1

1 - The inferior alveolar nerve is branch of:

SAMPLE
1. Mandibular nerve
2. Posterior mandibular alveolar nerve.
3. Anterior mandibular alveolar nerve
2 - A child with caries in the incisors we call
this caries:
1. Rampant caries.
2. Nursing caries.
3. Children caries
3 The least effective method to kill the HIV
is through:
1. NaOcl.
2. Autoclave.
3. Chimoclave.
4. Ultraviolet chamber. ( Ultraviolet light )
4 - Weeping canal we use:
1. Gutta percha.
2. CaOh.
3. Formocresol.
5 Child 6 years old came to u with thumb suck
already caused dental problem what u will do:
1. Nothing.
2. Psychologist treatment.
3. Early habit breaking appliance.
6 What is the forceps used to grasp Epulis
Fissuratum during surgical procedure ?
1. Allis forceps.
2. Addison.
3.Curved hemostat
7 - Twins came to your clinic during routine
examination; you
Found great change behavior between both of them
this due to:
1. Gender.
2. Environment.
3. Maturation.
4. None.
8 - Rubber dam is important because it:
1. Improves safety.
2. Looks scientific.
3. Improves suction.
2
9 Child with vesicle on the hard palate with
history of malaise for 3
days what is the possible diagnosis:
1. Herpes simplex infection. ( Primary Herpetic
Gingivostomatitis )
2. Erythematic multiform
10 Preparation of gold crown with excepts of
gingival rescission the most proper to extent
the preparation: 1mm under the gingival
margin. Make it on the fifth. Make it on the
third. At the gingival.
placement of crown margins should be at the
gingival crest or limited to a depth of 0.5mm
intracrevicular placement
11 Amount of daily wear of amalgam ingested in
the body:
1. 1 - 3 gs /day of mercury.
2. 10 15 gs /day of mercury.
3. 25 gs /day of mercury.
13 - After patient came to your clinic and gave
you the symptoms and history and complains,
whats your next step in treatment?
1. Clinical examination.
2. Start Endo.
3. Restore the teeth.
History taking -> Examination -> Investigations
14 Patient with pain on 15 and this tooth
undergo with RCT but he still has pain on
percussion,
what u suspect?
1. primary Apical Periodontitis.
2. Secondary apical Periodontitis.
3. Over instrumentation.
4. Over medicate.
15 child 8 years old Patient with separation,
he is un able to name color or his name, this
stage
likely to be:
1. 3 years old.
2. 4 years old.
3. 10 years old.
16 You extract tooth with large amalgam
restoration, how to manage the extracted tooth:
1. Autoclave and deep buried.
2. Sharp container.
3. Ordinary waste container
3
4. .Container Designed not to be burned.
17 65 Years old black man wants to have very
white teeth in his new denture what should the
dentist do:
1. Put the white teeth.
2. Show the patient the suitable color first
then show him the white one.
3. Convince him by showing him other patient's
photos.
4. Tell him firmly that his teeth color is good.
18 Cracked tooth syndrome is best diagnosed
by?
1. Radiograph.
2. Subjective symptoms and horizontal
percussion.
3. Palpation and vertical percussion.
4. Pulp testing.
Symptoms vary; however, CTS is typically
characterized by sharp fleeting pain when
releasing biting pressure on an object. This is
because when biting down the segments are
usually moving apart and thereby reducing the
pressure in the nerves in the dentin of the
tooth. When the bite is released the "segments"
snap back together sharply increasing the
pressure in the intradentin nerves causing pain.
The pain is often inconsistent, and frequently
hard to reproduce. If untreated, CTS can lead to
severe pain, possible pulpal death, abscess, and
even the loss of the tooth.
19 - Hunter Schreger bands are white and dark
lines that appear in:
1. Enamel when view in horizontal ground.
2. Enamel when view in longitudinal ground. (
section )
3. Dentin when view in horizontal ground.
4. Dentin when view in longitudinal ground.
20 - pt. presented after insertion of complete
denture complaining of dysphasia and ulcers what
is
the cause of dysphasia?
1. Over extended.
2. Over post dammed.
3. Under extended.
4. Under post dammed.
21 Young with swelling in the mandible ( # 6
7 -8) area, 3rd molar clinically missed, in X
ray
examination we found Radiolucent is cover the
pericoronal part of the 3rd molar DIAGNOSIS :
1. Dentigerous cyst.
2. Central.
22 - Adult 20 years male with soft tissue &
dental trauma reveals severe pain in soft
tissues with
loss of epithelial layers and anterior upper
centrals are intruded the diagnosis is:
1. Abrasion with luxation.
2. Erosion with sub luxation.
3. Laceration with luxation.
4. Laceration with sub luxation.
4
23 - Patient complains from swelling in
submandibular, swelling increase when patient
eating and
swallowing only what type of x ray use to
diagnosis:
1. Occlusal x-ray.
2. Panoramic x-ray.
3. Sialography.
= ( Sialolithiasis MEANS salivary stone )
24 - Parotid DUCT is opposite to: = (also known
as Stensen's duct)
1. Maxillary premolar.
2. Maxillary 1st molar.
3. Maxillary 2nd molar.
4. Mandibular 1st molar.
25 - Stock trays compared to Customtrays for a
removable partial denture impression:
1. Custom trays less effective than stock trays.
2. Custom trays can record an alginate
impression as well as elastomeric impression.
3. Customtrays provide even thickness of
impression material.
4. All of the above.
26 - Proxy brush with which type of furcatoin:
1. I.
2. II.
3. III .
4. IV.
27 - Patient is diagnosed for ceramo metal full
veneer. You plan to use epoxy resin, what's the
best impression material to be used:
1. Poly ether.
2. Poly sulfide.
3. Agar agar.
4. Irreversible hydrocolloid.
28 Teeth with RCT and you want to use post,
which post is the least cause root fracture:
1. Ready made post.
2. Casted post.
3. Fiber post.
4. Prefabricated post.
29 - Child have tooth which have no mobility but
have luxation, best treatment:
1. Acrylic splint.
2. Flexible fixation. Repositioned then Flexible
splinting ( 1-2 weeks)
3. Rigid fixation.
A dental subluxation is a traumatic injury in
which the tooth has increased mobility but has
not been displaced from the mandible or maxilla.
5
30 - For root canal treated tooth u decide to
put post & amalgam this depend on:
1. Remaining coronal structure.
2. Root divergence.
3. Presence of wide root.
4. Others.
31 - To a great extent, the forces occurring
through a removable partial denture can be
widely
distributed and minimized by the following
methods: ( lower RPD )?
1. Proper location of the occlusal rests.
2. Selection of lingual bar major connector.
3. Developing balanced occlusion.
4. All of the above.
32 - The ETCHANT of most dentine bonding systems
applied for:
1. 15 seconds.
2. 30 seconds.
3. 40 seconds.
4. 60 seconds.
33 - Labial reduction for porcelain metal
restoration must be:
1. One plane for aesthetic.
2. Tow plane by follow the morphology.
3. 0.8 All.
4. Parallel to axial wall of the teeth.
34 - Single rooted anterior teeth has endodontic
treatment is best treated by: = ( if a
substantial
amount of coronal structure is missing ? )
1. Casted post and core.
2. Preformed post and composite.
3. Performpost and amalgam.
4. Composite post and core.
35 - The PH of Ca (OH) is equal to:
1. 5.5.
2. 7.5.
3. 12.5.
4. 19.5.
36 - Hypercementosis:
1. Occur in Paget disease.
2. Difficult to extract.
3. Bulbous root.
4. all of the above
6
37 - After scaling and root palnning, healing
occur by:
1. Connective tissue attachment.
2. Long junctional epithelium. = ( created )
3. New bone and connective tissue formation.
4 New attached periodontal ligament fibers.
38 - 6 years old child have 74 and 84 extracted,
and the first permanent molar was erupted, best
space maintainer is:
1. Lingual arch.
2. Bilateral band and loop.
3. Bilateral distal shoe.
4. No need for space maintainer.
39 - Endomethazone is a root canal sealer that:
1- Dissolved in fluid so it weakens the root
canal filling. = Apical leackage
2- Very toxic, contain formaldehyde.
3- Contain corticosteroids.
4- All the above.
40 - Sealer is used in RCT to:
1- Fill in voids. = b/w canal walls and gutta
points
2- Increase strength of RC filling.
3- Disinfect the canal.
41 Patient with deep caries in the lower
molar, no symptoms and there is radiopaque
lesion at
the apex of the distal root of the tooth, what
is your diagnosis:
1. Condensing osteitis.
2. Cemental dysplasia.
3. Periapical granuloma. Condensing osteitis
It's a periapical inflammatory diseases, that
results from reaction to infection, which is
periodontal and not dental. There would be bone
production rather than bone destruction. The
most common site is near premolars and molars.
The Lesion appear as an radio-opacity in the
periapical area hence the sclerotic reaction.
The sclerotic reaction result from good patient
resistance and a low degree of virulence of the
offending bacteria. The associated tooth is
carious or contains a large restoration.
42 - The periodontal tissues comprise which of
the following tissues:
1. Gingiva and the PDL.
2. Gingiva, PDL, and alveolar bone.
3. Gingival, PDL, alveolar bone and cementum.
4. Gingiva, PDL, alveolar bone, cementum, and
enamel.
43 - Periodontal involved root surface must be
root planned to:
1. Remove the attached plaque and calculus.
2. Remove necrotic cementum.
3. Change the root surface so it becomes
biocompatible. F = this consider perio surgery
4. A and B are correct.
7
45 - What is the best instrument used for
removing unsupported enamel at the gingival wall
of
class II:
1. chisel
2. hatchet
3. gingival margin trimmer
46 Gingival retraction is done:
1. To temporarily expose the finish margin of
the preparation.
2. To accurately record the finish margin and a
portion of uncut tooth surface to the margin
in the final impression.
3. Even in the presence of gingival
inflammation.
4. By various methods but the most common one is
the retraction cord.
1 + 2.
2 +3.
1 +2 + 4.
47 The following is a non- absorbable suture:
1. Plain catgut.
2. Chromic catgut.
3. Silk.
4. All the above.
Absorbable suture:
original catgut
synthetics polyglycolic acid (Biovek),
polylactic acid, polydioxanone, and
caprolactone.
Non-absorbable sutures:
special silk
synthetics polypropylene, polyester or nylon.
Stainless steel wires
48 - Child patient presented with swelling in
the bucal and palatal maxillary anterior area
two days ago, the pathology of the lesion there
is a giant cell, what is the diagnosis:
1. Giant cell granuloma.
2. Hemaginoma.
3. .
4. Pyogenic granuloma .
49 What is the best restoration to the anterior
teeth with RCT and conservative opening access?
1. Retained post metal ceramic.
2. Retained post Jacket crown.
3. Composite.
50 The best time to treat the pregnancy is:
8
1. Fist month.
2. Second month.
3. Forth to sixth.
4. Seventh month.
51 Child with anodontia and loss of body hair,
the diagnosis is:
1. Down's syndrome.
2. Ectodermal dysplasia. = (Hereditary
ectodermal dysplasia)
3. Fructose ..
4. Diabetic . Ectodermal dysplasias are
described as "heritable conditions in which
there are abnormalities of two or more
ectodermal structures such as the hair, teeth,
nails, sweat glands, cranial-facial structure,
digits and other parts of the body
52 Cavity etching before applying GIC is:
1. Polyacrylic acid 10 seconds.
2. Polyacrylic acid 60 seconds.
3. Phosphoric acid 10 seconds.
4. Phosphoric acid 60 seconds.
= 10% polyacrylic acid is placed in the
preparation for approximately 20 seconds.
53 Electro surgery (voltage frequency) range :
1. 1.5 7.5 million cycle per seconds.
2. 7.5 10 million cycle per seconds.
3. 10 25 million cycle per seconds.
4. 30 million cycle per seconds.
54 surgery for ridges aim to: = preprosthetic
surgery ?
1. Vertical dimension.
2. Speech.
3. Modify ridge for stability
55 Microorganism cause the initial caries: (
Microorganism particularly associated with the
initiation of the carious process )
1. Streptococcus mutans.
2. Streptococcus salivary.
3. Lacto
56 Patient on warfarin treatment and you want
to do surgery, when you can do:
1. When PTT is 1 1.5 INR on the same day.
2. When PTT is 2 2.5 INR on the same day.
3. When PTT is 1 1.5 INR on the same day.
4. When PTT is 2 2.5 INR on the same day. (
PT/INR = international normalized ratio )
57 Patient with pain on the upper right area,
and the patient cannot tell the tooth causes the
pain, what is the least reliable way to do test
pulp: LEAST LEAST LEAST
9
1. Cold test.
2. Hot test.
3. Electric test.
4. Stimulation the dentine. N.B:what is the best
method?
58 You want to make amalgam restoration with
pin; the pin should go in the dentine:
1. 1mm.
2. 2-3 mm.
3. 5mm.
4. Should be in the enamel.
59 Facial Skeleton formed from:
1. neural crest cells
2. Para.
61 Streptococci detected by ( biochemical
tests ):
1. Catalase test. = It Is (catalase-negative )
2. Carbohydrate Fermentation Test
3 Gram stain
62 Apicoectomy what is the right statement (
about indication ):
1. Incisor with an adequate RCT and 9mm lesion.
2. Lateral incisor with good condensing RCT but
swelling and pain 14 days after the
treatment, the tooth asymptomatic before the
obturation.
3. First upper premolar with lesion on the bucal
root..
63 We can use to create palatal posterior
seal:
1. Le Cron carver
2. Kingly scalper.
3.
4.
64 Patient presented to you with immediate
denture done 5 10 months ago, complaining pain
and over tissue in the mandibular, what is the
diagnosis:
1. Epulis Fissuratum.
2. Hyper sesitivity
1 - The access opening for the mandibular second
molar is: SAMPLE 2
1. Triangle and the base toward the mesial.
2. Triangle and the base toward the buccal.
3. Ovale and the base toward the mesial.
2 - We can use under the composite restoration:
1. Varnish.
10
2. Zinc oxide and eugenol.
3. Ca (OH).
4. Zinc phosphate cement.
1+2.
2+3.
3+4.
2+4.
Also : RMGIs-flowable composites- compomers-
polycarboxylate used under composite
Contraindications for composite include varnish
and zinc oxide-eugenol
3 - Bitewing exam is used to diagnose EXCEPT:
1. Proximal caries.
2. Secondary caries.
3. Plaque and Gingival status.
4. Periapical abscess.
4 - Autoclaving technique is depending on:
1. Dry heat.
2. Steam heat ( under pressure )
3. Chemicals.
6 - Tooth with crown fraction under the gingival
and we want to use it, the treatment is:
1. Amalgam post core under the gingival.
2. Extrusion orthodontic.
3. Restoration under the gingival.
7 - A child with caries in the incisors we call
this caries:
1. Rampant caries.
2. Nursing caries.
3. Children caries.
8 - Persons who are working in glass factories
they have the disease:
1 Silicosis. Caused by inhalation of crystalline
silica
2 Asepsis.
9 - Laser used in endodontic is: ( Root canal
preparation ?)
1. Co2.
2. Nd (YAG).
3. Led.
10 - A patient 14 years with avulses incisor 10
(# 21) we can use a splint for:
1. 1 2 week.
2. 2 3 week.
3. 3 4 week.
11
4. 4 5 week.
11 - When removing lower second molar:
1. Occlusal plane perpendicular To floor
2. Buccolingual direction to dilate socket
3. Mesial then lingual.
12 Atropine:
1. Dries secretion such saliva.
2. Depresses the pulse rate.
3. Cause central nervous system depression.
N.B:
= atropine dries up salivary and bronchial and
gastric.
= atropine increases pulse rate without
increasing cardiac output
= atropine in clinical doses does not depress
the central nervous system
13 Trauma to upper central, the decision is to
extract the tooth , and the patient is young and
wants to replace the tooth immediately after
extraction. Best Type of pontic to be designed?
1. Ovate.
2. Egg shaped.
3. Hygienic.
4. Ridge lap.
14 - X-ray periapical for immature tooth is:
1. Generally conclusive.
2. Simply inconclusive.
3. Should be compared with (contralateral and
adjacent tooth.? )
15 - The use of low speed hand piece in removal
of soft caries in children is better than high
speeding because:
1. Less vibration.
2. Less pulp exposure.
3. Better than high speed.
16 - Osteogenesis during endodontic surgery
aimed to prevent: 1. Fibroblast growth.??? 2.
Growth factor. 3. Formation of blood.
17 The working surfaces in operation theatre
should be disinfected especially for HIV, by
using:
A. Savlon
B. Gamma radiation
C Hypochlorite solution
D. UV light
12
18 The least effective method to kill the HIV
is through:
5. NaOcl. Sodium hypochlorite solution
6. Autoclave.
7. Chimoclave.
8. Ultraviolet chamber.
19 - For discharged instrument (blades, needle
tips, wedges, etc) put in:
1. Discharged paper box.
2. Designed sharp instrument special container.
3. Disinfectant solution then
= They are placed in special puncture-resistant
containers
20 - Treatment plan for patient both maxillary
and mandiubular immediate denture. You will :
1. Fabricate max immediate DT first.
2. Fabricate mand immediate DT first.
3. Max and mand be fabricated at the same time
= If both upper and lower immediate dentures are
being prepared, it is recommended that both
be fabricated at the same time.
21 Pt presented to u having root recession he
has pain when putting probe gently on the root
what is the diagnosis:
1. Dentin hypersensitivity
2. Reversible pulpitis.
3. Irreversible pulpitis.
4. Apical Periodontitis.
22 Pain of short duration with hot and cold
most probably due to:
1. Irreversible pulpitis.
2. Pulp necrosis.
3. Dentin hypersensitivity
4. Chronic pulpitis
Q = Which of the following is/are dentin
desensitizing agent?f
A. Potassium salts
B. Strontium salts
C.33 % sodium fluoride solution
D. All of the above
23 Pt presented to u with trauma of the
central incisor with open apex tooth clinical
examination revealed cut of blood supply to the
tooth what is the next step:
1. Extraction.
2. Endo.
3. Observe over time.
13
*revascularization is possible.
24 Child came to u with gray discoloration of
the deciduous incisor also on radiographic
exam. There is dilation of follicle of the
permanent successor what wills u do:
1. Extract the deciduous tooth.
2. Endodontic treatment for infected tooth.
Obturation by CaOH
3. Observe over time.
25 - Weeping canal we use:
1. Gutta percha.
2. Calcim Hydroxide Ca(OH).
26 - Pt presented to u 1 month after amalgam
restoration with pain may be due to:
1. Gamma 1.
2. Gamma 2.
3. Zinc containing alloy.
4. Improper hg ratio.
The main purpose of adding the zinc, though, is
for it to act as a scavenger for
oxygen, thereby reducing corrosion through
minimizing the occurrence of
other metal oxides in the finished amalgam, BUT:
with zinc, there is also the possibility of
reaction of the metallic zinc with water to
yield zinc oxide and hydrogen ,The latter causes
bubbling and expansion of the filling which, in
severe cases, will result in pulpal pain and
cuspal fracture.
27 Child 6 years old came to u with thumb suck
already caused dental problem what u will do:
1. Nothing.
2. Refer to psychologist.
3. Habit breaking appliance.
28 Conditioning of resected root end by:
1. Citric acid.
2. EDTA.
3. Phosphoric acid.
4. H2O2.
29 In GV black formula : The measurement of
the angle of the Blade to the long axis of the
handle is : ( In black three number formula )
1. First number. ( blade width )
2. Second number.( blade length)
3. Third number. (blade angle) WLA
30 - When extracting all max teeth the correct
order is:
1. 87654321.
14
2. 87542163. Leave 6 and canine until the end.
3. 12345678.
*may be : 8>7>5>4>6>2>1>3
Q Stomodeum and foregut separated by:
1/ oropharyngeal (buccopharyngeal) membrane
2/ectodermal cleft
31 Drug used to decrease saliva during
impression taking is:
1. Anticholinergic agent.
2. Cholinergic.
3. Antidiabetic.
4. Anticorticosteroid.
32 The tooth most commonly removed surgically:
1. Canine.
2. Lower third molar.
3. upper third molar
34 All regard to dentist has needle brick of
HBV pt. except:
1. Allow wound to bleed don't scrub.
2. Wash with water then put plaster.
3. Consult immunological unit.
4. pressure on the wound to stop bleeding
35 - squamous cell carcinoma is a malignant
from:
1. Skin.
2. Mucous membrane.
3. Gland tissue.
4. Mucous epithelial membrane.
36 - Father for child 12 year Pt asked you
about, the age for the amalgam restoration of
his child,
you tell him:
1. 2 years.
15
2. 9 years.
3. 2 decade.
4. All life.
37 Pt has unilateral fracture of left the
condoyle, the mandible will:
1. Deviate to the left side. = To the side of
fracture
2. Deviate to the right side.
3. no deviate
38 4year child come to restore his lower first
molar with destruction in 3to 4 surfaces ,the
best
restoration:
1. Preformed crown. = preformed stainless-steel
crown
2. Full porcelain crown.
3. Full metal crown.
4. extraction
40 Selection of shade depends on all of the
following EXCEPT:
1. Take shade before extraction.
2. Look at yellow board before selecting shade.
3. Selection of shade depends by order on: value
chrome, hue.
4. not more than 5 seconds taken to select shade
41 Tooth discoloration from amalgam filling
prevented by:
1. Cavity varnish.
2. Proper triturating.
42 - patient have a complete denture come to
your clinic he complain of gagging he wear the
denture for 5 years he feel the gagging in the
first few days and it disappear what is the
cause:
1. Extend of the upper denture.
2. The patient has sensitivity to gagging.
43 - Arrange the steps:
1 ca (oH) > 2 bases > 3 varnish > 4 amalgam.
Pulp capping-base-varnish-filling.
44 Rigid palatal strap major connector the
material of construction is:
1. Co-Cr. (Cobalt Chromium)
2. Gold it.
3. Wrought wire.
45 Gingival condition occurs in young adult
has poor oral hygiene was weakened:
ANUG. = Acute necrotizing ulcerative
gingivitis
46 - The compression relaxation cycle of
external cardiac compression should be repeated:
1. Twice per second.
16
2. 60 times per minute.
3. 76 mes per minute.
4. 100 mes per minute.
= 60 compression / relaxation cycles per minute.
47 Prophylactic antibiotic needed in:
1. Local Anesthesia not intraligamentary.
2. Suture removal.
3. Routine tooth brushing.
4. Orthodontic band.
*Prophylaxis recommended : Dental procedures
with bleeding: periodontal procedures initial
placement of orthodontic bands intraligamentary
local anesthesia
48 Progression of initial caries to
cavitations takes 18 month this based on:
1. Streptococci .mutans initiates caries.
2. Lactobacilli progress caries.
= The time for progression from incipient caries
to clinical caries (cavitation) on smooth
surfaces
is estimated to be 18 months, plus or minus 6
months
= It has also been reported that Streptococcus
mutans is related to the initiation of dental
caries
and Lactobacillus acidophilus is responsible for
the progression of caries.
49 Caries progression in children more rapid
than adult due to:
1. Difference in PH.
2. Generalized dentine sclerosis by age. =
(physiological dentin sclerosis)
3. Increasing in organic content of tubular
dentine by age.
50 Schick intradermal test used in:
determination of susceptibility to :
1. Tuberculosis.
2. Typhoid.
3. Diphtheria.
1 - Twins came to your clinic during routine
examination; you found great change behavior
between both of themthis due to:
1. Hereditary. SAMPLE 3
2. Environment.
3. Maturation.
2 Instrument used to handle the needle is:
1. Curved hemostat.
2. Adson forceps.
3. Allies forceps.
17
3 Child 3 years old came to clinic after
fallen on his chin, you found that the primary
incisor
intruded the follicle for the permanent incisor
what you will do:
1. Surgical removal of the follicle.
2. Leave it.
3. Surgically removal of the primary incisor.
4 - Porcelain, highly esthetic, anterior maxilla
area, we choose:
1. Decor.
2. In Ceram.
3. Impress.
5 The highest strength in porcelain:
ZR (zirconia) reinforced inceram
6 Main disadvantage of chlorhexidine mouthwash
:
1. Staining of the teeth.
2. Burning sensation.
3. Altered taste.
7 After bleaching a tooth, we want to restore
the tooth with composite resin, we dont want to
compromise the bonding, and we wait for:
1. 24 hours.
2. A week.
3. Choose a different material.
8 - Rubber dam is important because it:
1. Improves safety.
2. Looks scientific.
3. Improves suction.
9 7 year old boy came to the clinic in the
right maxillary central incisor with large pulp
exposure:
1. Pulpectomy with Ca (OH) 2.
2. Direct pulp capping.
3. Leave it.
10 - What kind of periodontal probe is used in
the furcation area?
1. WHO.
2. Nabers probe.
3. UNC 15. 4. Michigan
18
11 Pt taken heparins he should do surgery
after:
1. 1 hr.
2. 2 hr.
3. 4 hr.
4. 6 hr.
= The anticoagulant effects of heparin last for
four to six hours after a single dose
12 - Streptococcus mutants cause caries &this
disease is:
1. Epidemic.
2. Endemic.
3. Isolated
13 - To determine the occlusal plan which
LANDMARK:
1. Frankfort plan.
2. Ala tragus line or (camper's line)
14 Silane coupling agent:
1. Used with porcelain to enhance wettability of
bonding.
2. Used with tooth and porcelain. ?
= Silane coupling agent enhance the wettability
of composite resins to porcelain
15 - The power toothbrush invented in:
1. 1929.
2. 1939.
3. 1929.
4. 1959.
16 - What kind of suture used under the
immediate denture:
1. Horizontal matter suture.
2. Vertical matter suture.
3. Interrupted suture.
4. continuous locked suture
17 - 30years old pt came to the clinic with
brownish discoloration of all his teeth
(intrinsic
discoloration) & yellowish in U/V light the most
likely cause is:
1. Flourosis.
2. Tetracycline Discoloration
3. Amelogensis imperfect.
4. Dentogensis imperfectea
= Tetracyclin Discoloration :can be demonstrated
in teeth and bones in ultraviolet light, showing
up as fluorescent yellow bands.
18 Pt came to the clinic complaining from
soreness in the tongue sore throat the diagnosis
is:
1. Burning mouth syndrome. ( Neural )
19
2. Geographical tongue.
3. Fissure tongue.
19 - Old pt came to replace all old amalgam
filling he had severe occlusal attrition the
best
replacement is:
1. Composite.
2. Amalgam.
3. Cast metal restoration.
4. Full crowns
20 Teenager boy with occlusal wear the best
treatment is:
1. Remove the occlusal.
2. Teeth capping.
3. Restoration.
*mouthguard , soft splint
21 - Which of most likely cause of periodontal
cyst: ( latral periapical)
1. Cell rest of Malassez .
2. Cell rest of serss.
3. Cell of hertwig sheath.
= The epithelial lining is derived from the
epithelial rests of Malassez
22 - The percentage of simple caries located in
the outer wall of the dentin (proximal sides of
the
tooth) which left without cavitations is around:
1. 10 %.
2. 30 %.
3. 60 %.
4. 90 %.
= About 60% of lesions seen as radiolucencies in
the outer half of enamel are usually
noncavitated and remineralizable
23 What is the usual time for isolating
Chickenpox pt. from the around people:
1. One week.
2. Until the vesicles become crusted.
= Chickenpox: Strict isolation until all
vesicles crust over
24 Nitrous oxide affects:
1. Vit A.
2. Vit B6.
3. Vit B12.
4. Vit C.
= Exposure to nitrous oxide : affects vitamin
B12 metabolism and bone marrow
25 Water irrigators are used for:
20
1. Plaque removes.
2. Remove debris between teeth.
27 5 years old pt had extraction of the lower
primary molar & he had fracture of the apex of
the
tooth what is the best treatment:
1. Aggressive remove.
2. Visualization & remove.
3. Visualization & leave.
= Use of elevators can cause damage to the
underlying permanent tooth.
28 - the most common professional use of
fluoride in pedo are:
1 Acidulated phosphate fluoride (APF) 1.23%
2 sodium fluoride (NaF),
3 stannous fluoride
29 Mucoceles the best treatment is:
1. Excision. ( Surgical excision )
2. Leave it.
3. Marspuilization.
4. Cauterization.
= Mucocele (Mucus extravasation phenomenon ) is
a common lesion of the oral mucosa that results
from the rupture of salivary gland duct and
spillage of mucin into the surrounding soft
tissues. The lower lip is the most common site.
30 Preparation of gold crown with excepts of
gingival rescission the most proper to extent
the
preparation:
1mm under the gingival margin.
Make it on the fifth.
Make it on the third.
At the gingival.
= at the gingival crest or limited to a depth of
0.5mm intracrevicular placement
31- Amount of daily wear of amalgam ingested in
the body:
1. 1 - 3 g /day of mercury.
2. 10 15 mg/day of mercury.
3. 25 mg/day of mercury.
Numerous studies have shown that amalgam release
sufficient vapor to cause between 1 and 3
micro gram of mercury absorption per day,
depending on the number of amalgams present
32 - Minimal facial reduction when preparing for
veneers:
1. 0.3 mm.
2. 0.3-0.5 mm.
3. 1-1.5 mm.
= depth of approximately0.5 to 0.75 mm
midfacially, diminishing to a depth of 0.3 to
0.5 mm
21
along the gingival margin
33 Pt came after 24 month of tooth
replantation which had ankylosis with no root
resorption it
most likely to develop root resorption in:
1. Reduce greatly.
2. Increase.
3. After 2 years.
4. After 4 years
34 the most affect tooth in nurse bottle
feeding:
1. Lower molars.
2. Upper molars.
3. Maxillary incisors.
4. Mand incisor.
35 patient in the clinic had Bronchial asthma
on the dental chair you will give him
epinephrine
subcutaneously:
1. 1/1000.
2. 1/10000.
3. 1/100000.
36 Most effective method to prevent dental
caries:
1. Water fluoridation.
2. Fluoridated tooth past.
37 - Testing a tooth with porcelain fused to
metal with:
1. Cold test.
2. Cold and hot.
3. Cold with rubber dam.
38 Die ditching means:
1. Carving apical to finish line.
2. Carving coronal to finish line.
3. Mark finish line with pen.
39 Root canal irrigant used to kill E.
faecalis
1. NaoH.
2. MTAD.
3. Saline.
= MTAD is a mixture of tetracycline isomer
(doxycycline), an acid (citric acid), and a
detergent
(Tween 80). MTAD is found to be as effective as
5.25 percent NaOCl and significantly more
22
effective than EDTA. Furthermore, MTAD is
significantly more effective in killing E.
faecalis
than NaOCl when the solutions are diluted.
40 - Hand instrument which we used to make
internal angles retentive grooves and
preparation of
cavity walls in the cavity is:
1. Angle former.
2. Chisel.
3. File.
4. enamel hatched
41 - The vertical fracture of the tooth detected
by:
1. Periodontal pocket
2. Radiographically.
3. vertical percussion
*( narrow & related to single wall)
42 The most superior Cold test for pulp:
1. Ethyl chloride. ( cotton pellet saturated
with it )
2. Ice block. ( co2 ice stick frozen co2 dry
ice co2 snow )
3. Cold spray. (Refrigerant spray ) contain
tetrafluoroethane, = most popular method
43 Impression material cause bad taste to
patient:
1. polysulphide
2. Polyether.
3. Additional silicon.
4. Alginate.
44 - Dry socket ( alveolar osteitis ) appears (
symptoms ) after extraction :
1. 24 hours.
2. 2 3 days.
3. 1 week.
45 Patient with simple herpes ( Herpes Semplex
), treated by Acyclovir.The dose should be
given is:
1. 400 mg/ three times per day.
2. 200 mg/ five times per day. For 5-7 days
3. 800 mg/ three times per day.
*For 5-7 days
46 One of the prim considerations in the
treatment of fractures of the jaw is :
1. To obtain and maintain proper occlusion. (
re-establishment of normal occlusion )
2. Test teeth mobility.
3. Vitality.
4. Embedded foreign bodies.
23
47 60 YEARS old patient need to make complete
denture has ( thick labial frenum with wide
base) the operation:
1. Vestibuloplasty.
2. Z-plasty.
3. Subperiostumincision.
4. Deepmucoperiostumincision
= Wide-based frenum attachments may best be
treated with a localized vestibulo- plasty
technique
48 Scrap Amalgam keeps under:
1. Radiographic Fixer solution.
2. Developer.
3. Water
= Salvage and store all scrap amalgam in a
tightly closed container, either dry or under
radiographic fixer solution. Amalgam scrap
should not be stored in water.
49 Amalgam restoration and there is also gold
restoration, result in galvanic action to
manage:
1. Wait.
2. Change restoration. ( replace amalgam with
non metallic restoration )
3. Varnish.
4. Separating medium.
50 Patient with leukemia ,absolute
neutrophilic count is 1700 what oral surgeon
should do:
1. Go on the manover.
2. Postpone another day.
3. Work with prophylactic antibiotic.
4. Platelets transfusion.
SAMPLE 4
1 Hypercementosis and ankylosis is seen in:
1. Paget disease.
2. Monocytic fibrous dysplasia.
3. Hyperparathyroidism.
2 The infection will spread cervical in
infection from:
1. Lower incisors.
2. Lower premolars.
3. Lower 2nd and 3rd molars.
4. Upper incisors.
3 The first cervical vertebra is axis:
1. True.
2. False.
= First ATLAS second AXIS
24
4 In maxillary upper first molar, Forth canal
is in the :
1. Mesiobuccal root.
2. Distobuccal.
3. Mesio lingual.
4. Lingual.
5 When take x ray in upper premolar to locate
lingual root using mesial shift it will appear:
1. Distal.
2. Buccal.
3. Lingual.
4. Mesial.
( SLOB rule : Clark rule ) : same Lingual
Opposite Buccal
6 - Osteoradionecrosis is more in:
1. Maxilla.
2. Mandible.
3. No difference.
7 - In inflamed mucosa due to wearing denture
(for long time) when to do new denture:
1. Immediately.
2. After week.
3. Put tissue conditioning material ( in the
existing denture ) to allow tissues to heal,
then
take impression.
8 Dentinogenesis imperfect has all EXCEPT:

1. Easily fractured bone.
2. Easily fractured enamel.
3. Blue sclera.
4. Supernumerary teeth.
9 Retention of amalgam depends on:
1. Amalgam bond.
2. Convergence of walls oclusally.
3. Divergence of walls occlusally.
4 Retentive pins.
*the facial and lingual walls of the occlusal
portion of the preparation, as well as the
proximal
portion, converge toward the occlusal surface.
25
10 Student came to clinic with severe pain,
interdental papilla is inflamed, student has:
1. Gingivitis.
2. ANUG.
3. Periodontitis.
11 Which of following restoration more likely
to cause wear to opposing?
1. Composite.
2. Gold.
3. Porcelain.
4. Amalgam.
12 - Acidulated phosphate fluoride (APF): kids
1. 1.23%.
2. 2%.
3. 2.23.
4. 3%.
13 - Radiolucent lesion with scalloped border
above inferior alveolar canal between roots of
mandibular molars, this lesion is:
1. Solitary cyst.
2. Anyresmal bone cyst.
( Solitary bone cyst - Simple bone cyst -
Traumatic bone cyst - Haemorrhagic bone cyst )
14 - Patient 6 years old came to your clinic
after he had bicycle accident one day after,
with
Swelling at his lower lip, clinical examination
shows, teeth did not hurt, what you will do:
1. X-ray.
2. Endo for lower incisors.
3. Pulpotomy.
15 Perforation during endo space preparation
what is the most surface of distal root of lower
Molar will have tendency of perforation:
1. M surface.
2. D surface.
3. B surface.
4. L surface.
16 - 3rd generation of apex locator: ( Endex )
1. Use with all pt.
2. Need more research.
3. Increase chair time.
4. Decrease radiographic film need.
26
17 Acceptable theory for dentinal pain:
1. Hydrodynamic theory.
2. Fluid movement.
3. Direct transduction.
18 - Pregnant 25 years, bleeding on probing,
location on papilla of anterior area of the
maxilla,
isolated:
1. Giant cell granuloma.
2. Pyogenic granuloma
3. Giant cell granuloma.
(pregnancy epulis pregnancy tumor pyogenic
granuloma).
19 Pt came to the clinic complaining from pain
related to swelling on maxillary central incisor
area with vital teeth under percussion:
1. Periapical cyst.
2. Incisive canal cyst.
3. Globulomaxillary cyst.
4. Anuyrsmal bone cyst.
*Incisive canal cyst (nasopalatin duct cyst).
20 Pt came to the clinic& u reveled under
medical history he had chronic renal failure; he
used
to do hemi dialysis the treatment should be:
1. Before one day of dialysis.
2. On the day of dialysis.
3. After one day of dialysis.
4. After one week of dialysis.
21 Location to give inferior alveolar nerve
block the landmarks are:
1. Pterygomandibular raphy.
2. Cronoid notch.
3. inner and external oblique ridge
3. All of the above.
22 During the orthodontist removes orthodontic
brackets he noticed white decalcified lesion
around the bracket what to do:
1. Microabration and application of pumice then
fluoride application.
2. Composite resin.
3. Leave and observe.
27
23 Pt presented with bicycle accident u
suspect presence of bilateral condylar fracture
what is
the best view to diagnose cond. Fracture:
1. Occiptomenatal.
2. Reverse towne Projection
3. Lat oblique 30 degree.
24 - Patient on long term antibiotic came with
systemic candidias, treatment with :
1. amphotericin B.
2. Flucanzol.
Q Patient with Systemic candidiasis, best
treated by :
1. amphotericin B.
2. Flucanzol.
* For serious systemic fungal infections, the
drug of choice is amphotericin B.
25 Patient Is on 10 mg corticosteroids
(prednisolone) for months, need dental
extraction, you
will:
1. Give antibiotics.
2. Double doze the day of extraction.
3. Double doze one day before, the same day, and
day after surgery.
4. Take no action.
26 - Pt came complain of fracture at the metal
porcelain interface may be due to:
1. Failure to condition tooth before application
of opaque.
2. Thick body porcelain.
3. Centric contact made at metal porcelain
interface.
27 Caries detection dye composed mainly of:
1. Acid fuschin.
2. Basic fuschin.
3. Propylene glycol.( polypropylene glycol )
28 Pt came have distal root having periapical
radioluscency denoting the need for endo but pt
is
financially restrained And wants to extract the
tooth What u do:
1. Tell him to go to another dentist.
2. Followt he pt and extract the tooth.
28
3. Explain benefit of do nothing, endo and
extraction.
4. Explain the pt. benefits of do endo, as
saving of the tooth then if he restrains, write
that in
his chart ( record )and extract the tooth.
29 - Pt has maxillary posterior partial denture
with porcelain teeth He then lost the mand
Posterior
teeth what type of teeth used for mand Partial
denture:
1. Porcelain.
2. Acrylic.
3 Metal
30 Orthodontically treatment tooth having
rosorption in the canal what to do:
1. Repeated dressing with calcium hydroxide.
2. Single visit endo.
31 Trauma caused fracture of the root at
junction between middle and cervical third:
1. Do endo for coronal part only.
2. Do endo for the both coronal and apical
(pulpectomy).
3. Splint together.
4. Extract.
= displaced coronal portion should be
repositioned and stabilized by rigid splinting
for 12 weeks
32 - When doing cantilever bridge all except:
1. Small in all diameters.
2. High yield strength.
3. Minimal contact.
4. Small occlosogingivally coz:it will weaken
the bridge.
33 Autoclave relative to 100f dry oven:
1. The same time.
2. Slightly higher time.
3. Considerable higher time.
4. Less time.
34 Pt have a complete denture came to the
clinic ,tell you no complaint in the talking ,or
in the
chewing ,but when you exam him, you see the
upper lip like too long ,deficient in the margin
ate
of the lip, reason is:
1. Deficiency in the vertical dimensional.
2. Anterior upper teeth are short.
3. Deficient in vit B.
35 - Female come need to endodontic for central
insical ,and have media composite restorations
in the mesial and distal walls ,and have
attrition in the insicial, edge the best
restoration?
1. Jacket crown.
2. Full crown. = Full ceramic ?
29
3. Metal crown.
36 How can alter the sitting time for
alginate:
1. Alter ratio powder/ water.
2. Alter water ratio.
3. We can't alter it.
4. By addition accelerated.
*best method to alter sitting ( gelation ) time
is to alter water temperature
37 Secondary dentine occurs due to: 1.
Occlusal trauma. 2. Recurrent caries. 3.
Attrition dentine. 4. All of the above.
*(reparative dentin:all of the above)
38 - All of these are ways to give L.A with less
pain EXCEPT:
1. Give it slowly.
2. Stretch the muscle.
3. Topical anesthesia.
4. The needle size over than 25 gauge
39 True apex (or obturation):
1. 0.5-1 mm shorter than radiographic apex
2. 0.5-1 mm beyond radiographic apex.
41 - Dentist provided bleaching which also know
as (home bleaching) contain:
1. 35-50%hydrogen peroxide.
2. 5-22% carbamide peroxide.
42 - In intra uterine life the mandible starts
to develop but clavicle ( collar bone ) start
before it:
1. True.
2. False.
*The mandible is the second bone (after the
clavicle) to start ossifying in the fetus
43 The primary source of retention of
porcelain veneer:
1. Mechanical retention from under cut.
2. Mechanical retention from secondary retentive
features.
3. Chemical bond by sialine coupling agent. N.b:
sialine is used between composite and porcaline
.
4. Micromechanical bond from etching of enamel
and porcelain.
44 - pt. presented to u complains of click
during open and close. There is no facial
asymmetry
except when opening what is the diagnosis:
30
1. Internal derangement with reduction.
2. Internal derangement without reduction.
3. Rheumatoid arthritis.
internal derangements: which involve progressive
slipping or displacement of a component of the
temporomandibular joint called the articular
disc.
There are two basic types of soft-tissue
internal derangements. The more common is
referred to as an internal derangement with
reduction; the disc slides into and out of its
normal functional position as the jaw opens or
closes, causing the popping sound characteristic
of TMD. In cases of internal derangement without
reduction, the disc is permanently displaced or
dislocated to an incorrect position, and the
jaw's range of motion is limited.
45 Child 10 years come with trauma on the
center incisal a year ago ,and have discoloring
on it
,in the exam, no vitality in this tooth ,and in
the x ray there is fracture from the edge of the
incisial
to the pulp ,and wide open apex the best
treatment:
1. apexification .
2. RCT with qutta percha.
3. Extract.
4. Capping.
n.b:if it was a recent fracture, we leave and
inspect, because there is a chance for
revascularization.
Apexification: It is the method of inducing the
development of root apex((closure)) in an
immature pulpless tooth by the formation of
osteocementum or other bone like tissue. It is
indicated in cases where there is no normal pulp
tissue i.e., where the pulp has undergone
irreversible pulpal necrosisRemove pulp tissue
and fill with caoh>>after 6 months remove the
dressing and fill with gutta percha.
46 Patient came to your clinic complaining of
pain; upon examination you cant find a clue.
Whats the next logical step to do in
investigation?
1. MRI.
2. Panoramic x-ray.
3. CT scan.
4. Regular tomography.
47 - What is the most factor encouraging dental
caries?
1. Xerostomia.
2. Hypo calcification.
3. Smoking.
48 Child suffering a trauma resulting in a
complete avulsion. The more successful is when:
1. Immediate.
2. After 24 hour.
31
*The most important factor for healing is
immediate (<5 min) replantation
Whith primary teeth no reimplantation process
49 A child at dentition age is suffering from:
1. Diarrhea.
2. Sleep disorders.
3. Increased salivation
50 The outline form of upper maxillary molar
access opening is Triangular, The base of this
triangle is directed toward:
1. Buccal.
2. Palatal.
3. Mesial.
4. Distal.
SAMPLE 5
1 Most common cause of porosity in a porcelain
restoration is: ( a gateway to MDS MCQ )
1. Moisture of contamination.
2. Excessive firing temperature.
3. Excessive condensation of the porcelain.
4. Inadequate condensation of porcelain.
2- Among the following which is compound
fracture :
1.Fracture with many small fragments
2 Fracture in a star shaped appearance
3 Fracture with communication with the oral
cavity
4 Fracture with bleeding into the masticator
space
Q)Among the following which extra oral
radiograph best demonstrate the subcondylar
fracture:
1 Towne projection
2 AP mandible
3 Submento vertex
4 occipitomenta
3 Upon giving a lower mandible anesthesia, you
notice the patients eye, cheek corner of the
lip
are uncontrolled, whats the reason:
- Parasthia of the Facial Nerve. (Injecting the
solution near a branch of facial nerve )
4 Where does the breakdown of Lidocaine
occurs:
1. Kidneys.
2. Liver.
= Amide local anaesthetics are metabolised by
the liver
5 - What is the main function of Trays holes?
32
Fixing the Impression material. Retention of
imp material
6 - Instrument used to catch the flap (soft
tissue) when we do impaction in lower third
molar:
1. Adson forceps. (Adson tissue forceps)
2. Allis forceps.
3. Curved hemostat.
4. Regular tweezers.
{NB Time of PT, PTT (this is not question
information): PT: 11 15 sec. PTT: 25 40
sec.}
PTT:partial thromoboplastine time PT:pro
thrombin time
8 - After patient came to your clinic and gave
an extended history and complains, whats your
next step in treatment?
1. Clinical examination.
2. Start the treatment.
3. Radiographic examination.
9 Method of Detection of Cracked teeth:
1. Horizontal percussion.
2. Vertical percussion.
3. Electric pulp test.
4. Transillumination / visible light test. use
of fiber-optic light
10 - Which of the following materials is NOT a
haemostatic agent?
1. Oxidized cellulose.
2. Gelfoam.
3. Zinc Oxide.
*gelatine sponge - bone wax
11 An 8 years old child suffered a trauma at
the TMJ region as infant. Complaining now from
limitation in movement of the mandible.
Diagnosis is:
1. Sub luxation.
2. Ankylosis.
*direct trauma, systemic disease, surgery
12 -Using fluoride toothpaste for children less
than 3 years is:
1. Recommended.
2. Toxic.
3. Limited.
4. Not useful.
13 To detect the caries we use:
Acid red dye 1%(or propylene glycol).
33
14 - Fractured tooth to alveolar crest, what's
the best way to produce ferrule effect?
1. Restore with amalgam subgingivally.
2. Crown lengthening.
3. Extrusion with orthodontics.
15 the most fissure abnormality is:
1. Cleft palate.
2. Cleft lip.
3. Cleft lip and palate.
16 - Vibrating line between:
1. Hard and soft palate.
2. Movable and immovable tissues of soft palate
*he imaginary line across the posterior part of
the palate marking the division between the
movable and immovable tissues of the soft palate
17 - When restoring asymptomatic healthy tooth
with amalgam, the normal physiologic symptom
after that is:
1. Pain on hot.
2. Pain on cold.
3. Pain on biting.
4. Pain on sweet.
18 - Patient with amalgam usually complains of
pain with:
1. Cold.
2. Galvanic.
3. Hot.
19 - The best method to protect teeth that
underwent bicuspidization procedure from
fracture:
1. Full crown.
2. Splint with composite.
3. Orthodontic splint.
20 - Powder for GI cement contains:
1. SiO2, Al2O3, CaF
2. SiO2, ZnO, bariumsulphate.
3. None of the above.
N.B: Zno for radio opacity.
21 - Cavity class II restoration with composite
resin all cavosurface angles should be:
1. Well rounded.
2. Right angles.
34
3. Acute angels.
4. Obtuse angels.
22 - Following cavity bases are moisture
sensitive:
1. Polycarboxylate.
2. Zinc phosphate.
3. GI.
4. ZnO eugenol.
5. 1+3.
23 - Cyst in x- ray:
1. Radiolucent with bone expansion.
2. Radiolucent with bone resorption.
24 - During endo pt is complaining of pain with
percussion what u suspect? ( after obt few days
)
1. Apical Periodontitis.
2. Secondary apical Periodontitis.
3. Over instrumentation.
4. Over medicate.
25 - Crown and root perforation:
1. Respond to MTA.
2. Use matrix with hydroxiapatite and seal with
GI.
3. Root canal filling.
4. 1+2.
26 - Removing of dentine in dangerous zone to
cementium is:
1. Perforation.
2. Ledge.
3. Stripping.
4. Zipping.
* A strip perforation can be caused by over-use
of GatesGlidden burs or rotary coronal flaring
instruments. The resultant defect is a narrow
slit-like perforation on the internal curvature
of the
root canal.
27 - Which palatal form is more retentive and
offers better stability to complete denture:
1. V shaped.
2. Wide palate.
3. U shaped.
4. Flat palate.
28 - What is the concept of Pro-taper system?
1. Step down tech.
2. Step back tech.
35
3. Crown down.
29 - Which intracanal medicament causes protein
coagulation?
1. Formocresol.
2. Naocl.
3. MTAD.
30 - To prevent gingival injury place the margin
of the pontic : or retainer??
1. At the level of gingival crest. ((For
retainer))
2. Above gingival crest.
3. Apical to gingival crest 1 mm.
4. Apical to gingival crest 0.5 mm.
31 - Arrange the steps of cleft palate
management:
1. Measures to adjust speech.
2. Establish way for nursing and feeding.
3. Cosmetic closure.
4. Prevent collapse of two halves.
Correct steps: (2 4 1 3).
32 - Person who is un able to differentiate the
colors, and can tell his name, or address he is
acting
like:
3 years old.
4 years old.
10 years old.
33 - Child with late primary dentition has
calculus and gingival recession related to upper
molar
what is the diagnosis:
1. Periodontitis.
2. Local aggressive Periodontitis.
3. Viral infection.
34 - Type of professionally applied fluoride for
mentally retarded pt:
1. Neutral sodium fluoride.
2. Stannous fluoride.
3 Acidulated fluoride solutions.
N.B:FOR KIDS ITS APF
35 - 8 years old pt. had trauma to 8(upper
central) presented after 30 minute of injury He
had crown fracture with incipient pulp exposure
what u do:
1. Direct pulp capping.
2. Pulpotomy.
3. Pulpctomy.
4. Observe. *Up to 24 hours
36
36 - The role of good sterilization:
1. Washing, drying, inspection, Bagging,
autoclave, storage.
2. Inspection, autoclave, drying, storage.
3. Autoclave, drying, storage.
4. Autoclave is enough.
37 - In a curved root u bent a file by:
1. Put gauze on the file & bend it by hand.
2. Bends the file by pliers.
3. By bare figure.
4. By twister.
38 - Tongue developed from:
1. Mandibular arch & toburclumimpart.
2. first branchial arch. = (mandibular arch)
39 You extract tooth with large amalgam
restoration, how to manage the extracted tooth:
1. Autoclave and be buried.
2. Sharp container.
3. special waste container.
= Amalgam and mercury waste, including extracted
teeth containing amalgam restorations, is
classified as special waste and cannot be
incinerated due to the release of toxic mercury
vapour. It
should be stored separately in rigid airtight
containers and then collected by authorized
contractors for recycling.
40 Treacher Collins syndrome have
characteristic feature:
1. No ear loss.
2. Upward of eye.
3. Prognthesia of mandible.
4. Malar bone not well formed or absence.
*malformed or absent ears, downward slanting
eyes, micrognathia (a small lower jaw),
underdeveloped zygoma ( malar bone )
41 - At which temperature gutta percha reaches
alpha phase:
1. 42 49 c.
2. 50 60 c.
3. 70 80 c.
4. 100 c.
*beta solid phase - alpha plasticized phase
42 - Fluoride amount in water should be:
1. 0.2-0.5 mg/liter.
2. 1-5 mg/liter.
37
3. 0.7 1.2 mg/liter
4. 0.1- 0.2 mg/liter.
* The optimum fluoride level in water for good
oral health is between 0.7 to 1.2 mg/L
43 Dentinal Hypersensitivity is due to:
1. Exposed dentine with opened dentinal tubules.
2. Obliterated dentinal tubule.
44 - Pt came to dental clinic having a
homological problem after lab test they found
that factor
VIII clotting activity is less 10% whats the
diagnosis:
1. Hemophilia A.
2. Hemophilia B.
= Hemophilia A (factor VIII deficiency) and
hemophilia B (factor IX deficiency)
= mild hemophiliaA, with activity levels 5% to
20% = severe HemophiliaA less than 1%
45 65 Years old black man wants to have very
white teeth in his new denture what should the
dentist do:
1. Put the white teeth.
2. Show the patient the suitable color first
then show him the white one.
3. Convince him by showing him other patient's
photos.
4. Tell him firmly that his teeth color is good.
46 - Provisional restoration for metal ceramic
abutment is:
1. Aluminum sheet.
2. Stainless steal crown.
3. Zno.
4. Tooth colored polycarbonate crown.
47 - Buccal branch of facial is:
1. Sensory.
2. Motor.(buccinatore muscule)
3. Mixed.
48 - The common cause of fainting in dental
clinic are::
1. Vaso-vagal shock.
2. Diabetes.
3. Fear.
49 - Sharpening the curette and sickle scaler,
the cutting edge should be at angle:
1. 50-60.
2. 70-80.
3. 80-90.
4. 60-70.
38
50 - All these are contraindicated to RCT
except:
1. Non restorable tooth.
2. Vertical root fracture.
3. Tooth with insufficient tooth support.
4. Pt who has diabetes or hypertension.
SAMPLE 6
1 - Contents of the Anesthesia Ampoule:
1. Lidocaine + epinephrine + Ringers liquid +
another thing.
2. Lidocaine + epinephrine + distilled water.
3. Lidocaine + epinephrine only
2 How much subgingivally do you go with the
band in class II restorations?
1. 0.5 1 mm.
2. 1 2 mm.
3. 2 3 mm.
3 - Electric pulp tester on the young is not
accurate because:
1. Late appearance of Fibers A.
2. Late appearance of Fibers C.
3. Early appearance of fibers A.
4. Early appearance of fibers C.
*EPT stimulates the myelinated sensory fibers A
,The unmyelinated C fibers of the pulp do not
respond
4 Pt come with sinus tract , you make tracing
and take radiograph, the GP appears in lateral
surface of the root:
1. Periodontal abscess.
2. Periodontitis.
3. Lateral accessory canal.
5 - A Tailor is presented to your dental office,
whats the most common feature to be found in
his
teeth upon examination:
1. Attrition.
2. Abrasion.
3. Erosion.
4. Abfarcation.
6 - Whats the first ( early ) sign of Syncope?
1. Paleness.
2. Nose bleeding.
3. Miosis.
* Usually the first signs are nausea, paleness,
sweatiness, rapid heart rate, dizziness
7 - Female patient came to your clinic with
continuous severe pain related to 1st maxillary
molar.
39
After examination dentist diagnose the tooth is
carious and has irreversible pulpits He decides
to
do RCT. After enough time for anesthetization,
the patient wont allow the dentist to touch the
tooth due to severe pain. Dentist should:
1. Give another appointment to the patient with
description of antibiotics.
2. Extraction.
3. Intra-pulpal anesthesia
* If patient discomfort is encountered, the
intrapulpal injection may be used as a
supplement for
pulpal anesthesia.
8 - Application rubber dam in the endodontic:
1. Necessary.
2. Patient comfort.
3. Established rule.
4. Extra cost.
= Use of a rubber dam in endodontics is
mandatory
9 - Three year old pt has anodontia (no teeth at
all), what would you do:
1. Full denture.
2. Implant.
3. Space maintainer.
4. No intervention.
*removable complete maxillary and mandibular
dentures
10 Ugly duckling stage:
1. 9 to 11 years old.
2. 13 to 15 years old.
3. 7 to 9 years old.
11 - Porcelain shrinkage after firing;
1. 1-5%.
2. 5-10%.
3. 10-20%
12 Both glass ionomer & polycarboxylate cement
contain:
1. Polyacrylic acid.
2. ZO powder.
13 - Treatment of systemic fungal infections
best drug ? :
1. Penicillin.
2. Tetracycline.
3. amphotericin B
4. Nystatin.
14 -After etch enamel and bond it with 5th
generation the strength of:
40
1. 5-10Mp
2. 25Mp.
3. 30Mp.
4. 100Mp.
15 - For a patient that is on a corticosteroid
therapy, upon oral surgery, the
patient is given:
1. 50-60 mg hydrocortisone. Minor surgery
2. 400-600 mg prednisolone.
*If the patient is currently not on steroids but
had taken 20 mg or more of hydrocortisone for
more than 2 weeks within the past year
16 - A patient that wasnt anesthetized well in
his 1st visit, next day he returns with a
limited
mouth opening (trismus). He must be
anesthetized, whats the technique to be used:
1. Williams technique.
2. Bircher's technique.
= Vazirani-Akinosi technique: a closed-mouth
injection technique
17 - In hypertension patient the history is
important to detect severity:
1. True.
2. False.
18 Patient complaining of Xerostomia, frequent
going to the toilet at night:
Diabetes Mellitus.
19 - Digital radiography is a technique that
shows transition from white to black. Its main
advantage is the ability to manipulate the image
by computer:
1. 1st T, 2nd T.
2. 1st F, 2nd T.
3. Both T.
4. Both F.
*Digital receptors have a much wider dynamic
range than film. The number of increments in
shading between black and white is much greater,
so finer differences can be seen
20 - Patient suffering froma submandibular gland
abscess, dentist made a stab incision and is
fixing a rubber drain SUCTION DRAIN to evacuate
the pus, the drain is sutured to:
1. Intra-oral.
2. Fromangle of the mandible.
3. Between mylo-hyoid muscle muscle and.
21 - Whats the name of the Device used to
measure Vertical Dimension:
Caliper or Willis Gauge.
22 - ligaments associated with TMJ:
1. Tempromandibular.
2. Sphenomandibular.
41
3. Stylomandibular.
4. All the above.
23 Cracked tooth syndrome is best diagnosed
by?
1. Radiograph.
2. Subjective symptoms and horizontal
percussion.
3. Palpation and vertical percussion.
4. Pulp testing.
24 8 years old child with blue sclera and
multiple fractures, what's diagnosis?
Dentinogenesis imperfecta.
25 To check TMJ range of movement:
1. Cranial imagery.
2. Arthrography.
3. Traditional tomography.
4. Computerized tomography.
26 At which location in enamel is the density
of enamel crystals is lowest:
2. DEJ.
3. Center of enamel Prisms.
4. Edge of enamel Prisms.
5. Facial enamel.
27 - At which of the following locations on a
mandibular molar do you complete the excavation
of caries first:
1. Axial walls.
2. Pulpal floor over the mesial pulp horns.
3. Peripheral caries.
4. All of the above are correct.
28 - When taking an x-ray to pregnant lady we
use all of this method except:
1. Digital x-ray.
2. High sensitive film.
3. Short cone tech.
4. Inch/long cone/paralleling technique.
5. Lead apron with thyroid collar.
29 - Missing lower six and tilted 7 abutment: (
the best treatment )
1. Up righting of molar by orthodontics
2. Proximal half crown.
3. Telescope crown.
4. Non rigid connector.
30 - To remove a broken periodontal instrument (
tips) from the gingival:
42
Schwartz Periotriever
31 - The best way to remove silver point:
1. Stieglitz pliers.
2. Ultrasonic tips.
3. H files.
32 To fasten ( accelerate ) Zinc Oxide cement,
you add:
1. Zinc sulfide.
2. Zinc acetate. (accelerator)
3. Bariumsulfide.
4 Bariumchloride.
33 - Laser core can be used in curing of
composite:
1. ND (YAG).
2. HeNe.
3. Argon laser
= composite curing : halogen light emitting
diod LED laser ( argon )
34 - Hunter Schreger bands are white and dark
lines that appear in:
1. Enamel when viewin horizontal ground.
2. Enamel when viewin longitudinal ground.
3. Dentin when viewin horizontal ground.
4. Dentin when viewin longitudinal ground.
35 - Xylitol is sugar substitute which help in:
43
1. Decrease caries.
2. Increase caries. 1) The bacteria that cause
tooth decay are not able to ferment xylitol.
2)Xylitol exposure has an inhibiting effect on
the growth of cariogenic bacteria and this may
create a permanent change in their oral
population. 3) Xylitol reduces the accumulation
of dental plaque on tooth surfaces. 4) Xylitol
use promotes conditions that favor tooth
remineralization.
36 To drain submandibular abscess:
1. Intraorally through the mylohyoid muscles..
2. Extraorally under the chin.
3. Extraorally at the most purulent site.
4. Extraorally below the lower border of the
mandible.
37 Picture - the rows show truth, the column
show test result":
1. Cell A has true positive sample.
2. Cell A has true negative sample.
3. Cell A has false positive sample.
4. Cell A has false negative sample.
Cell A = true positives
Cell B = false positives
Cell C = false negatives
Cell D = true negative
38 - Test used to detect HIV is:
Elisa.
* 1Elisa -2 Western blot Assay -3 Indirect
Immunofluoresence Assay
39 How do you know if there are 2 canals in
the same root?
1. Radiographically with 2 Files inside the
root.
2. The orifices are close to each other.
40 10 years Pt come with necrotic pulp in
upper central with root apex not close yet, best
treatment:
1. Calcium hydroxide. = ( apexification
procedure with caoh2 )
2. Calcific barrier.
3. Apexfication with gutta.
4 Gutta percha filling.
41 - Patient suffering from cracked enamel; his
chief complains is pain on:
44
1. Hot stimuli.
2. Cold stimuli.
3. A&B.
4. Electric test.
42 - Most tooth surface affected by caries:
1. Pit and fissure.
2. Root surface.
3. Proximal surface.
43 - Scale to measure marginal deterioration:
1. Mahler scale.
2. Color analogues scale.
* Mahler scale showing levels of marginal
deterioration (No. 1 = none; No. II =
extensive).
44 - Tracing of GP used for:
1. Source of Periapical pathosis.
2. Acute periapical Periodontitis.
3. Periodontal abscess.
4. None.
45 - Dental student using thermoplasticized G.P.
what is the main problem he may face:
1. Extrusion of G.P. from the canal.
2. Inability to fill the proper length.
3. Failure to use master cone at proper length.
46 - What are the disadvantages of McSpadden
technique in obturation? =Thermomechanical
compaction :
1. Increase time.
2. Increase steps.
3. Difficult in curved canals.
4. All the above.
47 - Child with mental disorder suffers from
orofacial trauma, brought to the hospital by his
parents, the child is panic and Irritable, the
treatment should do under:
1. Local anesthesia.
2. General anesthesia.
3. Gas sedation.
4. Intravenous sedation.
48 - Least heat generated in:
1. Diamond bur.
2. Steel bur.
3. Carbide bur.
45
4. Titaniumbur.
49 - Pt need complete denture u take impression
with irreversible hydrocolloid &poured it after
late more than 15 min the cast appear sort &
chalky the reason is:
1. Dehydration of the impression.
2. Expansion of the impression.
3. Immerse the impression in a chemical
solution.
50 - Amount of reduction of functional cusp when
preparing for onlay:
1. 1mm.
2. 1.5mm.
3. 2mm.
4. 2.5mm.
SAMPLE 6-B
1 - Mechanochemical preparation during RCT main
aim:
1. Widening of the apex.
2. Master cone reaches the radiographic apex.
3. Proper debridement of the apical part of the
canal.
2 - Indirect retainers( in RPD ) mostly needed:
1. Class VI.
2. Class I.
3. Class III.
4. Class III with modification.
CLASS I - Bilateral Posterior Edentulous Areas
CLASS II - Unilateral Posterior Edentulous Area
CLASS III - Unilateral or Bilateral Edentulous
Area(s) Bounded by Remaining Tooth/Teeth
CLASS IV - Single Edentulous Area Anterior to
Remaining Teeth and Crossing the Midline
3 - Unmounted sharpening ( stones ) instruments
are better than mounted because:
1. Have finer grains.
2. Easier to sterilize.
3. Don't alter the bevel of the instrument.
4. less particles of the instruments are removed
4 - Patient comes to you with edematous
gingival, inflamed, loss of gingival contour and
recession, what's the best tooth brushing
technique:
1. Modified bass.
2. Modified stillman. (STIMULATE BLOOD FLOWS AND
+ HEALING)
3. Charter.
4. Scrub.
46
5 - Oral surgeon put his finger on the nose of
the patient and the patient asked to blow this
done to check:
1. Anterior extension of posterior palatal seal.
2. Lateral extension of posterior palatal seal.
3. Posterior( distal ) extension of posterior
palatal seal.= vibration line
4. Glandular opening.
6 - Patient has inflammation under denture which
best tech to make impression:
1. Take it immediately to prevent future
deterioration.
2. Reline the denture by soft material and wait
until tissue healed.
3. Advice not to remove denture t night.
4. 1+2.
5. All the above.
*Reline the denture by soft material and wait
until tissue healed. =Tissue conditioner
7 - pt. presented after insertion of complete
denture complaining of dysphasia and ulcers what
is
the cause of dysphasia?
1. Over extended.
2. Over post dammed.
3. Under extended.
4. Under post dammed.
8 - Soft palate falls abruptly facilitate
recording post dam, falls gradually make
recording post dam difficult:
1. Two statements true.
2. Two false.
3. First true, second false.
4. First false, second true.
9 - Pt with complete denture come to your
clinic, complaint from his dry mouth, the proper
medicine is?
1. Anti diabetic medicine. 2. ( Anticordial)
+saliva secretion and +gastric secretion
3. Steroid.
Atropine is anticholinergic: -- salivary and
bronchial secretion +heart rate
10 - Pt has anaphylactic shock after take
penicillin you have to give him:
1. 0.5 mg epinephrine of 1/10000 intra venous.
2. Adrenaline 1/1000 intra muscular.
3. 200 mg hydrocortisone intravenous.
11 - Isolated periodontal pocket in: (mean on
one side only)
1. Vertical root fracture.
2. Palato gingival groove. 3. Endo origin
lesion. 4. All.
47
12 - Which of the following types of base
materials can be placed in contact with
polymethyl
methacrylate & not inhibit the polymerize of
resin:
1. ZoE.
2. GI.
3. Zn phosphate cement.
4. Varnish.
5. 2+3.
13 - What medical condition should prevent the
dentist from practicing dentistry?
1. Diabetes.
2. Hypertension.
3. Influenza.
4. Headache.
14 - What is the time between the first onset of
HIV virus and the appearance of the symptoms?
1. 1-5 years.
2. 10 years. "Asymptomatic" Period
3. No specific time is known.
15 - Upon opening an incision in a periapical
abscess in a lower 1st molar, you open:
1. The most bottom of the abscess.
2. The most necrotic part of the abscess.
3. Extra oral.
16 Ethics in research includes the following
EXCEPT:
a) Protection of rights to privacy
b) Protection against legal risks
c) Protection against the role of the
statistician
d) Protection against physical risks.
17 - In 6 week intrauterine life the development
( of dental lamina ) starts. The oral epithelium
(Stratified Squamous Epithelium) will thickened
and gives dental lamina:
1. True.
2. False.
18 - Picture of the tooth show divergence of the
mesial and distal:
1. Not correct, it should be convergence.
2. Correct but it should be for occlusal with =
1.6mm.
3. >1.6mm. (thickness of marginal ridge)
4. <1.6 mm.
= Direction of mesial and distal walls is
influenced by
remaining thickness of marginal ridge as
measured
from mesial or distal margin
=Mesial and distal walls should converge
occlusally
when distance from a to b is greater than 1.6
mm.
48
19 biological width of the gingiva:
1. 1mm.
2. 2mm.
3. 3mm.
4. 4mm.
20 - Which is contraindicated to the general
anesthesia?
1. Patient with an advanced medical condition
like cardiac.
2. Down's syndrome patient.
3. Child with multiple carious lesion in most of
his dentition.
4. Child who needs dental care, but who's
uncooperative, fearful.
=Indications for general anaesthesia
-the child is pre cooperative (too young to
cope)
-uncontrolled fear
-complexity of procedure.
21 - Radiolucent is cover the percoronal part of
the 3rd molar is:
1. Dentigerous cyst.
2. Central.
22 - Young pt came without any complain during
routine X ray appear between the two lower
molar lesion diameter about 2mm&extend laterally
with irreg. shape whats the type of cyst:
1. Dentigerous cyst.
2. Apical cyst.
3. Radicular cyst.
23 - You should treat ANUG (Acute Necrotizing
Ulcerative Gingivitis) until the disease
completely removed. Otherwise, it will change to
necrotic ulcerative gingivitis:
1. Both sentences are true.?????
2. Both sentences are false.
3. 1st true, 2nd false.
4. 1st false, 2nd true.
24 - Success of pit &fissure sealants is
affected mainly by:
1. Increased time of etching.
2. Contamination of oral saliva. (Saliva
contamination)
3. Salivary flow rate.
4. Proper fissure sealant.
25 - Neonate 2 years old has a lesion on the
ventrum of the tongue... with the eruption of
the 1st
tooth:
Riga-Fede disease
= Neonatal sublingual traumatic ulceration
= A traumatic ulcer in the anterior portion of
the tongue of infants with natal teeth is
known as Riga-Fede disease
49
26 - Continuous condensation technique in GP
filling is:
1. Obtura I.
2. Obtura II.
3. Ultrafill.
4. System B.
27 - The x ray show scattered radiopaque line in
the mandible the diagnosis will be:
1. Paget disease.
2. Garres syndrome.
3. Fibrous dysplasia.
4. Osteosarcoma.
28 - After finish class v glass ionomer cement
we do finishing( polishing? ) with:
1. Pumis slurry.
2. Aluminum-oxide paste.
= Micron finishing diamonds used
= flexible abrasive discs
= A fine grit aluminum oxide polishing paste (
smooth surface )
29 - Composite restoration follow-up after 2
years. It showed stained margin, this is due to:
1. From polymerization shrinkage.
2. Hydraulic destruction on bond.
*Marginal Leakage or micro leakage
30 - What is the dominant type of fibers found
in Cementum?
1. Longitudinal.
2. Circular.
3. Sharpeys fibers.
31 - Moon face appearance is not present in
fracture :
1. Lefort I.
2. Lefort II.
3. Lefort III.
4. Lefort I + Lefort II.
5. Zygomatic complex.
50
32 - Sharp pain is due to which type of fibers:
1. A fibers.
2. B fibers.
3. C fibers.
= A-delta fibers small, myelinated fibers that
transmit sharp pain
= C-fibers small unmyelinated nerve fibers
that transmit dull or aching pain.
33 - Trigeminal neuralgia treated by
carbamizapine (Tegretol). the max dose per day
divided is:
1. 200 mg.
2. 500mg.
3. 1000mg.
4. 1200mg.
34 - 10 years child with congenital heart
disease came for extraction of his lower 1st
molar, the
antibiotic for choice for prevention of
infective endocarditic is:
1. Ampicelline 30 mg /kg orally 1hour before
procedure. IM/IV
2. Cephalixine 50 mg/kg orally 1hour before
procedure. ( if allergic to amox/ampi )
3. Clindamicine 20mg/kg orally 1hour before
procedure. IV
4. Amoxicillin 50mg/kg orally 1hour before
procedure.
35 - The organism that not found in newborn
mouth:
1. Streptococcus mutans.
2. Streptococcus salivarius..
3. E-coli. (Escherichia coli)
4. Skin bacteria.
*Newborns lack teeth and therefore cannot harbor
organisms adapted to tooth habitats
36 - Adult 20 years male with soft tissues &
dental trauma reveals severe pain in soft
tissues with
loss of epithelial layers and anterior upper
centrals are intruded the diagnosis is:
1. Abrasion with luxation.
2. Erosion with sub luxation.
3. Laceration with (lateral) luxation.
(dislocated.. displaced .. need repositioning )
4. Laceration with sub luxation. ( increased
mobility without displacement )
37 - Knife ridge should be treated with:
1. Relining soft material.
2. Maximum coverage of flange.
3. Wide occ. Table.
38 - Patient with complete denture pronouncing F
as a V:
Anterior teeth are (placed) upward from lip
line. = superiorly and anteriorly
= (Placement of maxillary anterior teeth in
complete dentures too far from
superiorly and anteriorly might result in
difficulty in pronouncing F and V sounds).
51
39 - Most used sugar substitute:
1. Sorbitol.
2. Mannitol.
3. Inulin.
4. Xylitol.
40 - While excavating soft dentin you exposed
the pulp, treatment is:
1. Direct pulp capping.
2. RCT.
3. Other.
41 - Adding of surfactant to irrigation solution
during RCT to increase wettability of canal
walls
by:
1. Lowering surface tension. surface tension=
+wettabbility
2. Increasing surface tension.
3. Passing through dentinal tubules.
42 - What is the best media for keep avulsion
tooth:
1. In water same temperature of room.
2. In milk same temperature of room.
3. In cold water.
4. In cold milk.
43 - Patient came to clinic after you check up
you see, supernumerary teeth and missing
clavicle
bone what diagnosis:
1. Down syndrome.
2. Cledoocranial dysplasia.
44 - Patient complains from swelling in
submandibular, swelling appear when patient
eating and
swallowing only what type of x ray use to
diagnosis:
1. Occlusal x-ray.
2. Panoramic x-ray.
3. Salivary x-ray (or sialography).
45 - Patient came to your clinic with severe
pain; on x-ray the right side of the mandible
has
radiolucency with a radiopaque border that
resembles the sunshine rays. Your diagnosis is:
1. Ossifying fibroma.
2. Osteosarcoma.
3. Acute osteomylitis.
46 - Which of the following conditions is highly
indicated for the short therapy of DOTS and is
directly observed once in the clinic?
1. Tuberculosis.
52
2. HIV.
3. H1N1.
4. Mental Illness.
*DOTS (directly observed treatment, short-
course)
47 - Which tooth of the maxillary teeth is
closest to the maxillary sinus?
1. First maxillary premolar.
2. Maxillary canine.
3. First maxillary molar.
4. Maxillary central incisor.
48 - The following factors affect the health:
1. Hereditary.
2. Environment.
3. Social and economic factors.
4. Family welfare.
1+2.
1+2+4.
1+2+3.
All.
49 - After delivery of a complete denture, the
patient returned complaining of his phonetics
and
Pronunciation, upon examination you notice the
upper lip is not properly supported:
1. Decreased vertical dimension.
2. Malposition of the anterior teeth.
3. Deficiency in vitamin B.
50 - Which of the following instruments should
be used to plane the facio proximal
cavosurface
margin of a standard Class 2 preparation on a
mandibular molar?
a) Straight chisel
b) Binanagle chisel
c) Enamel hatchet
d) Bibeveled hatchet
SAMPLE 7
1 - Dentin permeability:
1. Decreases with the increase of cavity
preparation.
2. Increase when sclerotic dentin develops under
a carious lesion.
3. Increase with smear layer.
4. Bacterial toxins can pass through before the
actual penetration of bacteria.
53
2 - In order to decrease the gastric secretion:
1. Histamine A antigen equivalent.
2. Histamine B antigen equivalent.
3. Anticholenergic.
4. Adrenal steroids.
3 Pt with renal transplantation came with
white elevated lesion on tongue no history of
smoking
or tobacco chewing diagnosis is:
1. Candidacies.
2. Iatrogenic lesion.
3. Hyperkeratosis.
4. Uremic stomatitis
4 Autoclave principle:
1. Causes dullness.
2. Breaks the protein cell membrane at
moderately low temp.
3. Breaks the protein cell membrane at very high
temp.
5 While you were preparing a canal you did a
ledge, then you used EDTA with the file, this
may lead to:
Perforation.
6 - During RCT canal blocked, if I add EDTA
&file what can happen?
1. False canal formation.
2. Perforation.
7 - Patient need fixed bridge after you Check
Bridge in patient mouth you see the color of
bridge
is yellowish to milky what causes?
1. Excessive fired.
2. Reduced fired.
3. Excessive moisture.
8 Tooth number 26, had a root canal treatment
since two years, upon x-ray you found
radiolucency with bone resorption along one of
the roots:
1. Ca (OH) 2.
2. Resection of the whole root. (root amputation
)
3. Redo RCT.
4 Periodontal curettage.
*Resection of the whole root. (root amputation )
54
9 - Stock trays compared to Customtrays for a
removable partial denture impression:
1. Customtrays less effective than stock trays.
2. Custom trays can record an alginate
impression as well as elastomeric impression.
3. Customtrays provide even thickness of
impression material.
4. All of the above.
10 - Patient came with severe pain related to
right 1st mandibular molar, there's no swelling
related,pulp test is negative, no evidence in
radiograph. Diagnosis:
1. Irreversible pulpitis.
2. Acute periodontal abscess.
3. Suppurative periodontal abscess.
11 - Which of the following teeth has a contact
area between the incisal (occlusal) third and
middle third?
1. 1st maxillary premolar.
2. 1st mandibular premolar.
3. 1st maxillary molar.
4. Central mandibular incisor.
12 - Patient returned to you after 1 month from
doing amalgam filling with definite severe pain,
due to:
1. Contamination with moisture leading to
amalgam expansion.
2. Unidentified pulpal exposure.
3. Supra occlusion.
4. Gingival abscess.
13 - In 3\4 crown preparation in upper 4, which
bur is used to make the retention groove:
Tapered. (701 tapering fissure bur for
posterior teeth.)
14 - NaOCl (Sodium hypochlorite ) is used in
RCT:
1. Oxidative effect.
2. Ordinary irrigant solution.
3. Better used diluted. (0.5 % - 5.25%)
4. Better result when used combined with
alcohol.
*diluted. (0.5 % - 5.25%)
15 - 6 years old patient received trauma in his
maxillary primary incisor, the tooth is
intruded. The permanent incisors are expected to
have:
1. Yellowish or whitish discoloration.
2. Displacement.
3. Malformation.
4. Cracks in enamel.
55
16 - Patient 21 years old who has iron
deficiency anemia, difficulty in swallowing,
with
examination of barium sulphate >> esophageal
webs >> (spoon-shaped nail )
1. Geographical tongue. = glossitis
2. Burning mouth syndrome. = only burning mouth
3. Diabetic patient.
4. Plummer-Vinson syndrome (paterson-kelly
syndrome) PlummerVinson syndrome (PVS), also
called PatersonBrownKelly syndrome or
sideropenic dysphagia, presents as a triad of
dysphagia (due to esophageal webs), glossitis,
and iron deficiency anemia.
17 - Pacifier habit what you see in his mouth:
1. Anterior open bite with posterior cross bite
2. Cross bite.*Anterior open bite with posterior
cross bite (and increasing over jet and
gingivalrecession or trauma.)
18 - Old patient complain from parasthisia in
lower left mandible after you take x-ray you see
radiolucent will differentiate and punch what
diagnosis?
1. Hyperparathyroidism.
2. Ostiomolitis.
3. Single bone cyst.
19 Generalized lymphadenopathy in:
1. Infection.
2. Leukemia.
3. HIV.
4. Pernicious anemia.
1+3.
1+2+3.
2+3+4.
3 only.
*lymphoma, leukemia, HIV disease and chronic
infectious disease
20 - Patient feel sever pain upper mouth pain is
radiated to eye and ear ,after you check no
caries
when you pressure on maxillary premolar he feel
pain in x-ray no change what diagnosis?
1. Acute apical Periodontitis.
2. Maxillary sinusitis.
3. Canine space infection.
4. Dent alveolar infection.
21 - A border line diabetic pt came with denture
stomatitis you find abundant debris in the
tissue
surface area of the denture>>the proper
management is:
1. Systemic antibiotic.
2. Topical antifungal.
3. Systemic antifungal. 4. Topical antibiotic.
56
22 - Child has bruxism to be treated with:
1. Sedative.
2. Cusp capping.
A vinyl plastic bite guard
23 Patient came to dentist after previous
stress full procedure complaining of burning&
discomfort of his lip on examination u found
lesions on the palate, diagnosis is:
1. Contact dermatitis.
2. Allergy.
3. Aphthous ulcer.
4. Herpes simplex (herpetic gingivostomatitis).
24 Pt with cleft lip and cleft palate with
missing of teeth, this present with:
1. Treachir Collins syndrome.
2. Van Der Wound Syndrome.
25 Patient has a palatal torus on hard&soft
palate, the major connector of choice:
1. Anteroposterior palatal strap.
2. U shaped.
3. Posterior palatal strap.
26 - Patient present with deficiency at the
malar bone + open bite + normal mental
abilities:
1. Treacher Collins syndrome
2. Cleidocrenial dysplasia.
3. Eagle syndrome.
27 - Proxy brush with which type of furcatoin:
1. I.
2. II.
3. III.
4. IV.
28 - Streptococcus activity detected by: ( which
test )
1. Fermentation. = differential between types of
streptococi
2. Catalase. = catalase activity
3. Amylase.
29 - Trauma leads to fracture in the root
between middle cervical apical third:
1. Poor prognosis.
2. Good prognosis.
*Frctures in the middle to apical third can have
quite a good prognosis
30 - A 55 year old patient needs multiple
extractions, after extraction what will you do
first:
1. Suturing.
57
2. Primary closure should be obtained if there
is no luntant tissue.
3. Alveoplasty should be done in all cases.
= Primary alveoloplasty is always done at the
time of multiple extraction or single
extraction.
31 - During maxillary 3rd molar extraction the
tuberosity fractured. It was firmly attached to
the tooth and cannot be separated. What is the
management? 1. Remove it with the tooth. 2.
Splint the tooth to the 2nd molar then re-
extracted after 6 weeks. 3. Suture. =When the
fracture occurs and the fractured segment has
not been reflected from the periosteum, it is
repositioned and the mucoperiosteum is sutured.
In this case, the scheduled extraction of the
tooth is postponed, if possible, for
approximately 1.52 months, whereupon the
fracture will have healed and the extraction may
be performed with the surgical
technique.???????????/
32 - Pt with complete denture complains from
tightness of denture in morning, then become
good
this due to:
1. Relief denture.
2. Lack of check elasticity.
3. Poor post dam.
33 - The cause of Dark discolored casting that
resists pickling:
1. Over heat.
2. Incomplete casting.
3. Contaminate with gas.
=It is due to the decomposition of calcium
sulphate binder of
gypsum-bonded investment as a result of
overheating.
34 - When increase vertical dimensions you have
to:
1. Increase minimal need.
2. Use provisional crown for 2 months.
3. Construct anterior teeth first then posterior
teeth.
4. All.
35 - Pt comes with blisters even on mucous
membrane you asked for immune test (Direct
immunofluorescence ) >>> (deposits of
immunoglobulin at the basement membrane zone ) :
1. Pemphegus.
2. Bullas pemphogoid.
3. Lichen planes.
36 - Pt came to the clinic after he has an
accident. X-ray revealed bilateral fracture of
the
condoyle. Mandible movements are normal in all
direction. What is your treatment?
1. Inter maxillary mandibular fixation.
2. Fixed IMF for 6 weeks.
3. Inter mandibular fixation.
58
4. No treatment is performed only anti
inflammatory drugs and observation.
37 - Which of the following results may be
expected following surgery when both buccal and
lingual cortical plates have been lost?
1. Ankloyosis.
2. Osteocementosis.
3. Normal bone regeneration.
4. Scar tissue formation.
38 7 years patient come with untreated trauma
to tooth that became yellow in color, what you
should tell the parents:
1. Pulp is dead.
2. Pulp becomes calcified.
3. The tooth will resorb normally.
1+2.
2+3.
1+2+3.
40 - Occlusal splint device:
1. increase vertical dimension.
2. help alleviate the increased muscle activity
3. registering Occlusal plane CR/CO.
4. All.
41 - We put the pin very close to line angle
because this area:
1. Less material of restoration need.
2. Initiate dentine caries.
3. to allow for adequate condensation of the
restoration material.
= The pin should be located as close as possible
to the line angles of the tooth. These areas
provide the greatest dentin bulk and are also
the areas where the bulk of restorative material
will be placed
= The most common location for pins is at the
line angles of the tooth because of the greater
thickness of dentin between the external surface
and the pulp and the decreased risk of
perforation.
42 - Lingual bar contraindication:
1. Short lingual sulcus. shallow sulcus
2. Long lingual sulcus.
3. Too crowded lower anterior teeth.
= Contraindications:
1. Less than 8 mm between the marginal gingiva
and the activated lingual frenum and floor of
themouth.
59
2. Only a few remaining anterior teeth which
must be contacted to provide a reference for
fittingthe framework and indirectretention.
3. Lingually inclined teeth.
4. An undercut lingual alveolar ridge which
would result in an excessive space between the
bar and the mucosa
43 - The Ideal crown-to- root ratio of a tooth
be utilized as abridge abutment is:
1. 3:1.
2. 2:1.
3. 1:2.
4. 1:1.
*1:1 is the acceptable minimum ratio.
44 - What type pontic design would you in a
patient with a high esthetic demand when
preparing
teeth number 9 X 11 for FDP?
1. Ridge lap or saddle pontic.
2. An ovate pontic.
3. Modified ridge lap pontic.
(A) Total ridge lap. (B) Modified ridge lap. (C)
Ovate.
45 occasionally, chronic apical abscess may
develop into an acute exacerbation called
1. Granuloma.
2. Phoenix abscess.
3. Cyst.
4. None of above.
= Phoenix abscess is defined as an acute
inflammatory reaction superimposed on an
existing
chronic lesion, such as a cyst or granuloma;
acute exacerbation of a chronic lesion.
45 Which condition below is an apical lesion
that develop as acute exacerbation of
the chronic apical abscess
a) cyst.
b) phoenix abscess .
c) granualoma.
d) non of the above.
46 - Over extended GP should be removed:
1. By Ultrasonic vibrating.
60
2. With Solvents
3. With Rotary instruments
4. Surgically.
5.By pulling it out one piece
47 - The root most likely to be pushed into the
maxillary sinus during a tooth extraction is:
A. Palatal root of the maxillary second molar
B. Palatal root of the maxillary first premolar
C. Palatal root of the maxillary first molar
D. mesiobuccal root of the maxillary first molar
48 - Energy absorbed by material before it
fractures called:
1. Ultimate strength.
2. Elastic limit.
3. Toughness.
4. Brittleness.
= The total amount of energy that a material can
absorb before it fractures is a measure of the
toughness of the material
49 - Which tooth requires special attention when
preparing the occlusal aspect for restoration?
CLASS II CAST METAL RESTORATION
1. Lower 2nd molar.
2. Lower 1st premolar.
3. Lower 2nd premolar.
4. Upper 1st molar.
50 - Body defends itself by antibodies from:
1. B lymphocytes.
2. T lymphocytes.
50- Which cell type produces antibodies against
antigen .. ?
(a) Macrophage.
(b) B-lymphocyte.
(c) T-lymphocyte.
(d) NK-cell.
SAMPLE 8
1 - To treat non vital tooth with open apex when
doing access opening with Gates Glidden drills
take care to: ( avoid )
1. Remove all dentin. (Considerable dentin)
2. Remove minimal dentine.
3. Follow conservative method.
2 - Acute exacerbation of chronic pulpitis:
61
1. Reversible pulpitis.
2. Irreversible pulpitis. = Acute pulpitis
3. Acute Periodontitis.
3 - Patient is diagnosed for ceramo-metal full
veneer. You plan to use epoxy resin ( die
material ),
what's the best impression material to be used:
1. Poly ether.
2. Poly sulfide.
3. Agar agar.
4. Irreversible hydrocolloid.
Q) Epoxy resin is not compatible with:
A. Polysulfide.
B. Polyether.
C Addition silicone.
D. Condensation silicone.
= Epoxy resins are not compatible with
polysulfide because of the by product of
polysulfide is
water
4 - Fracture before 1 year of upper central
incisor reach the pulp in 8 year old child. How
will you
manage this case?
1. RCT.
2. Apexification.
3. Direct pulp capping.
4. Indirect pulp capping.
5 - Patient come to your clinic with severe pain
in 15, no response to cold, hot or pulp tester,
the
tooth is tender to percussion with no
radiographical changes, and the diagnosis is:
1. Acute apical Periodontitis.
2. Irreversible pulpitis.
6 - Child patient take oral sedation before
appointment and present with physical volt what
should
dentist do:
1. Conscious sedation. = Inhaled sedation =
Nitrous oxide sedation
2. Redo sedation.
3. Tie with bamboos board.
4. Tie in unite with bandage.
7 - Post graduate student use MTA, the prognosis
depends on prevents: (retrograde MTA filling)
1. Immediate suture.
2. Using a flab.
3. Disturbance during closure of wound.
8 - Root fracture decrease when we use :
62
1. Ready made post.
2. Casted post.
3. Metal post.
4 Fiber post
9 - Immature tooth has less sensation of cold
hot due to:
1. Short root.
2. Incomplete innervations.
3. Wide pulp chamber.
= Primary teeth and immature permanent teeth.
Less responsive to pulp testing because they are
not fully innervated with alpha myelinated axons
10 Pulpitis in deciduous teeth in radiograph
see related to:
1. Furcation.
2. Apex of root.
3. Lateral to root.
( pulp necrosis > pathological change in
furcation = more lateral canals )
11 - Child have tooth which have no mobility but
have ( intrusive ? ) luxation, best treatment:
(Repositioning and)
1. Acrylic splint.
2. Non rigid fixation.
3. Rigid fixation.
= (avulsion = 710 days; luxation = 2-3 weeks).
12 - The patient has dull pain and swelling and
the PA shows apical rediolucency your diagnosis
will be:
1. Acute periodontal abscess.
2. Chronic periodontal abscess with swelling. =
? phoenix abscess
SAMPLE 9
1 - Distal fissirum of premolar contact oppose:
1. Middle of the middle third & bucaal
fissurumis wider than lingual.
2. Cervical line & ligual fissure is wider than
buccal.
3. Middle of the middle third & vice versa.
4. Cervical.
= mesial aspect of lower first premolar
6 - Pt. wears complete denture for 10 years &now
he has cancer in the floor of the mouth what is
the firs question the dentist should ask:
1. Does your denture is ill fitted.
2. Smoking.
3. Alcohol.
4. Does your denture impinge the mucosa.
63
8 - 2nd maxillary premolar contact area:
1. Middle of the middle third with buccal
embrasure wider than lingual embrasure.
2. Middle of middle third with the lingual
embrasure wider than the buccal embrasure.
3. Cervical to the incisal third.
9 - The aim of biomechanical process during
endodontic is to allow:
1. GP reach the apex.
2. Debridement root canal materials.
10 - The ( aim of periodontal maintenance
procedures ) is:
1. Prevent secondary infection.
2. Check tissue response.
16 - Tooth with full crown need RCT, you did the
RCT through the crown, what is the best
restoration to maintain the resistance of the
crown:
= Amalgam for anterior and posterior PFM,
Composite for Tooth-Colored Crown
= GIC don't have the requested shear strength
34 - Fluoride used for children is:
= (APF)1.23% acidulated phosphate fluoride
35 - Cavernous sinus thrombosis not manifested
as:
1. Infraorbital abscess.
2. Syncope due to artial obliteration.
3. Eye exophthalmos.
= manifestations of cavernous sinus thrombosis
include: bilateral exophthalmos,
ophthalmoplegia, proptosis, chemosis, sluggish
pupils, cranial nerves palsies (II, III and IV
cranial nerves) and neck rigidity.
36 - Lesion at junction between hard and soft
palate and surrounded with pseudo:
1. Epithelium-hyperplasia in salivary gland. =
Adenomatoid Hyperplasia
2. Necrotizing sialometaplasia.
40 - In fixed prosthesis you use GIC for
cementation, what best to do:
1. Remove smear layer by acid increase adhesion
2. Do not varnish because it affect
adhesion.????
3. Mixed slowly on small area until become
creamy.
4. Remove excess when it in dough stage.
41 - Female come with endodontic treated upper
central with Mesial Distal caries and have
incisal abrasion,
Full coverage cast crown
Q)The finish line placed on maxillary central
incisor for porcelain laminate veneer
preparation
64
should cover approximately
a. One-fourth of the lingual surface and remain
1.0 mm away from centric contacts
b. One-third of the lingual surface and remain
1.5 mm away from centric contacts
c. One-fifth of the lingual surface and remain
1.0 mm away from centric contacts
d. One-fourth of the lingual surface and remain
0.5 mm away from centric contacts
Q)patient has white lesion on lateral of tongue
and his cheek , when scrubbed (wiped off )
leaving
1. eroded, bleeding surface what diagnosis
2. candidiasis
3. Lichen planus
Q)A patient on antibiotic therapy for scarlet
fever develops white plaques on his oral mucosa
which when scraped with tongue blade leaves a
painful bleeding surface, most probable
diagnosis is:
1,Blastomycosis
2,Candidiasis
3,Herpes simplex infection
4,Syphilis
Q)A patient presents with slightly painful white
lesions of oral mucosa which when wiped off
shows the red surface underneath. The patient is
on penicillin therapy for last 12 weeks. The
most likely diagnosis of lesion is:
1,Actinomycosis
2,Candidiasis
3.Lichen planus
4,Leukoplakia
Q)Pt came 2 u with coloration bluish (or gray)
and black in the gingival margins .he said
that he has gastrointestinal problem. this is
caused because of:
a-mercury
b-lead
c-bismuth
d-arsenic
*the patient has a GIT problems so he took a GIT
medicine(bismuth salts) which lead to
discoloration
lead poisoning:It is a thin,grey-blue line
visible along the margin of the gums,at the base
of the teeth
bismuth salts used as: Antidiarrhea agent;
antidyspepsia agent; internal deodorant
Q) how can u repair fractured rest(in the place
where it passes over the marginal ridge of
the tooth ) in removable partial denture?
65
a- spot welding
b- electric soldering
c-industrial brazing
d-......
= By embedding an 18 gauge wrought wire (PGP)
into the denture base of the RPD.
= Or A new clasp assembly is made and soldered
to the denture framework.
87) A patient complaining from severe oedema in
the lower jaw that increases in size upon
eating, Diagnosis is :
a) salivary gland sialadenitis of (submandibular
salivary gland.)
= Swellings of the submandibular salivary gland
are usually acute, related to eating and are due
most commonly to a stone (Sialolithiasis =
Salivary calculi) obstructing the submandibular
duct.
27-pt has fracture of tooth u decided to do PFM
the plan decided use of chamfer
finish line. what is the best instrument to
finish the chamfer?
1-cross cut bur
2- tapered round end diamond bur
24) patient that has a central incisor with
severe resorption and who's going
through an ortho treatment that is going to make
him extract the premolars, which of the
following won't be present in the treatment
plan:
1. rpd
2. implant
3. maryland bridge
4. auto implant of the premolars
Q) Options available to replace missing anterior
teeth ( child ) are the following EXCEPT:
1. resin-bonded partial dentures,
2. traditional fixed partial dentures,
3. removable partial dentures and
4. osseointegrated implants.
*if childe above 12 year implant can be used
13) Pterygomandibular raphe.
1. Insertion&origin
2. muscles
3. should be mesial to the injection
4. all of the above
* We insert the needle just medial to the
pterygomandibular raphe
Q) patient with 5 years old denture has a severe
gag reflex , upon history he says he had the
same
symptoms in the first few days of the denture
delivery and it went all alone:
1. patient has severe gag reflex
2. patient has underlying systemic condition
66
3. denture is overextended
= Training plates are appliances can be used in
patients that suffer from a gag reflex.
Q) In primary tooth for restoration before
putting the filling you will put
1. Base.
2. Calcium hydroxide.
3. varnish
5-for root canal treated tooth u choose to put
post & amalgam this depend on:
1. remaining coronal structure
2. root divergence
3. presence of wide root
4. others
6- After final inlay cementation and before
complete setting of cement we should:
a-remove occlusal interferences = remove excess
of cement ?
b-burnishing of peripheries of restoration for
more adaptation = gold inlay
c-lowering occlusal surface???
7) At the beginning of the Operation day in the
clinic, you should start the water/air spray for
three minutes in order to get rid of which type
of microorganisms :
a) streptococcus mutans.
b) streptococcus salivaris.
* The bacteria may include: atypical
Mycobacteria, Pseudomonas, and possibly
Legionella
bacteria, which can present an infectionrisk to
immunocompromised persons.
Q) 10 years old patient has a white yellowish
tooth, with radiographic examination, big pulp
chamber, thin dentine and enamel give appearance
of ghost teeth - Diagnosis :
1. Dentinogenesis imperfect
2. Amelogenesis imperfect.
3. Odontodysplasia
21-Skeletal Bone of skull develop from:
a- Neurocraniumossification
b- endochondral ossification
c- Intramembranous ossification
67
22-pt came with fracture because of blow in the
right side of his face .he has ecchymosed around
the orbit in the right side only .and
subjunctional bleeding in the maxillary buccal
vestibule .with
limited mouth open what is your diagnosis?
a- lefort 1
b- lefort 2
c- lefort 3
c-zygomatic fracture
23-parotid DUCT is opposite to maxillary
premolar
1. maxillary 1st molar
2. maxillary 2nd molar
3. mandibular 1st molar
25) patient with radiopacity in the periapical
area of a 1st mandibular molar with a wide
1. carious lesion and a bad periodontal
condition is
2. condensing osteitis
3. hypercementosis
23) patient after ortho treatment on x-ray
there's resorption (didn't say internal or
External) in the
1. middle of the root , what will you do :
2. Fill the resorp on with ca(oh)2
3. extract and reimplant
4. extract and do implant
5. do one visit rct
24) all are participating in the determination
of the posterior extension of the maxillary
denture
(posterior palatal extension) except :
1. hamular notch
2. fovae palatine
3. vibrating line
4. retromolar (pads) areas
25-Class II Kenidy with good teeth support and
bone structure with palatal tori extending to
the
soft palate, the major connector shold be:
-Horse shoe shape (U shaped).
68
26-What is the step done before applying
sealant?
1. Fluoride.
2. Etching.
27-The success of fissure sealant depends more
on:
Isolating the tooth from the saliva.
28-The imagining technique used for salivary
gland:
Sialography.
29-A patient came and asked for fissure sealant
for his lower molar, the dentist found that it
has class I cavity but not deep, the decision
is:
Preventive class I after removing caries.
30-Upper central with class II fracture not
involving the pulp and the patient still have
the fragment:
1. Class IV composite filling.
2. Rebonding the Brocken fragment.
31-Wetting the root canal surface with EDTA:
1. Increase PH.
2. Increase surface tension.
3. Decrease surface tension.
4. Decrease PH.
25-Which of the following canals in # 14 ( up
left first molar ) is most difficult to locate:
a- palatal
b- Distobuccal
c- Mesiobuccal MB canal
d- All of above
62) hot oven relative to autoclave
a) the same time
b) slightly higher time
c) considerable higher time
d) lower time
10 years pt come with necrotic pulp in upper
central with root apex not close yet best
treatment
a) calciumhydroxide
b) calcifuic barrier
c) apexfication with gutta percha filling
d) gutta percha filling
69
SAMPLE 10
1-When Making centric occlusion for complete
denture, it is advisable to have:
1. 1-2 mm of vertical and horizontal overlap of
upper and lower anterior teeth with
no contact.
2. Definite tooth contact of upper and lower
anterior teeth in order to facilitate the use of
anterior teeth for incision.
2-Compomer restorative materials are:
1. Glass ionomers with polymer components.
2. Resin systems with fluoride contacting
glasses.
3. Composite resins for cervical restorations
only.
3-The distal palatal termination of the
maxillary complete denture base is dictated by
the:
1. Tuberosity.
2. Fovea palatine.
3. Maxillary tori.
4. Vibrating line.
5. Posterior palatal seal.
4-To a great extent, the forces occurring
through a removable partial denture can be
widely
distributed and minimized by the following
methods:
1. Proper location of the occlusal rests.
2. Selection of lingual bar major connector.
3. Developing balanced occlusion.
4. All of the above.
5-The most frequent cause of failure of a cast
crown restoration is:
1. Failure to extend the crown preparation
adequately into the gingival sinus.
2. Lake of attention in carving occlusal anatomy
of the tooth.
3. Lake of attention to tooth shape, position
and contacts.
4. Lake of prominent cusps, deep sulci and sharp
marginal ridges.
6- An examination of the edentulous mouth of an
aged patient who has worn maxillary complete
denture for many years against six mandibular
anterior teeth would probably show:
1. Cystic degeneration of the foramina of the
anterior palatine nerve.
2. Loss of osseous structure in the anterior
maxillary arch.
3. Flabby ridge tissue in the posterior
maxillary arch.
4. Insufficient interocclusal distance.
7-Dental caries is an endemic disease means that
the disease:
1. Occurs clearly in excess of normal
expectancy.
2. Is habitually present in human populations.
3. Affect a large number of countries
simultaneously.
70
4. Exhibits a seasonal pattern.
8-The best method for tooth brushing is bass
method because It enter to interproximal area (?
Intrasulcular ) Can be used by patient with
gingival recession and it routinely advice to
all types of patients.
1. The both sentences are correct.
2. The first sentence is correct and the second
is wrong.
= Bass Method( Intrasulcular method) Efficient
for removing dental plaque from gingival third
and from shallow gingival sulcus.
= Modified Stillman Method Recommended for
patients with gingival recession to prevent
abrasive tissue destruction.
= Charters Method Recommended for temporary
cleaning in areas of healing after periodontal
surgery
9-Rubber dam is not used in:
1. Children with fixed orthodontic appliance.
2. Children with nasal obstruction problem.
* Contraindication in using Rubber Dam
Presence of fixed orthodontic appliance
Recent erupted tooth
Child with upper respiratory infection,
congested nasal passages or nasal obstruction
In rare case allergy to latex.
11-The indications of implantation:
1. Diabetic patient.
2. Loss of one tooth only with the sound
adjacent teeth.
12-The level of block anesthesia in children:
1. 5 mm below the occlusal plane
2. 7mm. Above
13-The ETCHANT of most dentine bonding system is
applied for:
1. 15 seconds.
2. 30 seconds.
3. 40 seconds.
4. 60 seconds.
14-Fibers which completely embedded in
cementation and pass from cementation of one
tooth to
the cementation of adjacent tooth is:
1. Sharpies fibers.
2. Transceptal fibers.
3. Lougtudinual fibers.
71
15-Which of the following conditions enhance
caries in adult:
1. Saliva.
2. Pregnancy.
3. Xerostomia.
16-Polishing bur containing how many blades for
composite polishing:
1. The first one.
2. 7-9.
3. 9-11.
4. 12 and above.
17- Cementosis and ankylosis of the teeth is
common features of:
1. Cherbisn.
2. Ostiomylitis.
3. Paget's disease of the bone.
4. Stager syndrome.
18-The best method of tooth brushing is:
1. Bass method.
2. Still man method.
3. Horetiranl method.
19-The best method for core build up is:
1. Amalgam.
2. Compomer.
3. Glass ionomer.
20- Polysulfide rubber base which used for final
impression must be:
1. Pouring in first 1 hour.
2. Pouring in first 2 hour.
3. Using cooling water.
4. Pouring in first 12 hour.
= Polysulfide impression material must be poured
as soon as possible after impression making,
delays of over an hour resulted in clinically
significant dimensional change
21-Filling amalgam in the first mandibular molar
when touch the spoon there is a pain the reason:
1. Galvanic action.
22-The best method for biopsy which preferred by
surgery:
1. Excisional biopsy.
2. Aspiration.
3. Incision biopsy.
4. Exfoliation.( Exfoliative cytology)
72
23-The most prevalent occlusal plane in
children:
1. Flush terminal plane. N.B:THE PREVALENT IS
FLUSH,MESIAL STEP IS IDEAL.
2. Distal step.
3. Mesial step.
= In flush terminal plane, distal surfaces of
upper and lower second deciduous molars are
flushed
in straight line
24-How many percent of copper in amalgam:
1. 13%to eliminate gamma 2 phase.
25-Eruption of primary dentition starts from:
1. 6-7 months.
2. 1 year.
3. 9 months.
26-Labial reduction for porcelain metal
restoration must be:
1. 1 plane for aesthetic.
2. 2 plane by follow the morphology.
27-The impression used for preliminary
impressions or study casts is:
1. Agar agar.
2. Silicon.
3. Alginate.
4. None.
28-Receiving the impression after removal from
the mouth directly:
1. It must be disinfected immediately.
2. It must be poured immediately.
3. It must be mounted immediately.
4. It must be left for minutes.
= Dental impression materials need to be washed
and disinfected immediately after making to
control transfer of infectious materials from
saliva and blood to casts and to dental
healthcare
workers
29-The peripheries of the custom tray should be
under extended to all border and clearance from
the frenum areas:
1. 2mm.
2. 4mm.
3. 6mm.
4. 8mm.
73
31-The goal of making the peripheries of the
custom tray under extended to all border and
clearance From the frenum areas:
1. To give enough space for the used impression
materials to allow border molding
2. To give enough space for the die spacer.
3. To give enough space for the cementation
materials.
4. None.
32-The goal of construction of occlusion rims
is:
1. To obtain the occlusal plane, vertical
dimension, tentative centric relation, face bow
transfer, and placement of the teeth.
2. To obtain the protrusive condylar guidance.
3. To obtain the lateral condylar posts and
incisal guide.
4. None.
33-A temporary form representing the base of a
denture which is used for making
maxillomanibular (jaw) relative record for
arranging teeth or for trail insertion in the
mouth is:
1. Bite rims.
2. Customtray.
3. Set up.
4. Base plate.
34-The base plate could be made by:
1. Acrylic plate.
2. Ceramic plate.
3. Wax plate.
4. A and c.
35-The vertical height of the maxillary
occlusion rim from the reflection of the cast
is:
1. 12mm.
2. 22mm.
3. 32mm.
36-The anterior width of the maxillary occlusion
rim is:
1. 5mm. = ( 3-4 mm )
2. 10mm.
3. 15mm.
4. 20mm.
37-The posterior width of the maxillary
occlusion rim:
1. 8-10mm. = ( 6 mm )
2. 8-15mm.
3. 10-15mm.
4. 15-20mm.
74
38-The anterior height of the mandibular
occlusion rim
1. 6mm.
2. 16mm. ( 20 )
3. 26mm.
4. 36mm.
39-The posterior height of mandibular occlusion
rim is:
1. Equal to the point representing 1/2 of the
height of retro molar pad.
2. Equal to the point representing 1/2 of the
height of the frenum areas.
3. Equal to the point representing 1/2 of the
height of the alveolar ridge.
4. None.
40-To record the occlusal plane in order to:
1. To determine the amount of space between the
mandible and the maxilla which will be
occupied by an artificial teeth
2. To determine vertical and horizontal level of
the teeth.
3. A and B.
4. None.
41-To record the vertical dimension in order to:
1. To determine the amount of space between the
mandible and the maxilla which
will be occupied by an artificial teeth.
2. To determine vertical and horizontal level of
the teeth.
3. A and B.
4. None.
OBJECTIVES:
1.Occlusal plane: To determine the horizontal
and vertical level of the teeth.
2.Vertical dimension: To determine the amount of
space between the rims with the jaws at rest
and with the wax rims in occlusion.
3.Face-bow transfer: To record the position of
the jaws as related to the opening axis of the
mandible and transfer this position so that the
casts on the articulator will have the same
relationship to the opening axis of the patient.
4.Centric relation: To record the most posterior
position of the mandible to the maxilla and
transfer this position to the articulator.
SAMPLE 11
75
1-Use of dental elevator is for all except:
1. Wheel and axis.
2. Wedging.
3. Lever.
4. Wedging of socket wall.
2- Camphor Mono-Chlorophenol contains phenol in
concentration: ( as root canal dressing )
1. 0.5%.
2. 35%. (paramonochlorphenol ) and 65%. (
camphor )
3. 65%. +..
4. 5%.
= Camphor Mono-Chlorophenol, also known as CMCP,
is an active disinfectant for the treatment
of infected root-canals and periapical
infections.
3-Anterior open bite caused by:
1. Unilateral condylar fracture.
2. Bilateral condylar fracture.
3. Lefort 2 fracture.
4. Zygomatic fracture.
4-Indirect pulp capping is done in:
1. Primary molar.
2. Primary incisor.
3. Permanent molar
4. None of the above.
5. = (ALL)
= Indirect pulp capping Can be done in primary
and permanent teeth
5-Indirect composite inlay has the following
advantages over the direct composite except:
1. Efficient polymerization.
2. Good contact proximally.
3. Gingival seal.
4. Good retention.
6-After class V glass ionomer restoration,
removal of a thin flush of glass ionemer is done
by:
1. Scaler or knife immediately.
2. Finishing stone immediately.
3. Scaler or knife later.
4. Finishing stone later = after 24 hours
a) 1 and 2.
b) 1 and 4.
c) 3 and 4.
76
7-The best finished composite surface is
achieved by:
1. 12 fluted bur.
2. Diamond bur.
3. Matrix band with no additional finish.
* 12-fluted tungsten carbide finishing bur
8- In class V composite restorations a layer of
bonding agent is applied:
1. Following removal of cement then cured.
2. Following removal of cement and not cured.
3. Cured then remove cement.
cement trimming > etching > bonding > light cure
> composite
9-Marginal deterioration of amalgam restoration
may be due to:
1. No enough bulk of dentine (undermined
enamel).
2. Corrosion.
3. Over carving.
4. Improper manipulation of amalgam.
a) 1+2.
b) 3+4.
c) All the above.
d) 2+3+4.
10-Length of pins must be equal in both tooth
and restoration by a depth of:
1. 1mm.
2. 2mm.
3. 3mm.
4. 4mm.
11-Stainless steel pin is used in amalgam for:
1. Increase retention.
2. Increase resistance.
3. Increase strength.
4. 1+2.
12- calcium channel blockers cause increase
saliva secretion.
1. True.
2. False.
= cardiovascular medications ( calcium channel
blockers)may reduce salivary Fw
13-RCT contraindicated in:
1. Vertical fracture of root.
2. Diabetic patient.
3. Unrestored teeth.
4. Periodontally involved teeth.
77
14-What can we use under composite restoration?
1. Ca (OH).
2. ZOE.
3. Reinforced ZOE.
4. Varnish.
15-Gutta percha contain mainly:
1. Gutta percha.
2. Zinc oxide.
3. Zinc phosphate.
16-Single rooted anterior teeth has endodontic
treatment is best treated by:
1. Casted post and core.
2. Preformed post and composite.
3. Performpost and amalgam.
4. Composite post and core.
The use of prefabricated posts with a direct
core reconstruction is often regarded as the
representative method of choice for restoration
of the pulpless molars with substantial loss of
tooth structure
17-One of anatomical land mark (in determining
the occlusal plane) is:
1. Ala tragus line.
2. Ala orbital.
3. Frank fort plane.
= ala-tragus line a line running from the
inferior border of the ala of the nose to the
tragus of the ear. Ala-tragus plane is
considered to be parallel to the occlusal plane
18- PH of Ca (OH) is equal to:
1. 5.5.
2. 7.5.
3. 12.5.
4. 19.5.
19-Hyperemia results in:
1. Trauma from occlusion.
2. Pain of short duration.
3. Radiographic changes.
4. All of short duration.
20-inter proximal caries of anterior teeth is
best detected by:
1. Periapical X-ray film.
2. Bitewing X-ray film.
3. Occlusal X-ray film.
4. None of the above.
78
21-mandibular foramen in young children is:
1. At level of occlusal plane.
2. Above the level of occlusal plane.
3. Anterior to the level of occlusal plane.
4. Below the level of occlusal plane.
22-rubber dam is used in children ( pediatric
dentistry )
1. For increase visibility and accessibility.
2. To protect patient against swallowing and
foreign material.
3. For sterile field.
4. 1+2.
23-In primary teeth, pathologic changes in
radiographs are always seen in:
1. Per apical area.
2. Furcation area.
3. Alveolar crest.
4. At base of developing teeth.
24-Eruption cyst (eruption hematoma) can be
treated by:
1. No treatment is needed.
2. Immediate incision.
3. Complete uncoverage.
4. Observe for one week then incise.
25-After trauma a tooth become yellowish in
color, this is due to:
1. Necrotic pulp.
2. Irreversible pulpits.
3. Pulp is partially or completely obliterated.
4. Hemorrhage in pulp.
26-Step deformity of mandibular body fracture
may be due to:
1. Forward pull of lateral pterygiod muscle.
2. Upward pull of masseter and temporails.
3. Inward pull of medial pterygiod muscle.
4. Downward pull of geniohyoid and mylohoid.
27-In gamma 2 amalgam, the amount of copper is:
1. 13.1.
2. 21.5.
3. 16.2.
GAMMA PHASE This is the silver alloy phase. This
is the STRONGEST phase and has the least
corrosion. GAMMA-1 PHASE This consists of
mercury reacting with the silver. It is also
strong and corrosion resistant, although not as
resistant as the Gamma Phase.
79
GAMMA-2 PHASE This consists of the reaction with
mercury and tin. This is the WEAKEST phase and
corrodes readily. This phase is eliminated with
high copper alloys.
28-Inorganic material in bone comprises:
1. 65%.
2. 25%.
3. 10%.
4. 95%.
= The inorganic content of cementum
(hydroxyapatite) is 45% to 50%, which is less
than that of
bone (65%), enamel (97%), or dentin (70%).
29-Facial nerve supply:
1. Masseter muscle.
2. Temporalis muscle.
3. Buccinator muscle.
4. Mylohyoid muscle.
30-Polishing bur ( for composite ) have:
1. Less than 6 blades.
2. 6-7 blades.
3. 10-12 lades.
4. More than 12 blades.
31-Pain during injection of local anesthesia in
children could be minimized by:
1. Slowly injection.
2. Talking to the child during injection.
3. Using long needle.
4. 1+2.
32-Rubber dam is contraindicated in:
1. Patient with nasal obstruction.
2. Mentally retarded Patient.
3. Uncooperative child.
4. 1+2.
33- Mucus retention cyst (ranula) can be treated
by:
1. Excision.
2. Cauterization.
3. Incision.
4. Marsupialization.
34-The most common type of biopsy used in oral
cavity is:
1. Excisional biopsy.
2. Incisional biopsy.
80
3. Aspiration through needle.
4. Punch biopsy.
35-the maxillary first molars 4th canal is found
in:
1. MB root.
2. DB root.
3. Palatal root.
36-formocresol, when it is used ( = in pulpotomy
) it should be:
1. Full concentration.
2. Half concentration.
3. Fifth concentration. = one-fifth
4. None of the above.
37- 10 years old child present with bilateral
swelling
of submandibular area, what could be the
disease:
1. Fibrous dysplasia.
2. Cherubism.
3. Plermorphic adenoma.
38-Patient complaints from pain in 45 which had
gold
only, the pain could be due to:
1. Chemicals from cement.
2. High thermal conductivity of gold.
3. Related to periodontal ligament.
4. Improper finished of tooth occlusal trauma.
39-irrigation solutions are used in endodontic
to:
1. Lubricate the canals.
2. Flushes the debris.
3. Bactericidal effect.
4. All the above.
40-Which is most common ( congenital anomalies
)?
1. Cleft lip.
2. Cleft palate.
3. Bifid tongue.
4. Cleft lip and palate.
41-Which nerve pass through petrous part of
temporal bone (internal acoustic meatus )?
1. V.
2. VII. ( facial )
3. IX.
4. VIII.
81
42-Fracture upper central incisor in 8 year old
child with pulp exposure, management:
1. Apixofication.
2. Pulptomy. = (Apexogenesis )
3. RCT.
*Pulptomy. = (Apexogenesis )
We did not do Apixofication coz the tooth still
vital.
43- 21 years old PT with pathological exposure
in 35, management:
1. Direct pulp capping.
2. Indirect pulp capping.
3. Root canal treatment.
44-during examination ( tooth #34) LR first
premolar show gingival recession buccally, the
least
correct reason is:
1. Frenum attachment.
2. PT is right hand brusher.
3 Occlusal force. = Traumatic occlusion
4 Inadequate gingiva. = inadequate Keratinized
Gingiva
45-Hypercementosis:
1. Occur in Paget disease.
2. Difficult to extract.
3. Bulbous root.
4. Easy to manage by elevator.
a) 1+2+3.
b) 1+4.
c) All the above
46-For onlay preparation, reduction of
functioning cusp should be:
1. 1.5mm(for nonfunctional cusp).
2. 2mm.
3. 1mm.
47-Thickness of preparation should be: ( for
what ? )
1. 0.3 - 0.5 mm.
2. 0.05 - 0.15 mm.
3. 0.5 - 1.5 mm.
48-Class II composite resin is lined by:
1. GI.
2. Reinforced zinc oxide eugenol.
3. Zinc oxide eugenol with ortho epoxy cement.
4. Cavity varnish.
82
49-Ocluusal plane is:
1. Above the level of the tongue.
2. Below the level of the tongue.
50-Lateral pterygoid muscle has how many
origins:
1. One Origin.
2. Two Origins. = upper/superior head +
lower/inferior head
SAMPLE 12
1-During intra intrauterine life, embryo becomes
fetus in:
1. 1st week.
2. 1stmonth.
3. 2nd month.
4. 3rd month.
= The fetal period begins with the beginning of
the third month and extends to the end of
intrauterine life. It is characterized by
maturation of the tissues and organs and rapid
growth of the body
2-All are single bone in the skull except:
1. lacrimal.
2. Occipital.
3. Sphenoid.
4. Vomer.
3- Foramen Ovale is in the following bone:
1. Parietal.
2. Temporal.
3. Occipital.
4. Sphenoid.
4-In hairy tongue, which taste buds increase in
length:
1. Filiform.
2. Fungi form.
3. Foliate.
4. Circulvallate.
= Hairy tongue represents elongation and
hypertrophy of the filiform papillae
5-Coronal suture is between:
1. Occipital and temporal bone.
2. Frontal and parietal bone.
3. Occipital and tympanic bone.
83
6-During instrumentation, sudden disappear of
root canal due to:
1. Bifurcation of main canal.
2. Apical perforation.
3. Calcification.
7-when does child should be first exposed for
using tooth brush:
1. At eruption of first tooth.
2. One year.
3. Tow year.
4. Primary school year.
= Toothbrushing should commence with the
eruption of the first tooth
8-Early loss of anterior teeth:
1. Affect phonetic.
2. Affect esthetics.
3. Cause space loss.
4 all the above
5 ans :1+2.
Premature Loss of Anterior Teeth - Main concern
is based on esthetics, speech and function -
Space loss is rarely observed.
9-amount of G.P should be left after post
preparation:
1. 1mm.
2. 4-5mm.
3. 10mm.
4. None of the above.
At least 4 to 5 mm of gutta percha should be
left in situ in order to preserve the apical
seal
10-What is the number of pharyngeal (branchial)
arches: ( in human embryos )
1. 4.
2. 5.
3. 6.
4. 7.
84
the arches in humans are I, II, III, IV, and VI
11-what is the name of 1st pharyngeal arch:
1. Maxillary.
2. Mandible.
1st (called "mandibular arch") = 2nd (called the
"hyoid arch")
12-In cavity preparation class II, the (isthmus)
cavity width is :
1. 1/2 intercuspal distance.
2. 1/3 intercuspal distance. = 1/3 the
intercuspal width
3. 3/4 intercuspal distance.
13-polyvinyle siloxane compared with
polysulfide:
1. Can be poured more than once.
2. Can be poured after 7 days.
3. Less dimentional stability.
4. 1+2.
14-hand over mouth technique is used in
management of which child:
1. Mentally retarded.
2. Positive resistance.
3. Uncooperative.
4. Hysterical.
* Indication of HOME technique: >For normal
children who are momentarily hysterical,
belligerent or defiant.>For children with
sufficient maturity to understand simple verbal
commands
*HOME tech. not used any more
15-Space loss occurs in:
1. Proximal caries.
2. Early extraction.
3. Ankylosis.
4.All
16-after amalgam trituration, the mix should be
placed within:
1. 1min.
2. 3min.
3. 5min.
4. 10min.
17- Pit and fissure sealants are indicated in:
1. Deep pits and fissure.
2. Newly erupted teeth.
3. Both 1 and 2.
Q) Least benefit from pit fissure sealant
85
1. Pt of age 5 year think it is correct- should
apply earlier for primary
2. 24 month follow application
3. Second molar
4. Primary molars
18-Aphthous ulcer, compared with herpes ulcer
is:
1. Aphthous is more characteristic in histology.
2. Aphthous leaves scar.
3. Aphthous less response to stress.
4. Aphthous occur in lining mucosa.
= Aphthous Ulcers occur in Nonkeratinized
mucosa>Herpes Infection occur in keratinized
mucosa
19-Squamous cell carcinoma is derived from:
1. Epithelial tissue.
2. Connective tissue.
= squamous cell carcinoma that develops from a
squamous epithelium (lining epithelium)
20- Syphilis first appearance:
1. Multiple vesicles.
2. Erythematous reaction.
3. Ulcer.
4. Bullae.
Primary (chancre)single, indurated, nonpainful
ulcer at site of spirochete entry; spontaneously
heals in 46 weeks
21-manamgement knife edge ridge in complete
denture:
1. Reline with resilient material.
2. Maximum coverage.
3. Wide occlusal table.
4. All.
22-fluoride which we use in the clinic does not
cause fluorosis because:
1. It is not the same fluoride that causes
fluorosis.
2. Teeth already calcified.
3. Calciumin the mouth counter.
4. Saliva washes it out.
23-the antibiotic of choice in endodontic:
1. Metronidazole.
2. Pencillin.
3. Tetracycline.
Penicillin VK is the antibiotic of choice
because of its effectiveness against both
facultative and
anaerobic microorganisms commonly found in
polymicrobial endodontic infections.
24- Verrucous carcinoma:
86
1. Malignant.
2. Benign.
= Verrucous carcinoma is a low-grade variant of
squamous cell carcinoma.
= Verrucous carcinoma : Slow-growing malignancy;
well differentiated,
with better prognosisthan usual squamous cell
carcinoma; growth pattern
is more expansile than invasive;
metastasisuncommon
25-Suture commonly used in oral cavity:
1. Black silk.
2. Catgut.
3. Chromic.
26-In combined endo-perio problem:
1. Start with endodontic.
2. Start with periodontic.
27-Tooth fracture during extraction may occur
due to:
1. Non vital tooth.
2. Diabetic PT.
3. Improper holding by forceps.
4. 1 + 3.
28-after scaling and root panning healing occur
by:
1. Connective tissue attachment.
2. Long junctional epithelium.
3. New bone and connective tissue formation.
4. New attached periodontal ligament fibers.
29-caries consist of:
1. Bacteria.
2. Fluid.
3. Epithelial cells.
= Dental caries is an infectious microbiologic
disease of the teeth that results in localized
dissolution and destruction of the calcified
tissues.
30-post retention depends on:
1. Post length.
2. Post diameter.
3. Post texture.
4. Core shape.
5. Design of the prosthesis.
a) 1+2.
b) 1+2+3.
c) All the above.
87
d) 1.
31-amount of reduction in PFM crown: = occlusal
reduction
1. 1.5 - 2.
2. 1.7 - 2.
3. 2 5.
32-AH26 is root canal sealer consist of:
1. Zinc oxide eugenol.
2. 2 Eboxy resin
= AH26 is epoxy resinbased sealer
33-most common site of oral squamous cell
carcinoma:
1. Posterior lateral border of tongue. =
intraoral
2. Floor of the mouth.
3. Buccal mucosa.
4. Lip.
5. Skin.
= The lateral border, the ventral surface of the
tongue, and the lips are the most commonly
affected areas, followed by the floor of the
mouth, the gingiva, the alveolar mucosa, the
buccal mucosa, and the palate.
= Squamous cell carcinoma of the tongue is the
most common intraoral malignancy The floor of
the mouth is the second
34-( Dentinogenesis imperfecta type I) PT can
suffer from the followings excepts:
1. Fracture bone.
2. Fracture enamel.
3. Blue sclera.
4. Paget disease.
5. Supernumerary teeth.
35- 5 years old child lost his upper right 1st
primary molar, best space maintainer is:
1. Lingual bar.
2. Crown and loop.
3. Band and loop.
36- In primary teeth, the ideal occlusal scheme
is:
1. Flush terminal.
2. Mesial step.
3. Distal step.
37- When you give a child a gift for good
behavior this is called:
1. Positive reinforcement.
2. Negative reinforcement.
88
38-hairy leukoplakia may be caused by:
1. Broad spectrum antibiotic.
2. H2O2 mouths wash.
3. Systemic steroids.
4. Heavy smokers.
5. All the above.
*Broad spectrum antibiotic cause black hairy
leukoplakia
39-bacterial endodontic pathosis is:
1. Porphyromonas endodontalis
obligate anaerobe.
2. Streptococcus mutans.
3. Staphylococcus aureus.
40- In distal extension PD during relining OCC
rest was not seated:
1. Remove impression and repeat again.
2. Continue and seat it after relining.
3. Use impression compound.
41-After talking alginate impression:
1. Wash with water and spray with sodium
hypochlorite for 10 sec.
2. Same but wait 5-10 min and then put it in
sealed plastic bag.
42-polyether is:
1. Less (dimensionally) stable than polysulfide.
2. Less stiff than polysulfide.
3. Can absorb water and swell.
42- Many parts of bone are originally
cartilaginous that replaced by bone
(Endochondral
ossification):
1. True.
2. False.
= Most of the skeleton of the fetus is laid down
in cartilage before being replaced by bone
43- Buccal object rule in dental treatment of
maxillary teeth:
1. MB root appear distal to P if cone is
directed M to D.
2. DB root appear mesial to P if cone is
directed Mto D.
= SLOB rule- same lingual opposite buccal
45- The followings are multilocular
radioluceneis in x-ray except:
1. Ameloblastoma.
2. Odotogeneic keratocyst.
3. Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor(AOT). = well-
defined, unilocular radiolucency
4. Myxoma.
89
46- Check biting in lower denture can occur if:
1. Occlusal plane above tongue.
2. Occlusal plane below tongue.
3. Occlusal plane at lower lip.
4. None of the above.
Check biting occur when post. Teeth set edge to
edge.
Lip biting caused by reduce muscles tone or
large anterior horizontal overlap.
Toung biting caused by having denture teeth set
too far lingually.
Gagging caused by post. Seal too far
posteriorly.
47- Occlusal plane should be:
1. Parallel to interpupillary line. = Anteriorly
2. Parallel to ala tragus line = Posteriorly.
3. At rest tongue is just above occlusal plane.
4. All the above.
48- 33 years old female PT come with slow
growing swelling in angle of mandible,
radiograph
show radio-opaque with radio-lucent border,
diagnosis:
1. Osteoma.
2. Osteosarcoma.
3. Cementoblastoma.
= Well defined solitary radio opaque lesion with
surrounding radiolucent border
49- 20 years old male PT came with server pain
on chewing related to lower left first molar,
Intraoral examination reveals no caries, good
oral hygiene, no changes in radiograph, PT give
History of bridge cementation 3 days ago,
diagnosis:
1. Pulp necrosis.
2. Acute apical Periodontitis.
3. Chronic apical abscess.
4. None of the above.
50- 6 years old child have 74 and 84 extracted
best space maintainer is:
1. Lingual arch.
2. Bilateral band and loop.
3. Bilateral distal shoe.
4. No need for space maintainer.
90
51 -(6 years) child with bilateral loss of
(Lower) deciduous molars &the anterior teeth not
erupted yet ,the space maintainer for choice is:
a-lingual arch
B-bilateral band and loop
c-bilateral band and loop with distal shoe
d-removable partial denture
*if anteriors are present & the missing is
bilateral D&E lingual arch used
if the missing is bilateral D bilateral band
and loop used
if the missing is bilateral E bilateral band
and loop with distal shoe used
SAMPLE 13
1-What is the type of fracture that causes
mobility of the mid face?
1. Lefort II.
2. Lefort III.
3. Zygomatic fracture.
*Le Fort III (craniofacial dysjunction) -
mobility of the complete mid-face, with movement
detected at the frontonasal and frontozygomatic
sutures.
2-Reduction of the incisal edge for PFM crown
is:
1. 1mm.
2. 2mm.
3. 1.5mm.
3-Maximum time elapsed before condensation of
amalgam after trituration:
1. 1minute.
2. 3minutes.
3. 9minutes.
4-All of these are landmarks that indicate post
palatal seal except:
1. Fovea palatine.
2. Hamular notch.
3. Vibrating line.
4. Retromolar pad
5-Eruption hematoma that appeared 2 week before
eruption of a tooth what a will do:
1. Excision immediately.
2. No treatment.
3. Observed for 1 week.
6-Time for etchant any dentine bonding :
1. 15 sec.
91
2. 30 sec.
3. 45 sec.
7-Tug back refers to:
1. Retention of GP inside the canal.
2. Flowability of GP.
= The gutta-percha trial point should go fully
to the constriction, and a slight tug-back
should be
felt when the point is removed (retention form).
8-The major connection (communication) between
the pulp and the periodontal is through:
1. Apical foramen.
2. Lat accessory canal.
3. Dentinal tubes.
4. Periodontal ligaments.
= The apical foramen is the principal and most
direct route of communication between the
periodontium and the pulp.
9-Contact point in the proximal surface in which
of the following presenting occlusal one third:
1. Lower anterior tooth.
2. Maxillary posterior molar.
3. Lower premolars.
10-Geographic tongue is always accompanied in
patient with:
1. Diabetes.
2. Erythema multiform.
3. Iron deficiency.
4. Psoriasis.
Geographic tongue has been associated,
coincidentally, with several different
conditions,
including psoriasis , seborrheic
dermatitis, Reiter's syndrome, and atopy.
11-Purpose of subgingival scaling is:
1. To remove calculus.
2. To remove nicotine cementum.
3. To make root surface biocompatible.
4. A and B only.
= Scaling This is the process by which plaque
and calculus are removed from both supragingival
and subgingival tooth surfaces.
= Root planing is the process whereby residual
embedded calculus and portions of the necrotic
cementum are removed from the roots to produce a
clean, hard, smooth surface
92
12-Fracture of maxillary tuberosity is treated
by:
1. Replaced.
2. Removed.
3. No treatment.
13- Patient With complete denture came
complaining discomfort during swallowing a sore
throat,
what is the cause:
1. Overextension of denture.
2. Denture pressing on hamular notch.
15-How many layer of varnish we use:
1. 1 layer.
2. 2 layers.
3. 4 layers.
= Minimum of two layers of varnish are applied
to achieve a uniform and continuous coating
16-Indirect pulp capping done in:
1. Primary molar.
2. Premolar and molar.
3. Incisors.
4. All the above.
17-What do we use as temporary filling material
in anterior region when aesthetic is important:
1. Composite.
2. Glass ionemer cement.
3. Zinc oxide eugenol.
18-After class 2 glass ionomer filling after we
used cervical matrix:
1. Use scaler and knife to remove excess
immediately.
2. Use scaler and knife in next visit.
93
3. Use finishing stone immediately.
4. Use finishing stone next visit.
a) 1+4.
b) 1+2.
c) 2+3.
d) 3+4.
19-Best finishing of composite done by:
1. Carbide bur.
2. Diamond bur.
3. Mounted stone.
4. Best retained under matrix band.
20-If class 2 restored composite and u want to
cover it with bond:
1. Pull bond then remove excess composite then
cure.
2. Remove excess then apply bond and light cure.
3. Apply bond then cure then remove the excess.
21-Very small access opening in max central
incisor will lead to:
1. Most conservative to tooth.
2. Insufficient removal of necrotic pulp.
3. Excellent obturation.
4. Good accessibility for instrument.
22-What does plaque comprises:
1. Epithelium.
2. Mucus.
3. Bacteria.
23-What is the microorganism that causes caries?
1. ST.mutan. = Streptococcus mutans
2. SL.viridan .
3. Spirochetes + actinomicintes .
25-Rubber dam is contraindicated in patient
with:
1. PT and nasal obstruction.= respiratory
obstructions
2. Mentally retarded PT.
3. Epileptic PT.
26-Clamp of rubber dam must touch tooth:
1. Adapted well to all tooth surface.
2. Touch 4 points engaging mesial + distal.
3. Touch 4 points in buccal + lingual. = four
point contact
94
4. On occlusal.
* To remain stable ,a rubber dam clamp must
contact the anchor tooth gingival to the height
of
contour. Which other criterion must the clamp
satisfy?
a) All four points must be sharp
b) All four points must contact the tooth
c) The bow must be directed to the distal side
of the tooth
27-Which of these can cause inability for proper
movement + Position control?
1. Cerebral palsy.
2. Down syndrome.
3. Epilepsy.
28-In deciduous tooth the first radiographic
changes will be seen in:
1. Bifurcation area.
2. Apical area.
3. External root resoption.
= Pathologic changes in the periapical tissues
surrounding primary molars are most often
apparent in the bifurcation or Bifurcation areas
rather than at the apices, as in permanent teeth
29-Polysulfide impression material:
1. Must be poured within 1 hour.
2. Can be poured within 2 hours.
3. Must wail till next day before pouring.
4. Need tray and water cooling.
30-Best x-ray view to detect proximal caries in
the tooth:
1. Periapical.
2. Bite wing.
3. Occlusal.
4. None of the above.
31-Calcium hydroxide is best pulp capping
material because:
1. It has best seal over pulp.
2. It is alkaline + less irritating to pulp.
3. It induces reparative dentine formation.
32-In countries growth rate of population the
best program should be done about:
1. Caries.
2. Periodontal disease.
3. Tooth abnormality.
33-Mandible is the first bone to be calcified in
the skull:
1. True.
95
2. False.
35-Over erupting tooth can be treated by:
1. Crowning after endo.
2. Ortho intrusion.
3. Extraction.
a) A and B.
b) All the above.
36-5 years old patient lost his primary first
maxillary molar the best retainer is:
1. Band and loop.
2. Crown and loop.
3. Lingual arch.
4. Nance appliance.
37-When a child must first exposed to the use of
the tooth brush:
1. Of age of 2 years.
2. Of age of 4 years.
3. Immediately after eruption of first tooth.
38-Patient lost tooth number 36, which is your
clinical finding:
1. Mesial tilting of 37.
2. Intrusion of 26.
39-What is the most accurate differentiation
between periapical + periodontal abscess?
1. Radiographic exam.
2. Percussion test. = clinical examination
3. Electric test.
40-Patient wearing denture 5 years ago come with
white patches on the lower edge, what is the
best to be done:
1. Surgical removal of patch.
2. Let patient stop wearing lower denture and
recheck after 2 weeks.
3. No treatment.
SAMPLE 14
1-Mobility in midface with step deformity in
frontozygomatic suture, diagnosis:
1- Lefort III.
2- Lefort II. = Step deformity at infra-orbital
margins.
3- Bilateral zygomatic complex fracture.
96
2-PT with lower complete denture, intraoral
examination show white slightly elevated lesion
with
confined border. PT gives history of ill fitting
denture TX. Is by:
1- Immediate surgical remove.
2- Instruct PT not to use denture for 2 weeks
then follow up.
3- Reassure PT and no need for treatment.
3-examination of residual ridge for edentulous
PT, before construction of denture determines
stability, support and retention related to the
ridge.
1- True.
2- False.
4-Upon examination of alveolar ridge of elderly
PT, for construction of lower denture easily
Displaceable tissue is seen in the crest of
ridge, management is:
1- Minor surgery is needed.
2- Informthe Pt that retention of denture will
decrease.
3- Special impression technique is required.
5-class III jaw relation in edentulous PT:
1- It will affect size of maxillary teeth.
2- Affect retention of lower denture.
3- Affect esthetic and arrangement of maxillary
denture.
4- All the above.=
97
6-in recording man-max relation, the best
material used without producing pressure is:
1- Wax.
2- Compound.
3- Bite registration paste.
7-in recording jaw relation, best to use:
1- Occlusal rim without record base.
2- Occlusal rim with base wax.
3- Occlusal rim with metal frame.
8-to recheck centric relation in complete
denture:
1- Ask PT to swallow and close.
2- Ask Pt to place tip of the tongue in
posterior area of denture and close.
3- Ask PT to wet his lip and tongue.
4- All of the above.
9-by aging, pulp tissue will:
1- Decrease in collagen fibers.
2- Increase cellularity and vascularity.
3- Decrease in size.
98
10-complete blood count (CBC) is a laboratory
test important in dentistry:
1- True.
2- False.
11-in class I partially edentulous lower arch,
selection of major connecter depend on:
1- Height of lingual attachment.
2- Mandibular tori.
3- Periodontal condition of remaining teeth.
4- All the above.
12-Endomethazone is a root canal sealer that:
1- Dissolve in fluid so it weakens the root
canal filling.
2- Very toxic, contain formaldehyde.
3- Contain corticosteroids.
4- All the above.
13-Sealer is used in RCT to:
1- Fill in voids.
2- Increase strength of RC filling.
14-ideal properties of RC filling material are
the following except:
1- Radiolucent in radiography.
2- Biocompatible.
3- Easily removal when retreatment is necessary.
15-Cause the master GP not reaches working
length although it is the same size of last
file:
1- Dental debris.
2- Ledge formation.
3- 1+2.
4- None of the above.
16-follow up the RCT, after 3 years, RF was
failed best to:
1- Extraction.
2- Redo RCT.
3- Apicpectomy.
17-clinical measurement done in recall of RCT
is:
1- Reduce size of path lesion.
2 No pain at percussion and palpation.
3 Presence of acute inflammatory cell.
18-main apical foramen located:
1- Very often lateral to (Radiographic) apex.
2- Always at apex.
99
3- At lateral canal.
19-Very small access opening in upper central
incisor lead to:
1- Complete removal of the pulp.
2- Incomplete removal of the pulp.
3- Conservative restoration.
20-restoration of anterior teeth with RCT,
abraded incisal edge and small M&D caries is by:
1- Full crown.
2- Composite restoration.
21-Endodontically treated 2nd maxillary premolar
with moderate M&D caries is best restored by:
1- Amalgam.
2- 3/4 crown.
3- Full crown.
4- Onlay
22-MOD amalgam restoration with deep proximal
mesial box, PT comes with pain related to it
after one mouth due to:
1- Pulp involvement.
2- Supraocclusion.
3- Open contact.
4- Gingival recession.
23-reduction in amalgam restoration should be:
1- 1-1.5 mm.
2- 1.5-2 mm.
3- 2-3 mm.
4- 3-5 mm.
24-when esthetic is important, posterior class I
composite is done in:
1- Sub gingival box.
2- Bad oral hygiene.
3- Contact free area.
4- Class I without central contact.
25-HIV can be transmitted by transplacenta:
1- True.
2- False.
26-in sickle cell anemia, O2 is decreased in
oral mucosa:
1- True.
2- False.
= Sickle cell anemia can affect almost every
body system through decreased O2 delivery,
100
decreased circulation.
27-destruction of RBC may cause anemia and it is
due to defect in cell membrane:
1- True.
2- False.
= Hemolytic anemia is caused by destruction of
RBCs prior to their normal lifespan The cause of
hemolytic anemia is related to defects of the
cell membrane of the RBC
28- Immunofluorescence test and biology are used
to diagnosis pemphigus:
1- True.
2- False.
29-After RCT, for insertion of post dowel:
1- Post applied under pressure.
2- Post should be lose.
3- Insert it without pressure but with
retention.
30-In single rooted teeth with root canal
treatment, best restoration is:
1- Casted post and core.
2- Prefabricated post and amalgam.
3- Prefabricated post and composite.
4- Composite post and core without dowel.
31-Selection of shade for composite is done:
1- Under light.
2- After drying tooth and isolation without
rubber dam.
3- None of the above.
= shade must be selected in natural light before
dental dam placement.
32-measuring blood pressure in one vital signs
important in medically compromised PT:
1- True.
2- False.
33-most commonly, after placement of amalgam
restoration PT, complain from pain with:
1- Hot.
2- Cold.
3- Occlusal pressure.
4- Galvanic shock.
36-Bacteria in root canal pathosis:
1- Mixed anaerobe and aerobe.
2- Single obligate anaerobe.
3- Aerobic.
4- None of the above.
101
37-Calicumhydroxide is used in deep cavity
because it:
1- Stimulate formation of 2ndry dentin.
2- Not irritant to the pulp.
3- For thermal isolation.
38-irrigation solution for RCT cause protein
coagulation is:
1- Sodium hypochlorite.
2- Iodine potassium.
3- Formocresol.
4- None of the above.
*camphorated para chlorophenol causes
coagulation of the protein
39-Use of miswak and toothbrush:
1- Use the miswak only when they can not afford
to buy the toothbrush and toothpaste.
2- Not use the miswak and use the toothbrush
instead.
3- Use Toothbrush after meals and miswak at
prayer time and when out of home.
4- Toothbrush and miswak must be used together.
40-Oral diaphragm consists mainly of: 1- Tongue.
2- Geniohoid muscle.
3- Digastrics muscle.
4- Mylohyoid muscle.
41-occlusal rest function:
1- To resist lateral chewing movement.
2- To resist vertical forces.
3- Stability.
4- Retention.
42-in post and core preparation core must:
1- Extend to contra bevel.
2- Extend to full length tooth preparation.
3- Take some shape of natural tooth.
4- Take shape of preparation abutment.
a) 1+4.
b) 1+2.
c) 3+4.
d) 1+2+3.
44-Chronic Suppurative Periodontitis: =(Chronic
Apical Suppurative Periodontitis)
1- PT complains from moderate pain.
2- Fistula with drain.
3- Pulp polyp in open coronal carious lesion.
45-acute periodontal abscess:
102
1- Fistula present.
2- Swelling enlargement in tooth site.
3- Variable in pain.
4- Stabilishing I&D.
5- None of the above.
*The clinical signs of an acute abscess are: 1 .
Severe pain 2. Swelling of the soft tissues 3.
Tenderness to percussion 4. Extrusion of the
involved tooth 5. Mobility of the involved tooth
46-masseter muscle extends from lower border
of zygomatic arch to lateral border of ramus and
angle of mandible:
1- True.
2- False.
48-main arterial supply to face is facial artery
and superficial temporal artery:
1- True.
2- False.
49-mandible is the first bone calcified (
ossified ) in skull but clavicle start
first but same
embryological time:
1- True.
2- False.
50-some bones are formed by endochonral
ossification like long bone, flat bone by
intramembranous ossification and some bone by
endochondral and intramembranous ossification:
1. True.
2. False.
= There are two types of ossification
intramembranous and endochondral ossification.
Bone may
be synthesized by intramembranous ossification,
endochondral ossification, or a combination of
the two.
SAMPLE 15
1-Muscle of facial expression is all innervated
(supplied) by facial nerve VII :
1. True.
2. False.
103
2-Permeability of dentine:
1. Bacterial products go through it.
2. Decrease by smear layer.
3. Allow bacteria to go in.
All of the above
{as I know 1&2 r correct}
*axial D.(ROOT) is more Permeable than occlusal
D.
* young D. more permable than Old D.
*D.tubules No. near the pulp is more than the
near DEJ
*D. near pulp more permable than D. near DEJ
*decrease Remaining D. thickness(RDT) increase
D. permeability
*sear layer decrease D. permeability
*acid etching increase D. permeability
3-Toothbrushing and dental floss in community
prevention of periodontal disease:
1. True.
2. False.
5-crown with open margin can be due to:
1. Putting die space on finishing line.
2. Waxing not covering all crown prep.
3. Over contouring of crown prevent seating
during insertion.
4. All the above.
6-Cell of chronic inflammation:
1. Lymphocytes.
2. PMN.
3. Neutrophils.
= The major cells seen in chronic inflammation
are macrophages, lymphocytes, and less
frequently, plasma cells.
7-Dentist must:
1. Treat PT medically.
2. Prescribe medicine to PT with medical
problem.
3. Do clinical examination, take medical history
and evaluate the medical state.
8-tooth germ of primary teeth arises from:
1. Dental lamina.
2. Dental follicle.
3. Enamel organ.
4. Epithelial cell of malassez.
9-Reparative dentin: = tertiary
1. 2nd dentin
2. Formed as Dentine Bridge above the pulp.
104
3. Highly tubular dentine and it is defective
from of 1st dentine.
4. Sclerosing dentine with less permeability.
*Secondary dentin is a physiological process by
which the tooth lay down secondary dentin after
complete formation of the (primary dentin (Even
without external stimuli(
*Sclerotic dentin:(it is a normal dentine but
due to the bact. It convert to a sclerotic and
less permable dentine by increase of
mineralization of the surrounding tubules.This
results in a constriction of the tubules, which
is an attempt to slow the bacterial progression
*reparative dentin is formed in response to
moderate level stimuli such as ( attrition,
abrasion, erosion, trauma, moderate-rate
dentinal caries, some operative procedures)
10-physiological reaction of edema on vital
pulp:
1. Decrease tissue fluid by decompression of
blood vessel.
2. Increase blood pressure.
3. Necrosis of pulp due to hyproxia and
anoryxia.
11- Microabscess on vital pulp: start necrosis
of small part and sequlae of destruction cycle
and
full repair:
1. True.
2. False.
12-amalgam tattoo is an oral pigmentation
lesion:
1. True.
2. False.
13-oral and perioral cyst formed from epithelial
rest of series = epithelial cells :
1. True.
2. False.
14-development of maxillary process and medial
frontal process ( result ) in medial elongation
of
central portion:
1. True.
2. False.
15- Cementum contain cell like bone and it is
yellow in color in vital, extracted, or avulsed
tooth
but in non vital tooth, its color is dark:
1. True.
2. False.
16-dentine composition:
1. 60 65 % inorganic by wgt (70%inorganic by
volume).
2. 25%water by wgt (12%water by volume).
3. 43%organic by wgt (20%organic by volume).
17-The primary direction of spread of infection
in the mandible is to submental lymph node:
1. True.
105
2. False.
Submandibular LN.
18-7 days after amalgam restoration PT came
complaining of pain during putting spoon on the
restored tooth, this is due to:
1. Irreversible pulpitis.
2. Reversible pulpitis.
3. Broken amalgam.
4. Galvanic action.
19-regarding tissue retraction around tooth:
1. Short duration of retraction of gingival
margin during preparation of finishing line.
2. Retraction of gingival margin during taking
final impression to take all details of
unprepared
finish line.
3. Usually retracted severely inflamed gingival
margin.
4. Retraction of gingival margin can be done by
many ways one of them is retraction cord.
a) 1+2+3.
b) 1+4.
c) 2+3+4.
20- DNA only infect human but RNA does not
infect human:
1. True.
2. False.
(both can infect humans , example : influenza ,
hepatitis C ,SARS)
21-artificial teeth best to be selected by:
1. Pre extraction records.
2. Post extraction records.
The pre-extraction records like diagnostic
casts, photographs, radiographs, teeth of close
relatives and preserved extracted teeth
106
23-subgingival scaling and root planning is done
by:
1. Gracy curette.
2. Hoe.
3. Chisel.
24- paraesthesia of lower lip after surgical
removal of lower 8 is due to irritation of
inferior
alveolar nerve:
1. True.
2. False.
25-fluoride decrease dental caries by
remineralization of enamel:
1. True.
2. False.
26-the aim of conditioning agent on dentine
before GI cement is to remove smear layer:
1. True.
2. False.
27-compomer has same fluoride as GI:
1. True.
2. False.
*compomers have a lower fluoride release profile
than glass
28-barbed broach in endodontics is used for pulp
extirpation in relatively straight canals:
1. True.
2. False.
29-fixed partial prosthesis is more successful
in:
1. Single tooth missing.
2. Multiple messing teeth.
30-best pontic is:
1. Ridge lap.
2. Hygienic.
3. Saddle.
31-PT feels pain of short duration after class
II restoration, diagnosis is:
1. Reversible pulpitis (hyperemia).
2. Irreversible pulpitis.
3. Periodontitis.
32-Radiotherapy increase caries by decreasing
salivary secretion:
1. True.
107
2. False.
33-Dental plaque composed mainly of:
1. Bacteria.
2. Inorganic material.
3. Food.
Q)Which statement best describes plaque?
A. It is a soft film composed mainly of food
debris and cannot be rinsed off the teeth
B. It is a soft film composed mainly of bacteria
and can be rinsed off the teeth ?
C It is a soft film composed mainly of bacteria
and can not be rinsed off the teeth
34-Composite for posterior teeth:
1. Micro filled + fine filler.
2. Macro filled + rough filler.
3. Hybrid + rough filler.
35-light curing time for simple shallow class
III composite:
1. 10 sec.
2. 15 sec.
3. 20 sec.
36-check bite of retainer by:
1. Paste.
2. Impression.
37-mastoid process is part of:
1. Temporal bone.
2. Parietal bone.
3. Occipital bone.
38-parotid duct opens opposite to 2nd mandibular
molars:
1. True.
2. False.
*known as Stensen's duct, opens into the
vestibule of the mouth next to the maxillary
second molar tooth
39-palate consists of:
1. Palatine and sphenoid bone.
2. Palatine and maxillary bone.
3. Palatine and zygomatic bone.
Hard palate: formed of palatine processes of
maxillary and horizontal plates of palatine
bones.
40- The cause of oral Squamous cell carcinoma is
multifactorial:
108
1. True.
2. False.
*( include all kinds of tobacco usage, excessive
alcohol usage,
betel nut/paan chewing, immunodeficiency, ...)
41-the most important microorganismin dental
caries is:
1. Streptococcus mutans.
2. Streptococcus salivarius.
3. Fusobacteriumspirochetes.
42-emergency endodontic TX should not be started
before:
1. Establishing a TX plan.
2. Check restorability of the tooth.
3. Establishing diagnosis.
43-selection of type of major connecter in
partial denture is determined:
1. During examination.
2. During diagnosis and TX planning.
3. During bite registration.
44-White polycarbonate crowns are temporary
crowns used for anterior teeth:
1. True.
2. False.
45-for etching 15 sec for composite restoration
use:
1. 37%phosphoric acid.
2. 15%nitric acid.
3. 3%sulfuric acid.
47-mandible formed before frontal bone:
1. True.
2. False.
48-Nerve impulse stops when injection local
anesthesia:
1. True.
2. False.
49-the most common benign tumor in oral cavity
is:
1. Fibroma.
2. Papilloma.
3. Lipoma.
*Fibroma is the most common benign tumor of the
oral cavity,SCC is the most common malignant
tumor of the oral cavity.
50-the most prominent cell in acute inflammation
is:
1. Lymphocytes.
109
2. Plasma cell.
3. PMN.
* Polymorphonuclear neutrophils (PMNs) are
the primary effector cells in acute
inflammation.
SAMPLE 17
1-Flat bone grows by endochondral ossification:
1. True.
2. False.
intramembranous
2-Pulp chamber in lower 1st molar is mesially
located:
1. True.
2. False.
3-Radiopacity at the apex of a tooth with
chronic pulpitis:
1. Condensing osteitis (a focal sclerosing
osteomylitis).
2. Cemental dysplasia.
3. Periapical granuloma.
* Condensing osteitis A well-defined radiopacity
seen below the
apex of a nonvital tooth that has a history of a
long-standing pulpitis
Q) Which of the following appear radiopaque:
A. Periapical scar
B. Periapical granuloma
C. Condensing osteitis
D. Early cementoma
4-Extra canal if present in mandibular incisor
will be:
1. Lingual.
2. Distal.
5-the access opening in lower incisor: 1. Round.
2. Oval. 3. Triangular.
Ingles 6th eddition upper central and laterals
r triangular
upper canine&lower anteriors r oval
6-Acute periapical cyst and acute periodontal
cyst are differentiated by:
1. Vitality test.
2. Radiograph.
3. Clinical examination.
7-the most common cause of endodontic pathosis
is bacteria:
110
1. True.
2. False.
8-Palatal canal in upper molars is curved:
1. Bucally.
2. Palatally.
3. Distally.
9-If tooth or root is pushed during surgical
extraction into max. Sinus:
1. Leave it and informthe PT.
2. Remove it as soon as possible.
3. Follow the PT for 3 months.
4. None of the above.
10-differences (between) ANUG and AHGS is:
1. AUNG occur in dental papilla while AHGS
diffuse erythematous inflamed gingival.
2. AUNG occur during young adult and AHGS in
children.
3. All the above.
11-Different between Gracey and universal
curettes:
1. Cross Section of gracey is hemicircular and
in universal triangular.
2. Gracey has one cutting edge while universal
has two cutting edges.
3. Gracey used for cutting in specific area
while universal is in any area.
4. Universal not offset beveled at 85 degrees to
the shank, Gracey offset beveled at 60.
a. 1+4.
b. 1+2+3.
c. 2+3
*universal face of blade beveled at 900 to the
shank, Gracey offset beveled at 600
12-Person drinking fluoridated water, using
toothbrush with fluoride, rinsing with fluoride
mouthwash, then no need to put pit and fissure
sealant in his permanent molars:
1. True.
2. False.
13-Radiopacity attached to root of mandibular
molar (vital non-carious ):
1. Ossifying fibroma.
2. Hypercementosis.
3. Periapical cemental dysplasia.
14-Cause of fracture of occlusal rest:
1. Shallow preparation in marginal ridge.
2. Extention of rest to central fossa.
3. Improper centric relation.
111
15-Bridge return to dentist from lab with
different degree of color although the shade is
the same,
the cause:
1. Thin metal framework.
2. Different thickness of porcelain.
3. Thick opaquer.
16-Complete denture poorly fit and inadequate
interocclusal relation:
1. Relining.
2. Rebasing.
3. New denture.
4. None of the above.
17-small caries confined to enamel: (=approximal
caries on bitewing xray)
1. Preventive measure.
2. Amalgamfilling.
3 Keep under observation
18-Rampant caries in adult in anterior teeth
restored by:
1. Glass ionomer.
2. Zinc oxide eugenol.
3. Amalgam.
19-the 1st cervical vertebrae is:
1. Atlas.
2. Axis
21-Cartilaginous joints ( = between the
epiphysis and diaphysis of the growing bone) in
the body
affect bone growth:
1. True.
2. False.
22-the nerve which supplies the tongue and may
be anesthetized during nerve block injection:
1. V.
2. VII.
3. IX.
4. XII.
* It is lingual nerve, a branch of the
mandibular division of fifth cranial
(trigeminal) nerve
23-Cavity varnish should be applied at least in:
1. One layer.
2. Tow layer.
3. Three layer.
24-Geographic tongue is seen in PT with:
112
1. Diabetes.
2. Iron deficiency anemia.
3. Pemphigus.
4. psoriasis
25-Diabetic PT with ill fit denture, examination
of residual ridge helps to:
1. Determine the need for tissue conditioning or
surgery.
2. Determine occlusal plane height.
3. Determine vertical dimension at occlusion.
27-Handicapped PT with lesion in central nervous
system appears to have different type of
disorders in movement and posture:
1. Seizure.
2. Cerebral palsy.
3. Learning disability.
28-To obturate the canal the most important step
is:
1. Cleaning and shaping of the canal.
2. Irrigation of the canal.
= Cleaning and shaping is one of the most
important step in the root canal therapy for
obtaining
success in the root canal treatment
29-During placement of amalgam pins, the no
(number) of pins per cusp is:
1. 1 pin.
2. 2 pins.
3. 3 pins.
4. 4 pins.
30-The amount of LA in 2% lidocaine with
1/100000 adrenaline is:
1. 0.01.
2. 0.02.
3. 36 mg
= A 2% solution contains 20 mg of anesthetic
agent per milliliter which means that each 1.8
ml
cartridge contains 36 mg of agent
= A 1.8 ml dental cartridge of any 2 percent
anesthetic contains 36 mg, while a cartridge of
any 3
percent anesthetic contains 54 mg and that of
any 4 percent solution contains 72 mg.
31-The most common odontogenic cyst is:
1. Radicular cyst.
2. Keratocyst.
3. Aneurismal bone cyst.
*Periapical (radicular or dental) cyst is
inflammatory, and the most common odontogenic
cyst.& the most common developmental odontogenic
cyst is dentigerous cyst.
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32-PT complains from serve spontaneous pain
related to upper 6, it responds to vitality test
no
pain on percussion, diagnosis is:
1. Irreversible pulpitis.
2. Reversible pulpitis.
3. Acute apical Periodontitis.
33-The most important (considerations for
successful) RCT is to seal:
1. Apical 1/3.
2. Middle 1/3.
3. Cervical 1/3.
34-the cause of fracture isthmus in amalgam
class II restoration is:
1. Thin thickness at the marginal ridge.
2. Wide flared cavity proximally.
3. Deep cavity.
*Also the inadequate depth of the isthmus
35-Cement which contains fluoride:
1. Glass ionomer.
2. Zinc oxide eugenol.
3. Reinforced zinc oxide eugenol.
4. Polycarboxylate cement.
36-The most common complication after extraction
for diabetic PT is:
1. Infection.
2. Serve bleeding.
3. Oedema.
4. All the above.
37-internal resorption:
1. Painful.
2. Seldom differentiated from external
resorption.
3. Can occur in primary teeth.
Q)Which of the following statements regarding
internal root resorption is accurate?
a. It is more common in permanent than deciduous
teeth.
b. It is simple to differentiate from other
types of resorption.
c. It is characterized histologicaly by
inflammatory tissue with multinucleated giant
cells.
d. It is ruled out when there is no response to
pulp testing.
38-lateral canal is detected by:
1. P.A radiograph.
2. Tactile sensation.
3. Clinical examination.
114
39-contact area is in incisal / occlusal third
in which tooth:
1. Mandibular incisors.
2. Mandibular molars.
3. Maxillary molars.
40-Incipient caries is diagnosed by:
1. Fiber optic light. = fiber optic
transillumination techniques (FOTT).
2. Tactile examination.
3. X-ray film.
Q) Incipient or recurrent caries can be detected
before they are visible on a radiograph by:
A. Visible light.
B. Ultrasonic light.
C. Fibre optic trans-illumination.
D. Digital Fibre optic trans-illumination.
41-Mental foramen appears in radiograph as
radiolucent round area at the area of:
1. Mandibular premolars.
2. Mandibular incisors.
3. Maxillary canine.
42-PT with denture has swallowing problem and
sore throat, the problem is:
1. Posterior over extension at distal end.
2. Over extension of lingual pouch.
3. Over extension at humular notch.
On rare occasions the denture will press on the
mental nerve. The patient will get the feeling
of an "electric shock" when pressure is applied.
Locate and relieve that area.
Sometimes the patient complains of gagging due
to the maxillary denture. Your first thought is
that it is too long. Reducing the thickness of
the posterior border will often solve the
problem.
If a patient complains of a sore throat the day
after the delivery of complete dentures the
chances are the distolingual border of the
mandibular denture is overextended.
43-Disinfection of GP gutta percha is done by:
1. Autoclave.
2. Dry heat.
3. Sodium hypochlorite.
*Sterilization of gutta percha cones: A. Sodium
hypochlorite 5.25 percent for 1 minute
44-Periodontal ligament fiber in the middle
third of the root is:
1. Oblique.
2. Horizontal.
3. Transeptal.
45-To detect interproximal caries in primary
teeth, the best film is:
115
1. Periapical.
2. Bitewing.
3. Occlusal.
46-PT with missing lower right 1st molar for
long time you'll find:
1. Mesial drifting of lower right 2nd molar.
2. Intrusion of upper right 1st molar.
3. Over eruption of lower right 2nd molar.
47-Over erupted upper right 1st molar will be
managed by except:
1. Intruded easily orthodontically.
2. Crowning.
3. Adjustment of occlusion.
48-Broken instrument during RCT, best prognosis
if broken at:
1. Apical 1/3.
2. Middle 1/3.
3. Cervical 1/3.
49-After insertion of complete denture, PT came
complaining from pain in TMJ and tenderness of
muscle with difficulty in swallowing, this could
be due:
1. High vertical dimension.
2. Low vertical dimension.
3. Thick denture base.
4. Over extended denture base.
50-Pulp stone: (denticles)
1. Causes uncomfort and pain.
2. Free in pulp chamber.
3. None of the above.
= A pulp stone may be free in the pulp chamber
or it may be attached to the dentinal wall.
51-the amount of facial reduction in PFM crown:
1. 1.3.
2. 1.7.
3. 0.8.
4. 2.2.
Q) : The optimum gingival-facial reduction of a
Porcelain Fused to metal restoration on
maxillary anterior teeth is:
a. 0.65 mm
b. 1.0 mm
c. 1.3 mm
d. 1.5 mm
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e. 2.0 mm
52-A tooth with 25 degree inclination could be
used as abutment:
1. True.
2. False.
=As teeth inclined more than 25 to 30 degrees
make poor bridge abutments
53-Intracellular (transcellular) movement of PMN
polymorphonuclear leukocytes is called
migration:
1. True.
2. False.
54-In onlay, ( reduction ) slope of cusp is 1.5-
2 mm: (sufficient for the restorative material)
1. True.
2. False.
= reduction in harmony with the slopes or the
inclines of the cusps
SAMPLE 18
1-The periodontal tissues comprise which of the
following tissues:
1. Gingiva and the PDL.
2. Gingiva, PDL, and alveolar bone.
3. Gingiva, PDL, alveolar bone and cementum.
4. Gingiva, PDL, alveolar bone, cementum, and
enamel.
2-Which of following may cause gingival
enlargement?
1. Phenyntion (Dilantin).
2. Cyclosporine.
3. Nifedipine (a calciumchannel blocker).
4. Aspirin.
5. None of the above.
Q) Which of the following drugs induces gingival
hyperplasia:
A. Phenytoin(Dilantin).
B. Cyclosporine = immunosuppressants
C. Nifedipine (+Nitrendipine) = calcium-channel
blockers
D. All of the above
Q) All of the following drugs cause gingival
enlargement except
a. Cyclosporine
b. Phenytoin
c. Nifedipine
d. Aspirin
117
3-The function of the periodontal ligament
includes:
1. Mechanical function.
2. Formative function.
3. Sensory function.
4. All the above.
4-Periodontal involved root surface must be root
planned to:
1. Remove the attached plaque and calculus.
2. Remove necrotic cementum.
3. Change the root surface so it becomes
biocompatible.
4. All of the above.
5. A and B are correct.
Q) Main aim of root planing is to remove:
A. Plaque
B. Calculus
C. Necrotic cementum
D. All of the above
5-An 18 years old patient presents complaining
of pain, bad breath and bleeding gingival. This
began over the weekend while studying for final
examination the patient may have which of the
following conditions:
1. Acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis.
2. Rapidly progressive Periodontitis.
3. Desquamative gingivitis.
4. Acute periodontal cyst.
6-Which of the following statements is true
regarding dental calculus?
1. It is composed entirely of inorganic
material.
2. It is dense in nature and has a rough
surface.
3. It is mineralized dental plaque.
4. All the above.
5. 2 and 3 only.
6. None of the above.
{Entirely:completely}
7-Overhanging restoration margin should be
removed because:
1. It provides ideal location for plaque
accumulation.
2. It tears the gingival fibers leading to
attachment level.
3. It stimulates inflammatory reaction directly.
4. Its removal permits more effective plaque
control.
5. 1 and 4.
8-Treatment of traumatic gingivitis caused by
faulty oral hygiene is mainly:
1. To achieve the patients to change their
faulty habits immediately.
118
2. Reassure the patients that it will disappear
by it self.
3. To buy a new toothbrush.
= traumatic gingivitis caused by faulty hygienic
habits
9-The following chemically bond to the tooth:
1. Composite resin.
2. Dental sealants.
3. GIC.
4. All the above.
10-Compomer restorative materials are:
1. Glass ionomer with polymer components.
2. Resin-based systems with fluoride containing
glasses.
3. Composite resin for cervical restorations
only.
11-Clinical failure of the amalgam restoration
usually occurs from:
1. Improper cavity preparation.
2. Faulty manipulation.
3. Both of the above.
4. None of the above.
12-A glossy finish is best retained on a:
1. Microfilled composite resin restoration.
2. Macro filled resin restoration.
3. Hybrid composite resin restoration.
4.Fiber reinforced composite resin restoration
13-A class IV composite resin restoration should
be finished with a:
1. Number 330 tungsten carbide bur.
2. Mounted stone.
3. 12 fluted carbide bur.
4. Coarse diamond point (stone).
14-The functions of cement bases are:
1. To act alike a barrier against acids or
thermal shocks.
2. The minimal thickness, which is required, is
0.5 mm of base.
1 and 2.
None of the above.
1 only.
2 only.
= Bases are used for prevention of thermal and
chemical irritation and complement mechanical
support during condensation of amalgam and
cementation of indirect restorations = applied
0.5 to
0.7 mm in thickness
119
15-It has been proven that amalgam restoration
has the following characteristics:
1. Micro leakage decrease with aging of the
amalgam restoration.
2. It is the least techniques sensitive of all
current direct restoration.
3. High dimensional changes.
1, 2 and 3.
1 and 3.
1 and 2.
16-When polishing the amalgam restoration:
1. Avoid heat generation by using wet polishing
paste.
2. Wait 24 hours.
1 and 2.
2 only.
 1 only.
= Heat generation will bring mercury to the
surface and weaken the amalgam.
17-Silicate cement:
1. First tooth colored restoration.
2. It can be used as permanent filling.
3. It contains 15% fluoride.
a) 1,2 and 3.
b) 1 and 2.
c) 1 and 3.
d) 1 only.
18- In countries with higher annual population
growth rates, the need for community-based
preventive programs would be greater for:
1. Dental caries.
2. Periodontal disease.
3. Dent facial anomalies.
4. Dental fluorosis.
19-Dental caries is an endemic disease means
that the disease:
1. Occurs clearly in excess of normal
expectancy.
2. is habitually present in human population.
3. Affects a large number of countries
simultaneously.
4. Exhibits a seasonal pattern.
20-Reliability of measurements reflects that
property of the measurements which:
1. Measures what is intended to be measured.
2. Produces repeatedly the same results under a
variety of conditions.
3. Detects reasonably small shifts, I either
direction, in group condition.
4. All the above.
120
21-Recent years, there has been evidence that
the prevalence and intensity of the caries
attack
has been diminishing in the more economically
developed countries, mainly because of the wide
spread use of:
1. Artificial water fluoridation.
2. Fluoride toothbrush.
3. Dental health education programs.
4. A and C.
22-In terms of caries prevention, the most
effective method and the most cost effective
method:
1. Community based programs.
2. Privately based programs.
3. Individually based programs.
23- Epidemiology can be defined as:
1. A study of superficial areas of the skin.
2. The study of the distribution and
determinants of diseases frequency in man
3. Study of biological animals.
4. Study of diseases in research laboratory.
24-The effects of natural fluoride versus added
fluoride in reducing dental caries as it relates
to the concentration are:
1. Greater.
2. Less.
3. The same.
25-Dental caries:
1. Is a transmissible disease.
2. Is world wide in distribution but uneven in
intensity.
3. Can be prevented.
4. All the above.
5. None of the above.
26-The following medical conditions may
precipitate syncope:
1. Hypoglycemia.
2. Mild hyperglycemia.
3. Anti hypertensive drugs with gang ionic
blocking agent.
4. Antidepressant therapy.
a) 1 only is correct.
b) 1 and 2 are correct.
c) 2, 3 and 4 are correct.
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct.
27-One of the main features of (AHGS) acute
herpetic gingivostomatitis is that the ulcers
are
Confined to the attached gingiva and hard
palate:
121
1. True.
2. False.
*Acute herpetic gingivostomatitis (AHGS):
Diffuse erythematous, shiny involvement of the
gingiva and adjacent oral mucosa
28-Radiographic diagnosis of the bilateral
expansile radiopaque areas in the canines-
premolars
region of the mandible is:
1. Hematoma.
2. Remaining roots.
3. Torus mandibularis.
4. Internal oblique ridge.
5. Genial tubercle.
29-Which of the following lesions has more
tendencies to show well-defined multilocular
radiolucency?
1. Lateral periodontal cyst.
2. Squamous cell carcinoma of the jawbones.
3. Primordial cyst.
4. Ameloblastoma.
5. Osteomilitis of the mandible.
30-Early squamous cell carcinoma of the oral
cavity usually presents as:
1. Vesicle.
2. Sessile mass.
3. Red plaque.
4. An ulcer.
5. A white cauliflower-like growth.
= The lesion may first appear as a thickened,
white plaque that develops into an ulcer.
31-Firm-fixed neck nodes are most apt to be
detected in association with:
1. An ameloblastoma.
2. A basal cell carcinoma.
3. An odontogeneic fibroma.
4. A squamous cell carcinoma.
32-Orthogenetic ridge relationship (class 2)
present several problems, which should be taken
into
consideration when a complete denture
prosthesis. These include all except:
1. Require minimum interocclusal distance.
2. Have great range of jaw movement in function.
3. Require careful occlusion, usually cuspless
teeth are included.
33-Nausea is a complaint that a new denture
wearer might encounter. It may result from:
1. Thick posterior border.
122
2. Denture under extended.
3. Denture slightly over extended.
4. 1 and 2 are correct.
*Nausea
Dentures that cause nausea usually have design
faults so they must be identified and corrected.
(1)A poorly retained upper denture or an
imbalanced occlusion means that there is
constant movement of the denture. This can bring
on the feeling of nausea in some patients. (2)An
under-extended upper denture means the denture
is not well retained. (3)Inadequate tongue-space
(4)The acrylic denture base too bulky. (5)Post-
dam area of the denture too far posteriorly.
34-Planning centric occlusion for complete
denture, it is advisable to have:
1. 1-2 mm of vertical and horizontal overlap of
upper and lower anterior teeth with
no contact.
2. Definite tooth contact of upper and lower
anterior teeth in order to facilitate.
3. The use of anterior teeth for incision.
35-The distal palatal termination of the
maxillary complete denture base is dictated by
the:
1. Tubersity.
2. Fovea palatine.
3. Maxillary tori.
4. Vibrating line.
5. Posterior palatal seal.
36-To a great extent, the forces occurring
through a removable partial denture can be
widely
distributed and minimized by the following
methods:
1. Proper location of occlusal rests.
2. Selection of lingual bar major connecter.
3. Developing balanced occlusion
4. All the above.
37-An examination of the edentulous mouth of an
aged patient who has worn maxillary complete
Dentures for many years against six mandibular
anterior teeth would probably show:
1. Cystic degeneration of the foramina of the
anterior palatine nerve.
2. Loss of osseous structure in the anterior
maxillary arch.
3. Flabby ridge tissue in the posterior
maxillary arch.
4. Insufficient inter occlusal distance.
123
38- The posterior seal in the upper complete
denture serves the following functions:
1. It reduces patient discomfort when contact
occurs between the dorsum of the tongue and
the posterior end of the denture base.
2. Retention of the maxillary denture.
3. It compensate for dimensional changes which
occur in the acrylic denture base during
processing.
4. 1 and 2 are correct.
39-Dentures: ( pt. with inflamated tissues
wants new denture )
1. ( impression ) Should be started immediately
in order to prevent further deterioration.
2. The occlusion of the existing denture is
adjusted, and the tissue conditioning
material is applied, and periodically replaced
until the tissue are recovered, then
making impression takes place.
3. The patient is cautioned against removing the
denture out at night.
4. 1 and 2 are correct.
5. All of the above are correct.
40-Balance occlusion refers to:
1. The type of occlusion, which allows
simultaneous contact of the teeth in centric
occlusion only.
2. The type of occlusion, which allows
simultaneous contact of the teeth in centric and
eccentric jaw positions.
3. A type of occlusion which is similar to the
occlusion of the natural teeth.
41-Indications for the use of linguoplate
include:
1. For the purpose of retention.
2. When the lingual frenumis high or when there
is shallow lingual sulcus.
3. To prevent the movement of the mandibular
anterior teeth.(it gives support)
4. All the above.
42-In registering the vertical dimension of
occlusion for the edentulous patient, the
physiological
rest dimension:
1. Equals the vertical dimension of occlusion.
2. May be exceeded if the appearance of the
patient is enhanced.
3. Is of little importance as it is subject to
variations.
4. Must always be bigger than vertical dimension
of occlusion.
43-Three weeks after delivery of a unilateral
distance extension mandibular removable partial
124
denture, a patient complaint of a sensitive
abutment tooth, clinical examination reveals
sensitivity
to percussion of the tooth. The most likely
cause is:
1. Defective occlusion.
2. Exposed dentine at the bottom of the occlusal
rest seat.
3. Galvanic action between the frame work and an
amalgam restoration in the tooth.
44-The most frequent cause of failure of a cast
crown restorations is:
1. Failure to extend the crown preparation
adequately into the gingival sulcus.
2. Lack of attention in carving occlusal anatomy
of the tooth.
3. Lack of attention to tooth shape, position
and contacts.
4. Lack of prominent cusps, deep sulci and
marginal ridges.
45-Polyether impression materials:
1. Are less stable dimensionally than
polysulfide rubber.
2. Are less stable stiff than polysulfide
rubber.
3. Can absorb water and swell if stored in
water.
46-An anterior fixed partial denture is
contraindicated when:
1. Abutment teeth are no carious.
2. An abutment tooth is inclined 15 but is
otherwise sound.
3. There is considerable resorption of the
residual ridge.
4. Crowns of the abutment teeth are extremely
long owing to gingival recession.
47-The most accurate impression material for
making the impression of an onlay cavity is:
1. Impression compound.
2. Condensation type silicones.
3. Polyvinyl siloxane.
4. Polysulfides.
48-To enhance strength properties of ceramometal
restoration, it is important to:
1. Avoid sharp or acute angles in the metal
substructure.
2. Build up thick layer of porcelain.
3. Porcelain should be of uniform thickness and
any defect of the preparation should be
compensated by the metal substructure.(
...
(
4. Compensate any defect in the preparation
equally by porcelain and the metal substructure.
a) 1 and 2 are correct.
b) 1 and 3 are correct.
c) 2 and 4 are correct
49-Patients on treatment with steroids are
placed on antibiotics after oral surgical
procedures
because:
125
1. The patient is more susceptible to infection.
2. Antibiotics are synergistic to steroids.
3. Antibiotics inhibit herksheimer reaction.
4. Antibiotics protect the patient fromsteroid
depletion.
50-The postoperative complication after removal
of third molar impaction is:
1. Secondary hemorrhage.
2. Swelling.
3. Pain.
4. Alveolar osteitis.
5. All the above.
51-Radiographic examination in impacted teeth is
useful to demonstrate:
1. Proximity of roots to adjacent anatomical
structures.
2. Shape of roots of impacted tooth.
3. Associated pathology.
4. 2 and 3.
5. All the above.
52-Band and loop space maintainers are most
suitable for the maintenance of space after
premature loss of:
1. A single primary molar.
2. Tow primary molars.
3. A canine and lateral incisor.
4. All the above.
53-Pit and fissure sealant are indicted to
prevent dental caries in pits and fissures:
1. In primary teeth.
2. In permanent teeth.
3. 1 and 2.
54-Teeth that have past pits and fissure sealant
show:
1. The same susceptibility to caries as teeth
that have not been sealed.
2. Higher susceptibility than none-sealed teeth.
3. Lower susceptibility than none-sealed teeth.
4. The same susceptibility.
5. As teeth with fully retained sealant.
55-The first pharyngeal arch will form:
1. Maxilla.
2. Mandible. 1-mandile 2-hyoid
3. Thyroid.
4. Hyoid.
56-The ossification of maxilla in relation the
mandible is:
126
1. Before the mandible.
2. Slightly later than the mandible.
3. At the same time.
4. None of the above.
57-The foramen ovale is a part of:
1. Sphenoid bone. Posterior border of sphenoid
2. Fronted bone.
3. Verombone.
4. None of the above.
SAMPLE 19
1 Diagnosis prior to RCT should always be based
on:
1. A good medical and dental history.
2. Proper clinical examination.
3. Results of pulp vitality tests.
4. A periapical radiographs.
5. All the above.
2 -Bleeding of the socket following tooth
extraction:
1. Is always a capillary bleeding in nature.
2. Takes not less than half day in normal
individual.
3. Is always favorable if it is primary type.
4. Can be due to the presence of a nutrient
vessel.
a) 1 and 2 are correct.
b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
c) 1, 3 and 4 are correct.
d) All are correct.
3 -The patient with a history of sub-acute
bacterial endocarditis is a medical problem in
oral
surgery because of the possibility of:
1. Bacteremia.
2. Septicemia.
3. Hypertension.
4. Mitral stenosis.
5. Auricular fibrillation.
a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
b) 1, 2 and 4 are correct.
c) 1, 4 and 5 are correct.
d) 2, 3 and 5 are correct.
e) 3, 4 and 5 are correct.
4- In persons with normal healthy gingivae, the
proper device for cleaning interproximal
surfaces
is the:
1. Dental floss.
127
2. Interproximal brush.
3. Powered (electric) toothbrush.
4. Hand toothbrush.
5. Water irrigation device.
5 The best method for plaque control is:
1. Through mechanical tooth cleaning.
2. By the use of chemical agents once\day.
3. By the use of effective chemical agents.
6 The rationale for pit-and-fissure sealants in
caries prevention is that they:
1. Increase the tooth resistance to dental
caries.
2. Act as a barrier between the sealed sites and
the oral environment.
3. Have anti-microbial effect on the bacteria.
4. None of the above answers is correct.
7 Abrasion of enamel and root surfaces may
result from the long term use of:
1. A hard toothbrush.
2. Tooth abrasive toothpaste or powder.
3. Vigorous use of the toothbrush.
4. A and B only.
5. A, B and C.
8 What is a Pier abutment?
1. Single tooth utilized to hold one pontic
2. A tooth that support a removal partial
denture.
3. A and B.
4. All the above.
5. None of the above.
= Pier Abutments. Are abutment teeth where an
edentulous space lies on each side.it holds 2
pontics from each side)
9 Which are the ways in which the proximal
contacts can be checked:
1. Use of pencil.
2. Use of shimstock.
3. Use of silicone fit checker.
4. Use of dental floss.
5. Only b and d.
6. Only c and d.
*shim stock. (like articulator paper but
thinner)
10 Oral lesions of lichen planus usually appear
as:
1. White streaks.
2. Red plaques.
128
3. Small, shallow ulcers.
4. Papillary projections.
5. Bullae.
11 The oral lesions of the lichen planus:
1. Are usually painful.
2. Rarely appear before lesion else where on the
body.
3. May be part of a syndrome in which lesions
also appear on the skin, conjunctiva and
genitalia.
4. Often appear in nervous, high-strung
individuals.
5. Heal with scarring.
12 All the following are oral features of
acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)
except:
1. Candidiasis.
2. Erythema multiform.
3. Hairy leukoplakia.
4. Rapidly progressing Periodontitis.
5. Kaposi's sarcoma.
13 Radiograph diagnosis of bone destructive
lesion in the mandible without evidence of bone
formation:
1. Osteomyelitis.
2. Malignancy.
3. Fibro-osseous lesion.
4. Fracture.
5. Osteoradionecrosis.
14 Treatment of internal resorption involves:
1. Complete extirpation of the pulp to arrest
the resorption process.
2. Enlarging the canal apical to the resorbed
area for better access.
3. Utilizing a silver cone and sealer to fill
the irregularities in the resorbed area.
4. Filling the canal and defect with amalgam.
5. Sealing sodium hypochlorite in the canal to
remove inflammatory tissue.
15 - When you do amalgam finishing.....
1. immediately
2. 24 hours later
16 - The roof of mandibular fossa consists of:
1. thin compact bone
2. spongy bone
3. cancellous bone
*{ The mandibular fossa is the depression in the
temporal bone that articulates with condyle. The
mandibular fossa is also referred to as the
glenoid fossa}
129
17 - What is the best instrument used for
removing unsupported enamel at the gingival wall
of
class II:
1. chisel
2. hatchet
3. gingival marginal trimmer
18 Tooth with Ankylosis:
1. no PDL
2. caused by trauma
3. extracted surgically
4. all of the above
19 - Acute periapical abscess associated with
1. swelling
2. widening of PDL
3. pus discharge
20 - How can you prevent dental hyper
sensitivity?
1. restoration by adhesion
2. controlled by alcohol
3. put sedative medication
21 - Which of the following may be used to
disinfect gutta percha points?
1. boiling
2. autoclave
3. chemical solutions
4. dry heat sterilization
22 - The radiographic criteria used for
evaluating the successes of endodontic therapy
1. reduction of the size of the periapical
lesion
2. no response to percussion and palpation test
3. extension of the sealer cement through
lateral canals
4. non of the above
23 - The accesses opening for maxillary premolar
is most frequently
1. oval
2. square
3. triangular
4. non of the above
24 - A U- shaped radiopaque structure in the
upper 1st molar x-ray is
1. the zygomatic process
2. maxillary sinus wall
130
25 - The following are types of hamartoma
except:
1. Cementoblastoma
2. Compound odontoma
3. Complex odontoma
26 - Ranula is associated with which salivary
gland:
1. submandibular gland
2. sublingual gland
27 (Aplastic anemia) is caused by:
1. Tetracycline
2. penicillin
3. Erythromycin
4. Sulfonamide
28 - The movement of water across a selectively
permeable membrane is called:
1. Osmosis
2. Active transport
3. Filtration
4. Diffusion
29 - High rate of fractures at canine area in
the mandible due to:
1. change direction of forces accruing here
2. long canine root
3. border is thin in this area
4. alveolus is thin in this area
30 - What is the amount( of anesthetic agent )
in mg in 1.8 ml of xylocain? 2%
1. 20 mg/ml
2. 1.8 mg/ml
3. 36 mg
*Xylocain is (lidocain) ex.: (carpule of 1.8mg
of 2% sol. of lidocain with 1:100.000
epinephrine) have the following:
The amount of lidocine = 36mg
The amount of epinephrine = 0.018 mg
31 - Which virus is present in the patient's
mouth all his Life?
1. Herpes Simplex hsv present in the body for a
life time and not in the mouth.
2. Herpes zoster
3. varecilla Virus
4. None of the above
33 - Cleft lip is resulted from incomplete union
of:
1. Tow maxillary arches.
131
2. Maxillary arches and nasal arch.
34 - Patient with direct pulp capping and
intermittent, spontaneous pain, the diagnosis
is:
Irreversible pulpitis.
35 - Periapical abscess is:
1. Cavity lined by epithelium.
2. Cavity contains pus cells.
3. Cavity contains blood.
4. Cavity contain serous.
5. None of the above.
36 - Bleaching agent:
Hydrogen peroxide 30%.
37 - Depth of amalgam restoration should be:
1. 1 1.5 mm.
2. 1.5 2 mm.
3. 2 3 mm.
4. 3 5 mm.
38 - The choice of technique during local
anesthesia is influence by:
1. The diameter of the nerve.
2. The structure of the bone.
3. The number of the nerves.
4. The chemical composition of the drug.
SAMPLE 20
1 - Blood supply of the hard palate is from:
1. greater palatine artery
2. lesser palatine artery
3. facial artery
4. long sphenopalatine artery
5. anatomizing braches from all of the above
except c
*Greater palatine artery supply the hard palate
and the palatal gingivae
*Lesser palatine arteries serve the tonsil and
the soft palate
* sphenopalatine artery=nasopalatine a.
2 - Mandibular branch of trigeminal nerve leaves
the skull through:
1. foramen rotundum
2. foramen ovale
3. superior orbital fissure
4. inferior orbital fissure
5. juglar foramen
132
3 - Formocresol when used should be:
1. full Saturated
2. half saturated
3. One-fifth for saturation of pulp tissues
4. non of the above
4 - Loss of sensation in the anterior 2/3 of the
tongue is related to paralysis of
1. lingual nerve
2. hypoglossal nerve
3. chorda tympani nerve
5 - When you give inferior dental block for pedo
pt the angulations for the needle
A. 7 mm below the occlusal plane
B. 5 mm below the occlusal plane
C. at the occlusal plane
6 - Main use of dental floss
1. remove calculus
2. remove over hang
3. remove bacterial plaque
4. remove food debris
7 - Which of the following spaces are
bilaterally involved in Ludwig's angina
1. Submandibular and masticatory spaces
2. SubLinguaL+Lat.Pha.space
3. sublingual, submandibular and submental
spaces
8 - Cell that can give more than one type:
1. Fibroblast
2. Odontoblast
3. Mesenchymal cell
9 - The scientific evidence is dictating that
oral Lichen planus is a "premalignant Lesion"
is:
1. Very strong
2. Non-existent
3. Moderately strong
4. Weak
10 - Infection is more dangerous in children
than adult because
1. marrow spaces are wide
2. Affect growth centre
3. Hypo calcification in enamel
11 - The Common disease affecting the
submandibular salivary gland is:
1. salivary calculi =( Sialolithiasis , stone )
133
2. pleomorphic adenomas
3. Viral sialoadenitis
4. Infected sialoadenitis
*salivary calculi =( sialolithiasis , stone )
12 What is the basis for the current endodontic
therapy of periapical lesion?
1. Due to reach collateral circulation system,
the periapical area usually heals despite the
condition of the root canal.
2. if the pulpal source of periapical irritation
is removed, the potential for complete
periapical healing is present.
3. Strong intracanal medications are recuired to
sterilize the canal and the periapical area to
promote healing.
4. Periapical lesions, especially apical cyst
must be treated by surgical intervention.
13 Reparative dentin:
1. Same like secondary dentin.
2. Happen as site if irritation.
14 The maximum permissible dose of X-ray
exposure for radiologic technician 1. 100 mini
roentgens per week.?????? 2. 10 roentgens per
week. 3. 100 roentgens per week. 4. 300
milliroentgens per week.
*(0.3 rem per week) = 300 millirems (mrem)
15 Acute periapical abscess characterized by:
1. Varying degree of pain.
2. Varying degree of swelling.
3. Some time not shown on the radiograph.
4. All the above.
16 Smear layer composed of:
1. Dentin debris.
2. Inorganic particles.
3. Bacteria.
4. All the above.
17 Microbial virulence produced by root canal
bacteria is collagenase from spirochete: 1.
True. 2. False.
18 The occlusal reduction for all metal veneer
crowns should be: 1. Be as flat as possible to
enable easy fabrication of occlusal anatomy.
134
2. Follow the occlusal morphology with a
clearance ranging from1 to 1.5 mm with the
opposing dentition. 3. Follow the occlusal
morphology with a clearance of no more than 0.5
mm with the opposing dentition. 4. Be the last
step in tooth preparation.
= A gold crown requires approximately 1.5 mm
clearance over the functional cusps and 1.0 mm
over the nonfunctional cusps follows occlusal
morphology
19 Gingival retraction is done:
1. To temporarily expose the finish margin of
the preparation.
2. To accurately record the finish margin and a
portion of uncut tooth surface to the margin
in the final impression.
3. Even in the presence of gingival
inflammation.
4. By various methods but the most common one is
the retraction cord.
a) 1 + 2.
b) 1 +2 +3.
c) 1 +2 +4.
20 Which of the following burs would you prefer
to use for preparation a slot for the retention
of
an extensive amalgam restoration on the
maxillary molar?
1. Number 5 round bur.
2. Number 58 fissure bur.
3. Number 558 fissure bur.
4. Number 35 inverted cone bur.
21 Which of the following material has been
shown to stimulate reparative dentine formation
Most effectively when applied to the pulpal wall
of a very deep cavity:
1. Copalite varnish.
2. Calcium hydroxide.
3. Zinc phosphate cement.
4. Glass inomer cement.
22 The following is a non resorbable suture:
1. Plain catgut.
2. Chromic catgut.
3. Slick.
4. None of the above.
23 Radiographic diagnosis of a well defined
unilocular radiolucent area between vital
mandibular bicuspids more likely to be:
1. Residual cyst.
2. Mental foramen.
3. Radicular cyst.
4. Osteoporosis.
135
5. None of the above.
24 -To provide maximum strength of amalgam
restoration the cavo-surface angles should:
1. Approach 75 with outer surface.
2. Approach 90 with outer surface.
3. Be supported by sound dentine.
4. Be located in area free of occlusal stress.
a) 1+3 and 4.
b) 1+3.
c) 2+3+4.
d) 3+4.
25-It is preferable to be the length of the
handle of the custom tray:
1. 10mm.
2. 20mm.
3. 15mm.
4. 25mm.
SAMPLE 21
1-The protrusive condylar guidance should be set
on the articulator at:
1. 40 degree.
2. 50 degree.
3. 60 degree.
4. 70 degree.
2-The lateral condylar posts should be set on
the articulator to:
1. Zero degree.
2. 20 degree.
3. 40 degree.
4. 15 degree.
3-The incisal guide should be set on the
articulator at:
1. Zero degree.
2. 20 degree.
3. 40 degree.
4. None.
4-The primary goal of anterior tooth selection
is:
1. To provide good functional requirements.
2. To satisfy aesthetic requirements.
3. To let the patient feel comfortable.
4. None.
136
5-The primary goal of posterior tooth selection
is:
1. To provide good functional requirements.
2. To satisfy aesthetic requirements.
3. To satisfy sychological requirements.
4. None.
6-You need.to get the teeth shade:
1. Shade guide.
2. Incisal guide.
3. Acrylic teeth.
4. Porcelain teeth.
7-The ( artificial ) teeth materials are:
1. Acrylic teeth. = Plastic = (acrylic resin).
2. Porcelain teeth.
3. A and B.
4. None.
8-The width of the lower teeth is:
1. 1/2 of the maxillary anterior teeth in normal
jaw relationship.
2. 1/3 of the maxillary anterior teeth in normal
jaw relationship.
3. 3/4 of the maxillary anterior teeth in normal
jaw relationship.
4. None.
= the lower anteriors being approximately ( 4/5
) 80% of the width of the upper teeth
9-Generally artificial posterior teeth are
classified into:
1. Anatomical (cusp) teeth.
2. Non-anatomical (caspless) teeth or flat.
(monoplane teeth)
3. A and B.
4. None.
10-The process of positioning or arranging teeth
on the denture base is termed:
1. Casting.
2. Investing.
3. Setting up.
4. Flasking.
11-Important functions must be considered when
arranging anterior teeth:
1. Aesthetics.
2. Incision.
3. Phonetics.
4. All.
137
12-Which surface of the central incisor that
contacts the median line:
1. Distal.
2. Mesial.
3. Buccal.
4. Lingual.
13-The incisal edge of the maxillary lateral
incisor is..above and parallel to the occlusal
plane: A. 1/2 mm. B. 1 mm. C. 2 mm. D. 3 mm.
In maxillary lateral incisor the incisal edge is
usually 0.5 mm to 1 mm above the occlusal plane
14-The long axis of the maxillary cuspid is
inclined slightly to the:
1. Mesial.
2. Distal.
3. Buccal.
4. Lingual.
15-It is called .. When the occlusal surfaces
of the right and left posterior teeth are on the
same level:
1. Vertical plane.
2. Horizontal plane.
3. Compensating curve.
4. All.
16-The . Of the maxillary first bicuspid is
raised approximately 1/2mmof the occlusal
plane:
1. Buccal cusp.
2. Lingual ( palatal ) cusp.
3. Mesial surface.
4. All.
17-The long axis of the maxillary first molar
is inclined to 1. Buccal. From the net : , the
long axes of the maxillary first molars (ie,
roots) are slightly buccallyinclined
2. Mesial.
3. Distal.
4. Lingual.
18-All maxillary posterior teeth touch the
occlusal plane except:
1. First bicuspid.
2. Second bicuspid.
3. First molar.
138
4. Second molar.
19-The distance between the lingual surfaces of
the maxillary anterior teeth and the labial
surfaces of the mandibular anterior teeth is:
1. Vertical overlap (overbite).
2. Horizontal overlap (overjet).
3. Occlusal plane.
4. All.
20-The distance between the incisal edges of the
maxillary and mandibular anterior teeth is:
1. Horizontal overlap (overjet).
2. Vertical overlap (overbite).
3. Occlusal plane.
4. All. 21-The average distance between the
lingual surface of the maxillary anterior teeth
and the buccal surface of the mandibular
anterior teeth ( overjet ) is: 1. 1/2mm. 2. 1mm.
3. 2mm. 4. 3mm.
{ : 5 5.1 3 - 2 }
22-Which tooth of the mandibular anterior teeth
that touch the lingual surface of the maxillary
anterior teeth in normal centric relation?
1. Central incisor.
2. Lateral incisor.
3. Cuspid.
4. None.
*RULE: with artificial teeth in centric relation
the anterior teeh should not contact.
23-The mesial surface of the mandibular lateral
incisor contacts:
1. The mesial surface of the central incisor.
2. The distal surface of the central incisor.
(near the incisal edge in the incisal third)
3. The mesial surface of the cuspid.
4. The distal surface of the cuspid.
24-The tip of cusp of the mandibular cuspid is
one above the occlusal plane ( 2mm) to establish
contact . Of the maxillary anterior:
1. Horizontal overlap.
2. Occlusal plane.
3. Vertical overlap.
4. All.
25-The relation involves the movement of the
mandibular to the side either right or left in
which
139
the act of mastication is to be accomplished.
Therefore the side to which the mandible moves
is
called:
1. Balancing side.
2. Working side.
3. Compensating side.
4. All.
26-When the mandible moves to the working side,
the opposite side cusp to cusp contacts in order
to balance stresses of mastication. This
relation is called:
1. Working relation.
2. Balancing relation.
3. Occlusal relation.
4. None.
27-In order to distribute the primary forces of
mastication, to fall within the base of the
denture,
the ( posterior) mandibular teeth are set:
1. On the buccal edge of the ridge.
2. On the lingual edge of the ridge.
3. On the crest of the ridge.
4. All.
28-The mandibular posterior tooth that has no
contact with any maxillary teeth during the
balancing occlusion is:
1. First bicuspid.
2. Second bicuspid.
3. First molar.
4. Second molar.
29-The used device in flasking procedure is
called:
1. Articulator.
2. Separating medium.
3. Flask.
4. None.
30-We Vaseline the inner surface of the flasks
all rounds: ( and model plaster surface )
1. To help in the packing procedure.
2. To separate the models (casts) safety.
3. A and B.
4. None.
*The Inner surface of the flask is coated with
Vaseline to facilitate deflasking, while the
base of the cast is painted withseparating
medium To prevent the investment material
(plaster of Paris) from attaching to the cast.
31-The procedure that follows the flasking
procedure is called:
140
1. Polishing.
2. Deflasking.
3. Packing.
4. Curing the acrylic.
33-Teeth selection in setting up teeth gsf is
based on these factors:
1. Shade of the teeth.
2. Size and shape of the teeth.
3. Angle of the teeth.
4. A and B.
5. All the above.
SAMPLE 22
1- is the art and science of functional,
anatomic and cosmetic reconstruction of missing
or defective parts in the maxilla, mandible or
face by the use of non living substances:
1. Complete denture.
2. Maxillofacial prosthetics.
3. Orthodontics.
4. Partial denture.
2-.. Is the one that provides application and
device to restore aesthetic and functional
requirements to patients with maxillofacial
defects:
1. Endodontist.
2. Pedodontist.
3. Maxillofacial prosthodontist.
4. Peridontist
3-The objectives of maxillofacial prosthetics:
1. Aesthetic.
2. Functions.
3. Protect the tissues.
4. All.
Q)The primary objective of maxillofacial
prosthetics is to restore form and function and
preserve
the remaining hard and soft tissues.
4-The type of maxillofacial defects:
1. Congenital defects.
2. Acquired defects.
3. Developmental defects.
4. All.
5-Cleft palate, cleft lip, missing ear,
prognathism are:
1. Acquired defects.
2. Congenital defects.
141
3. Developments defects.
4. None.
6-Accidents, surgery, pathology are:
1. Acquired defects.
2. Developments defects.
3. Congenital defects.
4. None.
8-Extra-oral Prosthetic Restorations are:
(Extraoral prostheses)
1. Radiumshield.
2. Ear plugs for hearing.
3. Replace Missing eye, missing nose or ear.
4. All.
9-Lost part of maxilla or mandible with the
facial structures is classified by:
1. Intra-oral restorations.
2. Extra-oral restorations.
3. Combined intra-oral and extra-oral Prosthetic
Restorations.
4. All.
11-The lack of continuity of the roof of the
mouth through the whole or part of its length in
the
form of fissure extending anteroposteriorly is:
1. Obturator.
2. Splint.
3. Stent.
4. Congenital cleft palate.
12-The factors that influence the induction of
cleft palate:
1. Hereditary.
2. Environmental.
3. A and B.
4. None.
14-A prosthesis used to close a congenital or
acquired opening in the palate is:
1. Stent.
2. Splint.
3. Obturator.
4. None.
16-.. Are appliances used for immobilization
of fragments of broken parts of jaw bones in
their original position until repair takes
place?
1. Splints.
2. Stents.
142
3. Obturators.
4. Speech aids.
19-The prepared surface of an abutment to
receive the rest is called:
1. Minor connecter.
2. Major connecter.
3. Rest seat.
4. None.
20-The part of a removable partial denture that
contacts a tooth it affords primarily vertical
support is called:
1. Minor connecter.
2. Major connecter.
3. Rest.
4. None.
21-The part of a removable partial denture is:
1. Rests.
2. Major connectors.
3. Retainers.
4. All.
22-A rigid part of the partial denture casting
that unites the rests and another part of the
prosthesis
to the opposite side of the arch is called:
1. Minor connecter.
2. Major connector.
3. Retainer.
4. Rest.
24-The part of a removable denture that forms a
structure of metal struts that engages and
unites
the metal casting with the resin forming the
denture base is called:
1. Minor connecter.
2. Major connecter.
3. Denture base connector.
4. Retainer.
26-The rests are classified into:
1. Anterior rests.
2. Posterior rests.
3. A and B.
4. None.
30-The surveyor instrument consists of:
1. Vertical arm.
143
2. Cast platform or table.
3. Small analysis rod.
4. All.
31-The primary guiding surface (Guiding planes)
that determines the path of insertion for the
Partial denture is:
1. The tooth surface opposite to the edentulous
areas.
2. The tooth surface adjacent to the edentulous
areas.
3. None.
Q)Guiding planes are:
A. Located adjacent to the edentulous area
B. Located far anterior to the edentulous area
C Helps in the stability of the denture
D. Provides a different path of insertion and
removal
32-The one who is supposed to give the correct
design of the removable partial denture:
1. Prosthodontist.
2. Technician.
3. Assistant.
4. None.
= The dentist is responsible for the design of
the partial denture framework from the beginning
to
finish
33-To fabricate a removable partial casting
requires (=duplicate a cast) making a second
cast of
high-heat investment material this cast is
called:
1. Study cast.
2. Master cast.
3. Refractory cast.
4. All.
34-Kennedy divided all partial edentulous
arches:
1. Tow main types.
2. Three main types.
3. Four main types.
4. Five main types.
35-According to the Kennedy's classification,
the bilateral edentulous areas located posterior
to
the remaining natural teeth is:
1. Class one.
2. Class tow.
3. Class three.
4. Class four.
144
36-According to the Kennedy's classification,
unilateral edentulous area with natural teeth
remaining both anterior and posterior to it is:
1. Class one.
2. Class tow.
3. Class three.
4. Class four.
SAMPLE 23
1 - Outline of Pericoronitis treatment may
include:
1. Mouth wash and irrigation.
2. Extraction of the opposing tooth.
3. Surgical removal of the causative (involved)
tooth.
4. All the above.
2 - We should select the shade for a composite
resin utilizing a:
1. Bright light.
2. Dry shade guide.
3. Dry tooth isolated by the rubber dam.
4. None of the above are corrects.
3 - (Proximal)Retentive grooves ( in class II
restoration):
1. Always cut in the axiobuccal and axiolingual
line angles.
2. Prevent lateral displacement of restoration.
3. Is axiopulpal and axiogingival.
4 - Best provisional coverage for anterior teeth
is:
1. Tooth colored polycarbonate.
2. Stainless steel crown.
3. Zinc oxide eugenol.
5 - All the following are irrigations except:
1. Sodium hypochlorite.
2. Saline.
3. RC prep.
4. Hydrogen peroxide.
= (RC Prep) an effective lubricating and
cleaning agent for root canals ( chelator )
145
6 - Composite restoration can be done after
completion of bleaching by:
1. One week.
2. Tow weeks.
3. Three weeks.
4. Tow months.
7 - GP contains:
1. Zinc oxide more GP.
2. GP more than zinc oxide.
3. Calcium sulfate.
*ZnO: 66%
8 - Best matrix for mild II:
1. Toflimire matrix
2. Celluloid strip.
3. Cupper bond.
9 - 4th canal in upper first molar is found:
1. Lingual (Palatal) to MBC.
2. Buccal to MBC.
3. Distal to MBC.
10 - To get file size 24, the following length
should be cut from file size 20 :
1. 1mm.
2. 2mm. (each cut 1 mm increases 2 size)
3. 3mm.
4. 4mm.
11 - The narrowest canal found in a three root
maxillary first molar is the:
1. Mesio-buccal canal.
2. Disto-buccal canal.
3. Palatal canal.
4. Disto-palatal canal.
5. Mesio-palatal (misiolingual) canal. (((There
is no disto lingual)))
12 - The following canals may be found in an
upper molar:
1. Mesio-buccal.
2. Disto-buccal.
146
3. Mesio-palatal.
4. Disto-lingual.
5. Palatal.
a) 1+2+4.
b) 1+2+4+5.
c) 2+3+4+5.
d) 1+2+3+5.
13 - Child patient presented with swelling in
the buccal and palatal maxillary anterior area
towdays ago, the pathology of the lesion there
is a giant cell, what is the diagnosis:
1. Giant cell granuloma.
2. Hemaginoma.
14 - The best time to treat the pregnancy is:
1. First month.
2. Second month.
3. Forth to sixth.
4. Seventh month.
15 - Child with anodontia and loss of body hair,
the diagnosis is:
1. Down's syndrome.
2. Ectodermal dysplasia.
3. Fructose ..
4. Diabetic .
16 - surgery for ridges aim to:
1. Vertical dimension.
2. Speech.
3. Modify ridge for stability -
16 - Patient on warfarin treatment and you want
to do surgery, when you can do: 1. When PTT is 1
1.5 INR on the same day. 2. When PTT is 2
2.5 INR on the same day. 3. When PT is 1 1.5
INR on the same day. 4. When PT is 2 2.5 INR
on the same day. ( PT/INR = international
normalized ratio )
17 - You want to make amalgam restoration with
pin; the pin should go in the dentine:
1. 1mm.
2. 2-3 mm.
3. 5mm.
4. Should be in the enamel.
18 - Electro surgery (voltage frequency) range :
1. 1.5 7.5 million cycle per seconds.
147
2. 7.5 10 million cycle per seconds.
3. 10 25 million cycle per seconds.
4. 30 million cycle per seconds
19 - Cavity etching before applying GIC is:
1. Polyacrylic acid 10 seconds.
2. Polyacrylic acid 60 seconds.
3. Phosphoric acid 10 seconds.
4. Phosphoric acid 60 seconds.
20 - We can use to create palatal posterior
seal:
1. Le Cron carver
2. Kingly scalper.
3.
4.
21 - All these are right ways to handle the
instrument except:
1. Modified pen handle.
2. Inverted pen.
3. Pen handle. ((coz there is no finger
support))
4. Palm and thumb.
= There are four grasps used with the ahdn
instruments:1. Modified pen.2. Inverted pen.3.
Palm
and thumb.4. Modified palm and thumb
22 - Teeth with RCT and you want to use post,
which post is the least cause root fracture:
1. Ready made post.
2. Casted post.
3. Fiber post.
4. Prefabricated post.
23 - For root canal treated tooth u choose to
put post & amalgam this depend on:
1. Remaining coronal structure.
2. Root divergence.
3. Presence of wide root.
4. Others.
24 - Labial reduction for porcelain metal
restoration must be:
1. One plane for aesthetic.
2. Tow plane by follow the morphology.
3. 0.8 All.
4. Parallel to axial wall of the teeth.
25 -What is the best restoration to the anterior
teeth with RCT and conservative opening
access?
1. Retained post metal ceramic.
148
2. Retained post Jacket crown.
3. Composite.
26 - Patient with pain on the upper right area,
and the patient cannot tell the tooth causes the
pain, what is the least reliable way to do test
pulp:
1. Cold test.
2. Hot test.
3. Electric test.
4. Stimulation the dentine.
27 - Direct signs for face fractures:
1. Fluid paranasal.
2. Suture.
3.
4. All the above.
( Periorbital ecchymosis and facial edema,
cerebrospinal fluid leakage, dish-shaped face,
steps or diastema in the maxillary teeth and
malocclusion)
Radiographic signs of facial fractures
Direct Signs
o nonanatomic linear lucencies
o cortical defect or diastatic suture
o bone fragments overlapping causing a "double-
density"
o asymmetry of face
Indirect Signs
o soft tissue swelling
o periorbital or intracranial air
o fluid in a paranasal sinus
28 - Patient presented to you with immediate
denture done 5-10 months ago, complaining pain
and over-tissue in the mandibular, what is the
diagnosis:
1. Epulis Fissuratum.
2. Hyper sesitivity
29 -When preparing class II cavity you found
that there is no gingival seat for the
restoration
material, what is your management?
1. Make seat with GIC.
2. Make seat with flowcomposite.
3. Make seat (then restore) with amalgam.
4. Make the axis wall in the root.
30 - Root perforation is treated by: 1. MTA. It
has the ability to encourage hard tissue
deposition similar to Calcium hydroxide effect.
2. Ca (OH) 2.
3. Root canal with GP.
149
31 - The easiest endodontic retreatment in:
1. Over obturation w GP.
2. Under obturation w GP
3. Weeping canals.
4. Obturated w silver cone.
32 - HBV disinfection: ( intermediate
disinfectants ):
1. Iodophores, hypochlorite.
2. 100% ethyl alcohol.
3. Formaldehyde + gas.
4. Dettol
1+2+3.
1+2.
2+3.
2+3+4
*High-Level Disinfectants Hydrogen peroxide
Gluteraldehydes-Ortho-phthalaldehyde (OPA)-
Formaldehyde
*Intermediate-Level Disinfectants :
Hypochlorites - iodine and iodophors
*Low-Level Disinfectants : Phenolic
disinfectants - Quaternary ammonium (QA)
=ammonium
Chloride
34 How can u repair fractured rest (in the
place where it passes over the marginal ridge of
the tooth) in removable partial denture?
1. Spot welding.
2. Electric soldering.
3. Industrial brazing.
= By embedding an 18 gauge wrought wire (PGP)
into the denture base of the RPD.
= Or A new clasp assembly is made and soldered
to the denture framework.
35- Mandibular foramen is located:
a- At the same occlusal line in adult
b- Above occlusal line in children
c- Below occlusal line in old
d- All of the above
= In the child the mandibular foramen is below
the occlusal plane, while in the adult it is
above it.
36- The tissue response to oral hygiene
instruction is detected by
a- Probe pocket depth
b- Less bleeding
37- The right corticosteroid daily dose for
pemphigus vulgaris is:
a- 1-2 g/kg/daily
b- 1-2 mg/kg/daily = prednisone 1 mg/kg daily
c- 10 mg
150
d- 50- 100 mg hydrocortisone
38- Pt has sever pain with throbbing , the tooth
does not respond to heat or cold test or pulp
vitality test, no radiographic alterations but
there is pain during tooth percussion
a- Reversible pulpitis
b- Irreversible pulpitis
c- Acute periodontitis
d- Suppurative periodontal ..
39- Amalgam is used in extensive cavities :
a- When the cusp is supported by dentine and
proper retentive preparation
b- When Cusps lost and thin supported wall
c- When one cusp is lost and need to apply
restoration to replace it
d- I dont remember
40- One of these is less exposed to extensive
dental caries:
a- Obese, malnourished
b- Pt has xerostomia
c- Less plaque score
d- I dont remember
41- the best definition to odontoblast:
a- It s subjacent to predentine, odontoblastic
processdont remeber
b- Odontoblast cell is more in the cellular pulp
than radicular
c- I dont remember
= The odontoblast layer is located immediately
subjacent to the predentin; the odontoblast
processes, however, pass on through the
predentin into the dentin.
= The odontoblast layer is actually composed of
the cell bodies of odontoblasts.
= The odontoblast layer in the coronal pulp
contains more cells per unit area than in the
radicular..
= Whereas the odontoblasts of the mature coronal
pulp are usually columnar, those in the mid
portion of the radicular pulp are more cuboidal
42- to design a lingual bar we should determine:
a- The inferior border of lingual sulcus
b- Superior ==========
151
43- post length increasing will
a) increase retention
b) increase resistant
c) increase strength of restoration
44- Epliptic pt should not take which drug
a) aspirin
b) metronidazole
Drugs used in dentistry that can increase
anticonvulsant activity, leading to overdose
aspirin
and other NSAIDs
Drug problems in epilepsy Drugs that can be
epileptogenic and therefore are contraindicated

alcohol chlorpromazine enflurane

flumazenil fluoxetine ketamine lidocaine
(large
doses) metronidazole
45- 4 year child come to restore his lower,
first molar with destruction in 3to 4 surfaces
,the
best restoration
a)amalgam
b)full porcelain crown
c)full metal crown
d)extraction
46- Pt. presented to u complain of pain and
tensed muscle at TMJ area when he open his mouth
its deviate to the right side but the pt does
not complain of clicking
What is the diagnosis:
1-internal derangement with reduction
2-internal derangement without reduction
=Anterior disc displacement without reduction
3-reumatoid arthritis
47 - pt. presented to u complains of click
during open and close. There is no facial
asymmetry
except when opening what is the diagnosis:
1. Internal derangement with reduction.
2. Internal derangement without reduction.
3. Rheumatoid arthritis.
152
*On opening, a "pop" or "click" can sometimes be
heard and usually felt also, indicating the
condyle is moving back onto the disk, known as
"reducing the joint" (disc displacement with
reduction). Upon closing, the condyle will slide
off the back of the disc, hence another "click"
or "pop" at which point the condyle is posterior
to the disc. Upon clenching, the condyle
compresses the bilaminar area, and the nerves,
arteries and veins against the temporal fossa,
causing pain and inflammation.
* In disc derangment without reduction the disc
stays anterior to the condylar head upon
opening. Mouth opening is limited and there is
no "pop" or "click" sound on opening.
48- during making filing by Ni/Ti it gets
fractured due the property of:
a- Rigidity &
b- Axial fatigue
c- I dont remember
49- Discoloration of the tooth under big amalgam
restoration can be prevented by:
A. Using cavity varnish
B. Using correct alloy: mercury ratio
C. Using zinc phosphate cement base
D. Washing the prepared cavity with ...
B
A
B
C
B
153
C
C
50. Burning mouth syndrome is a chronic disorder
typically characterized by each of the
following EXCEPT:
a. Accompanied by Mucosal lesion.
b. Burning pain in multiple oral sites.
c. Pain similar in intensity to toothache pain.
d. Persistent altered taste perception.
51- Lesion similar to Endo Lesion:
a. Hyperparathyroidism
b. Early stage of periapical cemental dysplasia
c. Ossifying Fibromad. Dentigerous cyst.
e. Ameloblastoma.
f. Lateral periodontal cyst.
g. Myxoma & hemangioma.
52- Benefits of opaque porcelain layer: (0.3 to
0.4 mm)
a. Bonding to the metal structure.
b. Initiating the color.
c. A & b.
*Function of opaque porcelain (VIP):
1. Masking the metal color.
2. Provide uniform layer.
3. Initiate the shade for body porcelain.
4. Establishes the porcelain to metal bond.
5. Seals the surface irregularities.
53- In terms of caries prevention, the most cost
effective method is:
a. Community based programs.
b. Private based programs
c. Individually based programs.
54-Neoplasm that spread by Lymphatic from the
angle of the mouth reach the:
a. Preauricular Lymph nodes.
b. Mental Lymph nodes.
c. Submandibular Lymph nodes.
d. Pterygoid plexus.
154
e. Jugulo-digastric nodes.
55-The choice of local anesthesia depend on: the
type of la
a. Diameter of the nerve
b. Structure of the bone
c. Number of branches
d. Type of L.A agent chemistry.
56- Choice of local anesthesia technique
influenced by:
a) Chemical composition of anesthesia.
B) The location of the nerve.
C) Bone structure.
57- The cell primary site of ATP production is:
a. Mitochondria. b. Lysosomes. c. Nucleus.
d. Nucleolus. e. Vacuoles.
58- The organelle most closely associated with
the manufacture of proteins within the cell:
a. Ribosome. b. Lysosome. c. Nucleolus.
d. Cell wall. e. Cell membrane.
59- The packing and storing of protein is the
function of:
a. Endoplasmic reticulum. b. Golgi apparatus
c. Mitochondria d. Nucleus
60- The process of attraction of neutrophils to
a site of Local tissue injury is called:
a. Phagocytosis.
b. Diapedesis.
c. Chemotaxis.
d. Epistaxis
SAMPLE 24
1- Action of Histamine:
1. Vasodilation
2. Increased vascular permeability
3. Chemokinesis (increased random movement of
cell )
4. Bronchoconstruction
5. All above
B
155
2- The process of cell engulfing particle is
called:
a. Endocytosis.
b. Exocytosis.
c. Phagocytosis.
d. Pinocytosis.
3- Histopathologically, dentigerous cyst Lining
epithelium may be:
a. Cuboidal in type.
b. Stratified squamous in type.
c. Reduced enamel epithelium.
d. All of the above.
4- Thyroglossal duct cysts:
a. Are only found in the posterior tongue.
b. Clinically present in the Lateral neck
tissue.
c. May be found anywhere along the thyroglossal
duct.
d. Are sometimes called Lympho-epithelial cysts
5- Unilateral swelling + slowly progressing
Lesion on the Left side of the mandible. This
could be:
a. Osteoma.
b. Cementoblastoma.
c. Ossifying Fibroma.
d. Osteo-sarcom.
6- Primary malignant melanoma of the oral
mucosa:
a. Always originates within the surface
epithelium.
b. Mostly originates within the surface
epithelium.
c. Always originates from nevus cells in the
connective tissue.
d. Always originates from Langerhans cells
within epithelium.
7- Histopathologically adenoid cystic carcinoma
in characterized by islands of:
a. Basophilic islands of tumor cells that are
intermingled with areas of pseudocartilag
b. Basophilic islands of tumor cells having a
"Swiss cheese" appearance.
c. Basophilic islands of tumor cells having a
"Swiss cheese" appearance and of serous acini.
d. Basophilic islands of tumor cells that
contain mucin and normal acini.
8- The risk of malignant change being present in
epithelium is greatest in:
a. Homogenous Leukoplakia
b. Erythroplakia.
c. Chronic hyperplasic candidiasis
d. Speckled Leukoplakia
156
9-The term acanthosis refers to:
a. A decreased production of keratin
b. An increased production of keratin
c. An increased thickness of the prickle cell
zone (stratum spinosum).
d. None of the above
*wikipedia :canthosis implies increased
thickness of stratum spinosum. It is a disease
of the prickle cell layer of the skin.
10- The most common malignant tumors of the
minor salivary glands are:
a. Adenoid cystic carcinoma and adenocarcinoma
b. Adenoid cystic carcinoma and acinic cell
carcinoma
c. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma and adenoid cystic
carcinoma.
d. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma and polymorphous Low
grade adenocarcinoma
Q) Which most common salivary gland (tumor)
neoplasm:
Pleomorphic adenoma.
11- Radiographic examination in impacted teeth
is useful to demonstrate:
a. Proximity of the roots to the adjacent
anatomical structures.
b. Associated pathology.
c. All of the above.
12- Currently the only effective preventive
measure for periodontal disease (apart from
limited use of antiseptic solutions) is:
a. Regular and rough removal of dental plaque.
b. Salt fluoridation
c. Dental health education.
13- At which location in enamel is the density
of enamel crystals is lowest:
a. Prismless enamel.
b. DEJ.
c. Center of enamel Prisms.
d. Edge of enamel Prisms.
e. Facial enamel.
14- The following structures open into the
middle meatus:
a. Nasolacrimal duct.
b. Posterior ethmoidal sinus.
c. Maxillary sinus.
d. Sphenoid sinus.
e. Anterior ethmoidal sinus.
f. A, b & d.
g. A & b.
h. C & e.
157
i. All of the above
15- Location to give inferior alveolar nerve
block the landmarks are:
1/ pterygomandibular raphe
2/ cronoid notch
3/ all of the above.
16- The optic foramen canal is a part of:
A)Frontal bone
B)Sphenoid bone.
C)Esthmoid bone
17. Optic nerve coming from which bone:
- sphenoid bone
- zygomatic
- palatal
19- the type of cement which give retention to
crown a-zn phosphate b-zn polycarpoxylate c-
resin d-resin modified glass ionomer
20- In the preparation of cavity class II, for
restoration with composite resin all cavosurface
angles should be
a. Well rounded.
b. Right angles.
c. Acute angles.
d. Obtuse angles
23- The most desirable finished surface
composite resin can be provided by: a. White
stones. b. Hand instrument. c. Carbid finishing
burs. d. Diamond finish burs. e. Celluloid
matrix band.
24-In class 5 composite restorations a layer of
bonding agent is applied:
1. Following removal of cement then cured.
2. Following removal of cement and not cured.
3. Cured then remove cement.
25-Indirect composite inlay over come the direct
composite by
1/ sufficient polymerization
158
2/good contact proximally
3/ gingival seal
4/ good retention
a) 1-2-4
b) 1-2-3.
c) 4-3
26- Marginal deterioration of amalgam
restoration should be due to:
a. No enough bulk of dentine.
b. Corrosion.
c. Over carving.
d. Improper manipulation of amalgam.
e. A and b.
f. C and d.
g. All the above. ***
h. B, c and d.
27- Restoration of anterior teeth with RCT,
abraded incisal edge & small M&D caries is by:
a. Ceramometal crown.
b. Composite laminated.
c. Veneer.
d. None of the above.
28-The body secret antibody against antigen
using which cells:
a. T lymphocyte
b. B lymphocyte
29-In diabetic patient, periodontium affected by
which cells:
a. Neutrophil.
b. Macrophages
30- When take an x-ray to pregnant lady, we use
all of this method EXCEPT:
a. Digital x-ray.
b. High sensitive film.
c. Paralleling tech (Long cone) 16 inch.
d. Bisecting algle (short cone) 8 inch.
e. Lead apron with thyroid collar.
: B
31 . Cause of angular cheilitis:
159
a. Loss vertical dimension Pt have complete
denture.
b. Autoimmune factors.
32- Eruption of primary dentition starts from:
1. 6-7 months.
2. 1 year.
3. 9 months.
33- . Pass throw parotid gland:
a. Facial nerve.
b. Facial arteries.
c. External carotid veins.
34-. The cement under MOD amalgam have this
character: = zinc phosphate cement
a. High modulus of elasticity(stiff )
b. Low modulus of elasticity ( stiffness)
35- statements true or false:
a. RCT abutment of FPD has higher risk for
fracture.= True
b. Abutment which has RCT in cantilever FPD have
higher susceptibility to fracture. = True
36- . Both glass ionomer & polycarboxylate
cement contain:
a. Polyacrylic acid.
b. ZOE powder.
37 . Factors delay healing of wound:
a. Infection.
b. Torn wound edges.
c. Strain.
d. All of the above.
38 . Nicotine stomatitis:
a. Palate.hyper??
b. Hyperplasia
c. Prickle cell like shape prominent base
39 . Generalized gray discoloration in a 28
years old patients teeth, with blue sclera and
an
enlarged pulp chambers and short roots, and
multiple fractures in Enamel the diagnosis is :
A) Dentinogenesis Imperfecta.
B) Amelogenesis Imperfecta
40 . What supply the gingival buccal tissue of
premolars, canines and incisors:
a. Long buccal.
b. Inferior alveolar nerve.
160
c. Superior alveolar nerve.
41 . Drainage of tip of the tongue:
a. Submandibular lymph nodesb.
Submental nodes
*The tip of the tongue drains bilaterally into
the submental nodes. Right and left halves of
rest of the anterior 2/3rd of the tongue, drain
unilaterally to submandibular lymph nodes
42. Composite restoration that was matching in
shade, after one (=2) week it became much
light... The reason could be: a. light
started photoinitation. b. Absorption water. c.
Shade selected after tooth isolation by rubber
dam.
43 . Disadvantage of digital x-ray EXCEPT:
a. Large disk space Storage
b. Clarity and resolution.
c. Expensive
44 . Properties of ideal endo obturation
material are all EXCEPT:
a. Biocompatible.
b. Radiolucent.
45 . Most difficult of extract:
a. Mand. 3rd molar with mesioangular fused roots
b. Mand 3rd molar with distoangular angulation
with divergent curve roots
46 . Very important part in endo treatment:
a. Complete debridement of the canal
47 . Contraindication to extraction:
a. Cardiac pt.
b. Previous recent radiotherapy.
48 . Base of the flap should be wide for:
a. Healing
b. Better blood supply to the wound.
49. Supra calculus all true EXCEPT:
a. Hard and rough
b. Easy to detect
c. Has component of saliva
50 . Thickness of luting cement:
161
a. 100 micrometer
b. 40micro meter = (25 microns )
c. 1mm
51 . Zinc phosphate cement:
a. Mechanical attachment
b. Chemical
52 . Traditional Glass ionomer:
a. Mechanical bonding.
b. Acid-base reaction
c. -Mechanical chemical bonding.
53 . Pontic design of an FPD:
a. Same size buccolingually of the missing tooth
b. Smaller than missing buccolingually.
c. Wider buccolingually
d. None of the above
*Ante suggested that the buccolingual width of
the occlusal surface of a pontic of a bridge
should not exceed 90 percent of the bucco
lingual width of the tooth which is being
replaced. No evidence has been presented to
substantiate this empirical statement. Many
terms were used to justify the narrowing of the
pontic, such as decreasing leverage, torque,
stress, force and thrust on the abutment teeth.
54 . Maryland bridge:
a. Use with young patient .
b. To replace single missing tooth.
55. False negative response of an electric pulp
test given:
a. After trauma
b. Periodontal disease
c. In teenager.
56 . Young with open apex examination (vitality)
test:
a. Reliable.
b. Non reliable.
c. None of the above.
* Electrical pulp testing is often unreliable in
young teeth with open apexes
57 . Primary teeth had trauma, tooth change in
color become white yellowish ,what should you
tell the parents: a. Pulp is dead b.
Inflammation of pulp. c. Calcification of pulp
d. B& c.
162
58. Principle of elevator use of all the
following EXCEPT
1) wheel and axle
2) widening the socket wall
3) wedging
4)lever
59- When do we do incision and drainage?
A. Indurated diffuse swelling.
b. Sinus tract
c. Chronic apical periodontitis
= With a localized, fluctuant, soft-tissue
swelling indicating a submucosal abscess, an
incision
and drainage procedure should be attempted
60- Pregnant lady needs oral surgery:
a. Needs prophylactic antibiotic.
B. Needs under GA
c. Needs steroid cover
d. None of the above.
SAMPLE 25
1 . When do we give antibiotic:
a. Widespread, rapid infection
b. Compromised host defence
c. .
D. A&b
2. Odontogenic tumors:
a. Arise from dental tissue
b. Can turn malignant but rarely
c. Have specific radiographic features
3. Radiographic evaluation in extraction
A. Relationship of associated vital structures.
B. Root configuration and surrounding bone
condition.
C. Access to the tooth, crown condition and
tooth mobility.
D. All of the above
e. A & B
4 . Tooth requires RCT with bone resorption.
Terminate RCT at:
a. Radiographic apex
b. 0.5-1 mm short of radiographic apex.
c. 0.5-1 mm beyond radiographic apex
*In normal periapical area it is 0.5 1 mm with
bone resrption the posibility to root resorption
incresed so 1.5 mm from the apical foramen
163
5. In Incipient caries
a. Surface zone is relatively unaffected.
b. The surface zone is the largest portion with
the highest pore volume
c. Tooth preparation and composite is the best
treatment.
D. Pulpal reaction is not possible.
E. Caries progress in enamel faster than dentin.
6 . Cementum is formed from
a. Cementoblasts
b. Fibroblasts
c. Cementicles
7 . Teeth have convexity in buccal and lingual
surfaces :
a. Upper premolars.
8 . The depth of cavity prep for composite in
posterior:
a. Limited to enamel
b. 0.5 mm in dentin
c. Depends on caries extension
d. Depends on tooth discoloration
e. 0.2 mm in dentin
9 . Fluoride reduces caries activity by:
a. Reduces bacterial adhesion and carbohydrate
storage (antimicrobial activity).
b. Enhances the precipitation of insoluble
fluoroapitite into the tooth structure.
c. Fluoride enhances remineralization of the
noncavitated carious lesions.
d. All of the above.
E. B & C.
10 . Factors that make impaction surgery more
difficult:
A. Mesioangular position, large follicle, wide
periodontal ligament and fused conical roots.
B. Mesioangular position, large follicle, wide
periodontal ligament and curved roots.
C. Distoangular position, large follicle, wide
periodontal ligament and fused conical rooths
d. Distoangular position, thin follicle, narrow
periodontal ligament and divergent curved
roots.
E. Soft tissue impaction, separated from second
molar and inferior alveolar nerve.
11 . Which Scalpel blade below is universally
used for oral surgical procedures?
A. Number 2 blade.
C. Number 10 blade.
D. Number 12 blade.
E. Number 15 blade.
12 . Moon face appearance is not present in:
164
a. Le fort I.
B. Le fort II.
C. Le fort III
d. Zygomatic complex.
13 . The radiograph shows condylar head
orientation and facial symmetry
a. Submentovertex
b. Reverse town
c. Orthopantomography (OPG)
d. Transorbital.
*{(OPG = panoramic view) used in TMJ dysfuctions
and ankylosis.}
*This projection shows the condylar heads &
Necks The original Townes view is an AP
projection, however, all skull views used in
dentistry are taken conventionally in the PA
direction, the
Reverse Towns (a PA projection) is used in :
High fracture of the condylar neck
Intracapsular fracture of the TMJ
Investigation of the quality of the articular
surfaces of the condylar head in TMD
Condylar hypoplasia or hyperplasia
14 . The imaging showing disk position and
morphology and TMJ bone:
a. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
b. CT
c. ARTHROGRAPHY
d. Plain radiograph
e. Plain tomography
15 -what kinds of radiographs which we do not
use for TMJ movements?
A- transcranial
b- computerized tomography (CT scan),
c-conventional tomography
165
d-arthrography
16 . To check a perforation in the disk of the
TMJ we need:
A) cranial imagery
B) arthrography.
C) traditional tomography
D) computerized tomography.
17 . Zinc phosphate cement and Polycarboxylate
cement both have a. Zinc oxide particles. b.
Silica quartz particles c. Polyarcyilic acid d.
Phosphoric acid
*Composition Polycarboxylate cement powder is
similar to zinc phosphate with zinc oxide as the
main component
18. Epithelial cells???????
a. Rest of malassez decrease with age.
b. Rest of malassez increase with age
c. Hertwig sheath entirely disappear after
dentinogenesis
d. Epithelial remnants could proliferate to
periapical granuloma
19. Enamel
a. Repair by ameloblasts
b. Permeability reduce with age
c. Permeability increase with age
d. Permeable to certain ions
*permeability decreased and hardeness increased
with age
20.GIC compared to composite:
a. Increase linear coefficient of Thermal
Expansion
B. More wear resistant
c. Less soluble
d. Stiff
e. less Polymerization shrinkage
*GICs exhibit significantly less polymerization
shrinkage than do composites
21.Pt with severe pain in lower left mandibular
molar, examination positive pulp test ,
percussion test, no radiographic abnormality, Rt
side have recent FPD upper:
a. Chronic apical periodontits
b. Actue apical periodontitis
c. Apical abcess
d. None of the above.
166
22. 6 years old child lost his upper right 1st
molar, management:
o. Lingual bar.
p. Crown and loop.
q. Band and loop.
23. Band and loop space maintainers is most
suitable for the maintenance of space after
premature loss of:
a. A single primary molar
b. Two primary molars
c. A canine and a lateral incisor
d. All of the above
24 . Pedo ( 6 YO or mor ) , lost 75 , space
maintainer :
a. Band and loop
b. Nance appliance
c. Crown and loop
25 -5 years old patient lost his primary first
maxillary molar the best retainer is:
1. Band and loop.
2. Crown and loop.
3. Lingual arch.
4. Nance appliance.
26 -(6 years) child with bilateral loss of
(Lower) deciduous molars &the anterior teeth not
erupted yet ,the space maintainer for choice
is:???????????????????/ a-lingual arch B-
bilateral band and loop c-bilateral band and
loop with distal shoe d-removable partial
denture
27 . Lower anterior teeth labial mucosa supplied
by:
a. Mental nerve.
b. Inferior dental nerve.
C. Buccal nerve.
28 . Upper teeth palatal mucosa supplied by:
a. Nasopalatine nerve
b. Anterior palatine nerve.
c. Both a&b.
d. Post superior alveolar nerve.
Anterior part of the palate: naso palatine.
Posterior pasrt of the palate (anterior or
greater palatine.)
Tonsil+uvula+soft palate:middle+lesser palatine
167
29. (Lingual Nerve) of mandible branch of
trigeminal is:
a. Sensory
b. Motor
c. Psychomotor
d. Sensory and motor
*only lingual nerve is sensory
30. Dentine permeability a. Coronal less than
root dentine. b. Permeability increase toward
DEJ. C. Permeability increase toward bcj.
*permeability of the root is 10 to 20 times less
than coronal dentin *axial D. is more Permeable
than occlusal D. * young D. more permable than
Old D. *D.tubules No. near the pulp is more than
the near DEJ *D. near pulp more permable than D.
near DEJ *decrease Remaining D. thickness(RDT)
increase D. permeability *sear layer decrease D.
permeability *acid etching increase D.
permeability
31 . Which material has best biocompatibility
Intraorally:
a. Cobalt chromium
b. Titanium
c. Nickle chromium
d. Gold .... Palladium
32 . Indirect retainers mostly needed:
a. Class VI
b. Class I
c. Class III
d. Class III with modification
33 . Porcelain teeth in complete denture
opposing natural teeth are not preferred due to:
a. Increase occlosal load on natural teeth
b. Wear of natural teeth
c. Clicking during mastication
34 . Which of following restoration more likely
to cause wear to opposing:
a. Composite
b. Gold
c. Porcelain
d. Amalgam
35 . In restoring lost tooth, which is least
important:
a. Esthetic
168
b. Pt demand
c. Function
d. Arch integrity and occlusal stability
36 . Enamel tufts are
a. Extensions of odontoblasts in the DEJ =
Enamel spindle
b. Enamel rods change their direction. = hunter-
schreger
C. Enamel rods get crowded
37 . One of the main cause of malocclusion:
a. Premature loss of primary teeth
38 . Stage (IB STAGE ONE B ) disease of squamous
cell carcinoma:
A-T1 NO MO
b-T3 NO MO
c- T2 NO MO.
d-T4 NO MO
39 . The majority of intraoral squamous cell
carcinomas are histologically:
a. Poorly differentiated.
b. Well moderately differentiated.
c. Spindle cell in type.
d. Carcinoma in situation.
40 . File #40 means:
a. 0.40 is the diameter at d1
b. 0.40 is from d1 to d16
41 . The difference between cellulitis and
abscess:
a. Cellulitis acute stage with diffuse swelling
no pus
b. ..
42 .60 YEARS old patient need to make complete
denture with thick labial frenum with wide
base. The operation
1. vestibuloplasty.
2. z-plasty.
3. subperiostum incision.
4. deepmucoperiosteum incision.
43 Mixture in walking non vital bleaching
A-H2O2 with phosph...........
B-superexol with sod parporate
c-superexol with ca hydroxide
d- hydrogen peroxide with Sodium perborate.
169
*walking bleach technique. This technique calls
for a thick paste of hydrogen peroxide, sodium
perborate, or a combination of the two to be
placed in the coronal portion of the non- vital
tooth.
44 Local contraindication of extraction
c-pt recent recive radiotheraby
d-tooth in the malignant tumar
e-both c and d
45 - salivary acquired pellicle
a- Proteinaceous structures layer protect tooth.
B -aid in remineralization
* Proteinaceous structure that covers within 2
hours of tooth cleaning to protect enamel from
erosion.
46 -The impression used for preliminary
impressions or study casts is:
1. Agar agar.
2. Silicon.
3. Alginate.
4. None.
47 - cracked enamel best Diagnosis by
Dye (fiber-optic light first choice)
= The use of a fiber-optic light to
transilluminate a fracture line and staining the
fracture with a
dye, such as methylene blue, are valuable aids
48-Which one of the following was the most
frequently reason for replacement of a molar
restoration with larger restoration:
a. New caries.
b. Recurrent caries.
c. Faulty restoration.
d. All of the above.
49- after u did RCT to your pt he came back to
the clinic after few days with sever pain on
biting,
you did x-ray and it revealed that the RCT
filling is very good, but u saw radiopaque, thin
(film
like) spot on the lateral border of the root
what is the most probable diagnosis?
A- Accessory canal
b) vertical root canal fracture.
50- Method of Detection of Cracked teeth :
A) Horizontal percussion
B) Vertical percussion
C) Electric pulp test
D) Transillumination / visible light test..
170
51- Patient suffering from a cracked enamel, his
chief complaint is pain on :
A) Hot stimuli
B) Cold stimuli
C) A & B. ***
D) Electric test.
52- patient came complaining of severe pain on
biting, related to a certain tooth. Upon
examination no pulpal or periodontal findings,
and pulpal vitality is positive, your Diagnosis
:
1) cracked tooth syndrome
53- Secondary dentine occur due to
a- occlusal trauma
b- recurrent caries
c- attrition dentine
d- all of the above
54- How much subgingivally do you go with the
band in class II restorations:
A) 0.5 1 mm.
B) 1 2 mm
C) 2 3 mm
55- A female patient came to your clinic with
dry lips and mouth and bilateral sub mandibular
Edema and ocular dryness. Diagnosis is:
a)Polymorphecadenoma
b) sialadenitis
56-The most frequent cause of porosity in a
porcelain restoration is
a- moisture of contamination
b- excessive firing temperature
c- excessive condensation of the porcelain
d - inadequate condensation of porcelain
*MAY the question include ( EXCEPT)
57- A patient that had a class II amalgam
restoration, next day he returns complaining of
discomfort at the site of the restoration,
radiographically an Overhanging amalgam is
present. This is due to:
a) lack of matrix usage.
B) no burnishing for amalgam
58- Dentist provided bleaching which also known
as (home bleaching) contain:
a- 35-50% hydrogen peroxide
b- 5-22% carbamide peroxide ***
= Home bleaching = nightguard vital bleaching
59 - all these are contraindicated to RCT
EXCEPT:
171
a- Non restorable tooth
b- Vertical root fracture
c- Tooth with insufficient tooth support
d- Pt who has diabetes or hypertension
60- Child 3 years old came to clinic after
falling on his chin, you found that the primary
incisor
entered the follicle for the permanent incisor
what you will do
A) Surgical removal of the follicle
B) Leave it
C) Surgicall removal of the primary incisor.
SAMPLE 25
1 .instrument which we use to make groove in the
wax is
Wax Carver
2 . Child with late primary dentition has
calculus and gingival recession related to upper
molar
what is the diagnosis:
1. Periodontitis.
2. Local aggressive Periodontitis.
3. Viral infection.
3- A completely edentulous patient, the dentist
delivers a denture in the 1st day normally, 2nd
day the patient returns unable to wear the
denture again, the cause is:
a) Lack of Skill of the patient
b) Lack of Frenum areas of the Complete denture.
4- A removable partial denture patient, Class II
Kennedy classification. The last tooth on the
left
side is the 2nd premolar which has a distal
caries. Whats the type of the clasp you will
use for this premolar:
a) gingivally approaching clasp.
b) ring clasp
5 -One of these has no effect on the Life span
of handpiece:
a-Low Air in the compressor.
b-Trauma to the head of the hand piece
c-Pressure during operating
6 -Advantage of Wrought Wire in RPD over Cast
Wire: (cast clasp ) = esthetic ?
a-Less irritation to the abutment.
7 Why we use acrylic more than complete metal
palate in complete denture:
Cant do relining for the metal.
172
8- Relining of denture:
- remove all or part of fitting surface of the
denture and add acrylic
- add acrylic to the base of the denture to
increase vertical dimension.
9- Rebasing of Complete Denture mean:
a-Addition or change in the fitting surface
b-Increasing the vertical dimension
c-Change all the fitting surface.
= A reline involves the addition of a material
to the fitting surface of a denture base. A
rebase
involves the removal and replacement of
virtually all the denture base, namely the
fitting and
polished surface of the
10 -When Do class I preparation of posterior
tooth for Composite Restoration:
a-remove caries only.
b-extend 2mm in dentin
11 -Color Stability is better in:
a-Porcelain.
b-Composite
c-GIC
12 -when all the teeth are missing EXCEPT the 2
canines , according to kennedy classification :
a- Class I modification 1.
13- Pontics are classified according to their
surface toward the ridge of the missing tooth ,
then true or false.
*pontics may be classified in two different
groups: mucosal and non-mucosal contact, based
on the shape of the gingival surface and its
relationship with the underlying tissue.
14-Patient un-cooperation can result in fault of
operation, Technical faults ONLY are related to
patient factor:
A -TRUE.
B -FALSE.
15- Bone graft material from site to another
site in the same person
a-allograft
b-autograft
c-alloplast
d-xenograft
16- Ester type of local anesthesia secreted by
a-liver only
b-kidney
c-lung
173
= liver and plasma
17- where does the breakdown of Lidocaine (amino
amide type)occurs :
A) kidneys
B) Liver.
*Amide liver *Ester Plasma + liver
18- Patency filling
a-push the file apically to remove any block at
the apex ***
b-rotate the file circumferentially at the walls
to remove any block of lateral canals.
c-rotary files circumferentially at the walls to
remove any block of lateral canals.
d-file with bleaching agent.
= The aim of patency filing is to prevent
leaving infected material in the apical 0.5
1.0/mm
beyond the working length.
19- Best stress transfer under amalgam
restoration:
a-with thin base layer.
b-with thick base layer.
c-if put on sound dentin.
20- Child has bruxism to be treated with
a) sedative
b) cusp capping
c) vinyl plastic bite guard.
21- After u did upper& lower complete denture 4
old pt. He came back 2 the clinic next day
complaining of un comfort with the denture After
u re check ,no pain, good occlusion, good
pronunciations , but u notice beginning of
inflammation in the gum and outer margins of the
lips , u will think this is due to:
1- xerostomia.
2-vit-B deficiency
22- Amalgam restoration and there is also gold
restoration in the mouth what should dentist do?
A. Change rest. B. Put separating medium. C.
Wait. D. put varnish.
)(



23- An 8 years old child, suffered a trauma at
the TMJ region as enfant. Complaining now from
limitation in movement of the mandible.
Diagnosis is:
a) Sub luxation
174
b) Ankylosis.
24- Pt has bad oral hygine and missing the right
and left lateral insicor what ttt
1-implant
2-rpd
3-conventional fpd
4-Marylad bridge.
25-We redo high copper amalgam restoration when
we have:
-amalgam with proximal marginal defect
26-For cavity class II amalgam restoration in a
second maxillary premolar, the best matrix to be
Used:
A) Tofflemire matrix.
27-Over extended GP should remove
using:???????????????????/ - ultrasonic
vibrating. - dissolving agent. - rotary or round
bur - surgery
28-The most technique use with children:
- TSD tell show do
- hand over mouth
-punishment
29 . Mandibular 1st permanent molar look in
morphology as:
- primary 1st mand molar.
- primary 2nd mand molar.
- primary 1st max molar.
- primary 2nd max molar.
30 . Sterilization mean killing:
- Bacteria and virus
-Bacteria, virus, fungus and protozoa.
- Bacteria and fungus
31-best core material receiving a crown on
molar:
a)amalgam.
b)reinforced glass ionomer
d)composite
32- In prevention of dental caries, the
promotion of a healthy diet
is:???????????????????? 1- low effective measure
175
2- moderately effective measure 3- high
effective measure 4- mandatory measure
33- The aim of treatment maintenance is:
A) Prevent secondary infection..
B) Check tissue response.
34- Hypercementosis and ankylosis is seen in
a: paget disease
b: monocytic fibrous dysplasia
c: hyperparathirodism
35- Irrigation solution for RCT ,when there is
infection and draining from the canal is
a) Sodium hypochlorite
b) Iodine potassium
c) sodium hypochlorite and iodine potassium.
36- White lesion bilaterally on cheek,& other
member in the family has it
-leukoplakia
-white sponge nevus.
37- Pt construct for him a complete denture
after few days he came to u complaining from
pain &
white spots on the residual ridge do relief in
that area & give him ointment & after few days
he
came again complaining the same but in another
area the main cause is :
a. Uneven pressure on the crest of alveolar
ridge. ***
b. Increase vertical dimension
38-Child with previous history of minor trauma
with excessive bleeding we do test the result is
prolong PT & slightly increase clotting time
&. Test is +ve. the diagnosis
is:?????????????????
a.hemophelia B.
b.thrombocytopenia.
c.vit.K deficiency.
39-Head and neck nevi with multi lesion is:
1/Eagle syndrome.
2/ (Albright syndrome)
40- After u inject L.A for 2nd max molar pt
become colorless with external sweeling its due
to :
1/facial artrey
2/ plexus vein.
3/ Posterior alv. Nerve
176
41- Glenoid fossa is found in:
1/orbital cavity
2/nasal cavity
3/middle cranial fossa
4/temporal bone.
42-endocrine and exocrine gland is :
A) pancreas.
B) pituitary gland
43- during post removal the first thing to do
is:
A) remove the G.P
B) remove all the old restoration & undermined
enamel & caries.
C) insertion of post immediately
44- Female patient came to your clinic with
continous severe pain related to 1st maxillary
molar. After examination dentist diagnose the
tooth is carious and has irreversible pulpitis.
He decides to do RCT. After enough time for
anaesthisation, the patient wont allow the
dentist to touch the tooth due to severe pain.
Dentist should: A) give another appointment to
the patient with description of antibiotics.. B)
Extraction. C)Intra-pulpal
anaesthia.????????????????????????????
45- 32 years old patient came to your dental
office, suffering from a bad odour and taste
from
His mouth. By examination patient has an
anterior mandibular 3 unit bridge that bubbles
upon
Applying water spray and slight pressure. Cause:
A) broken abutment.
B) Food impaction underneath the pontic.
C) separation between the abutment and the
retainer.. *** dissolving of cement
46- the movement of polymorphic cells in the
gaps of intracellular to the blood capillary
Outside it called:
A)porosity
B)slinking
C) diapedesis.
47- Child with cleft palate and cleft lip with
anodontia due to
a- Von Willebrand syndrome
b- Treacher Collins syndrome
c- Paget disease
48- Diabetic patient came to clinic with pain &
swelling & enlarged mandible, on radiograph it
Showed mouth eaten appearance, your diagnosis
is:
a) acute osteomyelitis.
177
b) focal sclerosing osteomyelitis.
c) diffuse sclerosing.
49- Patient suffering from pain in the area of
the mandibular molars with paresthesia in the
lower
Lip. By clinical and radiographic examination
your diagnosis:
A) Acute osteomyelitis.
50 - Child patient presented with swelling in
the buccal and palatal maxillary anterior area
tow
days ago, the pathology of the lesion there is a
giant cell, what is the diagnosis:
1. Giant granuloma.= Central giant cell
granuloma (CGCG)
2. Hemangioma.
51- Periodontal pocket differ most significantly
from gingival pocket with respect to:
e. Depth.
f. Tendency to bleed on gentle probing.
g. The location of the bone of the pocket.
h. All of the above.
52 ) what is the most factor encouraging dental
caries :
A) Xerostomia.
B) Hypocalcification.
C) Smoking.
53- Incipient caries in the old patients is
MOSTLY due to:
a)smoking
b)saliva
d)Xerostomia.
54- the best definition to odontoblast:
a- It s subjacent to predentine, odontoblastic
process
55-Last sensation disappear after LA ?
A-pain
b-deep pressure.
c-temperature
56- The following factors affect the health
1- heriditary
2- environement
3- social and economic factors
4- family welfare
A) 1+2
B) 1+2+4
C) 1+2+3
178
D) all of the above.
57- Pt come with siuns u make gp tracing & take
radiograph the gp appear in lateral surface of
the
root
periodontal abscess
periodontitis
lateral acessory canal.
58- Post graduated student use mta the prognosis
depend on prevent
immediate suture
disturbance during closure of wound.
using a flab
59-contra indication of implant EXCEPT
1_many dental caries.
2_malignancy
3_radiation therapy
60 - dental implant are successfully with min
failure: ?????????????????????? a-premaxilla
area in the upper arch b-posterior area of the
maxillary arch c-mandible between the mental
foramen d-buccal shelf of the mandible.
SAMPLE 26
1- Whats the best implant type allowing
Osseointegration:
A) Root-form Endosseous implant..
2 - which of the following materials is NOT a
hemostatic agent :
A) Oxidized cellulose
B) Gelvon
C) Zinc Oxide.
3 -Labial reduction for porcelain metal
restoration must be:
1. 1 plane for aesthetic.
2. 2 plane by follow the monophology.
4- Neonate 2 years old, has a lesion on the
ventrum of the tongue...With the eruption of the
1st
tooth:
A)Riga-Fede disease. *** <sublingual traumatic
ulceration>
5-The posterior seal in the upper complete
denture serves the following functions: a. It
reduces Pt discomfort when contact occurs
between the dorsum of the tongue and the
posterior end of the denture base.
179
b. Retention of the maxillary denture. c. It
compensate for dimensional changes which occur
in the acrylic denture base during processing.
d. A& b are correct.
6-. Balanced occlusion refers to:
b. The type of occlusion which allows
simultaneous contact of the teeth in centric and
eccentric jaw positions.
7. The indication for the use of lingual plate
major connector include:
a. For the purpose of retention.
b. When the lingual frenum is high or when there
is a shallow lingual sulcus.
c. To prevent the movement of mandibular
anterior teeth.
d. All of the above.
8- Components of removable partial dentures are:
A. Major and minor connectors
B. Direct and indirect retainers
C. Denture base
D. All of the above
9. Actual destruction of micro-organisms in the
root canal is attributed mainly to:
a. Proper antibiotic thereby.
b. Effective use of medicament.
c. Mechanical preparation and irrigation of the
canal.
d. None of the above.
10. Which are the ways in which the proximal
contacts can be checked?
a. Use a pencil.
b. Use a shim stock. = Thin occlusal
registration strips = articulating paper
c. Use a silicone checker.
d. Use a dental floss.
e. Only b & d.
11. Loose enamel rods at the gingival floor of a
class II amalgam cavity should be removed using
a. Straight chisel.
b. Hatchet.
c. Gingival curetla.
d. Gingival marginal trimmer.
12. To provide maximum strength of amalgam
restoration the cavo-surface angles should:
1. Approach 75 with outer surface.
2. Approach 90 with outer surface.
3. Be supported by sound dentine.
180
4. Be located in area free of occlusal stress.
13. Which of the following statement is true
regarding dental calculus:
a. It is composed entirely of inorganic
material.
b. It is dens in nature and has a rough surface.
c. It is mineralized dental plaque.
d. All of the above.
e. B & C only.
f. None of the above.
14 . Overhanging restoration margins should be
removed because:
a. It provides ideal location for plaque
accumulation.
b. It tears the gingival fibers leading to
attachment loss.
c. Stimulate inflammatory reaction directly.
d. Its removal permits more effective plaque
control.
A & d.
15. Calculus induce further periodontal lesion
due to:
a) Directly stimulates inflammation
b)more plaque adhere to it.
16. To prevent perio problem MOST effective
method is:
a. Community program.
b. Removal of plaque.
c. Patient education.
17. Early loss of anterior tooth:
a. Affect phonetic.
b. Affect esthetics.
c. Cause space loss.
d. A and b.
e. All the above.
18. The rationale for pit-and-fissure sealants
in caries prevention is that they:
a. Increase the tooth resistance to dental
caries.
b. Act as a barrier between the sealed sites and
the oral environment.
c. Have anti-microbial effect on the bacteria.
19. Aphthous ulcer, compared with herbes ulcer
is:
a. More characteristic in histology.
b. Leaves scar.
c. Less response to stress.
d. Occur in lining mucosa.
181
20. The antibiotic of choice in pregnant:
a. Metronidazole.
b. Penicillin.
c. Tetracycline.
21. Patient comes to your clinic complaining
that the denture become tight, during
examination
you notice nothing, but when the patient stand
you notice that his legs bowing (curved). What
you
suspect:
A) Pagets disease..
22. In primary teeth. The ideal occlusal scheme
is:
a. Flush terminal.
b. Mesial step.
c. Distal step.
23. When you give a child a gift for good
behavior this is called:
a. Positive reinforcement.
b. Negative reinforcement.
24. Cheek biting in lower denture can occur if:
a. Occlusal plane above tongue. b. Occlusal
plane below tongue. c. Occlusal plane at lower
lip. d. None of the above.
25. Radiographic diagnosis of bone destructive
in the mandible without evidence of bone
formation is:
a. Osteomyelitis.
b. Malignancy.
c. Fibro-osseous lesion.
e. osteoradionecrosis.
26- years old female PT come with slow growing
swelling in the angle of the mandible.
Radiograph show radio-opaque with radio-lucent
border diagnosis:
a. Osteoma.
b. Osteosarcoma.
c. Cementoblatoma.
27. The most common type of malignant bone tumor
of the jaws is:
a. Osteochondrosarcoma.
b. Osteosarcoma.
c. Leiomyosarcoma.
d. Chondrosarcoma.
182
28. Pt came with fracture because of blow in the
right side of his face. he has ecchymosis around
the orbit in the right side only .and
subjunctional bleeding in the maxillary buccal
vestible .with
limited mouth open what is ur diagnosis?
A- le fort 1
b- lofort 2
c- lefort 3
c-zygomatic fracture.
29. The following are multilocular
radiolucencies in x-ray EXCEPT:
a. Ameloblastoma.
b. Odontogenic keratocyst.
c. Adenomatoid Odontogenic cyst.

d. Myxoma.
30. Upon examination of alveolar ridge of
elderly PT for construction of lower denture
easily
displaceable tissue is seen in the crest of
ridge. Management:
i. Minor surgery is needed.
j. Inform the PT that retention of denture will
decrease.
k. Special impression technique is required.
31. In recording man-max relation,the best
material used without producing pressure is:
p. Wax.
q. Compound.
r. Bite registration paste (zinc oxide & eugenol
paste).
32. Why the moisture heat sterilization is
better than dry heat sterilization
A) makes the instruments less rusty and blunt
B) needs more time and affects the proteins of
the cell membrane
C) needs less time and affects the proteins of
the cell membrane.
34. Extend of temporalis behind infratemporal
fossa of temporal bone insert in coronoid
process:
a. True.
b. False.
35. Gracey 13/14 (area of functioning)
a. posterior - Mesial
b. posterior - Distal
36. Gingival hyperplasia related to phenytoin
therapy is:
a. Most common on lingual surface.
b. Most common in older Pt.
c. Strongly related to phenytoin dosage.
d. Strongly related to poor oral hygiene.
183
37. Fluorides are most anticaries effective
when:
a. Incorporated in the tooth enamel.
b. Present in the blood stream.
c. Present in the plaque and tissue fluids
bathing the newly erupted tooth.
d. Present in the ingested foods.
e. Present on the intraoral mucous membranes.

38. Fluoride is not taken up systemically from
which of the following sources:
a. Water.
b. Food.
c. Dentifrices. = ?? dentifrices and mouth
rinses
d. Topical applications of fluoride.
39. Type I diabetes mellitus can be
characterized as:
a. Non-insulin-dependent.
b. Adult- onset.
c. Ketosis-prone diabetes
d. Accompanied by normal cell activity.
= Type I diabetes mellitus = insulin dependent
diabetes mellitus = Ketosis-prone diabetes
40. Which of the following statement is true for
the reported relationship of periodontal disease
and diabetes mellitus:
a. The reported incidence of periodontal disease
in the diabetes is less than that for
nondiabetic.
b. Pts with history of diabetes of less than 10
years have more periodontal disease destruction
than those with history of longer than 10 years.
c. The prevalence of periodontal disease
increase with the advancing age of the diabetic.
d. The prevalence of periodontal disease
increase with the better metabolic coronal of
the diabetic
state.
41. The spontaneous production of an electric
current resulting from two dissimilar metal in
the
oral cavity is called:
e. Nuclear reaction.
f. Galvanic action.
g. Precipitation reaction.
h. Thermodynamics.
i. Fission.
42. The first step in diagnostic work, up is
obtaining the:
j. Medical history.
k. Present complaint.
l. Biographical data.
m. Restorative history.
n. Traumatic history.
184
43. The basic difference between K files and
reamers is:
a. The number of spirals or flutes per unit
length.
b. The geometric cross section.
c. The depth of flutes.
d. The direction of the spirals.
42. In case of traumatic intrusion of young
permanent incisor, the treatment of choice is:
a. Surgical repositioning of intruded tooth and
splinting.
b. To wait for re eruption of the intruded
tooth.
c. Slow orthodontic extrusion using light force.
d. Only antibiotic prescription and wait for
eruption.
43. Best treatment of choice for carious
exposure of a primary molar in a 3 year old
child who
complain of toothache during and after food
taking:
a. Direct pulp capping with caoh.
b. Direct pulp capping with zoe paste.
c. Formocresol pulpotomy.
d. Caoh pulpotomy.
44. Which of the following statement about the
mechanism of action for denture adhesive is not
Correct:
a. It depends in part on physical force and
viscosity.
b. Carboxyl group provide bio adhesion.
c. Greater water solubility increase duration of
adhesion.
d. Zinc salts have been associated with stronger
longer adhesion.
45. What is the proper cavity preparation for V-
shaped cervical erosion lesion to be restored
with glass ionomer cement: a. Cervical groove,
incisal groove. b. Cervical groove, incisal
bevel.
c. 4 retention points, 90 margin.
d. No mechanical preparation is necessary.??
46. One week after filling of class II
restoration, the Pt present with a complain of
tenderness on
mastication and bleeding from the gingival. The
dentist should initially:
a. Check the occlusion.
b. Check the contract area.
c. Consider the probability of hyperemia.
d. Explain to the Pt that the retainer irritated
the surrounding soft tissue and prescribe an
analgesic
and warm oral rinse.
47. It is recommended to avoid an
intraligamental injection when the planned
dental treatment is:
a. Pulp extirpation.
b. Pulpotomy.
c. Full crown preparation.
185
d. A and b.
48. Which one of the following is a disadvantage
of autoclaving endodontics instruments: a. It
can dull the sharp edges of instruments.
b. All forms of bacteria are not destroyed by
it. c. Compared to other technique it takes too
long to sterilize. d. None of the above.
49. The root canal treated teeth has the best
prognosis when the root canal is instrumented
and obturated: a. To the radiograph apex. b. 1
mm beyond the radiograph apex.
c. 1-2 mm short of the radiograph apex. d. 3-4
mm short of the radiograph apex.
50. Which of the following would be clinically
un acceptable as a primary of isolating a tooth
for sealant placement: a. Cotton roll. b. Rubber
dam. c. Vac-ejector moisture control system.

d. None of the above.
51. Which one of the following is least likely
to contribute to oral bad breath:
a. Periodontal disease.
b. Denture.
c. Faulty restoration.
d. Carious lesions.
52. Each of the following is correct EXCEPT
which one:
a. Bad breath appears to be largely bacteria in
origin.
b. Bad breath originating from the
gastrointestinal tract is quite common.
c. Self-perceptions of bad breath appear to be
unreliable.
d. Fear of having bad breath may be a severe
problem for some people.
53. Which one of the following is not a
characteristic of dentinal hypersensitivity:
a. It is one of the most successfully treated
chronic dental problems.
b. Its prevalence range from 8 to 30%.
c. The majority of the Pts who experience it are
from 20 to 40 years of age.
d. One source of the irritation that leads to
hypersensitivity is improper tooth brushing.
54. Hypersensitivity is due to:
A- Exposed dentine with opened dentinal tubules.
B- Obliterated dentinal tubule
186
55. The most common form of oral ulcerative
disease is:
a. HSV.
b. Major aphthous ulcer.
c. Bahjet disease.
d. Minor aphthous ulcer.
56. The majority of primary herpetic infections
are:
a. Symptomatic.
b. Asymptomatic.
c. Proceeded by fever.
d. Accompanied by gingival erythema.
e. A, c and d.
57. The function of the anterior teeth is:
a. Disarticulate the posterior teeth.
b. Incise food.
c. Prevent attrition. d. Prevent
food impaction.
58. When using the buccal object rule in
horizontal angulation, the lingual object in
relation to the
buccal object:
a. Move away from the x-ray tube head.
b. Move with the x-ray tube head.
c. Move in an inferior direction from the x-ray
tube head.
d. Move in a superior direction from the x-ray
tube head.
e. None of the above.
59. If the initial working length film shows the
tip of a file to be greater than 1 mm from the
ideal
location, the clinician should:
a. Correct the length and begin instrumentation.
b. Move the file to 1 mm short of the ideal
length and expose a film.
c. Interpolate the variance, correct the
position of the stop to this distance, and
expose the film.
d. Confirm the working length with an apex
locator.
e. Position the file at the root apex and expose
a film.
60. In geriatric Pt, Cementum on the root end
will:
a. Become thinned and almost nonexistent.
b. Become thicker and irregular.
c. Render apex to locater useless.
d. Often not be seen on the radiograph.
e. Indicate pathosis.
61. Which of the following endodontic failure
may be retreated only with surgery: a. Missed
major canal.
187
b. Persistent inter appointment pain.
c. Post and core. d. Short canal filling.
62. Which of the following failure may be
treated nonsurgically:
a. Post filling that has removed.
b. Severe apical perforation.
c. Very narrow canal with a periapical lesion
and the apex can not be reached.
d. None of the above.
63. Tobacco should be considered a risk factor
when planning treatment for Pt who require:
a. Implants.
b. Periodontal surgery.
c. Oral surgery.
d. Esthetic treatment.
e. All of the above.
64. Pulpal pain may not be referred from:
a. The right maxilla to the left maxilla.
b. The third molar to the ear.
c. A max molar to the sinus.
d. An incompletely fractured tooth.
e. A max cuspid to ear.
65. Spontaneous pulpal pain is indicative of:
a. Reversible pulpitis.
b. Irreversible pulpitis.
c. Neurotic pulp.
d. Hyperplastic pulp.
e. Atrophic pulp.
66. Internal Resorption:
a. Painful.
b. Seldom differentiated external resorption.
c. Can occur in primary teeth.
67. Teeth that are discolored as a result of
internal resorption of the pulp may turn:
a. Yellow.
b. Dark brown.
c. Pink. ***
d. Green
.
68. After completion of orthodontic treatment he
came complaining of pain in 11 tooth radiograph
show absorption in the middle third of the root
of 11 wt is the proper management:
188
a. Apply caoh at the site of resorption.
b. Do RCT in a single visit
c. Extract the tooth & reimplant it
d. Extract the tooth & do implantation
69. Treatment of internal resorption involves:
a. Complete extirpation of the pulp to arrest
the resorption process.
b. Enlarging the canal apical to the resorbed
area for better access.
c. Utilizing a silver cone and sealer to fill
the irregularities in the resorbed area.
d. Filling the canal and defect with amalgam.
e. Sealing sodium hypochlorite in the canal to
remove the inflammatory tissue necrotic in the
area
of the resorption.
70. Sensitivity to palpation and percussion
indicates:
a. Reversible pulpitis.
b. Irreversible pulpitis.
c. Neurotic pulp.
d. Hyperplastic pulpitis.
e. Inflammation of the periradicular tissues.
71. Transverse fracture of developing teeth in
the mixed dentition can be managed by:
a. Forced eruption.
b. Extraction and placement of a removable
partial denture.
c. Placement of single tooth.
d. All of the above.
72. Apexification is procedure that:
a. Finds the most apical stop of the guttpercha
in RCT.
b. Induce the formation of a mineral barrier in
the apical region of incompletely root.
c. Is new in the endodontic field.
d. Involves the surgical removal of the apical
region of the root and placement of a retrograde
filling material:
73. The preferred material used in apexification
is:
a. Zinc phosphate cement.
b. Zinc polycarboxylate cement.
c. Calcium hydroxide.
d. Dycal.
74. What is the estimated incubation period of
HIV infection:
a. 4 weeks. = ( 2-4 weeks ) b. 6 months. c. 3
years. d. 6 years. e. 10 years.
189
75. Hydrogen peroxide is the ideal bleaching
agent because:
a. It bleaches effectively at natural ph.
b. It bleaches faster than carbamide peroxide.
c. Protection for sensitive tissues can be
incorporated into the hydrogen gel.
d. All of the above.
76. The most common cause of the angina is:
a. Stress.
b. Renal disease.
c. Arteriosclerotic plaques of the coronary
vessels.
d. Hypoglycemia.
e. Hypertension.
77. Which of the following drugs is completely
effective in eliminating angina episode:
a. Propranolol.
b. Nifedipine.
c. Diltiazem.
d. Transdermal nitroglycerin.
e. None of the above.
78. CPR = CPR (Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation)
a. Is best performed in the dental chair.
b. Should be performed on all patients
experiencing chest pain.
c. Is more efficient when using a full mask,
delivering 100% oxygen, than with the mouth to
mouth technique.
d. Is beyond the medico legal responsibility of
the practicing dentist.
79. Which statement concerning sensitive teeth
is false:
a. Small dentin exposure can result in
sensitivity.
b. The extent of dental hard tissue loss
(always) correlates with sensitivity.
c. A wide variety of clinical condition can
cause teeth to become sensitive.
d. Oral hygiene habits and diet can contribute
to clinical sensitivity problems.
80. Droplet nuclei containing mycobacterium
tuberculosis:
a. Do not cause infection.
b. Settle out of room air quickly.
c. Do not spread widely in the building.
d. Remain airborn for prolonged period. ***

81. The most common activity associated with
percutaneous injury of the dentist is:
a. Suturing.
b. Anesthesia injection.
c. Handpiece dig.
d. Trimming impressions.
190
82. The most common location of percutaneous
injury among dentist is:
a. Hand.
b. Face.
c. Elbow.
d. Arm.
83. The normal response of a vital pulp to the
thermal testing is:
a. No response.
b. Lingering painful response.
c. Hypersensitive painful response.
d. Painful response that disappears soon after
stimulus is removed.
84. The normal response of a inflamed pulp to
the thermal testing is: a. No response. b.
Lingering painful response.
c. Hypersensitive painful response. d. Painful
response that disappears soon after stimulus is
removed.
85. The normal response of a vital pulp to the
electric pulp testing is:
a. No response.
b. Higher than that of the control teeth.
c. Lower than that of the control teeth.
d. In a range similar to that of the control
teeth.
86. Asymptomatic tooth has a necrotic pulp, a
broken lamina dura, and circumscribed
radiolucency of long duration. The periradicular
diagnosis: -

a. Acute apical periodontitis.
b. Chronic apical periodontitis. No pain
c. Acute exacerbation of chronic apical
periodontitis.
d. Abscess.
87. A Pt with severe periradicular pain has a
necrotic pulp, a broken lamina dura, and
circumscribed radiolucency of long duration. The
periradicular diagnosis:
a. Acute apical periodontitis.
b. Chronic apical periodontitis.
c. Acute exacerbation of chronic apical
periodontitis.
d. Abscess.
88. A Pt present in severe pain. The periapical
area over the involved tooth is inflamed and
swollen. The tooth is mobile and depressible in
its socket with a diffused radiolucency. The
diagnosis is:
a. Acute apical periodontitis.
191
b. Chronic apical periodontitis.
c. Acute exacerbation of chronic apical
periodontitis.
d. Abscess.
89. Reduction of mandibular fracture is defined
as:
a. Nonalignment and separation of the fracture
segment.
b. Realignment of fracture segments.
c. Holding of the fracture segments in place.
d. Screw and bone places.
e. Internal fixation.
90. Wiring the upper and lower teeth together is
called:
a. Internal fixation.
b. An open reduction.
c. Intermaxillary fixation.
d. Displacement.
e. External fixation.
91. The incidence of nerve damage following
mandibular third molar surgery is estimated to
be:
a. 5% or less.
b. 10% to 15%.
c. 15% to 20%
d. 20% to 25%.
92. The least likely mechanism for the nerve
damage is:
a. Direct needle trauma.
b. Intraneural haematoma formation.

c. Local anesthetic toxicity.

d. Stretching and binding of the nerve.

93. Which of the following is the cause of

immediat type allergic reaction to latex
products:
a. Accelerator.
b. Antioxidants.
c. Latex protein.
d. Nickel.
= Immediate Type I hypersensitivity, which is an
immunological reaction against latex protein
components,
94. The best transport medium for avulsed tooth
is:
a. Tap water.
b. HBSS (Hank's balanced salt solution).
c. Saliva.
d. Milk.
192
95. Which of the following is the longest in the
dental arch:
a. Maxiliary central incisor.
b. Maxillary second premolar.
c. Mandibular canine.
d. Maxillary canine.
96. Chlorhexidine is used as mouth wash in the
concentration of:
a. 0.1-0.2%
b. 1- 2 %
c. 5-10%
d. 20%
97. Traumatically fractured crown of central
incisor in an 8-years-old child with pulp
exposure
(more than 1 mm) half hour ago, medical history
is non- contributory and the tooth is not
displaced. What is your management:
a. Endodontics-pulpectomy and obturation.
b. Direct pulpcap with caoh and composite.
c. Caoh pulpotomy.
d. Total extirpation of pulp and caoh.
98. The oral lesions of the lichen planus:

a. Are usually painful. b. Rarely appear before

lesion elsewhere on the body. c. May be part of
a syndrome in which lesions also appear on the
skin, conjunctiva and genitalia. *** = Stevens-
Johnson syndrome d. Often appear in nervous,
high-strung individuals. e. Heals with scarring.

99. Which of the following is a benign
epithelial neoplasm:
a. Rhabdomyoma.
b. Fibroma.
c. Lipoma.
d. Granular cell tumor.
e. Keratoacanthoma.
Q For maximum health of gingiva, finishing line
: above the crest of gingiva
... self threaded- friction.- coted cemented
MTA = EXCELLENT FOR : Apexification root canal
obturation = MTA is excellent material for
apexification because it creates a permanent
apical plug at the outset of treatment Mechanism
of saliva for prevention = remeneralization
clearing bacteria - both Deffer periaoical
abscess than periodontal xray vitality test
palpation Step before pit fissure sealant =
Etchant
193

OVAL ?

PIT FISSURE SEALANT
SAMPLE 2 16-36-42-46
sample 3 41-
sample 4 2-50
sample 5 25
sample 6 12: glass ionomer contains si-al-naf
??? -20-37
sample 6b : 31 moon face?-
sample 8: 7
PAGE 67 Q13?????
Q) In primary tooth for restoration before
putting the filling you will put
1. Base.
2. Calcium hydroxide.
3. varnish
??????????????/
10 years pt come with necrotic pulp in upper
central with root apex not close yet best
treatment
a) calciumhydroxide
b) calcifuic barrier
c) apexfication with gutta percha filling
d) gutta percha filling
3-The distal palatal termination of the
maxillary complete denture base is dictated by
the:
1. Tuberosity.
2. Fovea palatine.
3. Maxillary tori.
4. Vibrating line.
5. Posterior palatal seal.
1-Use of dental elevator is for all except:
1. Wheel and axis.
2. Wedging.
3. Lever.
4. Wedging of socket wall.
194
2-Compomer restorative materials are: 1. Glass
ionomers with polymer components. 2. Resin
systems with fluoride contacting glasses. 3.
Composite resins for cervical restorations only.
36- In primary teeth, the ideal occlusal scheme
is:
1. Flush terminal.
2. Mesial step.
3. Distal step.
38-hairy leukoplakia may be caused by:
1. Broad spectrum antibiotic.
2. H2O2 mouths wash.
3. Systemic steroids.
4. Heavy smokers.
5. All the above.
43- Buccal object rule in dental treatment of
maxillary teeth:
1. MB root appear distal to P if cone is
directed M to D.
2. DB root appear mesial to P if cone is
directed Mto D.
= SLOB rule- same lingual opposite buccal
50- 6 years old child have 74 and 84 extracted
best space maintainer is:
1. Lingual arch.
2. Bilateral band and loop.
3. Bilateral distal shoe.
4. No need for space maintainer.
51 -(6 years) child with bilateral loss of
(Lower) deciduous molars &the anterior teeth not
erupted yet ,the space maintainer for choice is:
a-lingual arch
B-bilateral band and loop
c-bilateral band and loop with distal shoe
d-removable partial denture
*if anteriors are present & the missing is
bilateral D&E lingual arch used
if the missing is bilateral D bilateral band
and loop used
if the missing is bilateral E bilateral band
and loop with distal shoe used
2-Which of following may cause gingival
enlargement?
1. Phenyntion (Dilantin).
2. Cyclosporine.
195
3. Nifedipine (a calciumchannel blocker).
4. Aspirin.
5. None of the above.
Q) Which of the following drugs induces gingival
hyperplasia:
A. Phenytoin(Dilantin).
B. Cyclosporine = immunosuppressants
C. Nifedipine (+Nitrendipine) = calcium-channel
blockers
D. All of the above
Q) All of the following drugs cause gingival
enlargement except
a. Cyclosporine
b. Phenytoin
c. Nifedipine
d. Aspirin
4-Periodontal involved root surface must be root
planned to:
1. Remove the attached plaque and calculus.
2. Remove necrotic cementum.
3. Change the root surface so it becomes
biocompatible.
4. All of the above.
5. A and B are correct.
20-Reliability of measurements reflects that
property of the measurements which:
1. Measures what is intended to be measured.
2. Produces repeatedly the same results under a
variety of conditions.
3. Detects reasonably small shifts, I either
direction, in group condition.
4. All the above.
11 The oral lesions of the lichen planus:
1. Are usually painful.
2. Rarely appear before lesion else where on the
body.
3. May be part of a syndrome in which lesions
also appear on the skin, conjunctiva and
genitalia.
4. Often appear in nervous, high-strung
individuals.
5. Heal with scarring.
39- Amalgam is used in extensive cavities :
a- When the cusp is supported by dentine and
proper retentive preparation
b- When Cusps lost and thin supported wall
c- When one cusp is lost and need to apply
restoration to replace it
d- I dont remember
44- Epliptic pt should not take which drug
196
a) aspirin
b) metronidazole
Drugs used in dentistry that can increase
anticonvulsant activity, leading to overdose
aspirin
and other NSAIDs
Drug problems in epilepsy Drugs that can be
epileptogenic and therefore are contraindicated

alcohol chlorpromazine enflurane

flumazenil fluoxetine ketamine lidocaine
(large
doses) metronidazole
1. The most desirable finished surface composite
resin can be provided by:
a. White stones.
b. Hand instrument.
c. Carbid finishing burs.
d. Diamond finish burs. Celluloid matrix band.
27-Over extended GP should remove using:
- ultrasonic vibrating.
- dissolving agent.
- rotary or round bur
- surgery
32- In prevention of dental caries, the
promotion of a healthy diet is:
1- low effective measure
2- moderately effective measure
3- high effective measure
4- mandatory measure
38-Child with previous history of minor trauma
with excessive bleeding we do test the result is
prolong PT & slightly increase clotting time
&. Test is +ve. the diagnosis is:
a.hemophelia B.
b.thrombocytopenia.
c.vit.K deficiency.
44- Female patient came to your clinic with
continous severe pain related to 1st maxillary
molar.
After examination dentist diagnose the tooth is
carious and has irreversible pulpitis. He
decides to
do RCT. After enough time for anaesthisation,
the patient wont allow the dentist to touch the
tooth due to severe pain. Dentist should:
A) give another appointment to the patient with
description of antibiotics..
B) Extraction.
C)Intra-pulpal anaesthia.
60 - dental implant are successfully with min
failure:
a-premaxilla area in the upper arch
b-posterior area of the maxillary arch
197
c-mandible between the mental foramen
d-buccal shelf of the mandible.