Multiple Choice Questions Section: Choose The Most Appropriate Single Answer

Multiple Choice Questions Section
Saudi Medical Journal introduces this new section on multiple choice questions as part of its commitment
to continuous education and learning. Board residents are encouraged to read this section to improve
their knowledge and direct their reading for written examinations.
All questions are supplied by and published with permission from the
Examination Department, Saudi Commission For Health Specialties
Riyadh, Kingdom of Saudi Arabia.
Choose the most appropriate single answer.
1. Premenstrual tension syndrome is characterized by:
(A) Severe symptoms in the first half of menstrual cycle

(B) Edema may be presented in 60% of patients
(C) An increase in the production of estrogens
(D) Menorrhagia is a common complaint
(E) Typically being seen in anovulatory cycles
2. An 18-year-old patient with normal secondary sexual characteristics presents with a history of primary
amenorrhea. An ultrasonography of the pelvis is as shown. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?

(A) Primary ovarian failure

(B) Testicular feminization
(C) Mllerian anomaly with rudimentary uterus
(D) Turners syndrome
650 Saudi Med J 2011; Vol. 32 (6) www.smj.org.sa
Book 1.indb 650 6/5/11 2:55:09 PM

Multiple choice questions
3. A 15-year-old patient presents with primary amenorrhea. On examination, secondary sexual

characteristics are absent. Investigation reports are as follows:
Test Patients value Normal values
Serum T3 4.8 pmol/L (3.1-6.8 pmo/L)
Serum T4 18 pmol/L (12-22 pmo/L)
Serum TSH 3.5 IU (0.5-4.7 miu/L)
Serum FSH 70 IU (3.5-12.5 miu/L)
Serum Prolactin 230 IU/mL (102-496 IU/mL)
Based on these reports, which of the following is the MOST likely diagnosis?
(A) Androgen insensitivity syndrome

(B) Gonadal dysgenesis
(C) Physiological delay
(D) Prolactinoma
4. A 15-year-old patient with dysmenorrheal experienced menarche at age 13 and currently has regular
menses. The patient is not sexually active. Physical examination including pelvic examination is normal.
The initial management of this patient should be:
(A) Laparoscopy
(B) Cervical dilatation
(C) Estrogen-progestin combination oral contraceptive
(D) Danazol
(E) Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory medication
5. A gravid 2 para 1 patient is screen positive in the second trimester for aneuploidy. The patient refuses
invasive testing and continues the pregnancy. At 26 weeks, an ultrasound reveals polyhydramnios. The
axial abdominal image of the fetus is as shown. Which of the following is the MOST likely diagnosis?
(A) Pelviureteral junction obstruction

(B) Polycystic kidneys
(C) Posterior urethral valves
(D) Duodenal atresia
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Answers on page 664
www.smj.org.sa Saudi Med J 2011; Vol. 32 (6) 651
Book 1.indb 651 6/5/11 2:55:09 PM

Multiple choice questions
ANSWERS:
1. Answer: B
Specialty Domain: Diagnosis
Section: Menstrual Abnormalities / Gynecology
Type: Recall
Reference: Katz VL, Lobo RA, Lentz G, Gershenson D. Reproductive Endocrinology
and Infertility. In: Comprehensive Gynecology. 5th ed. Philadelphia (PA):
Mosby; 2007. p. 907.
2. Answer: C
Type: Interpretation
Reference: Berek JS, editor. Berek & Novaks Gynecology. 14th ed. Philadelphia (PA):
Lippincott Williams & Wilkins ; 2006. p. 1007.
3. Answer: B
Reference: Berek JS, editor. Berek & Novaks Gynecology. 14th ed. Philadelphia (PA):
Lippincott Williams & Wilkins ; 2006. p. 1044.
4. Answer: E
Specialty Domain: Management
Type: Problem Solving
Reference: Katz VL, Lobo RA, Lentz G, Gershenson D. Reproductive Endocrinology
and Infertility. In: Comprehensive Gynecology. 5th ed. Philadelphia (PA):
Mosby; 2007. p. 903.
5. Answer: D
Section: Normal Pregnancy / Gynecology
Reference: Cunningham F, Leveno K, Bloom S, Hauth J, Rouse D, Spong C. Williams
Obstetrics. 23rd Edition. McGraw-Hill Professional; 2009. p. 359.
664 Saudi Med J 2011; Vol. 32 (6) www.smj.org.sa
Book 1.indb 664 6/5/11 2:55:28 PM

Multiple Choice Questions Section: Choose The Most Appropriate Single Answer

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Multiple Choice Questions Section: Choose The Most Appropriate Single Answer

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Multiple Choice Questions Section: Choose The Most Appropriate Single Answer

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Multiple Choice Questions Section

Choose the most appropriate single answer.

1. Premenstrual tension syndrome is characterized by:

(A) Severe symptoms in the first half of menstrual cycle

(A) Primary ovarian failure

650 Saudi Med J 2011; Vol. 32 (6) www.smj.org.sa

Book 1.indb 650 6/5/11 2:55:09 PM

3. A 15-year-old patient presents with primary amenorrhea. On examination, secondary sexual

(A) Androgen insensitivity syndrome

(A) Pelviureteral junction obstruction

www.smj.org.sa Saudi Med J 2011; Vol. 32 (6) 651

Book 1.indb 651 6/5/11 2:55:09 PM

664 Saudi Med J 2011; Vol. 32 (6) www.smj.org.sa

Book 1.indb 664 6/5/11 2:55:28 PM

You might also like