6 msec
C. 1.8 msec
D. 2.0 msec

89. Wave V is usually the most prominent peak after
A. 4.7 msec
B. 5.0 msec
C. 5.5 msec
D. 5.9 msec
90. Motor Threshold
A. Minimum stimulus intensity that results in a twitch in the appropriate muscle group
B. The level at which stimulation is first felt
C. Two times sensory threshold
D. The level which the patient is able to relax and tolerate the stimulus
91. In order to improve signal to noise ratio, amplifier sensitivity is adjusted based on the number of
averaging rejection. What is the approximate percentage out of total number of stimulation to be
rejected?
A. 0%
B. 10%
C. 50%
D. 100%
92. Averaging improves the signal to noise ratio by:
A. The square root of number of epochs averaged
B. The square of the number of epochs averaged
C. 50% of the number of epochs averaged
D. 100% of the number of epochs averaged
93. Improper recording techniques can:
A. Be corrected by averaging
B. Be corrected by filtering
C. Not be corrected after the recording is completed
D. Be corrected by adjusting the printer
94. The troubleshooting method to best determine the source of a nonphysiologic artifact is:

A. View the raw input
B. Decrease sensitivity
C. Decrease the high frequency filter
D. Increase the low frequency filter
95. If the trials are not reproducible
A. Turn on your notch filter
B. Perform an additional trial
C. Decrase the signal to noise ratio
D. Discontinue the procedure
96. When using collodion for electrode adhesion, one must be aware that:
Discuss
A. It does provide a conducting material between electrode and scalp
B. It can cause low impedance
C. It can cause a salt bridge
D. It does not provide a conducting material between electrode and scalp
97. If there is a 60Hz interference in all channels when recording median nerve somatosensory evoked
potentials, which of the following electrodes should be adjusted first?
A. Cpi
B. Epc
C. Ground electrode
D. Stimulating electrode
98. Essential for reducing stimulus artifact and for patient safety:
A. Stimulation isolation unit
B. Auto switching for stimulation
C. Bipolar cautery
D. Monopolar cautery
99. The maximum leakage current should be
A. 10 uA

B. -1 uA
C. 100 uA
D. 1000 uA
100. In selecting somatosensory electrical stimulation, the parameters causing most concern for patient
safety are:
A. Ground location
B. Current or voltage intensities
C. Monophasic vs. biphasic pulse
D. Long pulse duration and high repetition rates
101. Clavicular, cervical and scalp sites are commonly used for recording
A. Posterior tibial potentials
B. Brainstem auditory evoked potenetials
C. Median nerve potentials
D. Popliteal fossa potentials
102. In the central nervous system, a myelin sheath forms around the
A. Axon
B. Glia
C. Cell body
D. Dendrites
103. What is the most appropriate bandpass for pattern reversal visual evoked potentials?
A. 0.1-20 Hz
B. 1-200 Hz
C. 1-1000 Hz
D. 100-1000 Hz

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HomeCreateQuizzesSciencePhysicsEnergyPotential EnergyEvoked Potential Practice Exam

Review questions for the ABRET EP examination

Questions and Answers

1. The nucleus of an atom contains

http://www.proprofs.com/quiz-school/story.php?title=evoked-potential-practice-exam[3/6/2017 12:57:54 PM]

4. Somatosensory Evoked Potential

D. Anterior horn cell

A. Control ability to speak

B. Control emotional responses

C. Conduct impulses toward the central nervous system

D. Conduct impules away from the central nervous system

6. Which of the folowing is involved in the visual system?

http://www.proprofs.com/quiz-school/story.php?title=evoked-potential-practice-exam[3/6/2017 12:57:54 PM]

9. Which of the following cranial nerves is purely sensory?

10. The decussation of the pyramids take place at what level?

B. Cervial medullary junction

11. Resting Membrane Potential

http://www.proprofs.com/quiz-school/story.php?title=evoked-potential-practice-exam[3/6/2017 12:57:54 PM]

A. Inhibitory presynaptic potential

B. Inhibitory postsynaptic potential

C. Excitatory postsynaptic potential

D. Hyperpolarization of resting membrane potential

A. The velocity of the neural impulses

B. The synchrony with which neural impulses travel

C. The number of normal neural generators sequentially excited

D. The number of cortical or subcortical generators simultaneously activated.

http://www.proprofs.com/quiz-school/story.php?title=evoked-potential-practice-exam[3/6/2017 12:57:54 PM]

B. Right optic tract

C. Left temporal lobe

D. Left occipital cortex

18. Which of the following is a partial paralysis of the lower extremities?

A. Positivity at the ear produces an upward deflection

B. Negativity at the ear produces a downward deflection

C. Negativity at the vertex produces an upward deflection

D. Positivity at the vertex produces a downward deflection

http://www.proprofs.com/quiz-school/story.php?title=evoked-potential-practice-exam[3/6/2017 12:57:54 PM]

B. Decrease filter band width

C. Increase stimulation rate

D. Increase number of averaged stimuli

25. Positive Delay

A. Averaging starts before stimulus onset

B. Averaging starts after stimulus onset

C. Averaging and stimulus onset occur simultaneously

D. Averaging and stimulus onset are independently triggered

27. Which of the following results from averaging an evoked potential?

http://www.proprofs.com/quiz-school/story.php?title=evoked-potential-practice-exam[3/6/2017 12:57:54 PM]

B. Random activity summates

C. Signal amplitude decreases

D. Stimulus artifact appears smaller

28. Which of the folowing is the most sensitive setting?

A. 10 millivolts per division

B. 20 millivolts per division

C. 10 microvolts per division

D. 20 microvolts per division

A. Analog to analog conversion

B. Digital to digital conversion