2016

*SLREP54* SLR-EP – 54
Seat
No.
Set P
S.E. (Mechanical Engineering) (Part – I) (CGPA) Examination, 2016
ANALYSIS OF MECHANICAL ELEMENTS
Day and Date : Tuesday, 13-12-2016 Max. Marks : 70
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in

Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (P/Q/R/S) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration : 30 Minutes Marks : 14
1. Choose the correct answer :
1) Bulk modulus is the ratio of

a) Longitudinal stress/Longitudinal strain b) Shear stress/Shear strain
c) Volumetric stress/Volumetric Strain d) Lateral Strain/Linear strain
2) Hooke’s Law holds good upto
a) Ultimate point b) Yield point
c) Elastic Limit d) Plastic Limit
3) Under torsion, the strength of hollow shaft for the same length, material and weight is
____________ a solid shaft.
a) Less than b) More than
c) Equal to d) None of the above
4) In a cantilever beam carrying a load where intensity varies uniformly from zero at the free
end to ‘w’ per unit run at the fixed end. The shear force changes a following
a) Linear law b) Parabolic law
c) Cubic law d) None of the above
5) For a simply supported beam of span l carries a uniformly distributed load over the whole
span, the SFD will be
a) A rectangle b) Parabolic
c) Two equal and opposite rectangles d) Two equal and opposite triangles
6) Strength of beam mainly depends on
a) Bending moment b) Geometry of the section
c) Section modulus d) It’s weight
P.T.O.
SLR-EP – 54 -2- *SLREP54*
7) In case of rectangular section subjected to a shear force
1 3
a) τmax = τmean b) τmax = τmean
2 2
5
c) τmax = τmean d) τmax = τmean
2
8) The deflection at the free end of cantilever of length (l) carrying point load ‘w’ at the free
end is given by
Wl
a) b) WL2/2EI
2EI
c) WL3/2EI d) WL3/3EI
9) In double integration method, second integration will be value of
a) Slope b) Bending moment
c) Deflection d) Shear force
10) The buckling in case of a column takes place about the axis having
a) Minimum radius of gyration b) Maximum radius of gyration
c) Either of above d) None of the above
11) Rankine’s formula taken into account which of the following

a) The variations in mechanical properties b) The initial curvature of the column
c) The eccentricity of loading d) The effect of direct compressive stress
12) The strain energy stored by the body within elastic limit when loaded externally is called
a) Resilience b) Proof Resilience
c) Modulus of resilience d) None of the above
13) Diameter of Mohr’s circle always represents

a) Maximum shear stress
b) Mean value of Principal stresses
c) Minimum Principal stress
d) The difference between two principal stresses
14) For body subjected to two perpendicular stresses only, the planes of maximum shear are
inclined at ____________ with the plane of major stress.
a) 0° and 90° b) 90° and 270°
c) 45° and 135° d) 0° and 180°
______________
Set P
*SLREP54* -3- SLR-EP – 54
Seat
No.

Day and Date : Tuesday, 13-12-2016 Marks : 56
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Solve any two questions from each Section.

2) Use of calculator is allowed.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
4) Assume additional suitable data, if necessary and mention it clearly.
SECTION – I
2. a) A bar of steel has cross section 80 mm × 50 mm and is 250 mm long. It is subjected to

axial compressive force of 200 kN. Find
i) Change in length
ii) Change in volume
iii) If lateral strain is prevented by applying equal stresses in other two directions, find
change in length. Take Poisson’s ratio = 0.3 and E = 2 × 105 N/mm2. 8
b) The stresses at a point across two perpendicular planes are 75MN/m2 (tensile) and
35MN/m2 (tensile). Find the normal, tangential stresses, the resultant stress and its obliquity
on a plane at 20° with the plane of major stress. 6
3. a) Draw SFD and BMD for the beam shown in figure and indicate maximum bending moment. 9
6 KN/m
Set P
b) A circle of 50 mm diameter is inscribed on a MS plate, after stressing circle deform to an

ellipse, calculate the length of major and minor axes of the ellipse as the result of deformation
of the circle marked. Take E = 200 GPa, μ = 0.25. 5
4. a) A hollow shaft is to transmit 300 KW at 80 rpm. If the shear stress is not to exceed 60 MN/m2
and internal diameter is 0.6 of external diameter, find the external and internal diameters.
Assume that maximum torque is 1.4 times the mean torque. 8
b) Derive relationship between Young’s modulus E and modulus of rigidity C. 6
SECTION – II
5. a) The external diameter of hollow cylindrical column is 1.25 times its internal diameter. The
length of column is 3 meter. When hinged at both ends it has a critical buckling load of ‘P’ KN,
if same column is fixed is both ends, buckling load is increased by 300 KN. If E = 100 GPa,
determine cross section of column. Use Euler’s formula. 6
b) Figure shows the cross section of beam subjected to shear force 20 KN. Draw shear
stress distribution diagram across the depth making values at salient points. 8
Set P
6. a) A hollow mild steel tube 6 m long and having 4 cm internal diameter and 5 mm thick is used
as strut with both ends hinged. Find the crippling load and safe load by taking factor
safety as 3, Take E = 2×105 N/mm2. Use Euler’s Formula. 6
b) A bar 100 cm in length is subjected to an axial pull, such that maximum stress is 150 MN/m2.
It’s area of cross section is 2 cm2 over a length of 95 cm and for the middle 5 cm length,
it is 1 cm2. If E = 200 GN/m2, calculate strain energy stored in bar. 8
7. a) Determine slope and deflection at free end D for the beam as shown in figure. Take
EI = 10 × 104KN – m2(Use moments area method only). 10
b) Write the assumptions made in theory of pure bending. 4

_____________________
Set P
Set P
Seat
No.
Set Q
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.


end is given by
Wl
a) b) WL2/2EI
2EI


P.T.O.
a) 0° and 90° b) 90° and 270°
c) 45° and 135° d) 0° and 180°
1 3
2 2
5
2
______________
Set Q
Seat
No.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

SECTION – I

i) Change in length
6 KN/m
Set Q

SECTION – II
Set Q

_____________________
Set Q
Set Q
Seat
No.
Set R
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.


1 3
2 2
5
2
end is given by
Wl
a) b) WL2/2EI
2EI
P.T.O.


a) 0° and 90° b) 90° and 270°
c) 45° and 135° d) 0° and 180°

______________
Set R
Seat
No.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

SECTION – I

i) Change in length
6 KN/m
Set R

SECTION – II
Set R

_____________________
Set R
Set R
Seat
No.
Set S
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.




a) 0° and 90° b) 90° and 270°
c) 45° and 135° d) 0° and 180°
P.T.O.
1 3
2 2
5
2
end is given by
Wl
a) b) WL2/2EI
2EI
______________
Set S
Seat
No.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

SECTION – I

i) Change in length
6 KN/m
Set S

SECTION – II
Set S

_____________________
Set S
Set S
*SLREP55* SLR-EP 55
Seat
No. Set P
S.E. (Mech.) (Part I) (CGPA) Examination, 2016
APPLIED THERMODYNAMICS
Day and Date : Thursday, 15-12-2016 Max. Marks : 70
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Use of steam tables and Mollier diagram is allowed.
2) Use of scientific calculator is allowed.
3) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30
minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries
one mark.
4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (P/Q/R/S) on Top of Page.
5) Out of remaining questions solve any two questions from
each Section.
6) Assume suitable data if required and state it clearly.

1. Choose the correct answer : (1×14=14)

1) Coefficient of performance of heat pump is always
A) Less than unity B) Greater than unity
C) Equal to unity D) None of the above
2) Entropy of water at 0° C is assumed to be
A) 1 B) 0 C) 1 D) 10
3) An ideal heat engine operates between 600 K and 900 K. The efficiency of
engine is
A) 90% B) 45% C) 33% D) 70%
4) A device used to increase the temperature of saturated steam without raising
its pressure, is called
A) Fusible plug B) Stop Valve C) Superheater D) Economiser
5) Which loss does present in actual vapour power cycle at the exit of the
boiler and at the entry of the turbine ?
A) Friction loss
B) Constant pressure heat loss
C) Both A) and B)
D) None of the above
P.T.O.
SLR-EP 55 -2- *SLREP55*
6) What is the relation between efficiency of Rankine cycle ( Rankine) and

efficiency of actual vapour power cycle ( Actual Cycle) ?

A) ( Rankine) = ( Actual Cycle)

B) ( Rankine) > ( Actual Cycle)

C) ( Rankine) < ( Actual Cycle)


7) Non flow energy equation for reversible process is
A) dQ = du + pdv B) dv = dQ + pdu
C) dp = dQ + udv D) du = dQ + pdv
8) The pressure during suction stroke is ___________ atmospheric pressure.
A) Equal to B) Less than C) More D) Higher
9) The volume of air sucked by compressor during suction stroke is called
A) Free air delivery B) Compressor capacity
C) Swept volume D) Clearance volume
10) The Steam leaves the nozzle at a
A) High pressure and low velocity
B) High pressure and high velocity
C) Low pressure and low velocity
D) Low pressure and high velocity
11) Effect of friction in nozzle ______________ dryness fraction of steam.
A) Increases B) Decreases
C) No change D) None of the above
12) De Laval turbine is
A) Impulse reaction turbine
B) Reaction turbine
C) Multi rotor impulse turbine
D) Single rotor impulse turbine
13) The compounding of turbines is done in order to
A) Reduce the speed of rotor
B) Improve efficiency
C) Reduce exit losses
D) All of the above
14) The ratio of actual vacuum to the ideal vacuum in a condenser is called
A) Condenser efficiency B) Vacuum efficiency
C) Nozzle efficiency D) Evaporator efficiency
______________
Set P
*SLREP55* -3- SLR-EP 55
Seat
No.

Day and Date : Thursday, 15-12-2016 Marks : 56
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
each Section.
SECTION I
2. A) What is throttling ? Explain with neat sketch throttling Calorimeter. 7

B) Calculate standard heat of reaction for the following reaction
C5H12(g) + 8 O2(g) 5 CO2(g) + 6 H2O(g)

Enthalpies of formation for

CO2(g) = 393 kJ/mol, H2O(g) = 242 kJ/mol, C5H12(g) = 146.5 kJ/mol,
O2(g) = 0 kJ/mol. 7
3. A) Prove that entropy is property of system. 7

B) Explain reheat cycle with block and T-S diagram. What are its advantages ? 7
4. A) 1130 kg of heat supplied to engine from source at 292° C. The engine rejects
heat to sink at 12° C. For which of the following cycle represents a reversible,
irreversible or an impossible result.
i) 282 kg of heat rejected
ii) 855 kg of heat rejected
iii) 570 kg of heat rejected. 7
B) Define and explain the term 7
i) Equivalent evaporation
ii) Factor of evaporation
iii) Boiler efficiency.
Set P
SECTION II
5. a) Show that for maximum discharge through a nozzle, the ratio of throat pressure
to inlet pressure is given as (2/n + 1)n/n1, where n is the index of isentropic
expansion through nozzle. 5
b) In a De Laval turbine steam issues from nozzle at a velocity of 1200 m/s and
nozzle angle is 20°. The blade velocity is 400 m/s. Inlet and outlet blade
angles are equal. The mass of steam flowing through turbine is 1000 kg/hour.
If relative velocity coefficient is 0.8, determine blade angles, power developed
and blade efficiency. 5
c) What are the sources of air leakage in condenser ? Briefly explain the effects
of air leakage in condenser. 4
6. a) Dry saturated steam at 7 bar, is passed through a convergent divergent

nozzle. The throat cross sectional area is 4.5 cm2. Find the maximum mass
flow rate of steam passing through the nozzle per minute. 5
b) What do you mean by compounding of steam turbines ? Discuss various

methods of compounding steam turbines. 5
c) Define condenser and explain with sketch the elements of steam condensing
plants. 4
7. a) Derive an expression for work done in single stage single acting reciprocating
compressor without clearance. Assume polytropic compression
process. 5
b) A single stage reciprocating compressor has a bore of 200 mm and stroke of

300 mm. It runs at speed of 480 rpm. The clearance volume is 6% of the
swept volume and law for compression, expansion is PV1.32 = C. Intake
pressure is 98 kPa and temp. is 27° C and compressor delivery pressure is
500 kPa. Determine
a) Volumetric efficiency
b) Power required to run compressor
c) Isothermal power
d) Isothermal efficiency. 5
c) Draw theoretical and actual indicator diagram of single stage reciprocating

compressor. 4
_____________________
Set P
*SLREP55* SLR-EP 55
Seat
No. Set Q
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
one mark.
each Section.


A) Impulse reaction turbine B) Reaction turbine
C) Multi rotor impulse turbine D) Single rotor impulse turbine
P.T.O.
A) Reduce the speed of rotor
B) Improve efficiency
C) Reduce exit losses
D) All of the above
A) 1 B) 0 C) 1 D) 10
engine is
A) 90% B) 45% C) 33% D) 70%
A) Friction loss
C) Both A) and B)






______________
Set Q
Seat
No.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
each Section.
SECTION I

C5H12(g) + 8 O2(g) 5 CO2(g) + 6 H2O(g)


O2(g) = 0 kJ/mol. 7

Set Q
SECTION II


plants. 4
process. 5

500 kPa. Determine
c) Isothermal power

compressor. 4
_____________________
Set Q
*SLREP55* SLR-EP 55
Seat
No. Set R
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
one mark.
each Section.


A) Friction loss B) Constant pressure heat loss
C) Both A) and B) D) None of the above






A) Equal to B) Less than
C) More D) Higher
P.T.O.
A) Reduce the speed of rotor B) Improve efficiency
C) Reduce exit losses D) All of the above
A) 1 B) 0 C) 1 D) 10
engine is
A) 90% B) 45% C) 33% D) 70%
______________
Set R
Seat
No.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
each Section.
SECTION I

C5H12(g) + 8 O2(g) 5 CO2(g) + 6 H2O(g)


O2(g) = 0 kJ/mol. 7

Set R
SECTION II


plants. 4
process. 5

500 kPa. Determine
c) Isothermal power

compressor. 4
_____________________
Set R
*SLREP55* SLR-EP 55
Seat
No. Set S
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
one mark.
each Section.


A) Reduce the speed of rotor B) Improve efficiency
C) Reduce exit losses D) All of the above
P.T.O.
A) 1 B) 0 C) 1 D) 10
engine is
A) 90% B) 45% C) 33% D) 70%
A) Friction loss
C) Both A) and B)






______________
Set S
Seat
No.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
each Section.
SECTION I

C5H12(g) + 8 O2(g) 5 CO2(g) + 6 H2O(g)


O2(g) = 0 kJ/mol. 7

Set S
SECTION II


plants. 4
process. 5

500 kPa. Determine
c) Isothermal power

compressor. 4
_____________________
Set S
*SLREP56* SLR-EP 56
Seat
No.
Set P
S.E. (Part I) (Mechanical Engg.) (CGPA) Examination, 2016
ENGINEERING MATHEMATICS III
Day and Date : Saturday, 17-12-2016 Max. Marks : 70
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
3) Attempt any three questions from each Section.
4) Use of calculator and statistical tables are allowed.

1. Choose correct alternative : (1×14=14)

1) The general solution of (D4 + 2D2 + 1)y = 0 is
a) y = c1cosx + c2sinx + c3cosx + c4sinx
b) y = (c1 + c2x)cosx + (c3 + c4x)sinx
c) y = (c1 + c2x)ex
d) None of these
2) is equal to

e xx 2 e xx3
N
a) b) c) d)
N
A N

3) The P.I. of + = is
@ O
@ O
N
N
@ N
@ N

a) c1 + c2x b) N
c) d)
N N N
4) z = a(x + y) + c is the general solution of

a) pq = 1 b) p = 1 q c) p + q = 0 d) p = q
5) The equation x2p2 + y2q2 = z2 can be reduced to the form
a) f(q, p) = 0 b) f(p, q, z) = 0
c) f1(x, p) = f2(y, q) d) None of these
P.T.O.
6) If , then =

. r
r x i y j z k
a) 0 b) 1
c) 2 d) 3
7) The unit tangent vector to the curve x = t, y = t2, z = t3 at t = 1 is
1 1
a) b)

i 2 j 3 k i 2 j 3 k

1 4
1 4
c) d) None of these

i j k

8) Find the value of k for which the function f(x, y) = 2x x2 + ky2 is harmonic.
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 0
d z
9) The value of
where C is the circle |z 1| = 5 is

z 3
a) 0 b) E
c) 2 E
d) None
10) If N
is the mean of the sample size n drawn from the population with mean
and standard
deviation then N
has the following distribution
a) Binomial b) Poisson c) Normal d) None
11) The t-statistic is defined as
a) b) c) d)
x
x
x
x

12) A continuous random variable has the following density function f(x) = kx, N
. Then k =
a) b)

"
c) d)
! !
"
13) If x denotes the binomial variate then the std. deviation of the distribution is given by
a) n p q
b) npq
c) np d) n p
14) The Poisson distribution is useful when

a) n 0 p b) n p 0
c) n p
d) None of these
______________
Set P
S e a t
N o .

Day and Date : Saturday, 17-12-2016 Marks : 56
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Attempt any three questions from each Section.
SECTION I
!
2. a) Solve . 3
d y d y
4 s i n 2 x
d x
d x
b) Solve (D2 4D + 4)y = e2x x2. 3

c) Solve y

1 6 y x s i n 3 x
. 3
3. a) The differential equation of the body is + k2x = k2a sinnt. If at t = 0, x = 0, ,

@ N
@ N

@ J
@ J
show that . 5
k a
x k s i n n t n s i n k t

k n
b) Solve (3x + 2)2 . 5

@ O @ O
! ! N ! $ O & N " N
@ N
@ N
OR
!
b) Solve 5
@ O @ O

N N O N

@ N @ N
4. a) Solve the following partial differential equation , by the method of

z z
3 x 5 y 0
x y
separation of variables. 5
b) Solve z2(p2 + q2) = x2 + y2. 4
5. a) Prove that is solenoidal and determine

F x 2 y a z i b x 3 y z j 4 x c y 2 z k

the constant a, b, c if is irrotational. 3

b) Find the angle between the surfaces + 2xz = 4 at(2, 2, 3) and to + 3xyz = 3 x2y x3 y3 +
at (1, 2, 1). 3
c) Find the velocity and acceleration of a particle moving along the curve x = 2sin3t,
y = 2cos3t, z = 8t. Also find their magnitude. 3
Set P
SECTION II
6. a) Determine the analytic function whose imaginary part is ex(xcosy ysiny). 3
b) If 5 pieces of certain ribbon selected at random have mean breaking strength of
169.5 pounds with standard deviation of 5.7, do they confirm to the specification mean breaking
strength of 180 pounds. (Critical value of t for one-tailed 1% level of significance is 3.747). 3
c) Evaluate if C is the circle of unit radius with centre at z = 1. 3

z 1
d z
z 1
7. a) Five dice are thrown together 96 times. The number of times 4, 5 or 6 was actually obtained
is given below : 4
Fit a binomial distribution, if the nature of dice is not known.
No. of dice : 0 1 2 3 4 5
Showing 4, 5, 6
Frequency : 1 10 24 35 18 8
b) Using Poisson distribution, find the probability that ace of spade will be drawn from a pack
of well-shuffled cards atleast once in 104 consecutive draws. 3
c) It has previously been recorded that the average depth of ocean at a particular region is
67.4 fathoms. Is there reason to believe this at 0.01 level of significance if the readings at
40 random locations in that particular region showed a mean of 69.3 with std. deviation of
5.4 fathoms ? 3
(Critical value of z at 1% L.O.S. two tailed test is 2.58)
8. a) A military expert claims that the citizens of the district A are fitter than the citizens of
district B. His claim is based on the findings that 96 out of 200 citizens of the district A
passed a standard of fitness as against only 84 out of 200 citizen of B. Is his claim well
founded ? (Critical value of z for one tailed test at 5% L.O.S. is 1.64) 3
b) A student answers by guess 32 questions correctly in an examination with 50 true or false
questions, are the result significant at 0.05 L.O.S. ? 3
(Critical value of z at 5% L.O.S. one tailed test is 1.64)
c) The income distribution of a group of 10000 persons was found to be normal with mean
Rs. 750 and std. deviation is Rs. 50. What percentage of this group had income exceeding
Rs. 668 ? 3
(Given : Area under S.N.C. curve between ordinates at 1.64 is 0.8990)
9. a) Evaluate : along 4
E
z d z
i) The line x = 2y ii) Parabola .

N
O
b) The number of car accidents in a metropolitan city was found to be 20, 17, 12, 6, 7, 15, 8,
5, 16 and 14 per month respectively. Use - test to check whether these frequencies
are in agreement with the belief that occurrence of accidents was the same during 10
months period. Test at 1% L.O.S. 5
(Critical value of
at 1% L.O.S. for 9 d.f. is 21.666)

_____________________
Set P
*SLREP56* SLR-EP 56
Seat
No.
Set Q
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.


a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 0
d z
2) The value of

z 3
a) 0 b) E
c) 2 E
d) None
3) If N
and standard
deviation then N
a) b) c) d)
x
x
x
x

. Then k =
a) b) c) d)
! !
" "
a) n p q
b) npq
c) np d) n p
P.T.O.
a) n 0 p b) n p 0
c) n p
d) None of these

c) y = (c1 + c2x)ex
d) None of these
9) is equal to

e xx 2 e xx3
N
a) b) c) d)
N
A N


@ O @ O
N N
@ N
@ N

a) c1 + c2x b) N
c) d)
N N N

a) pq = 1 b) p = 1 q c) p + q = 0 d) p = q
a) f(q, p) = 0 b) f(p, q, z) = 0
13) If , then =

. r
r x i y j z k
a) 0 b) 1
c) 2 d) 3
1 1
a) b)

i 2 j 3 k i 2 j 3 k

1 4
1 4
c) d) None of these

i j k

______________
Set Q
S e a t
N o .

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
SECTION I
!
2. a) Solve . 3
d y d y
4 s i n 2 x
d x
d x
b) Solve (D2 4D + 4)y = e2x x2. 3

c) Solve y

1 6 y x s i n 3 x
. 3

@ N
@ N

@ J
@ J
show that . 5
k a

k n
b) Solve (3x + 2)2 . 5

@ O @ O
! ! N ! $ O & N " N
@ N
@ N
OR
!
b) Solve 5
@ O @ O

N N O N

@ N @ N

z z
3 x 5 y 0
x y
b) Solve z2(p2 + q2) = x2 + y2. 4



at (1, 2, 1). 3
Set Q
SECTION II

z 1
d z
z 1
is given below : 4
No. of dice : 0 1 2 3 4 5
Showing 4, 5, 6
Frequency : 1 10 24 35 18 8
5.4 fathoms ? 3
Rs. 668 ? 3
E
z d z

N
O
(Critical value of
at 1% L.O.S. for 9 d.f. is 21.666)

_____________________
Set Q
*SLREP56* SLR-EP 56
Seat
No.
Set R
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.


a) f(q, p) = 0 b) f(p, q, z) = 0
2) If , then =

. r
r x i y j z k
a) 0 b) 1
c) 2 d) 3
3) The unit tangent vector to the curve x = t, y = t 2, z = t3 at t = 1 is
1 1
a) b)

i 2 j 3 k i 2 j 3 k

1 4
1 4
c) d) None of these

i j k

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 0
d z
5) The value of

z 3
a) 0 b) E
c) 2 E
d) None
6) If N
and standard
deviation then N
P.T.O.
a) b) c) d)
x
x
x
x

. Then k =
a) b)

"
c) d)
! !
"
a) n p q
b) npq
c) np d) n p

a) n 0 p b) n p 0
c) n p
d) None of these
c) y = (c1 + c2x)ex
d) None of these
12) is equal to

e xx 2 e xx3
N
a) b) c) d)
N
A N


@ O
@ O
N
N
@ N
@ N

a) c1 + c2x b) N
c) d)
N N N

a) pq = 1 b) p = 1 q c) p + q = 0 d) p = q
______________
Set R
S e a t
N o .

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
SECTION I
!
2. a) Solve . 3
d y d y
4 s i n 2 x
d x
d x
b) Solve (D2 4D + 4)y = e2x x2. 3

c) Solve y

1 6 y x s i n 3 x
. 3

@ N
@ N

@ J
@ J
show that . 5
k a

k n
b) Solve (3x + 2)2 . 5

@ O @ O
! ! N ! $ O & N " N
@ N
@ N
OR
!
b) Solve 5
@ O @ O

N N O N

@ N @ N

z z
3 x 5 y 0
x y
b) Solve z2(p2 + q2) = x2 + y2. 4



at (1, 2, 1). 3
Set R
SECTION II

z 1
d z
z 1
is given below : 4
No. of dice : 0 1 2 3 4 5
Showing 4, 5, 6
Frequency : 1 10 24 35 18 8
5.4 fathoms ? 3
Rs. 668 ? 3
E
z d z

N
O
(Critical value of
at 1% L.O.S. for 9 d.f. is 21.666)

_____________________
Set R
*SLREP56* SLR-EP 56
Seat
No.
Set S
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

1) If N
and standard
deviation then N
a) b) c) d)
x
x
x
x
s

. Then k =
a) b)

"
c) d)
! !
"
a) n p q
b) npq
c) np d) n p

a) n 0 p b) n p 0
c) n p
d) None of these
P.T.O.
c) y = (c1 + c2x)ex
d) None of these
7) is equal to

e xx 2 e xx3
N
a) b) c) d)
N
A N

@ O @ O
N N
@ N
@ N

a) c1 + c2x b) N
c) d)
N N N

a) pq = 1 b) p = 1 q c) p + q = 0 d) p = q
10) The equation + x2p2 y2q2 = z2 can be reduced to the form
a) f(q, p) = 0 b) f(p, q, z) = 0
11) If , then =

. r
r x i y j z k
a) 0 b) 1
c) 2 d) 3
1 1
a) b)

i 2 j 3 k i 2 j 3 k

1 4
1 4
c) d) None of these

i j k

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 0
d z
14) The value of

z 3
a) 0 b) E
c) 2 E
d) None
______________
Set S
S e a t
N o .

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
SECTION I
!
2. a) Solve . 3
d y d y
4 s i n 2 x
d x
d x
b) Solve (D2 4D + 4)y = e2x x2. 3

c) Solve y

1 6 y x s i n 3 x
. 3

@ N
@ N

@ J
@ J
show that . 5
k a

k n
b) Solve (3x + 2)2 . 5

@ O @ O
! ! N ! $ O & N " N
@ N
@ N
OR
!
b) Solve 5
@ O @ O

N N O N

@ N @ N

z z
3 x 5 y 0
x y
b) Solve z2(p2 + q2) = x2 + y2. 4



at (1, 2, 1). 3
Set S
SECTION II

z 1
d z
z 1
is given below : 4
No. of dice : 0 1 2 3 4 5
Showing 4, 5, 6
Frequency : 1 10 24 35 18 8
5.4 fathoms ? 3
Rs. 668 ? 3
E
z d z

N
O
(Critical value of
at 1% L.O.S. for 9 d.f. is 21.666)

_____________________
Set S
Seat Set P
No.
S.E. (Mech.) (Part – I) (CGPA) Examination, 2016

MACHINE TOOLS AND PROCESSES

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
N.B. : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes

in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (P/Q/R/S) on Top of Page.


1) Which of the following operations are performed on a lathe machine ?
a) Boring b) Parting-off c) Reaming d) All of the above
2) A flat surface can be produced by a lathe machine, if the cutting tool moves
a) parallel to the axis of rotation of workpiece
b) perpendicular to the axis of rotation of workpiece
c) at an angle of 45°
d) none of the above
3) An auxiliary slide is provided on
a) Capstan lathe b) Turret lathe c) Centre lathe d) Boring machine
4) On drilling machine, which process is known as reaming
a) Enlargement of existing hole
b) Hole made by removal of metal along the hole circumference
c) Smoothly finishing and accurately sizing a drilled hole
d) All of the above
5) What is the motion of cutting tool and its cutting phenomenon in shaper machine ?
a) Cutting tool in shaper machine has a spinning motion and it cuts only in one
direction of rotation
b) Cutting tool in shaper machine has a spinning motion and it cuts in both the
clockwise and anticlockwise direction of rotation
c) Cutting tool in shaper machine has a reciprocating motion and it cuts only in
forward direction of stroke
d) Cutting tool in shaper machine has a reciprocating motion and it cuts only in
backward direction of stroke
P.T.O.
6) i) There is no direct contact between job and tool in un-conventional machining

ii) Material removal rate is faster in conventional machining processes
a) Both statements i and ii are correct
b) Statement i is correct ii is incorrect
c) Statement i is incorrect ii is correct
d) Both statements i & ii are incorrect
7) Dividing head is used for
a) Holding the job b) Indexing the job at required angle
c) Holding the tool d) Rotating the job
8) A 46K5V in this statement K indicates
a) Strength of the wheel b) Grit of wheel
c) Structure of wheel d) Grade of wheel
9) Internal gears can be manufactured by
a) Lathe b) Capstan Lathe
c) Turret lathe d) Broaching Machine
10) Removal of loaded particles from grinding wheel is done by
a) Wheel mounting b) Wheel balancing
c) Wheel dressing d) Wheel glazing
11) When number of columns are placed side by side on a common base for drilling,
the machine is called as
a) Gang drilling machine b) Pillar drilling machine
c) Multiple spindle drilling machine d) Deep hole drilling machine
12) A drill is held in following, while drilling on lathe machine
a) Headstock b) Tailstock
c) Tool post d) Carriage
13) In a lathe machine
a) Job rotates b) Job reciprocates
c) Job is stationary d) None of the above
14) Turret indexing mechanism is associated with
a) Lathe b) Capstan & Turret lathe
c) Shaper d) Slotting machine
______________
Set P
Seat
No.

MECHINE TOOLS AND PROCESSES

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
N.B. : Solve any three questions from each Section.
SECTION – I
2. a) Explain the classification of manufacturing processes, giving examples of each

type. 4
b) Explain in detail setting over the tailstock method for taper turning. 5
3. a) Differentiate clearly between engine lathe and a capstan lathe. 5

b) Explain the construction and working of round column upright drilling machine. 5
4. a) Compare between a Shaper and a Planer. 4

b) Giving advantages and applications explain EDM. 5
5. Write short notes on (any three) : 9

a) Tool holders on capstan and turret lathe
b) Classification of drilling machines
c) Slotting machine
d) Need and significance of unconventional machining
e) Lathe attachments.
SECTION – II
6. a) Explain construction and working of column and knee type milling machine. 5
b) Explain with neat diagram vertical turret lathe. 5
7. a) Explain gear cutting on hobbing machine. 5

b) With respect to grinding wheel, explain grit and structure. 4
Set P
8. a) Explain advantages and limitations of broaching processes. 4
b) Explain floor type of horizontal boring machine. 5
a) Compound Indexing
b) CNC machines
c) Gear burnishing
d) Push vs Pull broaching
e) Centreless grinding machine.
__________________
Set P
Seat Set Q
P
No.


Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.



P.T.O.

d) All of the above
______________
Set Q
Seat
No.


Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
SECTION – I

type. 4



c) Slotting machine
SECTION – II

Set Q
b) CNC machines
c) Gear burnishing
__________________
Set Q
Seat Set R
P
No.


Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.



P.T.O.

d) All of the above
______________
Set R
Seat
No.


Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
SECTION – I

type. 4



c) Slotting machine
SECTION – II

Set R
b) CNC machines
c) Gear burnishing
__________________
Set R
Seat Set S
P
No.


Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.



P.T.O.
d) All of the above
______________
Set S
Seat
No.


Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
SECTION – I

type. 4



c) Slotting machine
SECTION – II

Set S
b) CNC machines
c) Gear burnishing
__________________
Set S
*SLREP58* SLR-EP 58
Seat
No.
Set P
S.E. (Mechanical) (Part I) (CGPA) Examination, 2016
MACHINE DRAWING
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 2.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

2) Only first angle method of projection should be used.
3) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer
Book Page No. 3.
4) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget
to mention, Q.P. Set (P/Q/R/S) on Top of Page.

1. Objective Question (All type questions i.e. I to IV are compulsory) : 14
Type I : Match the Pairs (Each bit one mark each) 3

Column A Column B
A) Journal Bearing p. Vertical Shaft with axial loads
B) Collar Bearing q. Horizontal shafts with radial loads
C) Pivot Bearing r. Horizontal shaft with axial loads
Type II : Correct OR Incorrect (Attempt any two) (Each bit one mark each) : 2
A) Standard sheet size of A2 is having width 420 mm and length 594 mm.
B) The extension line should extend about 3 mm beyond dimension line.
C) The standard taper in the key is 1 in 30 (1 mm per 30 mm length).
Type III : Multiple correct answer type (Each correct bit 2 marks each) 4
A) Which of the following, delivers clearance type of fit ?
p)
88 H7P6 q)
88H7g6 r)
88H7r6 s)
88H7f7
B) Which of the following, delivers transition type of fit ?
p)
44H8p6 q)
44H7g6 r)
44H7r6 s)
44H8f7
P.T.O.
Type IV : Straight Objective Type/Classical MCQ (Each bit one mark each). 5
A) In split muff coupling the number of bolts will always be
p) Odd q) Even r) Four s) Three
B) Included angle for acme thread is
p) 29° q) 55° r) 60° s) None of the above
C) The size across flat in hexagonal nut is
p) 1.5 D q) 0.9 D r) 1.5 D + 3 s) 1.2 D
D) __________ is example of the sunk key.
p) Woodruff key q) GIB Headed key
r) Flat saddle key s) Hollow saddle key
E) is example of ___________ tolerance.

0 . 1 0
0 . 1 0

p) Unilateral q) Bilateral
r) Geometrical s) None of the above
______________
Set P
Seat
No.
MACHINE DRAWING
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 2.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Retain all the constructional details.
3) Assume suitable dimensions whenever necessary.
4) Q. No. 2 is compulsory question.
5) Attempt any three questions out of Q. No. 3 to Q. No. 6
6) Whenever necessary, refer the tolerance table, provided with the question paper.
2. Figure 1.0 showing the assembly drawing of SQUARE TOOL POST. Draw the details of the following
parts also giving dimensions. 23
1) Tool Holder (Sectional Front View and Top View), 2) Base Plate (Sectional Front View and Top View),
3) Clamp (Sectional Front View and Top View), 4) Screw (One View), 5) Stud (One View)
Figure 1 Assembly drawing of SQUARE TOOL POST

Set P
3. Draw conventions (any 3) : 11

1) Worm and worm wheel. 4
2) Spiral spring. 3
3) Serrated shaft and spline shaft. 4
4) Roller bearing. 3
4. Fig. shows two views of an object. Draw the given views and show the following : 11
a) Tolerance grade of
20 hole is H7.
b) Bilateral tolerances for

30 is
15 Minutes
c) Unilateral tolerance for length 60 mm is

50 microns
d) Surface B is perpendicular to surface A within 40 microns
e) Flatness of surface C is 20 microns.
Figure 2
Set P
5. Draw free hand sketches of following two view each (any 3) : 11

1) Single Riveted butt Joint (Double Strap). 4
2) Fast and Loose Pulley. 3
3) Socket and Spigot Pipe Joint. 3
4) Castle Nut and Revolved Section. 4
6. Figure 03 shows F.V, Auxiliary T.V, and incomplete S.V. of the object. Redraw the Aux. T.V, F.V views
and complete the side View from direction X. First angle projection Method. 11
Figure 3
Set P
Set P
____________________
Set P
Set P
*SLREP58* SLR-EP 58
Seat
No.
Set Q
MACHINE DRAWING
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 2.00 p.m.

Book Page No. 3.

Type I : Straight Objective Type/Classical MCQ (Each bit one mark each). 5
p) 1.5 D q) 0.9 D r) 1.5 D + 3 s) 1.2 D

0 . 1 0
0 . 1 0

P.T.O.
Type II : Match the Pairs (Each bit one mark each) 3

Column A Column B
Type III : Correct OR Incorrect (Attempt any two) (Each bit one mark each) : 2
Type IV : Multiple correct answer type (Each correct bit 2 marks each) 4
p)
88 H7P6 q)
88H7g6 r)
88H7r6 s)
88H7f7
p)
44H8p6 q)
44H7g6 r)
44H7r6 s)
44H8f7
______________
Set Q
Seat
No.
MACHINE DRAWING
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 2.00 p.m.

Set Q

2) Spiral spring. 3
20 hole is H7.

30 is
15 Minutes

50 microns
Figure 2
Set Q

Figure 3
Set Q
Set Q
____________________
Set Q
Set Q
*SLREP58* SLR-EP 58
Seat
No.
Set R
MACHINE DRAWING
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 2.00 p.m.

Book Page No. 3.

Type I : Correct OR Incorrect (Attempt any two) (Each bit one mark each) : 2
Type II : Multiple correct answer type (Each correct bit 2 marks each) 4
p)
88 H7P6 q)
88H7g6 r)
88H7r6 s)
88H7f7
p)
44H8p6 q)
44H7g6 r)
44H7r6 s)
44H8f7
Type III : Straight Objective Type/Classical MCQ (Each bit one mark each). 5
p) 1.5 D q) 0.9 D r) 1.5 D + 3 s) 1.2 D
P.T.O.


0 . 1 0
0 . 1 0

Type IV : Match the Pairs (Each bit one mark each) 3

Column A Column B
______________
Set R
Seat
No.
MACHINE DRAWING
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 2.00 p.m.

Set R

2) Spiral spring. 3
20 hole is H7.

30 is
15 Minutes

50 microns
Figure 2
Set R

Figure 3
Set R
Set R
____________________
Set R
Set R
*SLREP58* SLR-EP 58
Seat
No.
Set S
MACHINE DRAWING
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 2.00 p.m.

Book Page No. 3.

Type I : Multiple correct answer type (Each correct bit 2 marks each) 4
p)
88 H7P6 q)
88H7g6 r)
88H7r6 s)
88H7f7
p)
44H8p6 q)
44H7g6 r)
44H7r6 s)
44H8f7
Type II : Straight Objective Type/Classical MCQ (Each bit one mark each). 5
p) 1.5 D q) 0.9 D r) 1.5 D + 3 s) 1.2 D

0 . 1 0
0 . 1 0

P.T.O.
Type III : Match the Pairs (Each bit one mark each) 3
Column A Column B
Type IV : Correct OR Incorrect (Attempt any two) (Each bit one mark each) : 2
______________
Set S
Seat
No.
MACHINE DRAWING
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 2.00 p.m.

Set S

2) Spiral spring. 3
20 hole is H7.

30 is
15 Minutes

50 microns
Figure 2
Set S

Figure 3
Set S
Set S
____________________
Set S
Set S
*SLREP59* SLR-EP 59
Seat
No. Set P
S.E. (Mech.) (Part II) (CGPA) Examination, 2016
FLUID MECHANICS
Day and Date : Monday, 21-11-2016 Max. Marks : 70
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30
one mark.
2) Answer any two questions from each Section.
3) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3
only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (P/Q/R/S) on Top
of Page.
4) Assume suitable data if necessary and state it clearly.
5) Use of Non-programmable calculator is allowed.


1) A floating body is in stable equilibrium when
a) The metacentric height is zero
b) Its centre of gravity is below the centre of buoyancy
c) The metacentre is above its centre of gravity
d) The metacentre is below its centre of gravity
2) The pressure ___________ as the depth of the liquid increases.
a) Increases b) Decreases
c) Remains unchanged d) None of the above
3) Continuity equation deals with the law of conservation of
a) Mass b) Momentum c) Energy d) All of these
4) In a steady flow the velocity
a) Does not change from place to place
b) At a given point does not change with time
c) May change its direction but the magnitude remains unchanged
d) None of the above
5) In which of the following measuring devices Bernoullis equation is used ?
a) Venturimeter b) Orifice meter
c) Pitot tube d) All of the above
P.T.O.
6) The piezometric head is the summation of
a) Velocity head and pressure head b) Pressure head and elevation head
c) Velocity head and elevation head d) None of the above
7) The flow is said to be laminar when
a) The fluid particles move in a zig-zag way
b) The Reynolds number is high
c) The fluid particles move in a layers parallel to the boundary
d) None of these
8) Loss of head at exit of a pipe is given as
a) V2/2g b) V3/2g c) V/2g d) None of these
9) At what value of head lost due to friction in pipe, will the power transmitted
through the pipe be maximum ?
a) 1/2 of the total supply head b) 1/3rd of the total supply head
th
c) 1/4 of the total supply head d) 1/8th of the total supply head
10) Chezys formula is given as
a) V
b) c)
d)
C m i V C m i
V C m i
V C m i
!
11) How can the separation of boundary prevented ?

a) Providing the bypass in the slotted wing
b) Providing small divergence in a diffuser
c) Suction of the slow moving fluid by a suction slot
d) All of these
12) Momentum thickness is given by which of the following relations ?

a) b)
K K K

@ O @ O

7 7 7

c) d) None of the above

K K
@ O

7 7

13) The viscous drag is primarily due to

a) Weight component in the direction of flow
b) Shear stresses generated due to viscous action
c) Separation of boundary layer
d) None of these
14) The drag and lift forces experienced by an object placed in a fluid stream are
due to
a) Pressure and gravity b) Pressure and turbulence
c) Pressure and viscosity d) Viscosity and turbulence
______________
Set P
Seat
No.
FLUID MECHANICS
Day and Date : Monday, 21-11-2016 Marks : 56
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Answer any two questions from each Section.
SECTION I
2. a) Define the equation for continuity. Obtain an expression for continuity equation
for three dimensional flow in Cartesian co-ordinates. 5
b) A circular plate 1.5 m diameter is immersed in water, its greatest and least
depth below free surface being 2 m and 0.75 m respectively. Find
i) The total pressure on one face of the plate.
ii) Position of centre of pressure. 5
c) With neat sketch explain the conditions of the equilibrium for floating bodies. 4
3. a) If for a 2-D potential flow the velocity potential is given by

= X(2y 1)
determine the velocity at the point P(4, 5). Determine also the value of stream
function at the point P.

5
b) What is Venturimeter ? Derive an expression for the discharge through a
Venturimeter. 5
c) A pipe through which water is flowing, is having diameter 40 cm and 20 cm at
the cross section 1 and 2 respectively. The velocity of water at a section 1 is
5.0 m/sec. Find the velocity head at section 1 and 2 and also rate of
discharge. 4
4. a) The head of water over an orifice of diameter 100 mm is 10 m. The water

coming out from orifice is collected in a circular tank of diameter 1.5 m. The
rise of water level in this tank is 1 in 25 sec. Also the co-ordinates of a point
on the jet measured from venacontracta are 4.3 m horizontal and 0.5 m
vertical. Find the co-efficients Cd, Cv and Cc. 5
b) Derive an expression for the velocity distribution for laminar flow in a circular
pipe and show that velocity at centre of pipe is twice the average velocity. 5
c) What are different types of fluid flow ? Explain with an example. 4
Set P
SECTION II
5. a) Explain the various types of losses for fluid flow through pipe in detail. 5
b) Determine the difference in elevation between water surfaces in two tanks
which are connected by horizontal pipe of diameter of 300 mm and length
400 m. The rate of flow of water through the pipe is 300 lit/s. Consider all
the losses. Take coefficient of friction (f) = 0.008. 5
c) What do you mean by equivalent pipe ? Obtain an expression of Dupuits
equation. 4
6. a) The resisting force (R) of supersonic plane during the flight can be considered
as dependent upon the length of aircraft (L), velocity (V), dynamic viscosity ( ),
air density ( ) and bulk modulus of air (K). Express the functional relationship

between these variables and resisting force. 5

b) Find the displacement thickness, the momentum thickness and energy
thickness for the velocity of distribution in the boundary layer given by
. 5
K O O

7

c) A pipe of diameter 300 mm and length 3500 m is used for transmission of

power by water. The total head at inlet of pipe is 500 m. Find maximum power
available at outlet of the pipe. Take coefficient of friction (f) = 0.006. 4
7. a) Derive an expression for drag and lift of stationary body kept in moving fluid. 5
b) A truck having a projected area of 6.5 square metres travelling as 70 km/hour
has a total resistance of 2000 N. Of this 20 per cent is due to rolling friction and
10 per cent is due to surface friction. The rest is due to form drag. Calculate the
co-efficient of form drag. Take density of air = 1.25 kg/m3. 5
c) Write a short note on applications of CFD. 4
_____________________
Set P
*SLREP59* SLR-EP 59
Seat
No. Set Q
FLUID MECHANICS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
one mark.
of Page.


c) 1/4th of the total supply head d) 1/8th of the total supply head
a) V
b)
c) d)C m i V C m i
V C m i
V C m i
!

d) All of these

a) b)
K K K

@ O @ O

7 7 7


K K
@ O

P.T.O.
7 7

d) None of these
due to
d) None of these
______________
Set Q
Seat
No.
FLUID MECHANICS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
SECTION I

= X(2y 1)

5
Venturimeter. 5
discharge. 4

Set Q
SECTION II
equation. 4


. 5
K O O

7


_____________________
Set Q
*SLREP59* SLR-EP 59
Seat
No. Set R
FLUID MECHANICS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
one mark.
of Page.


d) None of these
a) V2/2g b) V3/2g
c) V/2g d) None of these
P.T.O.
a) V C m i
b) V C m i
c) V C m i
d) V C m i
!

d) All of these

a) b)
K K K

@ O @ O

7 7 7


K K
@ O

7 7


d) None of these
due to
______________
Set R
Seat
No.
FLUID MECHANICS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
SECTION I

= X(2y 1)

5
Venturimeter. 5
discharge. 4

Set R
SECTION II
equation. 4


. 5
K O O

7


_____________________
Set R
*SLREP59* SLR-EP 59
Seat
No. Set S
FLUID MECHANICS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
one mark.
of Page.


a) V
b)
c) d)C m i V C m i
V C m i
V C m i
!

d) All of these

a) b)
K K K

@ O @ O

7 7 7


K K
@ O

7 7


d) None of these
P.T.O.
due to
d) None of these
______________
Set S
Seat
No.
FLUID MECHANICS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
SECTION I

= X(2y 1)

5
Venturimeter. 5
discharge. 4

Set S
SECTION II
equation. 4


. 5
K O O

7


_____________________
Set S
*SLREP60* SLR-EP 60
Seat
No. Set P
S.E. (Mechanical Engineering) Part II (CGPA)
Examination, 2016
THEORY OF MACHINES I
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book
Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention,
Q.P. Set (P/Q/R/S) on Top of Page.

1. Choose the correct answers : (14×1=14)
1) In a mechanism which one is true ?

a) All links fixed b) One link is fixed
c) All links free d) None of above
2) Oldhams coupling is used to connect two shafts which are
a) Intersecting b) Parallel
c) Perpendicular d) Co-axial
3) The magnitude of linear velocity of a point B on a link AB relative to point A is
a) . A B
b)

) *
c) . A B
d)
. A B
where
= angular velocity of link AB.
4) When a slider moves on a fixed link having curved surface, its instantaneous center lies
a) At the pin joint b) At the center of curvature
c) At the center of circle d) At infinity
5) The driving and driven shaft connected by a Hookes joint will have equal speeds if
a) c o s s i n
b) s i n t a n
c) t a n c o s
d) c o t c o t
where,
= angle turned by driving shaft,
= angle between driving and driven shaft
6) A Hart mechanism consist of
a) 4 links b) 6 links
c) 8 links d) 10 links
7) Crank effort is the net force applied at the crankpin to the crank which gives the required turning moment on
the crankshaft
a) Parallel b) Perpendicular
c) At 45° d) At 135°
P.T.O.
8) The reference point on the follower to lay the cam profile is known as the
a) Cam centre b) Pitch point
c) Trace point d) Prime point
9) The maximum distance travelled by the follower from the lowest point to the highest point during one
rotation of the cam is known as
a) Lift b) Dwell
c) Descent d) Ascent
10) The maximum efficiency of a screw jack is given by
1 s i n 1 s i n
a)
b)
1 s i n 1 s i n
1 s i n 1 s i n
c)
d)
1 c o s 1 c o s
11) The frictional torque transmitted by a cone clutch is same as that of

a) Flat pivot bearing b) Flat collar bearing
c) Conical pivot bearing d) Trapezoidal pivot bearing
12) In a self-locking brake, the force required to apply the brake is
a) Minimum
b) Zero
c) Maximum
d) Equal to load applied at the end of lever
13) A hunting governor is
a) More stable b) Less sensitive
c) More sensitive d) None of these
14) The force resisting the outward movement of balls is known as ___________ of the governor.
a) Effort b) Centripetal force
c) Controlling force d) Inertia force
______________
Set P
Seat
No.
S.E. (Mechanical Engineering) Part II (CGPA) Examination, 2016
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

4) Draw neat sketches wherever necessary.
SECTION I
2. a) Define Kinematic Pair. Explain its classification. 6
b) The crank and connecting rod of a reciprocating engine are 150 mm and 600 mm respectively. The crank
makes an angle of 50° with the inner dead center and revolves at a uniform speed of 300 r.p.m. Find, by
Kleins construction, 1. Velocity and acceleration of the piston, 2. Velocity and acceleration of the mid-point D
of the connecting rod. 8
3. a) In the toggle mechanism shown in Fig. III (a), the slider D is constrained to move on a horizontal path. The
crank OA is rotating in the counter-clockwise direction at a speed of 180 r.p.m. increasing at the rate of
50 rad/s2. The dimensions of the various links are as follows :
OA = 180 mm; CB = 240 mm; AB = 360 mm; and BD = 540 mm.
For the given configuration, find : 1) Velocity of slider D and angular velocity of BD, and 2) Acceleration of
slider D and angular acceleration of BD. 10
Fig. III (a)

b) Explain with neat sketch Grasshopper mechanism. 4
4. a) Two shafts are connected by a universal joint. The driving shaft rotates at a uniform speed of 1400 r.p.m.
Determine the greatest permissible angle between the shaft axes so that the total fluctuation of speed does
not exceed 120 r.p.m.
Also calculate the maximum and minimum speeds of the driven shaft. 6
b) A single cylinder vertical engine has a bore of 30 cm and a stroke of 40 cm. The connecting rod is 100 cm
long. The mass of the reciprocating parts is 140 kg. On the expansion stroke with the crank at 30° from top
dead center the gas pressure is 0.7 MPa. If the engine runs at 250 r.p.m., determine :
i) Net force acting on the piston
ii) Resultant load on the gudgeon pin
iii) Thrust on the cylinder walls. 8
Set P
SECTION II
5. a) Draw the profile of the cam when the roller follower moves with cycloidal motion as given below :
a) Outstroke with maximum displacement of 44 mm during 180° of cam rotation.
b) Return stroke for the next 150° of cam rotation.
c) Dwell for the remaining 30° of cam rotation.
The minimum radius of the cam is 20 mm and the diameter of the roller is 10 mm. The axis of the roller
follower passes through the cam shaft axis. 8
b) Derive the expression for torque transmitted by conical pivot bearing considering uniform pressure and
uniform wear. 6
6. a) A differential band brake, as shown in Fig. VI(a), has an angle of contact of 240°. The band has a compressed
woven lining and bears against a cast iron drum of 350 mm diameter. The brake is to sustain a torque of
350 N-m and the coefficient of friction between the band and the drum is 0.3. Find :
1) The necessary force (P) for the clockwise and anticlockwise rotation of the drum and
2) The value of OA for the brake to be self locking, when the drum rotates clockwise. 6
b) A single plate clutch is required to transmit 8 KW at 1000 r.p.m. The axial pressure is limited to 70 KPa. The
mean radius of the plate is 4.5 times the radial width of the friction surface. If both the sides of the plate are
effective and the coefficient of friction is 0.25, find the
i) Inner and outer radii of the plate and the mean radius. ii)Width of the friction lining. 8
7. a) In a spring loaded Hartnell governor, the lengths of the horizontal and vertical arms of the bell crank lever
are 40 mm and 80 mm respectively. The mass of each ball is 1.2 kg. The extreme radii of rotations of the balls
are 70 mm and 105 mm. The distance of fulcrum of each bell crank lever is 75 mm from the governor axis.
The minimum equilibrium speed is 420 rpm and the maximum equilibrium speed is 4% higher than this.
Neglecting obliquity of the arms, determine the
i) Spring stiffness
ii) Initial compression
iii) Equilibrium speed corresponding to radius of rotation of 95 mm. 8
b) Define the following terms related to cam
i) Base circle ii) Pitch point
iii) Pitch curve iv) Prime circle
v) Pressure angle vi) Lift. 6
_____________________
Set P
*SLREP60* SLR-EP 60
Seat
No. Set Q
Examination, 2016
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


a) Lift b) Dwell
1 s i n 1 s i n
a)
b)
1 s i n 1 s i n
1 s i n 1 s i n
c)
d)
1 c o s 1 c o s

a) Minimum
b) Zero
c) Maximum
P.T.O.
a) . A B
b)

) *
c) . A B
d)
. A B
where
a) c o s s i n
b) s i n t a n
c) t a n c o s
d) c o t c o t
where,
the crankshaft
c) At 45° d) At 135°
______________
Set Q
Seat
No.
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
Fig. III (a)

Set Q
SECTION II
uniform wear. 6
i) Spring stiffness
_____________________
Set Q
*SLREP60* SLR-EP 60
Seat
No. Set R
Examination, 2016
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


a) c o s s i n
b) s i n t a n
c) t a n c o s
d) c o t c o t
where,
the crankshaft
c) At 45° d) At 135°
a) Lift b) Dwell
1 s i n 1 s i n
a)
b)
1 s i n 1 s i n
1 s i n 1 s i n
c)
d)
1 c o s 1 c o s
P.T.O.
a) Minimum
b) Zero
c) Maximum

a) . A B
b)

) *
c) . A B
d)
. A B
where
______________
Set R
Seat
No.
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
Fig. III (a)

Set R
SECTION II
uniform wear. 6
i) Spring stiffness
_____________________
Set R
*SLREP60* SLR-EP 60
Seat
No. Set S
Examination, 2016
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

1 s i n 1 s i n
a)
b)
1 s i n 1 s i n
1 s i n 1 s i n
c)
d)
1 c o s 1 c o s

a) Minimum
b) Zero
c) Maximum

P.T.O.
a) . A B
b)

) *
c) . A B
d)
. A B
where
a) c o s s i n
b) s i n t a n
c) t a n c o s
d) c o t c o t
where,
the crankshaft
c) At 45° d) At 135°
a) Lift b) Dwell
______________
Set S
Seat
No.
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
Fig. III (a)

Set S
SECTION II
uniform wear. 6
i) Spring stiffness
_____________________
Set S
Seat
No.
Set P
S.E. (Mechanical Engineering) (Part – II) (CGPA) Examination, 2016

MANUFACTURING PROCESSES
Day and Date : Wednesday, 23-11-2016 Max. Marks : 70

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first

30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3.

1. A) Choose the correct answer (1 mark each) : (1×8=8)

1) Sand which forms the surface of mould is
a) Backing sand b) Facing sand
c) Green sand d) All of the above
2) Feeder (riser) should solidify
a) After solidification of casting
b) Along with casting
c) Before casting
d) Any time during solidification of casting
3) The choke area is generally provided at
a) Gate b) Pouring cup
c) Feeder d) Sprue base
4) Plastic chair is manufactured by
a) Blow moulding b) Injection moulding
c) Compression moulding d) Extrusion moulding
5) Spanner is manufactured by
a) Rolling b) Open die forging
c) Direct extrusion d) Closed die forging
P.T.O.
6) Which of the following joining process is used in case of Plumbing joint ?

a) Arc welding b) Soldering
c) Gas welding d) TIG welding
7) Which of the following is cold extrusion process ?
a) Direct b) Impact
c) Indirect d) None of the above
8) Which of the welding process involves fusion of electrode ?
a) Resistance welding b) GMAW
c) TIG d) None of the above
B) Choose the correct answer (2 marks each) : (2×3=6)

1) Directional solidification can be achieved by
a) Using additional risers b) Use of core print
c) Using chaplet d) Use of exothermic compound
2) Following joining processes does not involve fusion of base metal
a) Resistance welding b) Brazing
c) Soldering d) TIG welding
3) i) Skeleton pattern is used in centrifugal casting.
ii) True centrifugal casting does not use core
a) Statement (i) is correct, (ii) is incorrect
b) Statement (ii) is correct, (i) is incorrect
c) Both statements (i) and (ii) are correct
d) Both statements (i) and (ii) are incorrect
______________
Set P
-3-
Seat
No.

Day and Date : Wednesday, 23-11-2016 Marks : 56

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Attempt any two questions from each Section.

2) Neat sketches must be drawn wherever necessary.
3) Assume additional suitable data wherever necessary and
mention it clearly.
SECTION – I
2. a) Enlist various types of patterns and explain application of match plated cope
and drag pattern. 5
b) Explain steps in casting process with flow chart. 4
c) Explain oil sand process of core making. What are its advantages and
limitations ? 5
3. a) Explain the advantages of green sand molding process and draw neat sketch
of section of green sand mold ready for pouring. 6
b) Explain the advantages and limitations of centrifugal casting process. 4
c) Explain the process of cold chamber pressure die casting with neat sketch. 4
4. a) Explain the process of compression molding of plastics with neat sketch.

What are its advantages ? 6
b) Enlist the charge materials added to cupolas. What is flux ? 4
c) Explain the areas of application of computers in foundry. 4
Set P
SECTION – II
5. a) Enlist any four components/products produced by rolling and forging

respectively. 4
b) Explain the process of cold rolling of sheet with flow chart. 5
c) Explain basic hand forging operations and their applications. 5
6. a) Explain the process of impact extrusion with its advantages, limitations and
applications. 5
b) Explain the process of multi pass wire drawing with neat sketch. 5
c) Compare between tube extrusion and tube drawing. 4
7. a) Explain the process of MMAW welding pointing out its advantages, limitations
and applications. 5
b) Explain the process of resistance welding. What are its types ? Explain its
application. 5
c) Compare between gas welding and arc welding. 4
_____________________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set Q


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


1. A) Choose the correct answer (2 marks each) : (2×3=6)

B) Choose the correct answer (1 mark each) : (1×8=8)

P.T.O.

a) Direct b) Impact
c) Before casting
______________
Set Q
-3-
Seat
No.


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

mention it clearly.
SECTION – I
and drag pattern. 5
limitations ? 5

Set Q
SECTION – II

respectively. 4
applications. 5
and applications. 5
application. 5
_____________________
Set Q
Seat
No.
Set R


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


1. A) Choose the correct answer (1 mark each) : (1×8=8)

c) Before casting
P.T.O.

a) Direct b) Impact
B) Choose the correct answer (2 marks each) : (2×3=6)

______________
Set R
-3-
Seat
No.


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

mention it clearly.
SECTION – I
and drag pattern. 5
limitations ? 5

Set R
SECTION – II

respectively. 4
applications. 5
and applications. 5
application. 5
_____________________
Set R
Seat
No.
Set S


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


1. A) Choose the correct answer (2 marks each) : (2×3=6)

B) Choose the correct answer (1 mark each) : (1×8=8)

P.T.O.

c) Before casting
a) Direct b) Impact
______________
Set S
-3-
Seat
No.


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

mention it clearly.
SECTION – I
and drag pattern. 5
limitations ? 5

Set S
SECTION – II

respectively. 4
applications. 5
and applications. 5
application. 5
_____________________
Set S
*SLREP62* SLR-EP 62
Seat Set P
No.
S.E. (Mechanical) (Part II) Examination, 2016

NUMERICAL METHODS (CGPA)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
N.B. : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in

1. Choose the correct answer : 14

1) Using Bisection method a second approximation to the root of equation x3
4x 9 = 0
between 2 and 3 is
a) 2.25 b) 2.5 c) 2.75 d) 2.625
2) The order of convergence of Newtons Raphson method for finding root of algebraic and
Transcendental equation f(x) = 0 is
a) 0.5 b) 1.5 c) 2 d) 2.5
3) In solving simultaneous linear system AX = B by Gauss-Jordan method, the coefficient
matrix A reduces to
a) Upper triangular matrix b) Lower triangular matrix
c) Diagonal matrix d) Singular matrix
4) The value of coefficient of correlation r lies between
a) 2 and 1 b) 1 and 1 c) 1 and 2 d) 2 and 3
x3,
5) If f(x) = whose arguments are 2 and 3, then the value of first divided difference
between the argument is
a) 5 b) 1 c) 5 d) 7
6) Which of the following method is used to determine numerically largest eigen value and
corresponding eigen vector of given matrix ?
a) Gauss-Seidal method b) Lagranges method
c) Power method d) Eulers method
7) To fit the straight line y = ax + b to N observations, the normal equations are
a) y N x b and xy a x b x
b) y a x bN and xy a x b x
c) y a x b x and xy a x bN
d) none of these
P.T.O.
8) f(x) is given by
x : 0 0.5 1
f(x) : 1 0.8 0.5

Then using Trapezoidal rule, the value of f(x) dx is

a) 0.775 b) 0.7766 c) 0.7066 d) 0.7703

9) When f(x) is an even function, by Gauss 2-point quadrature formula value of integration

I= f(x) dx is

1 1 1
a) 2 f b) f f
3 3 3
1
c) 2 f d) All a, b and c are correct
3
10) The finite difference approximation to the second order derivative y at x = xi is
1 1 1 1
a) (y y ) b) (y y ) c) (y 2y y ) d) (y y )
2h 2h h h
E E
E E E E E
E E
dy
11) In solving a set of simultaneous ordinary differential equations f (x, y, z) and
dx
dz
(x, y, z) by Picards method, the nth approximations for y and z is
dx
a) y y f(x, y
n 0 n 1
,z n 1
) dx, z z (x, y
n 0 n 1
,zn 1
)dx
b) y y f(x, y
n 0 n 1
) dx, z z (x, y
n 0 n 1
)dx
c) y y f(x, y
n n 1 n 1
) dx, z z n n 1
(x, y n 1
)dx
d) None of these
12) In solving Laplace equation Uxx + Uyy = 0 the formula used
1
Uij = [Ui 1 j + 1 + Ui + 1 j 1 + Ui + 1 j + 1 + Ui 1 j 1] is called
4
a) Standard five point formula b) Diagonal five point formula
c) Crank-Nicholson formula d) Bendre-Schmidts formula
13) For the partial differential equation AUxx + BUxy + CUyy + DUx + EUy + FU = G, where
A, B, C, D, E, F and G are any functions of x and y or constant, then the partial
differential equation is elliptic if
a) B2 4 AC > 0 b) B2 4AC = 0 c) B2 4AC < 0 d) None of these
14) Following is/are elliptic equation
a) Laplace equation b) Poissons equation
c) Both a) and b) d) None of these
______________
Set P
Seat
No.


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
N.B. : 1) Attempt any three questions from each Section.

SECTION I
2. Attempt the following.
a) Find by Newtons Raphson method a positive real root of the equation 2x3 3x 6 = 0
correct to five places of decimals. 3
b) Find a positive real root of the equation xex 3 = 0 by False position method correct to
three places of decimals. 3
c) Perform two iterations of Newtons Raphson method to solve system of non-linear

equations of x2 + y 11 = 0 and x + y2 7 = 0 with initial approximation x0 = 3.5, y0 = 1.5. 4
2 1 0
1 2 1
3. a) Find the largest eigen value and the corresponding eigen vector of the matrix
0 1 2
using Power method. Take [1 0 0]T as initial eigen vector. (Perform six iterations) 5
b) Solve any one from the following : 4

i) Solve the system of equations x + 2y + z = 3, 2x + 3y + 3z = 10, 3x y + 2z = 13 by
Gauss Elimination method.
ii) Solve the system of equations 27x + 6y z = 85, x + y + 54z = 110, 6x + 15y + 2z = 72
correct to three decimal places by Gauss Seidal method. (Take four iterations)
4. Solve the following :

a) Find the cubical function f(x) from the following data by Newtons Divided difference formula. 3
x : 1 0 2 4 5
f(x) : 0 1 9 65 126
Set P
b) Find the coefficient of correlation for the following data. 3

x : 10 14 18 22 26 30
y : 18 12 24 6 30 36
c) Use Lagranges interpolation formula to find y(2) from the data. 3
x : 0 1 3 4
y : 12 0 6 12
a) Fit a second degree parabola y = ax2 + bx + c for the following data : 5
x : 0 1 2 3 4
y : 1 5 10 22 38
b) Derive Newtons Raphson iterative formula to find N where N is positive number.
Hence use it to find value of 12 correct to four decimal places. 4
SECTION II
6. Attempt any three from the following. (3×3=9)

a) A curve is drawn to pass through the points given by the following table :
x : 1.0 1.5 2.0 2.5 3.0 3.5 4.0
y : 2.0 2.4 2.7 2.8 3.0 2.6 2.1
Using Weddles rule, estimate the area bounded by the curve, the x-axis and the lines
x = 1 and x = 4.
b) Using Simpsons rule, evaluate

dx dy
1 x y
taking h = k = 0.5.

c) Evaluate the integral e cos dx by using three point Gaussian quadrature formula.

N
"
d) Evaluate e dx by trapezoidal rule given that e = 2.72, e2 = 7.39, e3 = 20.09, e4 = 54.6

N
and compare it with the actual value.

Set P
7. a) Using the finite difference method solve the equation y x y with the boundary conditions
y(0) = y(1) = 0. 5
dx dy t
b) If x y t, xt , at t = 0, x = 0, y = 1, then find the values of x and y at t = 0.2
dt dt 2
by using Runge-Kutta method [Take h = 0.2]. 4
8. a) Using Schmidts method find the values of u(x, t) satisfying the equation uxx = ut and
boundary conditions u(0, t) = 0 = u(5, t) and u(x, 0) = x2(25 x2) taking h = 1 upto
3 seconds. 4
b) Solve by Crank-Nicholson method the equation uxx = ut subject to u(x, 0) = 0, u(0, t) = 0

and u(1, t) = t for two time steps [Take h = 0.5]. 5
9. a) Solve the equation uxx + uyy = 0 for the square mesh with the boundary values
given below. 6
50 100 100 50
u u
0 0

u u
0 0
! "
0 0
0 0
5 . 2
b) Apply Rombergs method to evaluate log dx , given that

4
x : 4 4.2 4.4 4.6 4.8 5.0 5.2
logx : 1.3863 1.4351 1.4816 1.526 1.5686 1.6094 1.6486
(Taking h = 0.4 and 0.2) 4
_____________________
Set P
Set P
*SLREP62* SLR-EP 62
Seat Set Q
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


1) f(x) is given by
x : 0 0.5 1
f(x) : 1 0.8 0.5


a) 0.775 b) 0.7766 c) 0.7066 d) 0.7703


I= f(x) dx is

1 1 1
a) 2 f b) f f
3 3 3
1
3
1 1
a) (y y ) b) 2h (y y )
2h
E E
E E
1 1
c) (y 2y y ) d) (y y )
h h
E E E E E
P.T.O.
dy
dx
dz
dx
a) y y f(x, y , z ) dx, z z (x, y , z )dx
n 0 n 1 n 1 n 0 n 1 n 1
b) y y f(x, y
n 0 n 1
) dx, z z (x, y
n 0 n 1
)dx
c) y y f(x, y
n n 1 n 1
) dx, z z n n 1
(x, y n 1
)dx
d) None of these
1
4
8) Using Bisection method a second approximation to the root of equation x3 4x 9 = 0
between 2 and 3 is
a) 2.25 b) 2.5 c) 2.75 d) 2.625
a) 0.5 b) 1.5 c) 2 d) 2.5
matrix A reduces to
12) If f(x) = x3,
whose arguments are 2 and 3, then the value of first divided difference
a) 5 b) 1 c) 5 d) 7
d) none of these
Set Q
______________
Seat
No.


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I

2 1 0
1 2 1
0 1 2


x : 1 0 2 4 5
f(x) : 0 1 9 65 126
Set Q

x : 10 14 18 22 26 30
y : 18 12 24 6 30 36
x : 0 1 3 4
y : 12 0 6 12
x : 0 1 2 3 4
y : 1 5 10 22 38
SECTION II

x : 1.0 1.5 2.0 2.5 3.0 3.5 4.0
y : 2.0 2.4 2.7 2.8 3.0 2.6 2.1
x = 1 and x = 4.

dx dy
1 x y
taking h = k = 0.5.


N
"

N

Set Q
y(0) = y(1) = 0. 5
dx dy t
dt dt 2
3 seconds. 4

given below. 6
50 100 100 50
u u
0 0

u u
0 0
! "
0 0
0 0
5 . 2

4
x : 4 4.2 4.4 4.6 4.8 5.0 5.2
logx : 1.3863 1.4351 1.4816 1.526 1.5686 1.6094 1.6486
(Taking h = 0.4 and 0.2) 4
_____________________
Set Q
Set Q
*SLREP62* SLR-EP 62
Seat Set R
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


1) If f(x) = x3, whose arguments are 2 and 3, then the value of first divided difference
a) 5 b) 1 c) 5 d) 7
d) none of these
4) f(x) is given by
x : 0 0.5 1
f(x) : 1 0.8 0.5


a) 0.775 b) 0.7766
c) 0.7066 d) 0.7703
P.T.O.

I= f(x) dx is

1 1 1
a) 2 f b) f f
3 3 3
1
3

1 1 1 1
a) (y y ) b) 2h (y y ) c) (y 2y y ) d) (y y )
2h h h
E E
E E E E E
E E
dy
dx
dz
dx
a) y y f(x, y , z ) dx, z z (x, y , z )dx
n 0 n 1 n 1 n 0 n 1 n 1
b) y y f(x, y
n 0 n 1
) dx, z z (x, y
n 0 n 1
)dx
c) y y f(x, y
n n 1 n 1
) dx, z z n n 1
(x, y n 1
)dx
d) None of these
1
4
between 2 and 3 is
a) 2.25 b) 2.5 c) 2.75 d) 2.625
a) 0.5 b) 1.5 c) 2 d) 2.5
matrix A reduces to
a) 2 and 1 b) 1 and 1 c) 1 and 2 d) 2 and 3 Set R
______________
Seat
No.


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I

2 1 0
1 2 1
0 1 2


x : 1 0 2 4 5
f(x) : 0 1 9 65 126
Set R

x : 10 14 18 22 26 30
y : 18 12 24 6 30 36
x : 0 1 3 4
y : 12 0 6 12
x : 0 1 2 3 4
y : 1 5 10 22 38
SECTION II

x : 1.0 1.5 2.0 2.5 3.0 3.5 4.0
y : 2.0 2.4 2.7 2.8 3.0 2.6 2.1
x = 1 and x = 4.

dx dy
1 x y
taking h = k = 0.5.


N
"

N

Set R
y(0) = y(1) = 0. 5
dx dy t
dt dt 2
3 seconds. 4

given below. 6
50 100 100 50
u u
0 0

u u
0 0
! "
0 0
0 0
5 . 2

4
x : 4 4.2 4.4 4.6 4.8 5.0 5.2
logx : 1.3863 1.4351 1.4816 1.526 1.5686 1.6094 1.6486
(Taking h = 0.4 and 0.2) 4
_____________________
Set R
Set R
*SLREP62* SLR-EP 62
Seat Set S
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


1 1
a) (y y ) b) (y y )
2h 2h
E E
E E
1 1
c) (y 2y y ) d) (y y )
h h
E E E E E
dy
dx
dz
dx
a) y y f(x, y
n 0 n 1
,z n 1
) dx, z z (x, y
n 0 n 1
,zn 1
)dx
b) y y f(x, y
n 0 n 1
) dx, z z (x, y
n 0 n 1
)dx
c) y y f(x, y
n n 1 n 1
) dx, z z n n 1
(x, y n 1
)dx
d) None of these
1
4
P.T.O.

between 2 and 3 is
a) 2.25 b) 2.5 c) 2.75 d) 2.625
a) 0.5 b) 1.5 c) 2 d) 2.5
matrix A reduces to
10) If f(x) = x3,
whose arguments are 2 and 3, then the value of first divided difference
a) 5 b) 1 c) 5 d) 7
d) none of these
13) f(x) is given by
x : 0 0.5 1
f(x) : 1 0.8 0.5


a) 0.775 b) 0.7766 c) 0.7066 d) 0.7703


I= f(x) dx is

1 1 1
a) 2 f b) f f
3 3 3
1
3
______________
Set S
Seat
No.


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I

2 1 0
1 2 1
0 1 2


x : 1 0 2 4 5
f(x) : 0 1 9 65 126
Set S

x : 10 14 18 22 26 30
y : 18 12 24 6 30 36
x : 0 1 3 4
y : 12 0 6 12
x : 0 1 2 3 4
y : 1 5 10 22 38
SECTION II

x : 1.0 1.5 2.0 2.5 3.0 3.5 4.0
y : 2.0 2.4 2.7 2.8 3.0 2.6 2.1
x = 1 and x = 4.

dx dy
1 x y
taking h = k = 0.5.


N
"

N

Set S
y(0) = y(1) = 0. 5
dx dy t
dt dt 2
3 seconds. 4

given below. 6
50 100 100 50
u u
0 0

u u
0 0
! "
0 0
0 0
5 . 2

4
x : 4 4.2 4.4 4.6 4.8 5.0 5.2
logx : 1.3863 1.4351 1.4816 1.526 1.5686 1.6094 1.6486
(Taking h = 0.4 and 0.2) 4
_____________________
Set S
Set S
*SLREP63* SLR-EP 63
Seat
No. Set P
S.E. (Mechanical) (Part II) (CGPA) Examination, 2016
ELECTRICAL AND ELECTRONICS TECHNOLOGY
Day and Date : Friday, 25-11-2016 Max. Marks : 70
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
3) All questions are compulsory.
4) Draw neat diagrams whenever necessary.
5) Assume suitable data if necessary.


1) The Ta/Ia graph a d.c. series motor is a
a) parabola from no-load to over load
b) straight line throughout
c) parabola throughout
d) parabola up to full load and a straight line at overloads
2) The induced e.m.f. in the armature conductors of a d.c. motor is
a) sinusoidal b) trapezoidal c) rectangular d) alternating
3) At start the slip of the induction motor
a) zero b) 0.5 c) one d) infinite
4) A change of 4 % of supply voltage to an induction motor will produce a change of
approximately
a) 4 % in the rotor torque b) 8 % in the rotor torque
c) 12 % in the rotor torque d) 16 % in the rotor torque
5) One of the characteristics of a single phase motor is that it
a) is self-starting b) can rotate in one direction only
c) is not self-starting d) requires only one winding
6) Each of the following statements regarding a shaded-pole motor is true EXCEPT
a) its direction of rotation is from un-shaded portion of the poles
b) it has very poor efficiency
c) it has very poor p.f.
d) it has high starting torque
P.T.O.
7) Which of the following methods of heating is NOT dependent on the frequency of
supply ?
a) Induction heating b) Dielectric heating
c) Electric resistance heating d) All of the above
8) The electrode of a direct are furnace is made of
a) tungsten b) graphite c) silver d) copper
9) Op-Amp uses
a) Negative feedback b) Positive feedback
c) No feedback d) None of the above
10) Percentage resolution of n bit DAC is given by
a) 2n 1 b) 1/2n 1 c) 1/1 2n d) 1 2n
11) A universal register accept
a) serial data b) parallel data
c) gives serial and parallel output d) capable of all of above
12) Which of the following memory is non volatile and may be written only once ?
a) RAM b) EEPROM c) EPROM d) PROM
13) The data bus is
a) unidirectional b) bidirectional c) parallel d) serial
14) How much internal (On-Chip) RAM is available in 8051 ?
a) 128 bytes b) 256 bytes c) 4 kb d) 8 kb
______________
Set P
Seat
No.

Day and Date : Friday, 25-11-2016 Marks : 56
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.
4) Separate answerbooks for each Section.
SECTION I
2. Attempt any four of the following : (4×4=16)

a) Explain any one speed control method to control the speed of dc shunt motor.
b) Explain how the rotating magnetic field is generated in 3-phase induction motor.
c) Explain with neat diagram the working of any one induction furnace.
d) Compare individual and group drive.
e) Derive the torque equation of three phase induction motor under running condition.
f) Determine the energy required to melt 500 Kg of brass in 30 minutes. The thermal
properties of brass are as follows : specific heat 0.095, latent heat of fusion to be
39 Kcals/Kg., melting point of brass = 920°C, furnace efficiency = 50 %, temperature
of cold charge = 20°C.
3. Attempt any two of the following : (2×6=12)

a) Explain the necessary of starter in a dc motor and describe three point starter for
d.c. shunt motor.
b) A 4 pole 3 phase, 50 Hz induction motor has a voltage between slip-rings on open
circuit of 520 V. The star connected rotor has a standstill reactance and resistance
of 2.0 and 0.4 per phase respectively. Determine :
i) the full load torque if full load speed is 1425 rpm
ii) the ratio of starting torque to full load torque
iii) the additional rotor resistance required to give maximum torque at standstill.
c) Explain the different types of the single phase induction motor.
Set P
SECTION II

a) Explain RS flip flop.
b) What is ROM ? What are different types of ROM ? Explain their differences.
c) Draw the equivalent circuit of practical inverting op-amp and derive the expression
for output voltage gain.
d) Explain architecture of 8085 microprocessor.
e) Explain types of addressing modes of micro controller.
f) Explain characteristics of an ideal op-amp.

a) Draw and explain a 5 bit shift register using SR flip flop with wave form for serial
input.
b) Explain the working of op-amp as substractor and comparator with the help of
neat diagram.
c) Explain interrupt structure of micro controller 8051.
_____________________
Set P
*SLREP63* SLR-EP 63
Seat
No. Set P
Q
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


2) Op-Amp uses
a) 2n 1 b) 1/2n 1 c) 1/1 2n d) 1 2n
6) The data bus is
P.T.O.

approximately
supply ?
______________
Set Q
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
SECTION I


d.c. shunt motor.
Set Q
SECTION II


input.
neat diagram.
_____________________
Set Q
*SLREP63* SLR-EP 63
Seat
No. Set P
R
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


supply ?
5) Op-Amp uses
a) 2n 1 b) 1/2n 1 c) 1/1 2n d) 1 2n
P.T.O.
9) The data bus is
approximately
______________
Set R
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
SECTION I


d.c. shunt motor.
Set R
SECTION II


input.
neat diagram.
_____________________
Set R
*SLREP63* SLR-EP 63
Seat
No. Set P
S
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


a) 2n 1 b) 1/2n 1 c) 1/1 2n d) 1 2n
4) The data bus is
P.T.O.

approximately
supply ?
14) Op-Amp uses
______________
Set S
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
SECTION I


d.c. shunt motor.
Set S
SECTION II


input.
neat diagram.
_____________________
Set S
*SLREP64* SLR-EP 64
Seat
No.
Set P
T.E. (Mech.) (Part I) Examination, 2016
THEORY OF MACHINE II (New CGPA)

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


1. Choose the correct alternatives : (14×1=14)

1) The difference between tooth space and tooth thickness measured along pitch
circle is called as
a) Pitch circle b) Circular pitch
c) Backlash d) Tooth thickness
2) Contact ratio is a ratio of
a) Length of arc of contact to circular pitch
b) Length of patch of contact to circular pitch
c) Length of arc of contact to pitch circle
d) Length of patch of contact to pitch circle
3) In an automobile if the vehicle makes a left turn the gyroscopic torque
a) Decreases force on outer wheel b) Increases force on outer wheel
c) Doesnt affect the forces d) None of these
4) Ratio of speed of driver to driven is called as
a) Speed value b) Train value
c) Train ratio d) Speed ratio
5) The size of gear is usually specified by
a) Pressure angle b) Circular pitch
c) Pitch circle diameter d) Diametral pitch
P.T.O.
6) When the ship is pitching upward, the effect of gyroscopic couple in rolling is
a) Move towards starboard side b) No effect
c) Move towards port side d) Stern will be lifted
7) Secondary forces in reciprocating mass of engine are
a) Of same frequency as of primary force
b) Twice the frequency as of primary force
c) Four times frequency as of primary force
8) For dynamic balancing of shaft
a) Net dynamic force acting is zero
b) Net couple due to dynamic force is zero
c) Both a) and b)
9) Natural frequency of shaft with both ends fixed and UDL is
a) fn = 0.571/Ö I
b) fn = 0.751/Ö I
c) fn = 0.4985/Ö
10) Damping factor is
a) Ratio of critical damping to coefficient of damping
b) Ratio of coefficient of damping to critical damping
c) Ratio of logarithmic decrement to critical damping
d) Ratio of critical damping to logarithmic decrement
11) In torsional vibrations stresses induced are
a) Compressive b) No stresses c) Bending d) Shear
12) A disturbing mass m1 attached to a rotating shaft may be balanced by a single mass
m2 attached in the same plane of rotation as that of m1 such that
a) m1.r2 = m2.r1 b) m1.m2 = r1.r2
c) m1.r1 = m2.r2 d) m1.m2 = 2 r1.r2
13) The factor which affects critical speed of shaft is
a) Diameter of disc b) Span of shaft
c) Eccentricity d) All of these
14) Coefficient of steadiness is
a) Reciprocal of CE b) Reciprocal of SC
c) Reciprocal of CS d) Reciprocal of EC
______________
Set P
Seat
No.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
4) Assume additional data if necessary and mention it clearly.
SECTION I
2. a) Derive an expression for centre distance between two spiral gears. 5
b) Draw only sketch of differential Gear Box. 3
c) Find angle of inclination with respect to the vertical of a two wheeler taking a turn. Given : combined
mass of the vehicle with rider is 250 kg, moment of inertia of engine flywheel 0.30 kgm2, M.I. of each
road wheel 1 kgm2, speed of engine flywheel 5 times that of road wheels and in same direction,
height of C.G. is 0.60m, two wheeler speed 90 km/hr, wheel radius 0.30 m and radius of turn 50 m. 6
3. a) Define coefficient of fluctuation of energy, coefficient of fluctuation of speed, Turning
Moment Diagram. 3
b) Define angle of heel, pitching of ship, rolling of ship. 3
c) A pair of spiral gears is required to connect two shafts, the angle between the non-intersecting axes
is 90°. The pitch circle diameters of the gears are equal and speed ratio is 3. If the approximate
centre distance is 25 cm and if the normal pitch is !
mm, estimate the helix angle of the gears and

no. of teeth on each wheel. Take m = 3 mm. 8

4. a) An epicyclic gear train consists of three wheels A, B, C as shown in Fig. (4 a). Wheel A has 72
internal teeth, C has 32 external. The wheel B gears with both A and C and is carried on an arm which
rotates about the centre of A at 18 rpm. If wheel A is fixed, determine speed of B and C. 8
b) A cross compound steam engine develops 298276 Watt at 90 rpm. The coefficient of fluctuation of
energy, found from turning moment diagram is 0.1 and speed is to be kept within 0.5% of the mean
speed. Find the weight of flywheel required if radius of gyration is 2 m. 6
Set P
SECTION II
5. A) Explain balancing of single mass with two masses when the plane of the disturbing mass
lies in between the planes of the two balancing masses. 4
B) Four masses A, B, C and D are to be completely balanced. B has mass of 30 kg, C has mass of
50 Kg, D has mass of 40 Kg and radius of rotation of 240 mm, 120 mm, 150 mm. The planes
containing masses B and C are 300 mm apart. The angle between planes containing B and C is 90°.
B and C make angles of 210° and 120° respectively with D in the same sense. Find : 1) The magnitude
and
the angular position of mass A if its radius of rotation is 180 mm 2) The position of planes A and D. 10
6. A) Derive the equivalent stiffness of springs when 1) Springs are in series and 2) Springs are
in parallel. 6
B) Derive the differential equation of motion and calculate the natural frequency of system
given in Fig. Q 6 B if a = 2 m, l = 7 m and m = 15 kg, k = 100 N/m. 8
Fig. Q 6 B
7. A) Explain critical speed of shaft. 6

B) A shaft in Fig. Q 7 B carries two masses. The mass A is 380 kg with radius of gyration of 0.82 m and
mass B is 850 kg with a radius of gyration of 0.91 m. Determine the frequency of torsional vibrations.
The modulus of rigidity of shaft material is 80 GN/m2. 8
Fig. Q 7 B
_____________________
Set P
*SLREP64* SLR-EP 64
Seat
No.
Set Q

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.



c) Both a) and b)
a) fn = 0.571/Ö I
b) fn = 0.751/Ö I
c) fn = 0.4985/Ö

a) m1.r2 = m2.r1 b) m1.m2 = r1.r2
c) m1.r1 = m2.r2 d) m1.m2 = 2 r1.r2
P.T.O.

circle is called as
______________
Set Q
Seat
No.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
SECTION I
Moment Diagram. 3


Set Q
SECTION II
and
in parallel. 6
Fig. Q 6 B

Fig. Q 7 B
_____________________
Set Q
*SLREP64* SLR-EP 64
Seat
No.
Set R

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.



c) Both a) and b)
a) fn = 0.571/Ö I
b) fn = 0.751/Ö I
c) fn = 0.4985/Ö

P.T.O.
a) m1.r2 = m2.r1 b) m1.m2 = r1.r2
c) m1.r1 = m2.r2 d) m1.m2 = 2 r1.r2
circle is called as
______________
Set R
Seat
No.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
SECTION I
Moment Diagram. 3


Set R
SECTION II
and
in parallel. 6
Fig. Q 6 B

Fig. Q 7 B
_____________________
Set R
*SLREP64* SLR-EP 64
Seat
No.
Set S

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.



a) Compressive b) No stresses
c) Bending d) Shear
a) m1.r2 = m2.r1 b) m1.m2 = r1.r2
c) m1.r1 = m2.r2 d) m1.m2 = 2 r1.r2
P.T.O.
circle is called as
c) Both a) and b)
a) fn = 0.571/Ö I
b) fn = 0.751/Ö I
c) fn = 0.4985/Ö
______________
Set S
Seat
No.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
SECTION I
Moment Diagram. 3


Set S
SECTION II
and
in parallel. 6
Fig. Q 6 B

Fig. Q 7 B
_____________________
Set S
*SLREP65* SLR-EP 65
Seat
No. Set P
A
T.E. (Mechanical) (Part I) (New CGPA) Examination, 2016
HEAT AND MASS TRANSFER
Day and Date : Wednesday, 30-11-2016 Total Marks : 70
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
3) Assume suitable data if required.
5) Figure to right side indicates full marks.


1) The steady state temperature distribution in a very large thin plate with uniform surface
temperature will be
a) Linear b) Hyperbolic c) Parabolic d) Logarithmic
2) Lumped parameter analysis for transient heat conduction is essentially for
a) Bi < 0.1 b) 0.1 < Bi < 0.5
c) 1 < Bi < 10 d) Bi number is infinity
3) The requirement of transfer of a large heat is usually met by
a) increase the length of tube b) having multiple tube or shell passes
c) decreasing diameter of tube d) increase number of tube
4) The normal automobile radiator is a heat exchanger of the type
a) direct contact type b) parallel flow
c) counter flow d) cross flow
5) The intensity of solar radiation on earth is
a) 0.1 kW/m2 b) 1 kW/m2 c) 2 kW/m2 d) 5 kW/m2
6) Which of the following terms not associated with heat exchanger ?
a) Mc Adoms correction factor b) NTU
c) Fouling factor d) Heat carrying capacity
7) The thermal radiation occurs in the range of electromagnetic waves
a) 0.1 to 100 microns b) 0.01 to 0.0001 microns
c) 10 to 1000 microns d) 0.1 to 10 microns
P.T.O.
8) For a hemisphere, solid angle is measured in
a) Radian and its maximum value of 2*pi
b) Steradian and its maximum value of pi
c) Steradian and its maximum value of 2*pi
d) Radian and its maximum value of pi
9) The convective heat transfer co-efficient for boiling and condensation is usually lie in
range of
a) 50 500 W/m2K b) 200 2500 W/m2K
c) 300 5000 W/m2K d) 2500 10000 W/m2K
10) Planks law is applicable to __________ radiations.
a) Monochromatic b) Temperature c) Thermal d) None of these
11) Gases have poor
a) Transmissivity b) Absorptivity c) Reflectivity d) All of the above
12) At thermal equilibrium absorptivity is ___________ emissivity.
a) Greater than b) Equal to
c) Less than d) None of the above
13) In a heat exchanger, hot fluid enters at 180°C and leaves at 160°C. The cooling fluid
enters at 30°C and leaves at 110°C. The capacity ratio of heat exchanger is
a) 0.2 b) 0.33 c) 12.5 d) 0.25
14) For grey surface
a) emissivity is constant b) absorptivity equal to reflectivity
c) emissivity equal to transmissivity d) reflectivity equal emissivity
______________
Set P
Seat
No.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Assume suitable data if required.
SECTION I
2. Solve any four out of the following questions : (4×4=16)

A) A steel tube (k = 43 W/mK) of 5 cm inner diameter and 7.5 cm outer diameter is covered
with 2.5 cm layer of asbestos magnesia (k = 0.2 W/mK). The hot gases are flowing in a
tube at 300°C, while outer surface is to ambient at 30°C. Estimate heat loss from 3 m
length of tube and temperature drop across the insulation.
B) Explain thermal resistance and electrical analogy for solving heat transfer problems.
C) Derive an expression for critical radius of insulation for cylinder.
D) Explain with neat sketch velocity boundary layer and thermal boundary layer.
E) Determine the rate of heat flow to a spherical boiler which is 2 m in diameter and 2 cm
thick steel (k = 58 W/mK). The outside surface and that of fluid inside surface are 30°C
and 300°C respectively. Take the inner film resistance as 0.0023 k/W.
F) Air at 1 atm and 20°C flows over a flat plate at 40 m/s. The plate is 80 cm long, 80 cm width
and maintained at 80°C. Assuming unit depth in Z direction. Calculate heat transfer rate
from plate.
Take k = 0.0273 W/mK, Cp = 1.007 kJ/kgK, Pr = 0.7, = 1.906 × 105 m2/s
Use the relation Nu = [0.036 (Re)0.8 871] (Pr)1/3
3. Solve any two out of the following questions : (2×6=12)

A) Derive the three dimensional equation for heat conduction in Cartesian co-ordinates for
no heat generation.
B) The aluminium square fins (0.5 mm by 0.5 mm side) of 10 mm long are provided on a
surface of semiconductor electronic device to carry 1 watt of energy generated by electronic
device. The surface temperature of device should not exceed 80°C when surrounding
temperature is 40°C. Find number of fins required to carry out above duty and neglect the
heat loss from end. Take thermal conductivity of fin material is 200 W/mK and heat transfer
coefficient of surrounding fluid 15 W/m2K.
C) Using the dimensional analysis show that Nu = f (Gr, Pr) for natural convection.
Set P
SECTION II

A) Explain with neat sketch pool boiling curve.
B) Explain the following :
i) Kirchoffs law
ii) Weins law.
C) Differentiate heat transfer and mass transfer.
D) Write a short note on finite difference methods for solving conduction and convection
problems.
E) Explain the classifications of heat exchangers in detail.
F) Find the percentage reduction in radiation heat transfer with a polished aluminium radiation
shield with emissivity of 0.05 when placed between two very large parallel plates with
emissivities of 0.5 and 0.3.

A) The radiation shape factor for circular surface of thin hollow cylinder of 10 cm diameter
and 10 cm long is 0.1716. What is the shape factor curved surface of the cylinder with
respect to itself ?
B) Derive an expression for LMTD of parallel flow heat exchanger.
C) In a certain double pipe parallel flow heat exchanger hot water flows at a rate of 50000 kg/hr
and gets cooled from 95°C to 65°C. At the same time 50000 kg/hr of cooling water at 30°C
enters the heat exchanger. The flow conditions are such that overall heat transfer coefficient
remains constant at 2270 W/m2K. Determine the heat transfer area required and
effectiveness. Assume for both the streams Cp = 4.2 kJ/kgK.
_____________________
Set P
*SLREP65* SLR-EP 65
Seat
No. Set Q
A
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.


range of
a) 50 500 W/m2K b) 200 2500 W/m2K
c) 300 5000 W/m2K d) 2500 10000 W/m2K
4) Gases have poor
a) 0.2 b) 0.33 c) 12.5 d) 0.25
P.T.O.
7) For grey surface
temperature will be
a) Bi < 0.1 b) 0.1 < Bi < 0.5
______________
Set Q
Seat
No.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
SECTION I

from plate.

no heat generation.
Set Q
SECTION II

i) Kirchoffs law
ii) Weins law.
problems.

respect to itself ?
_____________________
Set Q
*SLREP65* SLR-EP 65
Seat
No. Set R
A
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.


range of
a) 50 500 W/m2K b) 200 2500 W/m2K
c) 300 5000 W/m2K d) 2500 10000 W/m2K
P.T.O.
7) Gases have poor
a) 0.2 b) 0.33 c) 12.5 d) 0.25
10) For grey surface
temperature will be
a) Bi < 0.1 b) 0.1 < Bi < 0.5
______________
Set R
Seat
No.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
SECTION I

from plate.

no heat generation.
Set R
SECTION II

i) Kirchoffs law
ii) Weins law.
problems.

respect to itself ?
_____________________
Set R
*SLREP65* SLR-EP 65
Seat
No. Set S
A
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.


2) Gases have poor
a) 0.2 b) 0.33 c) 12.5 d) 0.25
5) For grey surface
temperature will be
a) Bi < 0.1 b) 0.1 < Bi < 0.5
P.T.O.

range of
a) 50 500 W/m2K b) 200 2500 W/m2K
c) 300 5000 W/m2K d) 2500 10000 W/m2K
______________
Set S
Seat
No.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
SECTION I

from plate.

no heat generation.
Set S
SECTION II

i) Kirchoffs law
ii) Weins law.
problems.

respect to itself ?
_____________________
Set S
*SLREP66* SLR-EP 66
Set P
S e a t
N o .
T.E. (Mechanical Engineering) (Part I) (New) (CGPA)

Examination, 2016
METALLURGY
Day and Date : Friday, 2-12-2016 Total Marks : 70
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
in Answer Book Page No. 3.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (P/Q/R/S) on Top of
Page no. 3 of answer sheet.
1. A) Choose the correct answer : (1×6=6)
1) Which of the following element causes grain coarsening in steels ?

a) Cobalt b) Molybdenum c) Niobium d) Chromium
2) Which of the following treatment is based on isothermal transformation of

austenite ?
a) Annealing b) Normalizing c) Patenting d) Tempering
3) Which of the following treatments is carried out to restore ductility of cold

worked parts ?
a) Homogenisation b) Spherodising
c) Recovery d) Recrystallisation annealing
4) Which hardness test is recommended to measure hardness of Razor

blade ?
a) Rockwell b) Brinell
c) Shores scleroscope d) Vickers
5) Which of the following alloy is precipitation hardened ?

a) Brass b) Tin bronze c) Duralumin d) Aluminum bronze
6) To produce tungsten powder which of the following method is employed ?

a) Reduction method b) Carbonyl method
c) Electrodeposition d) Atomisation
P.T.O.
B) Choose the correct answer : (2×4=8)
1) Which of the following steels are oil hardened ?

a) HCHC steels b) HSLA steel
c) Hadfield Mn steel d) HSS steel
2) Which of the following steels essentially contain Nickel as an alloying

element ?
a) Ferritic stainless steels b) Austenitic stainless steels
c) HCHC steels d) Marging steels
3) To determine cracks on surface and just below the surface of component

which of the following NDT methods are commonly employed ?
a) Radiography
b) Ultrasonic test
c) Dye penetrant test
d) Magnetic Particle test
4) Which of the following products are manufactured by PM ?

a) Tungsten filament in bulb
b) Camshaft for automotive
c) Cylinder block
d) Electric contact material
______________
Set P
S e a t
N o .

Examination, 2016
METALLURGY
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
mention it clearly.
SECTION I
2. a) Draw Fe-Fe3C equilibrium diagram. Label all the constituents and temperatures
correctly. 6
b) Explain the significance of A1 and A3 temperature. 2
c) Explain the eutectoid transformation and its significance. 3
d) Compare between Austenitic stainless steels and Ferritic stainless steels. 3
3. a) Give typical composition, property and application of any 5 of the

following : 10
i) HCHC steel
ii) Free cutting steel
iii) OHNS steel
iv) Spring steel
v) Muntz metal
vi) Tinmans solder
vii) Bell metal.
b) Explain the steps in Precipitation hardening of Al-Cu system with neat
sketch. 4
Set P
4. Answer the following (any four) : 14

a) Explain the application of lever arm principle.
b) Draw neat sketch of interstitial and substitutional solid solution.
c) Compare between S.G. Iron and malleable iron.
d) Explain why Copper is an essential constituent of babbits.
e) What are composites ? What are their applications ?
f) Explain the effect of Ni and Mn on properties of steel.
SECTION II
5. a) Draw T-T-T diagram for eutectoid steel and label it correctly. 4

b) Explain characteristics of martensitic transformation. 3
c) Compare between Annealing and Normalising. 4
d) Explain the purposes of tempering. 3
6. a) Enlist various methods of hardening. 3

b) Explain the advantages of induction hardening. 3
c) What are the advantages of Carbonitriding over gas carburising ? 3
d) Explain the set up for Charpy and Izod impact test and significance of impact
test. 5
7. a) Draw creep-curve and explain the creep phenomena. 4

b) Compare between X-ray radiography and -ray radiography.

3
c) Enlist various methods of powder manufacturing. 3
d) Explain flow chart for manufacturing of cemented carbide cutting tools. 4
_____________________
Set P
*SLREP66* SLR-EP 66
Set Q
S e a t
N o .

Examination, 2016
METALLURGY
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.


blade ?

austenite ?



worked parts ?
P.T.O.

element ?

c) Cylinder block


a) Radiography
b) Ultrasonic test
______________
Set Q
S e a t
N o .

Examination, 2016
METALLURGY
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
mention it clearly.
SECTION I
correctly. 6

following : 10
i) HCHC steel
iii) OHNS steel
iv) Spring steel
v) Muntz metal
vi) Tinmans solder
vii) Bell metal.
sketch. 4
Set Q

SECTION II


test. 5


3
_____________________
Set Q
*SLREP66* SLR-EP 66
Set R
S e a t
N o .

Examination, 2016
METALLURGY
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

blade ?



worked parts ?


austenite ?
P.T.O.

a) Radiography
b) Ultrasonic test


c) Cylinder block

element ?
______________
Set R
S e a t
N o .

Examination, 2016
METALLURGY
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
mention it clearly.
SECTION I
correctly. 6

following : 10
i) HCHC steel
iii) OHNS steel
iv) Spring steel
v) Muntz metal
vi) Tinmans solder
vii) Bell metal.
sketch. 4
Set R

SECTION II


test. 5


3
_____________________
Set R
*SLREP66* SLR-EP 66
Set S
S e a t
N o .

Examination, 2016
METALLURGY
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.



blade ?

austenite ?

worked parts ?

P.T.O.

c) Cylinder block

a) Radiography
b) Ultrasonic test

element ?

______________
Set S
S e a t
N o .

Examination, 2016
METALLURGY
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
mention it clearly.
SECTION I
correctly. 6

following : 10
i) HCHC steel
iii) OHNS steel
iv) Spring steel
v) Muntz metal
vi) Tinmans solder
vii) Bell metal.
sketch. 4
Set S

SECTION II


test. 5


3
_____________________
Set S
*SLREP67* SLR-EP 67
S e a t
5 A J
N o .

MACHINE DESIGN I
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
minutes in Answer book Page No. 3.
of Page.
3) Solve any two questions from each Section I and II.
4) Make necessary assumptions, if required and mention it
clearly.
6) Use of non-programmable calculator is permitted.

1. A) Solve Multiple Correct Answers : 8

(Note : All responses must be correct, that carries 2 marks otherwise zero
marks).
i) Selection of factor of safety is based on
a) Reliability of applied load
b) Extent of localized stresses
c) Extent of loss of life if failure occurs
d) Extent of loss of property if failure occurs
ii) For completely reversed stresses/loading
a) Mean stress is zero and amplitude stress is non zero
b) Amplitude stress is zero and Mean stress is non zero
c) Problems can be solved by S-N curve
d) Problems can be solved by Modified Goodman diagram
P.T.O.
iii) Spring deflection is proportional to
a) Load acting b) Number of turns
c) Modulus of rigidity d) None of a), b), c)
iv) In machining considerations for design
a) Avoid machining
b) Use stock dimensions
c) Maintain the parts under compression
d) Avoid concentration of the material at junction
B) Solve Multiple Choice Questions i. e. MCQ : 6
(Note : One option is correct, that carries 1 mark).
i) Surgical instruments are prepared from
a) Cast iron b) Mild steel
c) Plastic d) Stainless steel
ii) Fatigue is dangerous due to occurrence of _________________ failure.
a) Slow b) Sudden
c) Corrosive d) Erosive
iii) Most suitable material for lathe bed is ________________ due to the
property of _____________
a) Grey cast iron-yield strength b) Grey cast iron-damping
c) Mild steel d) Stainless steel
iv) Spring used for wrist watch is
a) Spiral b) Helical spring S
c) Torsion spring d) Belleville spring
v) For a bushed pin type flexible coupling, pin failure is on the basis of
a) Shear-bending b) Shear-fatigue
c) Torsion d) Buckling
vi) As per ASME code for shaft design, maximum permissible value of shear
stress is taken as
a) 0.3 Syt or 0.18 Syt, whichever is maximum
b) 0.3 Syt or 0.18 Syt, whichever is minimum
c) 0.18 Syt or 0.3 Syt, whichever is maximum
d) 0.18 Syt or 0.3 Syt, whichever is minimum
______________ Set P
S e a t
N o .

MACHINE DESIGN I
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Solve any two questions from each Section I and II.
clearly.
SECTION I
2. a) Explain factors for selection of material. 3

b) Define factor of safety. Discuss the factors affecting selection of factor of
safety. 4
c) It is required to select a flat belt drive to connect two transmission shafts
rotating at 800 rpm and 400 rpm respectively. The centre to centre distance
between the shafts is approximately 3 m and the belt drive is open-type. The
power transmitted by the belt is 30 kW. The belt should operate at a velocity
between 17.8 to 22.9 m/s. The power transmitting capacity of the belt per mm
width per ply at 180° arc of contact and at a belt velocity of 5.08 m/s is
0.0147 kW. Select preferred pulley diameters and specify the belt. Take load
correction factor Fa = 1.3. 7
3. a) Write in brief about cyclic stresses. 3

b) Discuss modified Goodman diagram. 4
c) A cantilever beam made of cold drawn steel 40C8 (Sut = 600 N/mm2,
Syt = 380 N/mm2) is subjected to fluctuating bending moment which varies
from + 15000 N-mm to 5000 N-mm. The expected reliability is 90% and
factor of safety is 2. 7
Set P
Ka = surface finish factor = 0.76

Kb = size factor = 0.85
Kc = reliability factor = 0.897
Kd = modifying factor = 0.735
Determine the diameter of shaft.
4. a) Write down the strength equations for various failure modes to be considered
for design of cotter joint with necessary sketches. 7
b) A lever loaded safety valve is 70 mm in diameter. It is required to blow-off at
a pressure of 1.5 N/mm2. The length of the lever is 1000 mm. The distance
between the fulcrum and toggle is 100 mm. Determine the amount of dead
weight to be put at the end of the lever. Also, determine the size of the
rectangular cross section of the lever and the size of pins at the fulcrum and
the toggle. User following permissible stresses :
Tensile stress = 60 MPa, Shear stress = 50 MPa and bearing pressure = 12 MPa.
Assume length of pin = 1.5 × diameter of pin and b = 3t. 7
SECTION II
5. a) Discuss the design considerations for casting. 3

b) Discuss ASME code for shaft design. 4
c) Design a shaft to transmit power from an electric motor to a machine spindle
through a pulley by means of a belt drive. The pulley weighs 300 N and is
located at 250 mm from the centre of the bearing. The diameter of the pulley
is 150 mm and the maximum power transmitted is 2.5 kW at 150 r.p.m. The
angle of lap of the belt is 180° and coefficient of friction between the belt and
the pulley is 0.3. The shock and fatigue factors as per ASME are 1.5 and 2.0
respectively. Assume a factor of safety of 4 and consider Syt for the shaft
material as 280 N/mm2. 7
Set P
6. a) Discuss the design considerations for forging. 3

b) Discuss construction of leaf spring. 4
c) Design a close coiled helical compression spring for a service load ranging
from 3100 N to 3800 N. The axial deflection of the spring for the load range is
8 mm. Assume a spring index of 6. The permissible shear stress intensity is
400 N/mm2 and modulus of rigidity, G = 84 kN/mm2. Consider Wahls factor
and assume squared and ground ends for the spring. 7
7. a) Discuss advantages and limitations of bolted and welded joints. 3

b) Design the single transverse and double transverse fillet weld (as shown in
Fig. with usual notations). 4
c) A bracket carrying a load of 25 kN is to be welded as shown in Fig. Find the

size of weld required. Take Syt = 300 N/mm2 and a factor of safety as 2. 7
Design data for Selection of Flat-Belt
Arc of Contact factor
1 2 0 1 3 0 1 4 0 1 5 0 1 6 0 1 7 0 1 8 0 1 9 0 2 0 0
I
. @ 1 . 3 3 1 . 2 6 1 . 1 9 1 . 1 3 1 . 0 8 1 . 0 4 1 . 0 0 0 . 9 7 0 . 9 4
Set P
Standard with of belts
3 - P l y 2 5 4 0 5 0 6 3 7 6
4 - P l y 4 0 4 4 5 0 6 3 7 6 9 0 1 0 0 1 1 2 1 2 5 1 5 2
5 - P l y 7 6 1 0 0 1 1 2 1 2 5 1 5 2
6 - P l y 1 1 2 1 2 5 1 5 2 1 8 0 2 0 0
Power Transmitting Capacities
H I - S P E E D 0 . 0 1 1 8 k W p e r m m w i d t h p e r p l y
F O R T 0 . 0 1 4 7 k W p e r m m w i d t h p e r p l y
Preferred Pulley Diameters
P i t c h
D i a m e t e r # ! " # $ % & '
( m m )
" ! $ # $ # & ! ! # ! # # ! % #
" " # " # " % # # # ! # $ $ $ ! $ %
% % # & '
_____________________
Set P
*SLREP67* SLR-EP 67
S e a t
5 A J
N o .

MACHINE DESIGN I
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
of Page.
clearly.


marks).
i) In machining considerations for design
a) Avoid machining
ii) Selection of factor of safety is based on
P.T.O.
iii) For completely reversed stresses/loading
iv) Spring deflection is proportional to
i) For a bushed pin type flexible coupling, pin failure is on the basis of
ii) As per ASME code for shaft design, maximum permissible value of shear
stress is taken as
iii) Surgical instruments are prepared from
iv) Fatigue is dangerous due to occurrence of _________________ failure.
a) Slow b) Sudden
v) Most suitable material for lathe bed is ________________ due to the
vi) Spring used for wrist watch is
______________
Set Q
S e a t
N o .

MACHINE DESIGN I
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
clearly.
SECTION I

safety. 4

Set Q

SECTION II

Set Q



1 2 0 1 3 0 1 4 0 1 5 0 1 6 0 1 7 0 1 8 0 1 9 0 2 0 0
I
. @ 1 . 3 3 1 . 2 6 1 . 1 9 1 . 1 3 1 . 0 8 1 . 0 4 1 . 0 0 0 . 9 7 0 . 9 4
Set Q
3 - P l y 2 5 4 0 5 0 6 3 7 6
4 - P l y 4 0 4 4 5 0 6 3 7 6 9 0 1 0 0 1 1 2 1 2 5 1 5 2
5 - P l y 7 6 1 0 0 1 1 2 1 2 5 1 5 2
6 - P l y 1 1 2 1 2 5 1 5 2 1 8 0 2 0 0
P i t c h
D i a m e t e r # ! " # $ % & '
( m m )
" ! $ # $ # & ! ! # ! # # ! % #
" " # " # " % # # # ! # $ $ $ ! $ %
% % # & '
_____________________
Set Q
*SLREP67* SLR-EP 67
S e a t
5 A J
N o .

MACHINE DESIGN I
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
of Page.
clearly.


marks).
i) Spring deflection is proportional to
ii) In machining considerations for design
a) Avoid machining
iii) Selection of factor of safety is based on
P.T.O.
iv) For completely reversed stresses/loading
i) Spring used for wrist watch is
ii) For a bushed pin type flexible coupling, pin failure is on the basis of
iii) As per ASME code for shaft design, maximum permissible value of shear
stress is taken as
iv) Surgical instruments are prepared from
v) Fatigue is dangerous due to occurrence of _________________ failure.
a) Slow b) Sudden
vi) Most suitable material for lathe bed is ________________ due to the
______________
Set R
S e a t
N o .

MACHINE DESIGN I
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
clearly.
SECTION I

safety. 4

Set R

SECTION II

Set R



1 2 0 1 3 0 1 4 0 1 5 0 1 6 0 1 7 0 1 8 0 1 9 0 2 0 0
I
. @ 1 . 3 3 1 . 2 6 1 . 1 9 1 . 1 3 1 . 0 8 1 . 0 4 1 . 0 0 0 . 9 7 0 . 9 4
Set R
3 - P l y 2 5 4 0 5 0 6 3 7 6
4 - P l y 4 0 4 4 5 0 6 3 7 6 9 0 1 0 0 1 1 2 1 2 5 1 5 2
5 - P l y 7 6 1 0 0 1 1 2 1 2 5 1 5 2
6 - P l y 1 1 2 1 2 5 1 5 2 1 8 0 2 0 0
P i t c h
D i a m e t e r # ! " # $ % & '
( m m )
" ! $ # $ # & ! ! # ! # # ! % #
" " # " # " % # # # ! # $ $ $ ! $ %
% % # & '
_____________________
Set R
*SLREP67* SLR-EP 67
S e a t
5 A J
N o .

MACHINE DESIGN I
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
of Page.
clearly.


marks).
i) For completely reversed stresses/loading
ii) Spring deflection is proportional to
iii) In machining considerations for design
a) Avoid machining
P.T.O.
iv) Selection of factor of safety is based on
i) Most suitable material for lathe bed is ________________ due to the
ii) Spring used for wrist watch is
iii) For a bushed pin type flexible coupling, pin failure is on the basis of
iv) As per ASME code for shaft design, maximum permissible value of shear
stress is taken as
v) Surgical instruments are prepared from
vi) Fatigue is dangerous due to occurrence of _________________ failure.
a) Slow b) Sudden
______________
Set S
S e a t
N o .

MACHINE DESIGN I
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
clearly.
SECTION I

safety. 4

Set S

SECTION II

Set S



1 2 0 1 3 0 1 4 0 1 5 0 1 6 0 1 7 0 1 8 0 1 9 0 2 0 0
I
. @ 1 . 3 3 1 . 2 6 1 . 1 9 1 . 1 3 1 . 0 8 1 . 0 4 1 . 0 0 0 . 9 7 0 . 9 4
Set S
3 - P l y 2 5 4 0 5 0 6 3 7 6
4 - P l y 4 0 4 4 5 0 6 3 7 6 9 0 1 0 0 1 1 2 1 2 5 1 5 2
5 - P l y 7 6 1 0 0 1 1 2 1 2 5 1 5 2
6 - P l y 1 1 2 1 2 5 1 5 2 1 8 0 2 0 0
P i t c h
D i a m e t e r # ! " # $ % & '
( m m )
" ! $ # $ # & ! ! # ! # # ! % #
" " # " # " % # # # ! # $ $ $ ! $ %
% % # & '
_____________________
Set S
*SLREP682* SLR-EP 68 (2)
Seat
No.
Set P
FLUID MACHINERY AND FLUID POWER
Professional Elective I

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
3) Use of non-programmable calculators is permitted.
4) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes


1) The major field(s) of application of gas turbine is (are)
a) Aviation b) Oil and gas industry
c) Marine propulsion d) All of the above
2) Multistage centrifugal pumps are used to
a) Produce a high head b) Discharge large quantity of liquid
c) Both a) and b) above d) None of these
3) The following is (are) the limitation(s) of gas turbines
a) They are not self-starting b) Higher rotor speeds
c) Low efficiencies at part loads d) All of the above
4) If at the inlet of a turbine, the energy available is only kinetic energy, the
turbine is known as
a) Impulse Turbine b) Reaction Turbine
c) Centrifugal Pump d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-EP 68 (2) -2- *SLREP682*
5) Governing of a turbine is defined as the operation by which the speed of the
turbine is kept _______ under all working conditions.
a) Varying b) Constant
c) Time dependent d) None of these
6) The vertical height of the centre-line of the centrifugal pump from the water
surface in the pump is called as
a) Manometric head b) Delivery head
c) Suction head d) Vertical head
7) Characteristic curves are used for predicting __________ of a pump.
a) Reliability and life span b) Behaviour and performance
c) Quality and brand d) All of the above
8) Pressure reducing valves are normally _________ pressure control valves.
a) Closed b) Open c) a) and b) d) None of above
9) In meter in circuit, heat generated due to throttling is fed to the
a) Oil reservoir b) Actuator c) a) and b) d) a) or b)
10) Pressure rating for Brass piping is
a) 250 bar b) 200 bar c) 2500 bar d) 125 bar
11) Air motor are
a) Compressor
b) Electric motor
c) Are used to run fluid power system using pressurized air
d) None of above
12) The principle on which intensifier work is _________ where P indicate pressure
and A is cross sectional area of two sides.
a) b) P1A1 = P2A2 c) d)
2 2
) ) ) 2

) )
2 2 ) 2

13) A counter balance valve is used to maintain over ________ cylinder so that
it will not fall freely because of gravity.
a) Horizontal b) Vertical c) a) and b) d) None of above
14) _________ displacement pumps are used where pressure is primary
consideration.
a) Nonpositive b) Positive c) Both a) and b) d) None of above
______________
Set P
*SLREP682* -3- SLR-EP 68 (2)
Seat
No.


Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
SECTION I
2. a) A Pelton wheel is having a mean bucket diameter of 0.8 meter and is running
at 1000 rpm. The net head on the Pelton wheel is 400 meter. If the side
clearance angle is 15° and discharge through nozzle is 150 litres/sec.
Find : i) Power available at the nozzle and ii) Hydraulic efficiency of the
turbine. 5
b) What are the various methods for improving the thermal efficiency of open
cycle gas turbines ? Explain Re-heating method. 4
c) The following data is given for a Francis Turbine. Net head = 60 meters;
Speed N = 700 rpm; Shaft power = 294.3 kW;
= 84%;
o

= 93%; flow ratio
D
= 0.20; breadth ratio = 0.1; Outer diameter of the runner = 2 x inner diameter
of runner. The thickness of vanes occupy 5% of circumferential area of the
runner, velocity of flow is constant at inlet and outlet and discharge is radial
at outlet. Determine :
i) Guide blade angle ii) Runner vane angle at inlet. 5
3. a) In an air standard gas turbine plant, air at a temperature of 15° C and pressure
of 1.01 bar enters the compressor, where it is compressed through a pressure
ratio of 5. Air enters the turbine at a temperature of 815° C and expands to
original pressure of 1.01 bar. Determine the ratio of turbine work to compressor
work and the thermal efficiency when the plant operates on ideal Brayton
cycle. Take = 1.4, Cp = 1.005 kJ/kgk.

5
Set P
SLR-EP 68 (2) -4- *SLREP682*
b) The diameter of an impeller of a centrifugal pump at inlet and outlet are

300 mm and 600 mm respectively. The velocity of flow at outlet is 2.5 m/s
and vanes are set back at an angle of 45° at outlet. Determine the minimum
starting speed of the pump if the manometric efficiency is 75%. 5
c) Derive Eulers equation of work done for rotodynamic machines. 4
4. a) A Kaplan turbine develops 9000 kW under a net head of 7.5 meters. Overall
efficiency of the wheel is 86%. The speed ratio based on the outer diameter is
2.2 and the flow ratio is 0.66. Diameter of the boss is 0.35 times the external
diameter of the wheel. Determine the diameter of the runner and the specific
speed of the runner. 5
b) Why multistaging of centrifugal pumps in required ? Explain pumps in series. 4
c) Explain governing of Pelton Wheels. 5
SECTION II
5. a) Explain any one Rotary Hydraulic Actuator. 4

b) Differentiate between Meter In and Meter Out. 5
c) Draw and explain with neat sketch of Lubricator unit. 5
6. a) Explain various Spool Actuating methods. 4

b) Draw a neat sketch of Hydraulic and Pneumatic Clamping system. 5
c) Explain with neat sketch of Twin Pressure Valve in Pneumatic. 5
7. a) Explain construction and working of Pressure Compensated Flow Control

Valve. 5
b) What is intensifier and explain different types of intensifier. 4
c) Explain Cushioning effect in Hydraulic system. 5
_____________________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set Q

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.


4) Air motor are
a) Compressor
b) Electric motor
d) None of above
a) b) P1A1 = P2A2 c) d)
2 2
) ) ) 2

) )
2 2 ) 2

P.T.O.
SLR-EP 68 (2) -2- *SLREP682*

consideration.
turbine is known as
______________
Set Q
*SLREP682* -3- SLR-EP 68 (2)
Seat
No.


Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
SECTION I
turbine. 5
= 84%;
o

= 93%; flow ratio
D

5
Set Q
SLR-EP 68 (2) -4- *SLREP682*

SECTION II



Valve. 5
_____________________
Set Q
Seat
No.
Set R

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.


P.T.O.
SLR-EP 68 (2) -2- *SLREP682*
7) Air motor are
a) Compressor
b) Electric motor
d) None of above
a) b) P1A1 = P2A2 c) d)
2 2
) ) ) 2

) )
2 2 ) 2


consideration.
turbine is known as
______________
Set R
*SLREP682* -3- SLR-EP 68 (2)
Seat
No.


Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
SECTION I
turbine. 5
= 84%;
o

= 93%; flow ratio
D

5
Set R
SLR-EP 68 (2) -4- *SLREP682*

SECTION II



Valve. 5
_____________________
Set R
Seat
No.
Set S

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.


2) Air motor are
a) Compressor
b) Electric motor
d) None of above
a) b) P1A1 = P2A2 c) d)
2 2
) ) ) 2

) )
2 2 ) 2


P.T.O.
SLR-EP 68 (2) -2- *SLREP682*

consideration.
turbine is known as
______________
Set S
*SLREP682* -3- SLR-EP 68 (2)
Seat
No.


Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
SECTION I
turbine. 5
= 84%;
o

= 93%; flow ratio
D

5
Set S
SLR-EP 68 (2) -4- *SLREP682*

SECTION II



Valve. 5
_____________________
Set S
*SLREP681* SLR-EP 68(1)
Seat
No. Set P
T.E. (Mechanical Engineering) (Part I) (New CGPA)
Examination, 2016
MACHINE TOOL DESIGN
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
1. A) Match the pairs : 4

Machine tools Tool movement
a) Lathe machine p) Rotary motion
b) Milling machine q) Reciprocating motion
c) Drilling machine r) Rotary and translatory motion
d) Shaping machine s) Translatory motion
B) Choose the correct answers : (1×10=10)

1) What is the function of cone pulley drive in lathe machines ?
a) Drive the lead screw b) Change the spindle speed
c) Drive the tail-stock d) All of the above
2) Which of the following is a mechanism for mechanized movements of the
carriage along longitudinal axis ?
a) Cross-slide b) Compound rest
c) Apron d) Saddle
3) Which of the following is positive drive ?
a) V belt drive b) Cross flat belt drive
c) Rope drive d) Chain drive
P.T.O.
SLR-EP 68(1) -2- *SLREP681*
4) O Symbol indicates in control panel

a) On b) Off
c) On-off d) None of the above
5) The efficiency of ball screw is
a) 90% b) 95%
c) 80% d) 85%
6) The limiting value of transmission intervals for 1.06 O = 1.06 in speed
reduction is
a) 4 b) 6
c) 12 d) 24
7) For planning machine the type of slide way profile is
a) Open V + Open V b) Closed V + Closed V
c) Open flat + Open V d) Closed flat + Closed V
8) In hydrodynamic journal bearing, the recommended L/D ratio is
a) > 1 b) < 1
c) 1 d) 0.121
increment is
a) 2 b) 6
c) 3 d) 12
10) ! symbol indicates in control panel
a) On b) Off
c) On-off d) Attention
______________
Set P
*SLREP681* -3- SLR-EP 68(1)
Seat
No.

Examination, 2016
MACHINE TOOL DESIGN

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

4) Assume additional suitable data, if necessary and
mention it clearly.
SECTION I
2. a) Explain in detail general requirements of machine tool design. 7
b) What are the functional requirements of machine tool structures ? Explain in

brief. 7
3. a) What are functions of guideways ? Explain types of guideways with example. 7
b) Explain classification of speed and feed boxes. 7
4. Write short note on the following (any three) : 14

i) Layout of machine tools
ii) Design of feed box
iii) Overall compliance of machine tool
iv) Design of Aerostatic slideways.
SECTION II
5. a) What are the functions of spindle unit and its requirements in brief. 7
b) What is the significance of stability analysis ? 7

Set P
SLR-EP 68(1) -4- *SLREP681*
6. a) Discuss the control systems for speeds and feeds. 7
b) Explain the trends and developments in machine tool design. 7

i) Bearings for spindles.
ii) Forced vibrations of machine tools.
iii) Spindle unit and requirements.
iv) Design of antifriction slideways.
_____________________
Set P
Seat
No. Set Q
Examination, 2016
MACHINE TOOL DESIGN
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

1. A) Choose the correct answers : (1×10=10)

reduction is
a) 4 b) 6
c) 12 d) 24
a) > 1 b) < 1
c) 1 d) 0.121
increment is
a) 2 b) 6
c) 3 d) 12
P.T.O.
SLR-EP 68(1) -2- *SLREP681*

a) On b) Off
c) Apron d) Saddle
a) On b) Off
a) 90% b) 95%
c) 80% d) 85%
B) Match the pairs : 4
______________
Set Q
*SLREP681* -3- SLR-EP 68(1)
Seat
No.

Examination, 2016
MACHINE TOOL DESIGN

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

mention it clearly.
SECTION I

brief. 7

SECTION II

Set Q
SLR-EP 68(1) -4- *SLREP681*

_____________________
Set Q
Seat
No. Set R
Examination, 2016
MACHINE TOOL DESIGN
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

1. A) Match the pairs : 4

B) Choose the correct answers : (1×10=10)

a) On b) Off
P.T.O.
SLR-EP 68(1) -2- *SLREP681*

a) 90% b) 95%
c) 80% d) 85%
reduction is
a) 4 b) 6
c) 12 d) 24
a) > 1 b) < 1
c) 1 d) 0.121
increment is
a) 2 b) 6
c) 3 d) 12
a) On b) Off
c) Apron d) Saddle
______________
Set R
*SLREP681* -3- SLR-EP 68(1)
Seat
No.

Examination, 2016
MACHINE TOOL DESIGN

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

mention it clearly.
SECTION I

brief. 7

SECTION II

Set R
SLR-EP 68(1) -4- *SLREP681*

_____________________
Set R
Seat
No. Set S
Examination, 2016
MACHINE TOOL DESIGN
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
1. A) Choose the correct answers : (1×10=10)

c) Apron d) Saddle
a) On b) Off
a) 90% b) 95%
c) 80% d) 85%
P.T.O.
SLR-EP 68(1) -2- *SLREP681*

reduction is
a) 4 b) 6
c) 12 d) 24
a) > 1 b) < 1
c) 1 d) 0.121
increment is
a) 2 b) 6
c) 3 d) 12
a) On b) Off
B) Match the pairs : 4
______________
Set S
*SLREP681* -3- SLR-EP 68(1)
Seat
No.

Examination, 2016
MACHINE TOOL DESIGN

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

mention it clearly.
SECTION I

brief. 7

SECTION II

Set S
SLR-EP 68(1) -4- *SLREP681*

_____________________
Set S
*SLREP68(3)* SLR-EP 68(3)
Seat
No. Set P
MATERIAL HANDLING SYSTEM (New) (CGPA)
(Professional Elective I)
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question
carries one mark.


1) Hand truck are characterized by
a) Pallet + Walk + No stack + Powered
b) Pallet + Walk + No stack + Manual
c) Non-Pallet + Walk + Stack + Powered
d) Non-Pallet + Walk + No Stack + Manual
2) Flow diagram is used to study
a) Bottleneck b) Sequence of operations
c) M/c maintenance d) Operator skill
3) To transport ferrous material vertically, __________ conveyor is used.
a) Wheel conveyors b) Chain conveyors
c) Chute conveyors d) Magnetic conveyors
4) Flow process chart gives
a) To reduce the distance travelled by men and material
b) Assembly line
c) Relationship between product
d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-EP 68(3) -2- *SLREP68(3)*
5) The main objective of the material handling system is to __________
material movement.
a) Reduce b) Maximum c) Medium d) Light movement
6) The equipment used to handle material at a single location so that, it is in the
correct position for machining
a) Transport equipment b) Storage equipment
c) Positioning equipment d) None of these
7) Cranes are used to move material over ___________ paths.
a) Fixed b) Diverted c) Variable d) None of these
8) Hoisting equipments works in conjection with __________ and workstation
cranes.
a) Roller b) Industrial trucks
c) Elevator d) Overhead crane
9) For ____________ type material flow having less difficulty in returning empty
containers.
a) Straight line b) Inverted c) L shaped d) U shaped
10) The material handling equation consists of the material characteristics, the
move requirement and
a) The method capabilities b) Human capacity
c) Load d) Gravity
11) Storage equipments are used for __________ material over a period of time.
a) Catching b) Holding
c) Hanging d) None of these
12) The handling of a quantity designed to be treated as a single mass
a) Unit load b) Unit mass
c) Unit wt. d) None of these
13) For automated material handling system ________ materials are required.
a) Low volume b) Medium volume
c) High volume d) None of these
14) In power equipment automatic correction according to
a) Gravity b) Manual
c) Signal d) Equipment
______________
Set P
*SLREP68(3)* -3- SLR-EP 68(3)
Seat
No.


Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

2) Draw neat diagram where necessary.
3) Solve any two questions in each Section.
SECTION I
2. a) Explain objective and significance of material handling system in industry. 5

b) Explain any two types of fork lift trucks. 5
c) Explain any three types of conveyors. 4
3. a) What is meant by material handling system ? Explain its principles. 5

b) Explain CIMS in material handling and give its benefits. 5
c) Material handling does not add value to a product it usually adds significant
element of cost. Justify the statement. 4
4. Write a short notes (any three) : 14

a) Role of computer in CIMS. 5
b) Storing equipment. 5
c) Objectives of material handling. 5
d) Automatic guided vehicles. 4
Set P
SLR-EP 68(3) -4- *SLREP68(3)*
SECTION II
5. a) Explain with figure equipment evaluation sheet. 5

b) Explain the factors for selection of material handling equipments. 5
c) Explain with fig. assembly chart. 4
6. a) Describe with figure material handling equation. 5
b) Material handling selection in sugar industry. 5
c) Discuss the importance of material handling safety. 4
a) Choice of material handling equipments. 5

b) Flow process chart. 5
c) Degree of mechanization. 5
d) Equipment evaluation sheet. 4
_____________________
Set P
Seat
No. Set Q
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
carries one mark.


cranes.
containers.
a) Straight line b) Inverted
c) L shaped d) U shaped
c) Load d) Gravity
P.T.O.
SLR-EP 68(3) -2- *SLREP68(3)*
b) Assembly line
d) None of these
material movement.
______________
Set Q
*SLREP68(3)* -3- SLR-EP 68(3)
Seat
No.


Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

SECTION I



Set Q
SLR-EP 68(3) -4- *SLREP68(3)*
SECTION II


_____________________
Set Q
Seat
No. Set R
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
carries one mark.


material movement.
a) Fixed b) Diverted
c) Variable d) None of these
cranes.
containers.
a) Straight line b) Inverted
c) L shaped d) U shaped
P.T.O.
SLR-EP 68(3) -2- *SLREP68(3)*
c) Load d) Gravity
b) Assembly line
d) None of these
______________
Set R
*SLREP68(3)* -3- SLR-EP 68(3)
Seat
No.


Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

SECTION I



Set R
SLR-EP 68(3) -4- *SLREP68(3)*
SECTION II


_____________________
Set R
Seat
No. Set S
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
carries one mark.


c) Load d) Gravity
P.T.O.
SLR-EP 68(3) -2- *SLREP68(3)*
b) Assembly line
d) None of these
material movement.
cranes.
containers.
______________
Set S
*SLREP68(3)* -3- SLR-EP 68(3)
Seat
No.


Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

SECTION I



Set S
SLR-EP 68(3) -4- *SLREP68(3)*
SECTION II


_____________________
Set S
Seat
No.
Set P
T.E. (Mechanical) (Part – II) Examination, 2016
METROLOGY AND MECHANICAL MEASUREMENTS
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

1. Type I : Match the pair (One mark each) :

i) Column I Column II
A) Measurement of Angle p) Solex Pneumatic gauge
B) Screw Thread Measurement q) Sine Instruments
C) Comparators r) Floating carriage micrometer
s) Michelsons Interferometer
ii) Column I Column II
A) Accelerometer p) Light intensity to resistance change
B) Hot wire anemometer q) To measure the dampers
C) Photo conductive cell r) To measure gas velocities
s) To measure the vibration
Type II : Straight objective type (One mark each) :

iii) In measurements system, which of the following static characteristics are desirable ?
A) Accuracy B) Sensitivity
C) Reproducibility D) All of the above
iv) A dead weight tester is used for
A) Producing high pressure
B) Accurate measurements of load
C) Testing the magnitude of given wt.
D) Calibrating pressure measuring instruments
P.T.O.
v) Mark the odd one.
A) Orifice plate B) Hot wire anemometer
C) Electromagnetic flow meter D) Nutating disk flow meter
vi) Which metal/non-metal has the highest temperature range ?
A) Semi-conductors B) Nickel
C) Copper D) Platinum
Type III : Multiple answer type (Two marks each) :

vii) In measurement systems which of the following static characteristics are
undesirable ?
A) Sensitivity B) Reproductivity
C) Non-linearity D) Drift
viii) In a rotameter the flow is inferred from
A) Force balance on float B) Direction of flow
C) Position of float D) Colour change
ix) As per the Taylor’s principle of gauging
A) Go – gauge should be full form gauge
B) Go – gauge should check all the related dimensions simultaneously
C) No – Go gauge should the full form
D) No – Go gauge should check only one dimension at a time
x) A bore of ∅ 14.67 mm in a work piece can be measured by
A) Steel rule B) Micrometer
C) Vernier Caliper D) Pneumatic Gauge
xi) Comparator consists of
A) Sensing device B) Line standard
C) End standard D) Display unit
______________
Set P
Seat
No.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Question No. 2 and 7 are compulsory.
2) Answer any two questions from the remaining in each Section.
3) Use of non-programmable calculator is allowed.
SECTION – I
2. a) Explain the principle of Vernier. In a Bevel Protractor, 12 divisions of vernier scale

are matching with 11 divisions of the main angular scale having one degree
division. Find the least count. 5
b) For each of the following cases find minimum and maximum clearance/interference
and identify the type of fit.
i) Hole 50 H, tolerance 0.05 mm, shaft sizes 50 mm + 0.005, + 0.07 mm
ii) Shaft 60 h, tolerance 120 microns hole sizes 60.010 and 60.030. 10
c) Explain the principle of Autocollimator with a sketch. 5
3. a) Explain the concept of measurement and distinguish between precision and

accuracy. 5
b) Compare hole basis and shaft basis systems. 5
4. A 200 mm sine bar is to be set to measure an angle of 32 degree. Find the suitable
combination of minimum no. of slip gauges to form the necessary height. Which of the
two sets M-45 or M-87 would you prefer ? Why ? Sketch the setup. 10
5. Explain the base tangent method used for gear tooth thickness measurement with
neat sketch. Write the expression for the measurement. Compare it to measurement
with constant chord method. 10
6. Write short notes on (any two) : 10

a) Accumulation of tolerances
b) Co-ordinate measuring machine
c) Laser measurement.
Set P
SECTION – II
7. A) Explain drift, dead zone and constancy. 5

B) Explain calibration of Thermocouple. 5
C) Explain working of Rotameter and explain the equation for the flow rate. 5
D) Explain the working of Wheatstone’s bridge network using electric strain gauges. 5
8. Identify and explain various basic functional elements in Bourdon tube pressure gauge
in the form of different stages of the generalised measurements system. 10
9. A) Define the following term : 5

i) Pressure
ii) Atmospheric pressure
iii) Gauge pressure
iv) Absolute pressure
v) Static pressure.
B) Describe briefly the Gas flow meter. 5
10. A) How are tachometers classified ? 5

B) Explain briefly the Hydraulic load cell. 5
_____________________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set Q
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

1. Type I : Straight objective type (One mark each) :

i) In measurements system, which of the following static characteristics are desirable ?
ii) A dead weight tester is used for
iii) Mark the odd one.
iv) Which metal/non-metal has the highest temperature range ?
Type II : Match the pair (One mark each) :

v) Column I Column II
P.T.O.
vi) Column I Column II
Type III : Multiple answer type (Two marks each) :

vii) As per the Taylor’s principle of gauging
viii) A bore of ∅ 14.67 mm in a work piece can be measured by
ix) Comparator consists of
x) In measurement systems which of the following static characteristics are
undesirable ?
xi) In a rotameter the flow is inferred from
______________
Set Q
Seat
No.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
SECTION – I


accuracy. 5

Set Q
SECTION – II


i) Pressure
iii) Gauge pressure
v) Static pressure.

_____________________
Set Q
Seat
No.
Set R
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

1. Type I : Multiple answer type (Two marks each) :

i) A bore of ∅ 14.67 mm in a work piece can be measured by
ii) Comparator consists of
iii) In measurement systems which of the following static characteristics are
undesirable ?
iv) In a rotameter the flow is inferred from
v) As per the Taylor’s principle of gauging
P.T.O.
Type II : Straight objective type (One mark each) :
vi) Mark the odd one.
vii) Which metal/non-metal has the highest temperature range ?
viii) In measurements system, which of the following static characteristics are desirable ?
ix) A dead weight tester is used for
Type III : Match the pair (One mark each) :

x) Column I Column II
xi) Column I Column II
______________
Set R
Seat
No.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
SECTION – I


accuracy. 5

Set R
SECTION – II


i) Pressure
iii) Gauge pressure
v) Static pressure.

_____________________
Set R
Seat
No.
Set S
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

1. Type I : Multiple answer type (Two marks each) :

i) In a rotameter the flow is inferred from
ii) As per the Taylor’s principle of gauging
iii) A bore of ∅ 14.67 mm in a work piece can be measured by
iv) Comparator consists of
v) In measurement systems which of the following static characteristics are
undesirable ?
P.T.O.
Type II : Match the pair (One mark each) :
vi) Column I Column II
vii) Column I Column II
Type III : Straight objective type (One mark each) :

viii) A dead weight tester is used for
ix) Mark the odd one.
x) Which metal/non-metal has the highest temperature range ?
xi) In measurements system, which of the following static characteristics are desirable ?
______________
Set S
Seat
No.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
SECTION – I


accuracy. 5

Set S
SECTION – II


i) Pressure
iii) Gauge pressure
v) Static pressure.

_____________________
Set S
*SLREP71* SLR-EP 71
Seat
No. Set P
A
T.E. (Mechanical) (Part II) Examination, 2016
INTERNAL COMBUSTION ENGINE
Day and Date : Tuesday, 22-11-2016 Total Marks : 100
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.


1) For same compression ratio and heat addition Otto cycle efficiency with respect to diesel
cycle efficiency is
a) Greater than b) Smaller than c) Equal to d) None of the above
2) The function of quench area in a wedge shaped SI engine combustion chamber
a) Improve the compression ratio
b) Cool the end gas
c) Decrease the volume of combustion chamber
d) Increase the area of combustion chamber
3) Multi point fuel injection system uses
a) Direct injection b) Port injection
c) Throttle body injection d) Both (b) and (c)
4) Lubrication system used in racing car
a) Petrol b) Splash system
c) Pressure system d) Dry sump lubrication
5) Valve overlap is the period in which
a) Intake valve closed while exhaust valve close
b) Intake valve open while exhaust valve is open
c) Both intake and exhaust valves are open
d) Both intake and exhaust valves are closed
6) In case of fuel injector spring tension and valve opening pressure is controlled by
a) Lock nut b) Adjusting screw
c) Plunger d) None of the above
P.T.O.
7) The function of distributor in case of battery ignition system
a) Distribute the fuel to ignition coil
b) Storage of energy in primary and secondary winding
c) Determine the firing sequence of spark plug
8) In CI engines with increase in compression ratio the delay period
c) First increase then decreases d) Not affected
9) CO in the exhaust of a car should not more than
a) 0.5% b) 2% c) 5% d) 10%
10) Brake thermal efficiency of SI engine is in the range
a) 35% to 60% b) 25% to 35%
c) 60% to 80% d) None of the above
11) Dissociation of CO2 and H2O takes place above
a) 200°C and 400°C b) 1000°C and 1300°C
c) 600°C and 800°C d) None of the above
12) The octane number iso-octane is
a) 0 b) 10 c) 80 d) 100
13) The volumetric efficiency of SI engine is comparatively
a) Lower than CI engine b) Higher than CI engine
c) Will be same as CI engine d) None of the above
14) The component which converts reciprocatory motion into rotary motion in engines is
a) gudgeon pin b) piston rings c) crank shaft d) camshaft
15) From the engine indicator diagram we obtain
a) IMEP b) BMEP
c) Mechanical efficiency d) Relative efficiency
16) Supercharging increases the power output by increasing
a) Charge temperature b) Charge pressure
c) Speed of engine d) Quantity of fuel admitted
17) Increasing the compression ratio in SI engines the knocking tendency
a) Decreases b) Increases
c) Not affected d) None of the above
18) Spark advance is usually specified in terms of
a) degrees of crank rotation b) time in seconds
c) engine speed in rev/min d) none of the above
19) The fuel air ratio for maximum power in SI engine should be
a) Lean b) Rich
c) May be lean or rich d) Chemically correct
20) In cooling system of the engine the purpose of thermostat is to keep the engine
a) Hot b) Cool
c) At desired temperature d) None of the above
______________
Set P
Seat
No.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
SECTION I
2. a) Derive an equation for air fuel ratio for carburetor using exact method. 6
b) Explain selection of I.C. Engine for power generation and automobile application. 6
c) Discuss the following losses which occur in an actual engine : 8
I) Exhaust blow down losses.
II) Pumping losses.
III) Time losses.
3. a) The venturi of simple carburetor has throat diameter of 35 mm and co-efficient of air flow
is 0.85. The fuel orifice has a diameter of 2.3 mm and co-efficient of fuel flow is 0.66. The
petrol surface is 5 mm below the throat. Find 8
i) The air fuel ratio for pressure drop of 0.07 bar when the nozzle lip is neglected.
ii) The air fuel ratio when the nozzle lip is taken in to account.
iii) The minimum velocity of air (critical air velocity) required to start the fuel flow when
nozzle lip is provided.
The density of air and fuel as 1.2 and 750 kg/m3 respectively.
b) Explain valve timing diagram for two stroke and four stroke engine. 6
c) What are the steady state and transient operation of engine ? Explain requirement of air
fuel mixture for these operations. 6
4. a) A 16 cylinder diesel engine has power output of 800 kW at 900 rpm. The engine works on
four stroke cycle and has fuel consumption of 234 gm/kW-hr. The pressure in the cylinder
at the beginning of the injection is 32.4 bar and maximum pressure in the cylinder is
55 bar. The injector is set at 214 bar and the maximum pressure at the injector is expected
to be about 600 bar. The coefficient of discharge for the injector is 0.6. The specific gravity
of fuel is 0.86. Calculate the orifice area required per injector if injection takes place over 10
degree crank angle. 8
b) Classify lubrication system of I.C. engine. Explain pressure lubrication with figure. 6
c) Discuss the requirements of an injection system and explain distributor type injection
system. 6
Set P
SECTION II
5. a) Compare the knocking in SI engines and CI engines. 8

b) Differentiate between : 8
1) Pre-ignition and auto ignition.
2) Open combustion chamber and pre combustion chamber.
c) Write a short notes on importance of air motion in C.I. combustion. 4
6. a) Explain Turbo charging and its suitability in I.C. Engines. Also explain its difference from
supercharging. 8
b) Enlist the different techniques of using alcohol in diesel engines. 4
c) The air flow to four cylinder four stroke petrol engine is measured by means of a 7.5 cm
diameter sharp edge orifice, Cd = 0.6. During a test on the engine following data were
recorded :
Bore = 11 cm, stroke = 13 cm, Engine speed = 2250 rpm, Brake power = 36 kW, Fuel
consumption = 10.5 kg/h, Calorific value of fuel = 42000 kJ/kg, Pressure drop across the
orifice = 4.1 cm of water. Atmospheric temperature and pressure are 15°C and 1.013 bar.
Calculate :
i) Thermal efficiency on brake power basis.
ii) Brake mean effective pressure.
iii) Volumetric efficiency based on free air condition. 8
7. a) Explain the attractive features of hydrogen as an I.C. Engine fuel and discuss its suitability
for S.I. engines and C.I. engines. 8
b) What are the different pollutants emitted by the petrol engines ? Explain methods used to
control these pollutants. 8
c) Write a short note on EGR. 4
_____________________
Set P
*SLREP71* SLR-EP 71
Seat
No. Set Q
A
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.


a) Lean b) Rich
a) Hot b) Cool
cycle efficiency is
b) Cool the end gas
P.T.O.
a) 0.5% b) 2% c) 5% d) 10%
a) 35% to 60% b) 25% to 35%
a) 200°C and 400°C b) 1000°C and 1300°C
a) 0 b) 10 c) 80 d) 100
a) IMEP b) BMEP
______________
Set Q
Seat
No.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
SECTION I
II) Pumping losses.
III) Time losses.
system. 6
Set Q
SECTION II

supercharging. 8
recorded :
Calculate :
_____________________
Set Q
*SLREP71* SLR-EP 71
Seat
No. Set R
A
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.


a) 200°C and 400°C b) 1000°C and 1300°C
a) 0 b) 10 c) 80 d) 100
a) IMEP b) BMEP
P.T.O.
a) Lean b) Rich
a) Hot b) Cool
cycle efficiency is
b) Cool the end gas
a) 0.5% b) 2% c) 5% d) 10%
a) 35% to 60% b) 25% to 35%
______________
Set R
Seat
No.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
SECTION I
II) Pumping losses.
III) Time losses.
system. 6
Set R
SECTION II

supercharging. 8
recorded :
Calculate :
_____________________
Set R
*SLREP71* SLR-EP 71
Seat
No. Set S
A
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.


a) 0.5% b) 2% c) 5% d) 10%
a) 35% to 60% b) 25% to 35%
a) 200°C and 400°C b) 1000°C and 1300°C
a) 0 b) 10 c) 80 d) 100
P.T.O.
a) IMEP b) BMEP
a) Lean b) Rich
a) Hot b) Cool
cycle efficiency is
b) Cool the end gas
______________
Set S
Seat
No.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
SECTION I
II) Pumping losses.
III) Time losses.
system. 6
Set S
SECTION II

supercharging. 8
recorded :
Calculate :
_____________________
Set S
Seat
No. Set P
T.E. (Mechanical Engineering) (Part – II) Examination, 2016
CAD/CAM
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Note : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


1) Which of the following is not the product of Dassault Systems ?
A) CATIA B) COSMOS C) Solidworks D) SolidEdge
2) Tool and fixture design is the task under
A) CAD B) CAM C) CAE D) None of these
3) In homogeneous transformation system the inverse of rotation matrix is
⎡ cos( − θ) sin( − θ) 0⎤ ⎡ cos(θ) sin(θ) 0 ⎤

⎢ ⎥ ⎢ ⎥
A) ⎢− sin( − θ) cos( − θ) 0⎥ B) ⎢− sin(θ) cos(θ) 0 ⎥
⎢⎣ 0 0 1⎥⎦ ⎢⎣ 0 0 1⎥⎦
⎡ sin( − θ) cos( − θ) 0⎤ ⎡− sin(− θ) cos( − θ) 0⎤

⎢ ⎥ ⎢ ⎥
C) ⎢cos( − θ) − sin( − θ) 0⎥ D) ⎢ cos(− θ) sin( − θ) 0⎥
⎢⎣ 0 0 1⎥⎦ ⎢⎣ 0 0 1⎥⎦
4) _________ is the type of graphics standards.

A) PHIGS B) CORE C) GKS D) All of these
5) In the following geometric modeling which is not 3D modeling ?
A) Wireframe modeling B) Drafting
C) Surface modeling D) Solid Modeling
6) In any curve representation, the shape associated with control points is called as
A) Uniform curve B) Rectangle C) Circle D) Control Polygon
7) Which of the following is the module of CIM ?
A) CAD B) CAM
C) Business data functions D) All of these
P.T.O.
8) Retrieval type and generative type are the types of

A) FMS B) GT
C) CAPP D) CNC programming
9) Which of the following is the rapid prototyping method ?
A) Stereolithography B) Selective Laser Sintering
C) Fused Deposition Modeling D) All of these
10) DC Servo motors are used as drive motors in
A) Open loop control B) Close loop control
11) Which one of the following is not CNC controller ?
A) SINUMERIK B) CINCINNATI C) PEARSON D) FANUC
12) Following is the basic component of CNC machine.
A) Programme of instructions B) MCU
C) Machine tool D) All of the above
13) In numerical control systems, DNC stands for
A) Dedicated Numerical Control B) Directional Numerical Control
C) Distributed Numerical Control D) None of these
14) NC machines used for drilling, boring, reaming, tapping is
A) Contouring type B) Straight cut
C) Point-to-point D) None of the above
15) Which type of tool magazines are generally used to handle large number of tools ?
A) Drum type B) Chain type C) Turret type D) Both A) & B)
16) Multiple pallets are used in CNC machine tools, basically for
A) Increasing the cost of machine B) Ease of handing job
C) Increase machine utilization D) All of these
17) The preparatory function used for circular clockwise interpolation function is
A) G03 B) G02 C) G04 D) G01
18) The miscellaneous function words consist of __________ digits.
A) One B) Two C) Three D) Four
19) The machine zero on lathe is generally set on the machine at
A) Top right side B) Top left side
C) At top mid position D) None of the above
20) Canned cycles are generally used for
A) Turning B) Drilling C) Threading D) Both A) and C)
______________
Set P
Seat
No.

CAD/CAM

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Note : 1) Attempt any three questions from Section – I.

2) Q. No. 6 is compulsory from Section – II and solve any two
from remaining questions.
3) Draw meaningful sketches wherever necessary with pencil only.
4) Figures to right indicate full marks.
5) Make suitable assumptions, if required and state them clearly.
SECTION – I
2. a) Explain in detail input devices in CAD hardware. 6

b) Explain in detail the various functions graphics software can perform. 7
3. a) Translate a triangle with coordinates A(1, 1), B(3, 3) and C(4, 1) by 4 units in
X-direction and 2 units in Y-direction. Write the equation and draw the translation. 7
b) Explain the need of homogeneous transformations ? Write the homogeneous

matrices for translation, rotation, scaling, reflection and shear. 6
4. a) Merits and Demerits of Group Technology. 6
b) Differentiate between Wireframe and Surface models. 7
5. Write notes on any three : 14
a) CAD/CAM product cycle.
b) Coordinate Transformations.
c) Computer Integrated Manufacturing (CIM).
d) Data exchange formats.
Set P
SECTION – II
6. a) With reference to component drawing given below prepare CNC part program using
G & M codes
Prepare :
1) Sequence of operation
2) Process sheet.
Assume suitable Job zero/Machine zero/home position of tool etc. and state it
clearly.
Given :
Tool material : H.S.S Work Material : M.S.
Spindle speed : 2000 rpm Feed rate : 400 mm/min
All dimensions are in mm. 10
b) Differentiate between open loop and closed loop control systems. 4
7. a) Classification of NC machine system. 7

b) Explain briefly CNC controllers. 6
8. a) Explain in detail adaptive control of CNC machine tools. 7

b) Explain in detail various tool holding devices on CNC machines. 6

a) Diameter Vs. radius programming.
b) Canned cycles.
c) Pallets in CNC.
d) DNC machines.
_____________________
Set P
Seat
No. Set Q
CAD/CAM
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.


A) G03 B) G02 C) G04 D) G01
⎡ cos( − θ) sin( − θ) 0⎤ ⎡ cos(θ) sin(θ) 0 ⎤

⎢ ⎥ ⎢ ⎥
A) ⎢− sin( − θ) cos( − θ) 0⎥ B) ⎢− sin(θ) cos(θ) 0 ⎥
⎢⎣ 0 0 1⎥⎦ ⎢⎣ 0 0 1⎥⎦

⎢ ⎥ ⎢ ⎥
C) ⎢cos( − θ) − sin( − θ) 0⎥ D) ⎢ cos(− θ) sin( − θ) 0⎥
⎢⎣ 0 0 1⎥⎦ ⎢⎣ 0 0 1⎥⎦
P.T.O.

A) CAD B) CAM
A) FMS B) GT
______________
Set Q
Seat
No.

CAD/CAM

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

SECTION – I


Set Q
SECTION – II
G & M codes
Prepare :
2) Process sheet.
clearly.
Given :



b) Canned cycles.
c) Pallets in CNC.
d) DNC machines.
_____________________
Set Q
Seat
No. Set R
CAD/CAM
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.


A) G03 B) G02 C) G04 D) G01
P.T.O.

⎡ cos(− θ) sin( − θ) 0⎤ ⎡ cos(θ) sin(θ) 0⎤

⎢ ⎥ ⎢ ⎥
A) ⎢− sin(− θ) cos( − θ) 0⎥ B) ⎢ − sin(θ) cos(θ) 0⎥
⎢⎣ 0 0 1⎥⎦ ⎢⎣ 0 0 1⎥⎦

⎢ ⎥ ⎢ ⎥
C) ⎢cos(− θ) − sin( − θ) 0⎥ D) ⎢ cos(− θ) sin( − θ) 0⎥
⎢⎣ 0 0 1⎥⎦ ⎢⎣ 0 0 1⎥⎦

A) CAD B) CAM
A) FMS B) GT
______________
Set R
Seat
No.

CAD/CAM

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

SECTION – I


Set R
SECTION – II
G & M codes
Prepare :
2) Process sheet.
clearly.
Given :



b) Canned cycles.
c) Pallets in CNC.
d) DNC machines.
_____________________
Set R
Seat
No. Set S
CAD/CAM
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.


A) CAD B) CAM
A) FMS B) GT
P.T.O.
A) G03 B) G02 C) G04 D) G01
⎡ cos(− θ) sin( − θ) 0⎤ ⎡ cos(θ) sin(θ) 0⎤

⎢ ⎥ ⎢ ⎥
A) ⎢− sin(− θ) cos( − θ) 0⎥ B) ⎢ − sin(θ) cos(θ) 0⎥
⎢⎣ 0 0 1⎥⎦ ⎢⎣ 0 0 1⎥⎦

⎢ ⎥ ⎢ ⎥
C) ⎢cos(− θ) − sin( − θ) 0⎥ D) ⎢ cos(− θ) sin( − θ) 0⎥
⎢⎣ 0 0 1⎥⎦ ⎢⎣ 0 0 1⎥⎦

______________
Set S
Seat
No.

CAD/CAM

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

SECTION – I


Set S
SECTION – II
G & M codes
Prepare :
2) Process sheet.
clearly.
Given :



b) Canned cycles.
c) Pallets in CNC.
d) DNC machines.
_____________________
Set S
Seat
No.
Set P
MACHINE DESIGN – II
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Answer Book Page No. 3.
4) Assume suitable data if necessary and mention it clearly.

I. Match the pairs : 5
Column – I Column – II
A) Design of pipe with C40 material P) Lame’s equation
B) Short bearing Q) Antifriction bearing
C) Journal bearing R) L/D ratio greater than 1
D) Design of cylinder with FG350 material S) L/D ratio less than 1
E) Rolling contact bearing T) Sommerfield number
U) Birnie’s equation
II. Multiple choice questions. (Two marks each) : 8

1) The center to center distance between two helical gears depends upon
a) Helix angle b) Number of teeth
c) Pressure angle d) Transverse circular pitch
2) The length of root of worm wheel depends upon
a) Number of starts b) Effective face width
c) Clearance d) Speed factor for worm wheel
3) Wear strength of the bevel gears depends upon
a) Material constant b) Pitch angle
c) Velocity ratio d) Pitch circle diameter
4) The aims of optimum design are
a) Minimization of life b) Maximization of stresses
c) Minimization of weight d) Maximization of life
P.T.O.
III. Single correct answer type questions (carry one mark each) : 7
1) The minimum number of teeth depends upon

a) Module b) Pressure angle
c) Face width d) Pitch circle diameter
2) When bevel gears having equal teeth and equal pitch angles connect two shafts
intersecting at 90° then they are known as
a) Angular bevel gears b) Crown bevel gears
c) Internal bevel gears d) Mitre gears
3) In helical gears, the distance between similar faces of adjacent teeth along a helix on the
pitch cylinders normal to the teeth, is called
a) Normal pitch b) Axial pitch
c) Diametral pitch d) Module
4) The worm wheel should be

a) Embeddable and conformable b) Hard and conformable
c) Hard and embeddable d) None of the above
5) When the gears are dipped in a bath of mineral oil in a gear box, it is known as
a) Spray lubrication b) Dipped lubrication
c) Self lubrication d) Splash lubrication
6) When diameter of journal is less than the length of bearing, it is called as

a) Short bearing b) Long bearing
c) Square bearing d) All of these
7) According to IS 2825 : 1969 code for pressure vessels subjected to the lethal substances,
the weld efficiency must be
a) 50% b) 75%
c) 85% d) 100%
______________
Set P
Seat
No.


Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions : i) Answer any two questions from each Section.

ii) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
iii) Assume suitable data if necessary and mention it clearly.
SECTION – I
2. a) Explain static and dynamic load in spur gears. 5

b) Explain Herringbone gears with neat sketch. 5
c) It is required to design a pair of spur gears with 20° full depth involute teeth and number of
teeth on pinion as 18. The input shaft rotates at 720 rpm and receives 5 kW power through
flexible coupling. The speed of the output shaft is 144 rpm. The pinion as well as the gear
are made of steel Fe 410(Sut = 410 N/mm2). The service factor for the application is 1.25.
The gears are machined to meet the specifications of grade 8. Tooth error for grade 8 is
e = 16 + 1.25[m + 0.25 d ] in microns.
Lewis form factor Y = 0.308 for 18 teeth.
Determine :
i) For preliminary calculations, assume pitch line velocity as 5 m/sec. and the factor of
safety as 2 against bending failure. Estimate the module and select first preference
value of module. Use Cv = 3/(3 + v).
ii) Calculate the dynamic load by Spott’s equation.
iii) Using factor of safety of 2 for wear strength, calculate the effective load and specify
the surface hardness for gears. 10
3. a) Explain adequate and optimum design of mechanical components with one example of
each. 5
b) Explain the various design equations used in optimum design. 5
c) A pair of parallel helical gears consists of 25 teeth pinion meshing with a 85 teeth gear.
The pinion rotates at 720 rpm. The normal pressure angle is 20° while the helix angle is 25°.
The normal module is 4 mm and the face width is 40 mm. Both the gears are made of steel
(Sut = 600 N/mm2) and heat treated to 300 BHN. The service factor and the factor of
safety are 1.5 and 2 respectively. Assume that the velocity factor accounts for the dynamic
load and calculate the power transmitting capacity of gear pair.
Set P
2.87
Assume form factor Y = 0.484 −
z′
5 .6
Cv =
5 .6 + v .
Where, z′ = formative number of teeth and v = Pitch line velocity in m/s. 10
4. a) Explain the types of pressure vessel supports with the help of neat sketches. 8
b) A cylindrical pressure vessel of 1250 mm inner diameter and 20 mm thickness is provided
with a nozzle of 200 mm inner diameter and 15 mm thickness. The extension of the nozzle
inside the vessel is 15 mm. The corrosion allowance is 2 mm, while the weld joint efficiency
for shell as well as nozzle is 85%. The design pressure is 3 MPa. The yield strength of the
material for the shell and nozzle is 200 N/mm2 and factor of safety as 1.5. Determine
whether or not reinforcing pad is required for the opening. If so, determine the dimensions
of the reinforcing pad made out of a plate of 14 mm thickness. 12
SECTION – II
5. a) Derive the expression for beam strength of straight teeth bevel gear. 5
b) Discuss the various failure criteria used in design of worm gear drive. 5
c) Explain the working of hydrodynamic journal bearing with neat sketches. 5
d) Derive the expression for static load carrying capacity of rolling contact bearing. 5
6. a) A straight teeth bevel pinion transmits 5 KW power at 1000 rpm to a gear rotating at
500 rpm. The module of the gears measured at larger end is 4 mm and the facewidth of the
gears is 35 mm. The number of teeth on pinion are 20 and the normal pressure angle is 20°.
Calculate the tangential, axial and radial components of resultant tooth force acting on
pinion and gear meshing teeth. Draw free body diagram of forces acting on pinion and
gear. 10
b) A single row deep groove ball bearing having bore diameter of 50 mm and inner race is
rotating at 1440 rpm. The bearing is subjected to a radial load of 2500 N and axial load of
1200 N. The expected life of the bearing is 30000 working hours. Calculate the required
basic dynamic capacity of bearing and select from the manufacturer’s catalogue given
below : 10
Dynamic capacity
Bearing No.
Pa/Pr ≤ e Pa/Pr>e (in N)
e
X Y X Y 6209 33200
0.31 1 0 0.56 1.4

6309 52700
0.31 1 0 0.56 1.2

6210 35100
0.44 1 0 0.56 1.0

6310 61800
Set P
7. a) A pair of worm gear is designated as 1/54/10/5 consists of worm gear made of phosphor
bronze (centrifugally cast) and worm gear made of case hardened alloy steel. The normal
pressure angle is 20° and the coefficient of friction between worm and worm gear teeth is
0.04. The external surface area of housing is 0.7 m2 and the overall heat transfer coefficient
is 28 W/m2°C. The worm rotates at 1000 rpm. The permissible temperature rise of lubricating
oil is 50°C. Calculate the input power rating of worm gear drive based on
i) Wear strength rating
ii) Thermal considerations.
Use : Xc1 = 0.14 Xc2 = 0.35 Sc1 = 5.41 Sc2 = 1.55 Yz = 1.143. 10
b) The following data is given for 360° hydrodynamic journal bearing.
Radial load = 5 kN
Journal speed = 1500 rpm
Diameter of Journal = 50 mm
Clearance = 25 microns
Eccentricity = 20 microns
l/d = 1
Calculate :
i) Eccentricity ratio
ii) Viscosity of oil
iii) Minimum oil film thickness
iv) Total oil flow
Use following table
hO S ⎛r⎞ Q
⎜ ⎟f
c ⎝c⎠ rcns l
0.2 0.8 0.631 12.8 3.59
0.4 0.6 0.264 5.79 3.99

10
0.6 0.4 0.121 3.22 4.33
0.8 0.2 0.0446 1.70 4.62
_____________
Set P
Set P
Seat
No.
Set Q
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.


I. Single correct answer type questions (carry one mark each) : 7


a) 50% b) 75%
c) 85% d) 100%

P.T.O.



III. Match the pairs : 5

______________
Set Q
Seat
No.


Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

SECTION – I

e = 16 + 1.25[m + 0.25 d ] in microns.
Determine :
each. 5
Set Q
2.87
z′
5 .6
Cv =
5 .6 + v .
SECTION – II
gear. 10
below : 10
Dynamic capacity
Bearing No.
e
X Y X Y 6209 33200
0.31 1 0 0.56 1.4

6309 52700
0.31 1 0 0.56 1.2

6210 35100
0.44 1 0 0.56 1.0

6310 61800
Set Q
Use : Xc1 = 0.14 Xc2 = 0.35 Sc1 = 5.41 Sc2 = 1.55 Yz = 1.143. 10
Radial load = 5 kN
l/d = 1
Calculate :
iv) Total oil flow
Use following table
ho S ⎛r⎞ Q
⎜ ⎟f
c ⎝c⎠ rcns l
0.2 0.8 0.631 12.8 3.59
0.4 0.6 0.264 5.79 3.99

10
0.6 0.4 0.121 3.22 4.33
0.8 0.2 0.0446 1.70 4.62
_____________
Set Q
Set Q
Seat
No.
Set R
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.


I. Multiple choice questions. (Two marks each) : 8

II. Match the pairs : 5
P.T.O.
III. Single correct answer type questions (carry one mark each) : 7

a) 50% b) 75%
c) 85% d) 100%


______________
Set R
Seat
No.


Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

SECTION – I

e = 16 + 1.25[m + 0.25 d ] in microns.
Determine :
each. 5
Set R
2.87
z′
5 .6
Cv =
5 .6 + v .
SECTION – II
gear. 10
below : 10
Dynamic capacity
Bearing No.
e
X Y X Y 6209 33200
0.31 1 0 0.56 1.4

6309 52700
0.31 1 0 0.56 1.2

6210 35100
0.44 1 0 0.56 1.0

6310 61800
Set R
Use : Xc1 = 0.14 Xc2 = 0.35 Sc1 = 5.41 Sc2 = 1.55 Yz = 1.143. 10
Radial load = 5 kN
l/d = 1
Calculate :
iv) Total oil flow
Use following table
hO S ⎛r⎞ Q
⎜ ⎟f
c ⎝c⎠ rcns l
0.2 0.8 0.631 12.8 3.59
0.4 0.6 0.264 5.79 3.99

10
0.6 0.4 0.121 3.22 4.33
0.8 0.2 0.0446 1.70 4.62
_____________
Set R
Set R
Seat
No.
Set S
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.


I. Single correct answer type questions (carry one mark each) : 7

P.T.O.

a) 50% b) 75%
c) 85% d) 100%



III. Match the pairs : 5

______________ Set S
Seat
No.


Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

SECTION – I

e = 16 + 1.25[m + 0.25 d ] in microns.
Determine :
each. 5
Set S
2.87
z′
5 .6
Cv =
5 .6 + v .
SECTION – II
gear. 10
below : 10
Dynamic capacity
Bearing No.
e
X Y X Y 6209 33200
0.31 1 0 0.56 1.4

6309 52700
0.31 1 0 0.56 1.2

6210 35100
0.44 1 0 0.56 1.0

6310 61800
Set S
Use : Xc1 = 0.14 Xc2 = 0.35 Sc1 = 5.41 Sc2 = 1.55 Yz = 1.143. 10
Radial load = 5 kN
l/d = 1
Calculate :
iv) Total oil flow
Use following table
hO S ⎛r⎞ Q
⎜ ⎟f
c ⎝c⎠ rcns l
0.2 0.8 0.631 12.8 3.59
0.4 0.6 0.264 5.79 3.99

10
0.6 0.4 0.121 3.22 4.33
0.8 0.2 0.0446 1.70 4.62
_____________
Set S
Set S
*SLREP75* SLR-EP 75
Seat
No.
Set P
B.E. (Mech.) (Part I) Examination, 2016
AUTOMATIC CONTROL ENGINEERING
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer

Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to
mention, Q.P. Set (P/Q/R/S) on Top of Page.


1) Washing machine with cleanliness of clothes as a controlled variable is an example of
a) Open loop control system b) Closed loop control system
c) Natural control system d) None of these
2) In rotational mechanical system inertia is represented by
a) Mass moment of inertia b) Polar moment of inertia
c) Mass d) Torsional spring
3) For a orifice with pressure difference across it as (P 1 P) and having resistance RF, as per the
direct analogy volume flow Q through orifice is analogous to
a) Voltage b) Current c) Flux d) Charge
4) In a two phase AC servo motor, voltage across one of the phase is constant and across another
phase is
a) Controlled voltage for speed control of motor b) Constant
c) Having any magnitude d) None of these
5) For mechanical elements in parallel ________ through each element remain same.
a) Velocity b) Displacement c) Force d) Acceleration
6) In hydraulic servomotor the walking beam linkage acts as a
a) Input lever b) Output lever
c) Take off point d) Comparator or summing point
7) The output of the system shown in figure below is
+ +
+

a) G1 + G2 b) 1 + G1 + G2 c)
4
d) (1 + G1 + G2)R
/ /

P.T.O.

8) For a partial block diagram shown in figure below, for shifting a take off point after a block, modification
needed in take off signal is
/ / 0
a) Adding a block with TF of block as, b) Adding a block with TF of block as,
/ 0 /
c) Adding a block with TF of block as, G d) Adding a block with TF of block as, 1 + G
9) For integral control mode, the value of steady state constant KG1 is
a) 0 b) G1(D)
c) CO d) Some finite number
10) The steady state constants are B = 5, KH = 0.5 and KG1 = 1, the slope of the controller line is
a) 0.5 b) 5 c) 2.5 d) 0.5
11) The best control is achieved with
a) P control b) I-control
c) P + D control d) P + I + D control
12) A system will have the roots placed symmetrically about the origin if its Rouths array has
a) A row of all zero terms
b) Two sign changes in the first column
c) All positive terms in the first column
13) Partial Fractions are used in which of the following techniques of programming ?
a) Series programming b) Parallel programming
c) Direct programming d) General programming
14) Which of the following controllers will give zero output if error is constant with time ?
a) P-controller b) I-controller c) D-controller d) P + I controller
15) If a system has two poles at the origin, then the starting slope of its magnitude plot is
a) 20 db/decade b) 40 db/decade
c) 40 db/decade d) 20 db/decade
16) A Root Locus will have the branches starting from infinity if,
a) P = Z b) Z > P c) P > Z d) P = O
17) In bode plots, gain-margin is calculated at
a) Gain crossover frequency b) Corner frequency
c) Phase crossover frequency d) Any frequency
18) The Centroid of asymptotes in Root Locus
a) Always lies on Root Locus b) Never lies on Root Locus
c) May or may not lie on Root Locus d) Is always having positive x-coordinate
19) Addition of poles makes a system
a) More stable b) More unstable
c) Marginally stable d) Oscillatory
20) In magnitude plot, the slope changes at
a) Every corner frequency b) Gain crossover frequency
c) Phase crossover frequency d) Zero decibel magnitude
______________
Set P
Seat
No.


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Answer any three questions from each Section.

3) Use of non-programmable calculators is allowed.
4) Assume any additional data if necessary and state it clearly.
5) Use university graph papers and semi-log papers if needed.
SECTION I
2. a) Explain open loop control system in detail. 6

b) For the mechanical system shown in figure (2 b) find relation between 7
a) x to f
b) y to f
c) y to x
Figure (2 b)
Set P
3. a) Explain jet pipe amplifier and derive the transfer function between piston position y and input
position x. 6
b) Find overall transfer function of system shown in figure (3 b). 7
Figure (3 b)
4. a) For electrical system shown in figure (4 a) determine relation between input

voltage V1 and output voltage V2. 6
Figure (4 a)
b) Effect the linear approximation for pressure p in the equation of state PV = mRT. The reference
condition are
Pi = 8265.6 N/m2, ri = 1 m3, mi = 0.1 kg, Ti = 15°C. 7
Determine the percentage error in using this approximation for p when V = 1.1 m3 and T = 17°C and
m remains same. Take characteristics gas constant, R as 0.287 KJ/kg.k R is constant.
Set P
5. a) A typical family of steady state operating curves for unity feedback system is shown in figure (5 a).
At the reference condition (point A) Vi = 4000, Mi = 1000, Ui = 200 and Ci = 4,000. Construct a block
diagram that describes steady state operation of this system. Also find steady state relation. 7
Figure (5 a)
b) The characteristics of an engine described by the family of curves shown in figure (5 b). Determine
the linear approximation for the change in torque t delivered by engine. The difference between
d n
torque t produced by engine and load torque is used to accelerate the engine J
and to overcome
d t
d n
viscous friction Bn. Thus t tL = J
+ Bn. For J = 0.02 and B = 0.03 determine the differential

d t
equation relating the change in speed n to the change in fuel q and change in load torque tL. Also
find time constant of engine. 7
Figure (5 b)
Set P
SECTION II
6. a) Sketch the complete Root Loans for a system having comment on the
K ( S 5 )
G ( S ) H ( S )
S 4 S 2 0
system stability. 9
b) Explain Bode-Plots for zeros at the origin. 5
7. a) A system has a characteristic equation S5 + 3S4 + 2S3 + 6S2 + 9S + 3 = 0. Determine whether it

has any roots to the right of the imaginary axis. 8
b) Explain P and P + I control actions with necessary equations and plots. 5
8. a) A unity feedback control system has, . Sketch the Bode-Plots and

"
/ 5
5 5 5
comment on system stability. 8

b) Explain angle and magnitude conditions in Root Locus. 5
9. a) Obtain state space representation using Parallel Programming and also draw a computer diagram
for a feedback control system with
, "
; J B J
8
, , ! , #
b) What are various modes of control ? State the advantages and limitations of each. 5
_____________________
Set P
*SLREP75* SLR-EP 75
Seat
No.
Set Q
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

a) P = Z b) Z > P c) P > Z d) P = O
8) For a orifice with pressure difference across it as (P 1 P) and having resistance RF, as per the
phase is
P.T.O.
+ +

a) G1 + G2 b) 1 + G1 + G2 c)
4
d) (1 + G1 + G2)R
/ /

/ / 0
/ 0 /
a) 0 b) G1(D)
a) 0.5 b) 5 c) 2.5 d) 0.5
______________
Set Q
Seat
No.


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I

a) x to f
b) y to f
c) y to x
Figure (2 b)
Set Q
position x. 6
Figure (3 b)

Figure (4 a)
condition are
Pi = 8265.6 N/m2, ri = 1 m3, mi = 0.1 kg, Ti = 15°C. 7
Set Q
Figure (5 a)
d n
and to overcome
d t
d n

d t
Figure (5 b)
Set Q
SECTION II
K ( S 5 )
G ( S ) H ( S )
S 4 S 2 0
system stability. 9


"
/ 5
5 5 5

, "
; J B J
8
, , ! , #
_____________________
Set Q
*SLREP75* SLR-EP 75
Seat
No.
Set R
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.



a) P = Z b) Z > P c) P > Z d) P = O
P.T.O.
13) For a orifice with pressure difference across it as (P1 P) and having resistance RF, as per the
phase is
+ +
+

a) G1 + G2 b) 1 + G1 + G2 c)
4
d) (1 + G1 + G2)R
/ /

/ / 0
/ 0 /
a) 0 b) G1(D)
a) 0.5 b) 5 c) 2.5 d) 0.5
______________
Set R
Seat
No.


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I

a) x to f
b) y to f
c) y to x
Figure (2 b)
Set R
position x. 6
Figure (3 b)

Figure (4 a)
condition are
Pi = 8265.6 N/m2, ri = 1 m3, mi = 0.1 kg, Ti = 15°C. 7
Set R
Figure (5 a)
d n
and to overcome
d t
d n

d t
Figure (5 b)
Set R
SECTION II
K ( S 5 )
G ( S ) H ( S )
S 4 S 2 0
system stability. 9


"
/ 5
5 5 5

, "
; J B J
8
, , ! , #
_____________________
Set R
*SLREP75* SLR-EP 75
Seat
No.
Set S
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.



+ +
+

a) G1 + G2 b) 1 + G1 + G2 c)
4
d) (1 + G1 + G2)R
/ /

/ / 0
/ 0 /
P.T.O.
a) 0 b) G1(D)
a) 0.5 b) 5 c) 2.5 d) 0.5
a) P = Z b) Z > P c) P > Z d) P = O
18) For a orifice with pressure difference across it as (P1 P) and having resistance RF, as per the
phase is
______________ Set S
Seat
No.


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I

a) x to f
b) y to f
c) y to x
Figure (2 b)
Set S
position x. 6
Figure (3 b)

Figure (4 a)
condition are
Pi = 8265.6 N/m2, ri = 1 m3, mi = 0.1 kg, Ti = 15°C. 7
Set S
Figure (5 a)
d n
and to overcome
d t
d n

d t
Figure (5 b)
Set S
SECTION II
K ( S 5 )
G ( S ) H ( S )
S 4 S 2 0
system stability. 9


"
/ 5
5 5 5

, "
; J B J
8
, , ! , #
_____________________
Set S
*SLREP76* SLR-EP 76
Seat
No.
Set P
B.E. Mechanical (Part I) Examination, 2016
OPERATIONS RESEARCH
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

1. Type I question. Each question carries one mark. 10

1) Operations Research approach is
a) Qualitative managerial skills
b) Operational management skills
c) Scientific approaches to decision making
d) Quantitative management skills
2) A feasible solution to LPP
a) Must satisfy all the constraints simultaneously
b) Need not satisfy all the constraints
c) Must be a corner point of feasible region
d) Must optimize the objective function
3) The dual of the primal maximization LPP having m constraints and
n variables should
a) Be a minimization problem
b) Have n constraints and m variables
c) Both a and b
4) For minimization LP problem, the objective function coefficient for the slack
variable is
a) +M b) M
c) Zero d) None of the above
5) The dummy source or destination in transportation problem is added to
a) Satisfy the rim conditions
b) Prevent the solution from being becoming degenerate
c) Modify the allocations
d) All of the above
P.T.O.
6) In case of assignment problems, at any stage of allocations to zero cells,
minimum number of lines covering all the zeros is
a) Less than number of allocations b) Equal to the number of allocations
c) More than number of allocations d) None of the above
7) A game is said to fair if
a) Both upper and lower values of the game are zero
b) Upper and lower values are not zero
c) Upper and lower values are equal but not zero
d) All of the above
8) A factor used in replacement analysis with change in money value is
called as
a) Discount factor b) Present Worth factor
c) Depreciation factor d) All of these
9) In group replacement policy, if any item fails before optimal time
a) It is replaced individually b) It is not replaced individually
c) It is replaced in a group d) None of above
10) The value of the coefficient of optimism ( ) is needed while using the criterion of
a) Equal probability b) Realism
c) Maximin d) Minimax
Type II question. Each question carries two marks. 10

4 3
1) For the Payoff 3 2 . The optimal strategy for the row player will be

a) First strategy b) Second strategy
c) Mixed strategy d) None of these
2) In PERT, the three time estimates used to calculate expected duration, are
supposed to follow the distribution curve called as
a) Poison curve b) Normal curve c) Beta curve d) Gamma curve
3) The estimated duration of times of a certain activity in PERT network under
worst condition is 12 days while under the ideal conditions it is 6 days.
Then the variance for the activity will be
a) 2 days b) 6 days c) one day d) 8 days
4) When money value is changing with time is 12%, the discount factor for the
third year is
a) one b) 0.797 c) 0.711 d) zero
5) Re order level for inventory item depends upon
a) Lead time b) Economic order quantity
c) Safety Stock d) All of these
______________
Set P
Seat
No.

OPERATIONS RESEARCH
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : i) Solve any two questions from each Section.
iii) Use of non programmable calculator is allowed.
SECTION I
2. a) Explain the applications of O.R. in industry. 3
b) Solve the following L.P.P. using Big-M method. 12
Min. Z = 2X1 + 3X2
Subject to,
X1 + X 2 5
X1 + 2X2 6
Where X1, X2 0
c) Solve the following L.P.P. using graphical method. 5
Min. Z = 4X1 + X2
Subjected to the constraints,
3X1 + 4X2 20
X1 5X2 15
Where X1, X2 0
Set P
3. a) Find the optimal assignment schedule for installing machines to the locations
given with cost of assignment in 100s of rupees. 10
Locations
Machines
A B C D E
M
9 11 15 10 11
M 12 9 10 9
M !
11 14 11 7
M "
14 8 12 7 8
b) Explain the Bellmans principle used in dynamic programming. 5
c) Discuss the mathematical formulation of transportation problem. 5
4. a) Explain in brief the various phases in O.R. 5
b) Solve the following transportation problem so as to minimize the transportation

cost in rupees using VAM. 10
Stores
1 2 3 4 supply
A 4 6 8 13 50
Factory B 13 11 10 8 70
C 14 4 10 13 30
D 9 11 13 8 50
Demand 25 35 105 20
c) Explain sensitivity analysis in L.P.P. 5
Set P
SECTION II
5. a) Two player A and B without showing each other, put on a table a coin with
head or tail up. A wins Rs. 8 when both coins show head and Rs. 1 when both
are tails. Player B wins 3 Rs. when the coins do not match, being a matching
player A what would be your strategy and value of the game ? 7
b) Solve the game by graphical method whose payoff matrix is 7

B
I II
I 2 4
II 2 3
A
III 3 2
IV 2 6
c) The demand of an item in a store is 18000 units per year. The purchase price
of the item is Rs. 5 per unit and its carrying cost is Rs. 1.2 per unit per year
and the ording cost is Rs. 400 per order. The shortage cost is Rs. 5 per unit
per year. Find the EOQ and the corresponding number orders per year, the
maximum inventory, maximum shortage quantity and the total cost of the system. 6
6. a) Different time estimates of the activities for a certain project are mentioned
below. (Time in weeks)
Activity 12 23 24 34 35 37 45 46 56 57 67
Optimistic time 1 1 2 0 2 6 4 3 1 5 3
Most likely time 2 4 4 0 3 8 6 5 5 7 5
Pessimistic time 9 7 12 0 4 16 8 7 15 15 13
I) Draw the project network and determine the expected project duration.
II) Find the critical path. 10
Set P
b) Explain inventory model with instantaneous replenishment and without

shortages. 5
c) What are the types of floats ? State the significance. 5

7. a) What is Laplace criterion and Herwicz principle ? 6
b) A firm is considering replacement of an equipment whose purchased cost is
Rs. 4,000 and the scrap value is negligible. Based on experience it is been
found the maintenance cost over the years as given below. Determine the
optimal replacement age of the machine if the money value changing 12%. 8
Year 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
Maintenance cost
0 1000 1300 1600 1900 2200 2500
in rupees
c) Explain the following terms in brief.

i) Decision tree
ii) Pure and mixed strategy
iii) PERT and CPM. 6
_____________________
Set P
*SLREP76* SLR-EP 76
Seat
No.
Set Q
OPERATIONS RESEARCH
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


d) All of the above
n variables should
c) Both a and b
variable is
a) +M b) M
P.T.O.
d) All of the above
called as

third year is
a) one b) 0.797 c) 0.711 d) zero
4 3

______________
Set Q
Seat
No.

OPERATIONS RESEARCH
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
SECTION I
Min. Z = 2X1 + 3X2
Subject to,
X1 + X 2 5
X1 + 2X2 6
Where X1, X2 0
Min. Z = 4X1 + X2
3X1 + 4X2 20
X1 5X2 15
Where X1, X2 0
Set Q
Locations
Machines
A B C D E
M
9 11 15 10 11
M 12 9 10 9
M !
11 14 11 7
M "
14 8 12 7 8

Stores
1 2 3 4 supply
A 4 6 8 13 50
Factory B 13 11 10 8 70
C 14 4 10 13 30
D 9 11 13 8 50
Demand 25 35 105 20
Set Q
SECTION II

B
I II
I 2 4
II 2 3
A
III 3 2
IV 2 6
Activity 12 23 24 34 35 37 45 46 56 57 67
Optimistic time 1 1 2 0 2 6 4 3 1 5 3
Most likely time 2 4 4 0 3 8 6 5 5 7 5
Set Q

shortages. 5

Year 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
Maintenance cost
0 1000 1300 1600 1900 2200 2500
in rupees

i) Decision tree
_____________________
Set Q
*SLREP76* SLR-EP 76
Seat
No.
Set R
OPERATIONS RESEARCH
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


d) All of the above
d) All of the above
called as
P.T.O.
n variables should
c) Both a and b
variable is
a) +M b) M

third year is
a) one b) 0.797 c) 0.711 d) zero
4 3

______________
Set R
Seat
No.

OPERATIONS RESEARCH
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
SECTION I
Min. Z = 2X1 + 3X2
Subject to,
X 1 + X2 5
X1 + 2X2 6
Where X1, X2 0
Min. Z = 4X1 + X2
3X1 + 4X2 20
X1 5X2 15
Where X1, X2 0
Set R
Locations
Machines
A B C D E
M
9 11 15 10 11
M 12 9 10 9
M !
11 14 11 7
M "
14 8 12 7 8

Stores
1 2 3 4 supply
A 4 6 8 13 50
Factory B 13 11 10 8 70
C 14 4 10 13 30
D 9 11 13 8 50
Demand 25 35 105 20
Set R
SECTION II

B
I II
I 2 4
II 2 3
A
III 3 2
IV 2 6
Activity 12 23 24 34 35 37 45 46 56 57 67
Optimistic time 1 1 2 0 2 6 4 3 1 5 3
Most likely time 2 4 4 0 3 8 6 5 5 7 5
Set R

shortages. 5

Year 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
Maintenance cost
0 1000 1300 1600 1900 2200 2500
in rupees

i) Decision tree
_____________________
Set R
*SLREP76* SLR-EP 76
Seat
No.
Set S
OPERATIONS RESEARCH
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


d) All of the above
called as
P.T.O.
d) All of the above
n variables should
c) Both a and b
variable is
a) +M b) M

4 3

third year is
a) one b) 0.797 c) 0.711 d) zero
______________
Set S
Seat
No.

OPERATIONS RESEARCH
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
SECTION I
Min. Z = 2X1 + 3X2
Subject to,
X1 + X 2 5
X1 + 2X2 6
Where X1, X2 0
Min. Z = 4X1 + X2
3X1 + 4X2 20
X1 5X2 15
Where X1, X2 0
Set S
Locations
Machines
A B C D E
M
9 11 15 10 11
M 12 9 10 9
M !
11 14 11 7
M "
14 8 12 7 8

Stores
1 2 3 4 supply
A 4 6 8 13 50
Factory B 13 11 10 8 70
C 14 4 10 13 30
D 9 11 13 8 50
Demand 25 35 105 20
Set S
SECTION II

B
I II
I 2 4
II 2 3
A
III 3 2
IV 2 6
Activity 12 23 24 34 35 37 45 46 56 57 67
Optimistic time 1 1 2 0 2 6 4 3 1 5 3
Most likely time 2 4 4 0 3 8 6 5 5 7 5
Set S

shortages. 5

Year 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
Maintenance cost
0 1000 1300 1600 1900 2200 2500
in rupees

i) Decision tree
_____________________
Set S
*SLREP77* SLR-EP 77
Seat
No. Set P
REFRIGERATION AND AIR CONDITIONING
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : i) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in
ii) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont


1) The refrigerant used in vapour absorption system is
a) Ammonia b) Water c) R-12 d) Aqua-ammonia
2) A electrolux refrigerator is called a
a) Single fluid absorption system b) Two fluid absorption system
c) Three fluid absorption system d) None of the above
3) In Lithium-bromide absorption system
a) Lithium bromide is used as refrigerant and water as absorbent
b) Water is used as refrigerant and Lithium bromide as absorbent
c) Ammonia is used as refrigerant and Lithium bromide as absorbent
4) In aqua-ammonia and Li-Br water absorption refrigeration systems, the refrigerants used
are
a) Water and water b) Water and Li-Br
c) NH3 and Li-Br d) NH3 and water
5) The critical temperature of a refrigerant is that temperature
a) Above which the gas explodes
b) Above which gas cannot be liquefied
c) Below which gas does not follow gas laws
6) A multipressure system uses
a) Different refrigerants for different stages
b) Different refrigerants with different compressors
c) Single refrigerant with number of compressors same as number of stages
P.T.O.
7) The ozone friendly refrigerant, R-134 a contains
a) Only one chlorine atom b) Only two chlorine atom
c) No chlorine atom d) None of the above
8) Equal friction method of designing ducts
a) Is ideal when system is not balanced b) Is ideal when system is balanced
c) Is ideal for return ducts only d) Is not ideal for any of the above
9) Static regain method of duct designing ducts as compared to equal friction method
a) Reduces the cost of sheet metal for duct
b) Increases the cost of sheet metal for duct
c) Increases balancing problem
d) Increases the problem of maintaining pressure at the supply terminals
10) The COP of a Cascade system is
a) Lower than low temperature system of cascade
b) Lower than high temperature system of cascade
c) Lower than low temperature as well as high temperature system
11) The R.H. during sensible cooling
c) Remains same d) May increase or decrease
12) The vapor pressure during sensible heating
13) The specific humidity is the mass of water vapour present in
a) 1 kg of wet air b) 1 kg of dry air c) 1 m3 of wet air d) 1 m3 of dry air
14) When DBT and WBT are same, then the R.H. will be
a) 0 % b) 50 % c) 75 % d) 100 %
15) The temperature at which, the vapour starts condensing out of air is known as
a) DPT b) WBT c) DBT d) None of the above
16) The sling-psychrometer measures
a) DBT b) WBT c) DPT d) DBT and WBT
17) The condensation of moisture from the air starts when its temperature falls below
a) WBT b) DBT c) DPT d) Any of the above
18) The performance of evaporative condenser largely depends upon
a) DBT b) WBT c) DPT of air d) None of the above
19) The human body feels comfortable when the heat produced by the body is equal to
a) heat dissipated to the surrounding b) heat stored in the body
c) sum of a) and b) d) difference between a) and b)
20) The process used for winter air conditioning is
a) Humidification b) Heating and humidification
c) Dehumidification d) Cooling and humidification
______________
Set P
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : i) Attempt any two questions from each Section.

ii) Assume suitable data if necessary.
iii) Use of steam tables, Psychrometry chart and non-programmable
calculator is allowed.
SECTION I
2. a) Explain with neat sketch the working principle of Electrolux Refrigerator. 6
b) Enumerate the various methods of aircraft refrigeration system and explain regenerative
air cooling system. 8
c) Define Primary refrigerants and classify primary refrigerants. Explain any two in detail. 6
3. a) A refrigerator system operating an a reversed Carnot cycle produces 400 kg/hr of ice
at 5°C from water at 25°C make calculation for
i) Power required to derive the machine
ii) Heat rejected from the system.
Take latent heat of freezing = 335 kj/kg and specific latent heat of ice = 2.1 kj/kg. 6
b) Discuss the nomenclature refrigerant. 6
c) Explain with schematic diagram the two stage compression system with flash gas removal.
Show the process on p-h diagram. 8
4. Write short notes on : (5×4=20)
i) Nano refrigerant
ii) Enthalpy concentration chart
iii) Need of refrigeration in aircrafts
iv) Lithium Bromide refrigeration system.
Set P
SECTION II
5. a) Define the following terms : 6

i) Degree of saturation
ii) Specific humidity
iii) Dew point temperature
iv) Relative humidity
b) For a sample of air having 22°C DBT, relative humidity 30 % at barometric pressure of
760 mm of Hg. Calculate
i) Vapour pressure
ii) Humidity ratio
iii) Vapour density
iv) Enthalpy. 8
c) Discuss the factors affecting thermal balance between human body and environment. 6
6. a) An air conditioned auditorium is to be maintained at 27°C DBT and 60 % relative humidity.

The ambient condition is 40°C DBT 30°C WBT. The total sensible heat load is 1,00,000 Kj/hr
and the total latent heat load is 40,000 kj/hr 60 % of the return air is recirculated and mixed
with 40 % of make up air after the cooling coil. The condition for air leaving the cooling coil
is at 18°C.
Determine
i) RSHF
ii) The conditioned of air entering the auditorium
iii) The amount of make air
iv) Apparatus dew point and
v) Bypass factor of the cooling coil.
Show the process on the Psychrometric chart. 12

b) Describe the various components of cooling load estimation. 8
7. a) What is Cascade refrigeration system ? Draw a schematic diagram of a cascade system

of refrigeration and explain with the help of P-h diagram. 10
b) Describe the thermal exchange of human body and environment. 6
c) Write short note on Duct material. 4
_____________________
Set P
*SLREP77* SLR-EP 77
Seat
No. Set Q
P
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


are
P.T.O.
a) 0 % b) 50 % c) 75 % d) 100 %
______________
Set Q
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
i) Nano refrigerant
Set Q
SECTION II

i) Vapour pressure
ii) Humidity ratio
iii) Vapour density
iv) Enthalpy. 8

is at 18°C.
Determine
i) RSHF


_____________________
Set Q
*SLREP77* SLR-EP 77
Seat
No. Set R
P
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


a) 0 % b) 50 % c) 75 % d) 100 %
P.T.O.
are
______________
Set R
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
i) Nano refrigerant
Set R
SECTION II

i) Vapour pressure
ii) Humidity ratio
iii) Vapour density
iv) Enthalpy. 8

is at 18°C.
Determine
i) RSHF


_____________________
Set R
*SLREP77* SLR-EP 77
Seat
No. Set S
P
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


P.T.O.
a) 0 % b) 50 % c) 75 % d) 100 %
are
______________
Set S
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
i) Nano refrigerant
Set S
SECTION II

i) Vapour pressure
ii) Humidity ratio
iii) Vapour density
iv) Enthalpy. 8

is at 18°C.
Determine
i) RSHF


_____________________
Set S
Seat
No. Set P
B.E. (Mechanical) (Part – I) (Old) Examination, 2016
Day and Date : Saturday, 10-12-2016 Total Marks : 100
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.


1) Modern heavy duty engines exhaust valves made of
a) High carbon steel b) Cobalt alloy
c) Nimonic alloys d) None of the above
2) Main advantage of Pintaux nozzle is
a) Better cold starting performance b) Ability to distribute the fuel
c) Good penetration d) Good atomization
3) Throttle valve controls the supply of
a) Air only b) Fuel only
c) Air-fuel mixture d) None of the above
4) The rotational speed of cam shaft with respect to crankshaft in 4 stroke engine
a) Half b) Double c) Equal d) Four times
5) The choke valve is closed when engine is
a) Accelerating b) Hot c) Cold d) Idling
7) In an actual SI engine the pumping loss with respect to speed
c) Remains constant d) Nothing to do with speed
8) In carburetor lean mixture is required during
a) Idling b) Starting c) Accelerating d) Cruising
P.T.O.
9) Compared to 4 stroke engine, 2 stroke Engines are
a) Are light in weight comparatively
b) Are simple in construction
c) Have uniform torque output at crankshaft
d) All of the above
10) For same compression ratio and heat rejection Otto cycle efficiency with respect
to diesel cycle efficiency is
a) Greater b) Smaller c) Equal d) None of the above
11) The knocking in SI engines gets reduced
a) By increasing the compression ratio
b) By retarding the spark advance
c) By increasing inlet air temperature
d) By increasing the cooling water temperature
12) With increase in compression ratio flame speed
c) Remains the same d) None of the above
13) For diesel engine the type of governing used is
a) Quantity governing b) Quality governing
c) Hit and mis governing d) None of the above
14) Open combustion chambers in CI engines require
a) High injection pressures
b) Accurate metering of fuel by the injection system
c) Both (a) and (b)
15) In turbo charging air compressor is driven by
a) Exhaust gas turbine b) Engine itself
c) Separate electrical motor d) None of the above
16) The ratio of indicated thermal efficiency to the corresponding air standard cycle
efficiency is called
a) Net efficiency b) Efficiency ratio
c) Relative efficiency d) Overall efficiency
17) Alcohols alone cannot be used in CI engines as
a) Their self ignition temperature is high
b) Latent heat of vaporization is low
c) Both (a) and (b)
18) Decrease in air-fuel ratio in SI engine results in
a) Increase of NOx b) Decrease of CO and UBHC
c) Increase of CO and UBHC d) None of the above
19) Lead was added in gasoline for
a) Reducing HC emissions b) Reducing knocking
c) Reducing exhaust temperature d) Increase power output
20) Three way catalytic converters reduce emission of
a) CO, CO2 and HC b) CO, NOx and HC
c) CO2, NOx and HC d) CO, HC and soot
______________
Set P
Seat
No.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

SECTION – I
2. a) Explain assumption made for fuel-air cycle analysis. 6

b) Explain valve timing diagram for four stroke engine, also discuss valve overlap. 6
c) Compare Diesel Cycle with Otto cycle. 8
3. a) State and explain requirement of an air fuel ratio for petrol engine from no load to
full load. 10
b) A petrol engine has carburetor of 32 mm ventury size, jet diameter 2 mm, pressure
difference at throat is 50 mm of Hg, Atmospheric pressure is 1 bar and temperature
is 27°C, coefficient of discharge for ventury is 0.85 and fuel jet 0.66, density of
petrol is 740 kg/m3, nozzle lip is zero. Neglect compressibility of air. Find : 10
i) Fuel velocity at throat
ii) Fuel flow
iii) Air velocity at throat
iv) Air flow
4. a) Determine quantity of fuel to be injected per cycle per cylinder for a 6 cylinder
4 stroke diesel engine having bsfc 245 gm/kW.hr and developing 89 kW at
2500 rpm. Take specific gravity as 0.84. 6
b) List the advantages and limitations of supercharging. 6
c) Explain selection of I.C. Engine for power generation and agriculture application. 8
Set P
SECTION – II
5. a) Discuss the different stages of combustion in SI engines with the help of a neat
p- θ diagram. 6
b) Explain what you mean by physical delay and chemical delay period with respect
to CI Engine combustion ? What are the factors affecting the delay period ? 6
c) Write short notes on : 8

1) HUCR
2) Requirement of combustion chambers for SI Engines.
6. a) The bore and stroke of a water cooled, vertical single cylinder four stroke diesel
engine are 80 mm and 110 mm respectively and the torque is 23.5 Nm. Calculate
the brake mean effective pressure of the engine. 4
b) What are various methods of measurement of brake power ? Explain any two
methods. 8

1) Turbo charging
2) NOx emissions control.
7. a) Explain the suitability of alcohol as an alternative fuel and list the advantages and
disadvantages of use of alcohol in IC engines. 6
b) What are the different pollutants emitted by the petrol engines ? State methods
used to control these pollutants. 6

1) Heat balance sheet
2) Variable valve timing.
_____________________
Set P
Seat
No. Set Q
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
c) Both (a) and (b)
P.T.O.
d) All of the above
c) Both (a) and (b)
______________ Set Q
Seat
No.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

SECTION – I

full load. 10
ii) Fuel flow
iv) Air flow
Set Q
SECTION – II
p- θ diagram. 6

1) HUCR
methods. 8

1) Turbo charging

_____________________
Set Q
Seat
No. Set R
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
c) Both (a) and (b)
P.T.O.
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) All of the above
______________ Set R
Seat
No.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

SECTION – I

full load. 10
ii) Fuel flow
iv) Air flow
Set R
SECTION – II
p- θ diagram. 6

1) HUCR
methods. 8

1) Turbo charging

_____________________
Set R
Seat
No. Set S
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
d) All of the above
P.T.O.
c) Both (a) and (b)
c) Both (a) and (b)
______________
Set S
Seat
No.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

SECTION – I

full load. 10
ii) Fuel flow
iv) Air flow
Set S
SECTION – II
p- θ diagram. 6

1) HUCR
methods. 8

1) Turbo charging

_____________________
Set S
Seat
No.
Set P
B.E. (Mechanical Engg.) (Part – II) Examination, 2016
REFRIGERATION AND AIR-CONDITIONING (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
2) Psychrometry chart, refrigerant tables and charts, steam
table are allowed.
3) Assume suitable data whenever necessary, mention it
clearly.
1) In evaporative condenser, the condensation of refrigerant takes place by
A) evaporation of water B) fusion of water
C) solidification of water D) none of the above
2) Electrolux vapour absorption system is
A) single fluid B) two fluid
C) three fluid D) none of the above
3) Generally brine is used as
A) primary refrigerant B) secondary refrigerant
C) third refrigerant D) none of the above
4) Cascade refrigeration system uses
A) one refrigerant B) two refrigerant
C) three refrigerants D) four refrigerants
5) Which is the following comfort condition ?
A) 0°C DBT and 0% RH B) 100°C DBT and 100% RH
C) 10°C DBT and 10% RH D) 22°C DBT and 60% RH
6) The saturated air has
A) DBT < WBT B) DBT > WBT
C) DBT = WBT D) None of the above
P.T.O.
7) ERSH is equal to
A) RSH/RTH B) RLH/RTH C) RTH/RSH D) RTH/RLH
8) One ron of refrigeration is equal to
A) 3.5 kW B) 3 kW C) 2.5 kW D) 1.5 kW
9) Bypass of the cooling coil should be
A) low B) high
C) depends on application D) none of the above
10) In aqua-ammonia vapour absorption system, which is used as refrigerant
A) Aqua B) R22 C) water D) ammonia
11) In vapour refrigeration system, the capillary tube is placed between
A) compressor and condenser B) condenser and evaporator
C) evaporator and compressor D) none of the above
12) Thermostatic Expansion Valve (TEV) is preferred for
A) low capacity B) high capacity
C) never used D) none of the above
13) Joule Thomson coefficient for refrigeration is
A) = 0 B) > 0 C) < 0 D) none of the above
14) The required input to the steam jet refrigeration systems is in the form of
A) Mechanical energy B) Thermal energy
C) High pressure, motive steam D) Both mechanical and thermal energy
15) Air cycle refrigeration systems are most commonly used in
A) Domestic refrigerators B) Aircraft air conditioning systems
C) Cold storages D) Car air conditioning systems
16) In an air cycle refrigeration system, low temperatures are produced due to
A) Evaporation of liquid air B) Throttling of air
C) Expansion of air in turbine D) None of the above
17) During sensible heating, DBT
A) increases B) decreases
C) remains constant D) none of the above
18) In psychrometric chart, the vertical lines are of
A) DBT B) WBT C) DPT D) none of above
19) In a refrigeration cycle, the subcooling _________ COP.
A) decreases B) increases C) neutral D) none of above
20) The Bell-Colemann refrigeration cycle uses _________as the working fluid.
A) water B) CO2 C) air D) R11
______________
Set P
-3-
Seat
No.


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

table are allowed.
3) Assume suitable data whenever necessary, mention it clearly.
SECTION – I
2. a) Explain in detail vapour compression cycle. 6
b) With schematic and T-s plot describe Boot-strap aircraft refrigeration cycle. 6
c) Enumerate methods of refrigeration and explain any one. 8
3. a) Explain cascade refrigeration cycle. 6
b) What is ODP and GWP ? 6
c) A simple saturation cycle using R22 is designed for a load of 35 kW cooling
and works between 5°C evaporator and 40°C condenser temperature. 8
Calculate :
i) mass flow of refrigerant in kg/min
ii) power required.
Use the following table :
Tsat P sat hf hg sf sg
5 5.836 205.9 407.1 1.02115 1.7447
40 15.331 249.53 416.4 1.16659 1.6995
Take Cp of superheated vapour refrigerant at condenser pressure = 0.9 kJ/kgK.
Set P
4. Write a short note : (5×4=20)

a) ASHRAE classification of refrigerants.
b) DART (Dry Air Rated Temperature)
c) Electrolux absorption refrigeration system.
d) Subcooling vapour refrigeration system.
SECTION – II
5. a) Give types and uses of outlet diffusers, dampers used in air-conditioning
system. 6
b) Draw and explain comfort chart. 6
c) A sample of air has DBT and WBT 35°C and 25°C respectively. The barometric
pressure is 760 mm of Hg. Determine : 8
i) water vapour pressure ii) specific humidity
iii) DPT iv) enthalphy
6. a) What is the economics of an air transmission system ? State the general
rules which should be followed in the design of ducts. 6
b) Explain the terms : 6
i) Aspect ratio
ii) Equivalent diameter
iii) Throw
c) Classify air-conditioning methods. Explain any one. 8
7. Write a note on following : (5×4=20)
a) Thermal exchange between human body and environment.
b) Ventilation-its objective and requirement
c) Summer air-conditioning
d) Thermodynamic wet bulb temperature.
_____________________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set Q
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
table are allowed.
clearly.
P.T.O.

12) ERSH is equal to
A) 3.5 kW B) 3 kW C) 2.5 kW D) 1.5 kW
A) low B) high
______________
Set Q
-3-
Seat
No.


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

table are allowed.
SECTION – I
Calculate :
ii) power required.
5 5.836 205.9 407.1 1.02115 1.7447
40 15.331 249.53 416.4 1.16659 1.6995
Set Q

SECTION – II
system. 6
i) Aspect ratio
iii) Throw
_____________________
Set Q
Seat
No.
Set R
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
table are allowed.
clearly.
P.T.O.

17) ERSH is equal to
A) 3.5 kW B) 3 kW C) 2.5 kW D) 1.5 kW
A) low B) high
______________
Set R
-3-
Seat
No.


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

table are allowed.
SECTION – I
Calculate :
ii) power required.
5 5.836 205.9 407.1 1.02115 1.7447
40 15.331 249.53 416.4 1.16659 1.6995
Set R

SECTION – II
system. 6
i) Aspect ratio
iii) Throw
_____________________
Set R
Seat
No.
Set S
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
table are allowed.
clearly.
2) ERSH is equal to
A) 3.5 kW B) 3 kW C) 2.5 kW D) 1.5 kW
A) low B) high
P.T.O.

______________
Set S
-3-
Seat
No.


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

table are allowed.
SECTION – I
Calculate :
ii) power required.
5 5.836 205.9 407.1 1.02115 1.7447
40 15.331 249.53 416.4 1.16659 1.6995
Set S

SECTION – II
system. 6
i) Aspect ratio
iii) Throw
_____________________
Set S
Seat
No. Set P
B.E. (Mech.) (Part – II) (Old) Examination, 2016
INDUSTRIAL AND QUALITY MANAGEMENT
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
2) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in


1) Entrepreneurial role, disturbance-handler role are _______ managerial roles.
A) Interpersonal B) Informational C) Decision D) Leading
2) ________ means the intentional structure of roles in a formally organized enterprise.
A) Informal organisation B) Policy
C) Formal organisation D) Code of conduct
3) ________ are distinct little businesses set up as units in a larger company to
ensure that a certain product.
A) Business Small Units B) Strategic Business Units
C) Small Business Units D) Business Branches Units
4) Self-esteem, status affiliation with others, affection these comes under ________
needs.
A) Basic B) Primary C) Third level D) Secondary
5) ________Maslow regards this as the highest needs in his hierarchy.
A) Pysiological needs B) Safety needs
C) Need for self actualisation D) Acceptance needs
6) In _________ concept product enjoys the supreme importance.
A) selling B) marketing C) manufacturing D) business
7) _________ is the routes taken by the product/goods as they move from the
organization/producer to the ultimate consumer or user.
A) Routing B) Channel of distribution
C) Path D) Delivery
8) The amount of working capital varies ______ with the use of credit.
A) Can’t say B) Inversely C) 1 as to 2 D) Directly
P.T.O.
9) ______ managers are the real “team manager” in grid type.
A) 1.9 B) 5.5 C) 9.1 D) 9.9
10) _________ funds are required to meet the working capital needs like investment
in the inventories, debtors, bank balance, cash on hand, marketable security etc.
A) Long term B) Short term C) Middle term D) Fixed
11) In our country, ________ is the ‘National Standards Body’.
A) NSB B) BIS C) NBS D) ISB
12) The costs associated with measuring, evaluating or auditing the product come
under
A) Cost of appraisal B) Cost of prevention
C) Cost of internal failure D) Cost of external failure
13) The maximum number of allowable defective in a lot is called as
A) Acceptance number B) OK number
C) Rejection number D) Lot number
14) In a double sampling plan if the 1st sample is neither good enough nor bad enough
then the decision on acceptance or rejection is based on the evidence of
A) Last two combined
B) First and last combined
C) First and second sample combined
D) First three combined
15) AOQ is given by the relation
A) P’.Pa (N – n/N) B) Pa.P’ (n – N/N)
C) Pa.P’ (n – N/n) D) Pa.P’ (N – n/N)
16) LTPD stands for
A) Lot Tolerance Perfect Defective B) Lot Tolerance Percent Defective
C) Lot Tolerable Percent Defective D) Lot Tolerance Piece Defective
17) The probability of rejecting a good lot which otherwise would have been accepted
is called as
A) Rework B) Consumer’s risk
C) Producer’s risk D) OK goods
18) The number of items in a lot is called as
A) Test quantity B) Sample size C) Batch size D) Lot size
19) Sampling inspection exerts more effective pressure on
A) Quality maintenance B) Production method
C) Quality improvement D) Quality systems
20) ________ is the process of evaluating a portion of the products in a lot for the
purpose of accepting or rejecting the lot on the basis of conforming or
nonconforming to the quality specifications.
A) Acceptance sampling B) Batch sampling
C) Quality checking D) Lot sampling
______________
Set P
Seat
No.


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Solve any three questions from Section – I.

2) Solve any three questions from Section – II.
SECTION – I
2. A) Write a note on industrial safety. 6

B) What are functions of marketing department ? Explain distribution and selling for
domestic and industrial goods. 7
3. A) What is planning ? Explain the steps in planning. 7

B) Explain various types of communications. 6
4. A) Explain Maslow’s theory and McGregor’s theory. 8

B) What are the responsibilities of material manager ? What are objectives of
material management department ? 6
5. A) Explain decision making process with types of decision. 6

B) Explain the elements for performance appraisal. What are various methods of
training managers ? 7
SECTION – II
6. A) Name any four quality gurus and their contribution in quality. 7

B) Write a note on X – R chart. 6
7. A) Explain cause and effect diagram, scatter diagram and pareto analysis. 7
B) Write note on continuous improvement process. 6
Set P
SLR-EP – 82 -4- *SLREP82
8. A) Explain actual and ideal OC curve for a sampling plan. Also explain all concepts
such as producer’s risk, consumer’s risk. AQL, LTPD, AOQL etc. 7
B) What are different clauses under ISO 9000 ? 6
9. A) A manufacturer purchases small bolts in cartons that usually contains several

thousands of bolts. Each shipment consist of a number of cartons. As a part of
acceptance procedure for these bolts, 400 bolts are selected at random from each
carton and are subjected to visual inspection for certain defect. In shipment of 10
cartons the respective percentage of defectives in the samples from each carton
are 0, 0, 0.5, 0.75, 0, 2.0, 0.25, 0, 0.25 and 1.25. Does this shipment of bolts appear
to exhibit statistical control with respect to the quality characteristics examined in
the inspection ? 8
B) Write note on ISO 14000. 6
_____________________
Set P
Seat
No. Set Q
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


1) LTPD stands for
is called as
P.T.O.
needs.
C) Path D) Delivery
A) 1.9 B) 5.5 C) 9.1 D) 9.9
under
A) P’.Pa (N – n/N) B) Pa.P’ (n – N/N)
C) Pa.P’ (n – N/n) D) Pa.P’ (N – n/N)
Set Q
______________
Seat
No.


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION – I




SECTION – II

Set Q

the inspection ? 8
_____________________
Set Q
Seat
No. Set R
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


under
A) P’.Pa (N – n/N) B) Pa.P’ (n – N/N)
C) Pa.P’ (n – N/n) D) Pa.P’ (N – n/N)
6) LTPD stands for
is called as
P.T.O.
needs.
C) Path D) Delivery
A) 1.9 B) 5.5 C) 9.1 D) 9.9
______________ Set R
Seat
No.


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION – I




SECTION – II

Set R

the inspection ? 8
_____________________
Set R
Seat
No. Set S
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


C) Path D) Delivery
A) 1.9 B) 5.5 C) 9.1 D) 9.9
under
P.T.O.
A) P’.Pa (N – n/N) B) Pa.P’ (n – N/N)
C) Pa.P’ (n – N/n) D) Pa.P’ (N – n/N)
11) LTPD stands for
is called as
needs.
______________ Set S
Seat
No.


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION – I




SECTION – II

Set S

the inspection ? 8
_____________________
Set S
*SLREP83* SLR-EP 83
Seat
No. Set P
B.E. (Mechanical) (Part II) (Old) Examination, 2016
MECHATRONICS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
one mark.
of Page.
3) Q. 1 contains multiple choice type questions. Select the
most appropriate answer.
5) Use of Scientific calculator is allowed.


1) In signal conditioning signal processor performs the function
a) Controlling b) Regulation c) Amplification d) Recording
2) In this proximity sensor, as target approaches the face of the sensor, oscillator
amplitude
a) Decreases b) Increases c) Remains same d) None of these
3) The properties of an ideal Op Amp are
a) It should have zero input impedance
b) It should have high input impedance
c) It should have zero open loop gain
d) It should have very low gain
4) In NC machine for positioning of work table following motor is used
a) AC motor b) DC motor c) Stepper motor d) AC and DC
5) The most commonly used crystal frequency for 8051 microcontroller
a) 12 MHz b) 9 MHz c) 7 MHz d) 15 MHz
6) Decimal equivalent of the binary number (11111)2 is
a) (30)10 b) (31)10 c) (40)10 d) (42)10
7) This network topology is used in telephone system
a) Tree b) Star c) Ring d) Bus
8) A relay consist of
a) Inverter b) Coil and iron core
c) Feed back analyser d) None of the above
P.T.O.
9) In PLC, internal relays are used for
a) Sequencing of output b) Latching of output
c) Preparation of ladder diagram d) Programs with multiple input conditions
10) In microcontroller the function of the ALE pin
a) Read signal pin external memory
b) Provide output pulse for latching lower order of the address during access
to external memory
c) Reset the microcontroller
d) All the above
11) EEPROM memory data can be erased by
a) Using ultraviolet rays b) Applying relatively high voltage
c) Using PSEN pin d) None of the above
12) Interfacing is required for
a) Code conversion b) Data acquisition
c) Fault finding d) (b) and (c)
13) PLC program is written in
a) PLC diagram b) Multiplexure diagram
c) Ladder diagram d) None of the above
14) Protocol governs
a) Memory of data b) Sinking of output
c) Inversion of data d) Data format
15) Wheatstone bridge can be used
a) To convert voltage change to resistance change
b) To convert current change to temperature change
c) To convert electrical resistance change to voltage change
16) Squirrel cage induction motor is
a) DC motor b) AC motor c) Stepper motor d) AC and DC
17) Octal equilvalent of decimal number (0.6875)10 is
a) (0.55)8 b) (0.53)8 c) (0.54)8 d) (0.56)8
18) In distributed communication system
a) Hierarchy of computer according to the task they are carried out
b) Each computer system carries out similar task to all other computer system
c) Central computer control the entire plant
19) Karnaugh map is used
a) To obtain the truth table
b) To convert code
c) To produce simplified Boolean expression
d) To obtain various graphs
20) In LVDT, output voltage is proportional to
a) Linear voltage b) Torque
c) Linear displacement d) Temperature
______________
Set P
Seat
No.

MECHATRONICS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Answer any two full questions from each Section.

2) Figures to right indicate marks.
SECTION I
2. a) Define mechatronics. Explain microprocessor based engine management

system with a neat sketch. 8
b) Discuss the general classification of sensors. 6
c) Why signal conditioning is required ? Explain different types of filters. 6
3. a) Discuss the construction and working of AC motors. List its advantages,

limitations and applications. 8
b) Discuss the architecture of 8085 microprocessor with a neat sketch. 6
c) Explain the working of relay with a neat sketch. Also briefly explain about
gear train types. 6
4. Write short notes on any four : (4×5=20)

a) ADCs and DACs
b) Registers
c) Karnaugh maps
d) Hydraulic actuators
e) Data acquisition system.
SECTION II
5. a) Explain with correct schematic 8051 based washing machine controller. 8

b) Discuss with neat sketch, architecture of programmable logic controller. 6
c) Discuss the OSI model for intercommunication. 6
Set P
6. a) Explain mechatronic control in automated manufacturing. 8

b) Draw a ladder diagram for a circuit that could be used with conveyor belt
which is used to move an item to a work station. The presence of item at the
work station is detected by means of a breaking contact activated by means
of a beam of light to a photo sensor. There are items stops for 100 s for an
operation to be carried out before moving on and off conveyor. The motor for
the belt is started by a normally open start switch and stopped by a normally
closed switch. 6
c) Discuss various network topologies. 6
7. Write short notes on (any four) : (4×5=20)

a) Sensor based condition monitoring
b) PLC input and output
c) Micro sensors in mechatronics
d) Fuzzy logic
e) Communication protocols.
_____________________
Set P
*SLREP83* SLR-EP 83
Seat
No. Set Q
MECHATRONICS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
one mark.
of Page.


a) (0.55)8 b) (0.53)8 c) (0.54)8 d) (0.56)8
b) To convert code
P.T.O.
amplitude
a) (30)10 b) (31)10 c) (40)10 d) (42)10
to external memory
d) All the above
19) Protocol governs
______________
Set Q
Seat
No.

MECHATRONICS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I


gear train types. 6

a) ADCs and DACs
b) Registers
c) Karnaugh maps
SECTION II

Set Q

closed switch. 6

d) Fuzzy logic
_____________________
Set Q
*SLREP83* SLR-EP 83
Seat
No. Set R
MECHATRONICS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
one mark.
of Page.

4) Protocol governs
a) (0.55)8 b) (0.53)8 c) (0.54)8 d) (0.56)8
P.T.O.
b) To convert code
amplitude
a) (30)10 b) (31)10 c) (40)10 d) (42)10
to external memory
d) All the above
______________
Set R
Seat
No.

MECHATRONICS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I


gear train types. 6

a) ADCs and DACs
b) Registers
c) Karnaugh maps
SECTION II

Set R

closed switch. 6

d) Fuzzy logic
_____________________
Set R
*SLREP83* SLR-EP 83
Seat
No. Set S
MECHATRONICS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
one mark.
of Page.
a) (30)10 b) (31)10 c) (40)10 d) (42)10
to external memory
d) All the above
c) Fault finding d) (b) and (c) P.T.O.
9) Protocol governs
a) (0.55)8 b) (0.53)8 c) (0.54)8 d) (0.56)8
b) To convert code
amplitude
______________
Set S
Seat
No.

MECHATRONICS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I


gear train types. 6

a) ADCs and DACs
b) Registers
c) Karnaugh maps
SECTION II

Set S

closed switch. 6

d) Fuzzy logic
_____________________
Set S
Seat
No. Set P
B.E. (Mech.) (Part – II) (New) Examination, 2016
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


1) ____________ involves selecting missions and objectives and the actions to
achieve them.
A) Planning B) Mission C) Strategy D) Goals
2) __________ is defined as “the discipline dealing with what is good and bad and
with moral duty and obligation”.
A) Rule B) Organisation culture
C) Protocol D) Ethics
3) In the _________ interview, the manager follows an interview guide but may also
ask other questions.
A) Structured B) Standard C) Directional D) Semi structured
4) _________ attempts to make a job more varied by removing the dullness associated
with performing repetitive operations.
A) Job enlargement B) Job enrichment
C) Continuous improvement D) Job rotation
5) Figurehead role, leader role, liaison role are _________ managerial roles.
6) Theory __________ is pessimistic, static and rigid.
A) Y B) X C) Maslow’s D) Z
7) ________ refers to an individual’s subjective judgement about the fairness of
rewards she or he got, relative to the inputs, in comparison with reward of other.
A) All theories B) Maslow’s theory
C) X and Y theory D) Equity theory
8) If __________, then this could results in frustration of subordinates.
A) Authority > Responsibility B) Authority < Responsibility
C) Power = Responsibility D) Power > Authority
P.T.O.
9) Machinery, material handling equipment, Tools, jigs, fixtures comes under

A) Working capital B) Machinery capital
C) Fixed capital D) Variable capital
10) ________ funds are required to meet the working capital needs like investment in
the inventories, debtors, bank balance, cash on hand, marketable security etc.
A) Long term B) Middle term C) Short term D) Fixed
purpose of accepting or rejecting the lot on the basis of conforming or nonconforming
to the quality specifications.
12) In a sampling plan N = 500, n1 = 10, n2 = 8, c1 = 1, c2 = 4, if the number of defectives
in the 1st sample are 3, then the decision will be
A) No rejection B) Take a second sample and inspect
C) Go with production D) Lot ok
13) The producer can decrease his risk by submitting the lots of
A) Same as AQL B) Better than AQL
C) Less than AQL D) Only AQL
14) The producers risk is denoted by
A) ρ B) β C) α D) δ
15) The quality of design is concerned with the _____ for the manufacture of the product.
A) Exactness of specification B) Fitness of specification
C) Correctness of specification D) Tightness of specification
16) The larger the sample size and acceptance number _____ is the slope of OC
curve.
A) Straight B) Curve C) Steeper D) Horizontal
17) The success of sampling inspection depends upon
A) Lot size B) Sample size
C) Acceptance number D) All
19) LTPD stands for
A) Lot Tolerance Perfect Defective B) Lot Tolerable Percent Defective
C) Lot Tolerance Percent Defective D) Lot Tolerance Piece Defective
20) AOQ stands for
A) Average Outgoing Quality B) Additional Outgoing Quality
C) Average Outward Quality D) Advanced Outgoing Quality
______________
Set P
Seat
No.


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION – I
2. A) Explain the functions of management. 6

B) Explain ethics in management. 7
3. A) What is decision making ? Elaborate. 6

B) Explain selection process. 7
4. A) Write a note on Maslow and X-Y theory of motivation. 8

B) What is communication and what are barriers in communications ? 6
5. A) Explain material management. 6

B) Explain channels of distribution system for industrial and consumer good. 7
SECTION – II
6. a) Name any three quality gurus and their contribution in quality. 6

b) Explain the following as applied to quality control : 7
1) Appraisal costs 2) Prevention costs
3) Failure costs 4) Optimum costs.
7. a) How employee involvement affects organization performance ? What are

various ways to improve employee involvement ? 6
Set P
b) A double sampling plan is as follows : 8

a) Select a sample of 2 from a lot of 20. If both articles inspected are good, accept
the lot. If both are defective, reject the lot. If 1 is good and 1 defective, take a
second sample of one article.
b) If the article in second sample is good, accept the lot. If it is defective, reject the
lot. If a lot 25% defective is submitted, what is the probability of acceptance ?
Compute this by the method that is theoretically correct rather than an approximate
method.
8. a) Write short note on Environmental Management System. 6

b) Write procedure for control chart preparation. Explain it for X and R chart. 7
9. a) What are 7 quality tools and Explain in detail any one ? 6

b) Explain actual and ideal OC curve for a sampling plan. Also explain concepts
such as producer’s risk, consumer’s risk AQL, LTPD, AOQL, related to OC Curve. 7
_____________________
Set P
Seat
No. Set Q
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


curve.
4) LTPD stands for
5) AOQ stands for
achieve them.
P.T.O.
______________
Set Q
Seat
No.


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION – I




SECTION – II


Set Q

method.


_____________________
Set Q
Seat
No. Set R
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


curve.
P.T.O.

9) LTPD stands for
10) AOQ stands for
achieve them.
______________
Set R
Seat
No.


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION – I




SECTION – II


Set R

method.


_____________________
Set R
Seat
No. Set S
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


P.T.O.

curve.
14) LTPD stands for
15) AOQ stands for
achieve them.
______________
Set S
Seat
No.


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION – I




SECTION – II


Set S

method.


_____________________
Set S
Seat
No.
Set P
INDUSTRIAL ENGINEERING (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
2) Figures to the right indicate marks.


1) Selection of material handling equipment is an important decision as it affects
________ of handling system. 1
a) Cost b) Efficiency
c) Both cost and efficiency d) None of the above
2) Intangible factor for facility location are 1
a) Site cost b) Material cost
c) Transportation utilities d) Community attitude
3) Tangible factor for facility location are 1
a) Environmental factors b) Recreational facilities
4) ________ describes clearly the requirement of jobs. 1
a) Job analysis b) Job description
c) Job specification d) Job classification
5) ________ specify the attributes possessed by employee to complete the job
satisfactorily. 1
6) ________ is given to compensate for energy expended during working. 1
a) Allowance for basic fatigue b) Allowance for personal needs
c) Interference allowance d) Contingency allowance
7) ________ is given to compensate the operator for the time necessary to leave, the
workplace to attend to personal needs like drinking water, washing hands etc. 1
P.T.O.
8) Women require ______________ allowance than men. 1
a) Smaller personal b) 5% less personal
c) Longer personal d) None of the above
9) Match Pairs : 4
Basic elements of work Symbol
1) Operations P)
2) Inspection Q)
3) Temporary Storage R)
4) Permanent Storage S)
T)
10) Gilberth contributed to 1
a) Time study b) Motion study c) Project study d) Value Engg.
11) Flow Process Chart is used in 1
a) Work sampling b) Micromotion study
c) Merit rating d) Method study
12) ______________ is required for drawing a cycle graph. 1
a) Light source b) Stop watch c) String d) Template
13) In method study critical examination is done through 1
a) Work sampling tech. b) Questioning tech.
c) Stop watch tech. d) Flow process chart
14) Therblig, in Micro motion study is described by 1
a) An event b) An activity
c) Standard symbol and colour d) None of the above
15) Productivity of an enterprise refers to which of the following ? 1
a) Rate of growth of capital
b) The ratio of gross income to gross expenditure
c) Yearly gross income
d) Turnover in specified period
16) Contingency allowance should not exceed 1
a) 0% b) 5%
c) 10% d) None of the above
17) ______________ are not the genuine part of the time study and should be used
with utmost care and only in clearly defined circumstances. 1
a) Relaxation allowances b) Interference allowances
c) Contingency allowances d) Policy allowances
______________
Set P
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
SECTION – I
2. A) Explain the factors affecting productivity. 7

B) Discuss Indian Factory Act, 1948 – Safety Provisions. 7
3. A) Define method study. Explain steps involved in method study. 7

B) Explain in detail “Critical Examination” in method study. 7
OR
B) How environmental factors affect the man-machine system ? List types of displays. 7
4. Write short note (any three) : (4×3=12)

1) Multiple Activity Chart
2) Travel Chart
3) Anthropometry
4) Work Simplification and work study.
SECTION – II
5. A) The element times (in minutes) for 4 cycle of an operation using a stop watch are
presented below : 7
Elements Cycle times in minutes

1 2 3 4
1 1.5 1.5 1.3 1.4
2 2.6 2.7 2.4 2.6
3 3.3 3.2 3.4 3.4
4 1.2 1.2 1.1 1.2
5 0.51 0.51 0.52 0.49
Set P
Calculate standard time for the operation if

1) Element 2 and 4 are the machine element.
2) For the other elements, the operator is rated at 110%.
3) Total allowances are 15% of the normal time.
B) Define work sampling and procedure for conducting work sampling study. 7
6. A) Explain process layout with suitable examples. What are the advantages and
limitations of process layout ? 7
B) What are objectives of job evaluation ? Explain procedure for Job evaluation. 7

1) Principles of Plant layout
2) PMTS (Predetermined Motion Time Analysis)
3) Merit rating Methods
4) Performance rating.
_____________________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set Q
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


a) 0% b) 5% c) 10% d) None of the above
P.T.O.
satisfactorily. 1
14) Match Pairs : 4
1) Operations P)
2) Inspection Q)
T)
______________
Set Q
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
SECTION – I


OR

2) Travel Chart
3) Anthropometry
SECTION – II
presented below : 7

1 2 3 4
1 1.5 1.5 1.3 1.4
2 2.6 2.7 2.4 2.6
3 3.3 3.2 3.4 3.4
4 1.2 1.2 1.1 1.2
5 0.51 0.51 0.52 0.49
Set Q


_____________________
Set Q
Seat
No.
Set R
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


3) Match Pairs : 4
1) Operations P)
2) Inspection Q)
T)
c) Stop watch tech. d) Flow process chart P.T.O.
a) 0% b) 5%
satisfactorily. 1
______________
Set R
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
SECTION – I


OR

2) Travel Chart
3) Anthropometry
SECTION – II
presented below : 7

1 2 3 4
1 1.5 1.5 1.3 1.4
2 2.6 2.7 2.4 2.6
3 3.3 3.2 3.4 3.4
4 1.2 1.2 1.1 1.2
5 0.51 0.51 0.52 0.49
Set R


_____________________
Set R
Seat
No.
Set S
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


a) 0% b) 5%
satisfactorily. 1
P.T.O.
11) Match Pairs : 4
1) Operations P)
2) Inspection Q)
T)
______________
Set S
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
SECTION – I


OR

2) Travel Chart
3) Anthropometry
SECTION – II
presented below : 7

1 2 3 4
1 1.5 1.5 1.3 1.4
2 2.6 2.7 2.4 2.6
3 3.3 3.2 3.4 3.4
4 1.2 1.2 1.1 1.2
5 0.51 0.51 0.52 0.49
Set S


_____________________
Set S
*SLRIP89* SLR-EP – 89
Seat
No.
Set P
B.E. (Part – II) (Mechanical) (New) Examination, 2016
POWER PLANT AND ENERGY ENGINEERING
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Neat diagrams must be drawn whenever necessary.
2) Make suitable assumptions, if necessary and mention them
clearly.
6) Use of non-programmable single memory calculator is allowed.


1) Pyreheliometer is used to measure
A) Beam radiation B) Diffuse radiation
C) Global radiation D) All of the above
2) The function of solar collector is to convert
A) Solar energy into electricity B) Solar energy into radiation
C) Solar energy into thermal energy D) All of these
3) Zenith angle is complementary angle of
A) Latitude B) Surface Azimuth Angle
C) Hour Angle D) Sun Altitude Angle
4) ____________ type of wind mill is of simple design.
A) Horizontal axis wind mill B) Vertical axis wind mill
C) Both D) None
5) Maximum wind energy available is proportional to
A) Square of the diameter of rotor B) Air density
C) Cube of the wind velocity D) All of the above
6) Flat plate collector absorbs
A) Direct Radiation B) Diffuse Radiation
C) Direct and Diffuse Both D) None of the above
7) Geothermal plant is suitable for
A) Base load power B) Peak load power
P.T.O.
SLR-EP – 89 -2- *SLRIP89*
8) A geothermal field may yield
A) Hot water B) Wet steam C) Dry steam D) All of the above
9) Conservation of energy means using _________ energy for the same level of
activity.
A) More B) Less C) Partial D) Zero
10) The objective of energy Audit is to
A) Spend energy B) Conduct formal survey
C) Save energy D) Promote energy usage
11) The core of the transformer is made up of
A) Laminations B) Single block
C) Hollow casting D) Decomposable material
12) The highest point on the load curve represents
A) Maximum time B) Maximum demand
C) Maximum concrete load D) KVA rating of generators
13) For a power plant, the cost of labor is considered as _________ cost.
A) Fixed B) Variable C) Progressive D) Major
14) The standard frequency for electric power supply in India is
A) 60 Hz B) 50 Hz C) 440 Hz D) 220 Hz
15) Demand factor is defined as
A) Average load / Maximum demand B) Maximum demand / connected load
C) Connected load / maximum demand D) Maximum demand × connected load
16) In India largest thermal power station is located at
A) Kota B) Sarni C) Chandrapur D) Neyveli
17) The functions performed by the switch gear are
A) Faulty plant is automatically disconnected
B) To break short circuit
C) To facilitate redistribution of load
D) All of these
18) In Hopkinson demand rate or two part tariff the demand rate or fixed charges are
A) Depends upon the energy consumed
B) Depends upon the maximum demand
C) Both A) and B)
19) The average load factor of thermal power plants in India is
A) 100% B) 80 to 95% C) 50 to 60% D) 20 to 30%
20) Diversity factor is always
A) Equal to unity B) Less than unity
C) More than unity D) More than twenty
______________
Set P
*SLRIP89* -3- SLR-EP – 89
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

iii) Make suitable assumption if necessary and state it clearly.
SECTION – I
2. a) Write a short note on electric energy growth in India. 7
b) What are the effect of variable load on power plant design and operation ? 6
c) From the following data calculate the cost of generation per unit delivered from
the power plant : 7
Installed capacity of power plant = 200 MW
Annual load factor= 0.4
Capital cost of power plant = Rs. 280 lacs
Annual cost of fuel, oil, salaries, taxation = Rs. 60 lacs
Interest and depreciation = 13%.
3. a) State the principle of generator and explain in detail. 7

b) A 60 MW power station has an annual peak load of 50 MW. The power station
supplies load having maximum demands of 20 MW, 17 MW, 10 MW and 9 MW.
The annual load factor is 0.45. Find :
i) Average load
ii) Energy supplied per year
iii) Diversity factor
iv) Demand factor. 7
c) Explain different methods of tariff. 6
Set P
4. a) Explain in detail compressed air storage plant. 6
b) Discuss different load curve. 7
c) Describe with neat sketch various types of relay used in power plant. 7
SECTION – II
5. a) Explain with neat sketch Pyreheliometer. 7
b) Define altitude angle, surface azimuth angle and declination angle with neat
sketch. 6
c) Write a note on wave energy conservation. 7
6. a) Discuss the basic component of wind energy conversion system with neat
block diagram. 7
b) Describe with neat sketch the working of liquid flat plate collector. 7
c) Give classification of wind energy and state its advantages and disadvantages. 6
7. a) Write short note on OTEC. 7
b) Discuss energy conservation in sugar industry. 7
c) Describe various steps in energy audit. 6
_____________________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set Q
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
clearly.


D) All of these
C) Both A) and B)
A) 100% B) 80 to 95% C) 50 to 60% D) 20 to 30%
P.T.O.
C) Both D) None
activity.
A) 60 Hz B) 50 Hz C) 440 Hz D) 220 Hz
______________
Set Q
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION – I
the power plant : 7

i) Average load
Set Q
SECTION – II
sketch. 6
block diagram. 7
_____________________
Set Q
Seat
No.
Set R
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
clearly.


A) 60 Hz B) 50 Hz C) 440 Hz D) 220 Hz
D) All of these
P.T.O.
C) Both A) and B)
A) 100% B) 80 to 95% C) 50 to 60% D) 20 to 30%
C) Both D) None
activity.
______________
Set R
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION – I
the power plant : 7

i) Average load
Set R
SECTION – II
sketch. 6
block diagram. 7
_____________________
Set R
Seat
No.
Set S
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
clearly.


activity.
P.T.O.
A) 60 Hz B) 50 Hz C) 440 Hz D) 220 Hz
D) All of these
C) Both A) and B)
A) 100% B) 80 to 95% C) 50 to 60% D) 20 to 30%
C) Both D) None
______________
Set S
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION – I
the power plant : 7

i) Average load
Set S
SECTION – II
sketch. 6
block diagram. 7
_____________________
Set S
*SLREP365* SLR-EP 365
Seat
No.
Set P
B.E. (Mech.) (Part I) (Old) Examination, 2016
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
2) Make suitable assumptions if necessary and mention them
clearly.

1) Initially in India steam power plant was constructed at
a) Kolkata b) Goa c) Mumbai d) Darjeeling
2) Per capita consumption in case of India is
a) In equivalence with developed countries
b) In excess of developed countries
c) Very severely behind developed countries
d) Average
3) Power plant having low utilization factor is the indication that
a) Plant is under maintenance
b) Plant is used as stand by unit
c) Plant is used for base load only
d) Plant is used for peak as well as base load
4) Peak point on the load curve signifies
a) Maximum time b) Maximum demand
c) Maximum concrete load d) kVA rating of generators
5) During the off-peak hours in case of an air storage plant.
a) The compressor works b) The turbine only works
c) Air is emptied from reservoir d) Respective grids are interconnected
6) The pumped storage plant essentially consists of a
a) Single basin b) Head and a tail reservoir pond
c) Bottom small reservoir d) Pressure amplifier
7) The capacity of transformer is generally measured in terms of
a) HP b) kVA c) kVAr d) kW P.T.O.
8) Low power factor results in
a) Poor voltage regulation b) Large copper losses
c) Large kVA ratings of transformers d) All of the above
9) The incremental rate vs. the output graph is in __________ proportion.
a) Direct b) Inverse c) Cannot predict d) Uncertain
10) The tariff can be represented in general form
a) bc + y b) by + c c) ax2 d) ax + by + c
11) In India the tariff for charging the consumers for the consumption of electricity is
based on
a) Straight meter rate b) Block meter rate
c) Reverse block meter rate d) Two part tariff
12) At the center of the sun is hydrogen being converted into
a) Helium b) Oxygen c) Nitrogen d) Hydrogen oxide
13) Altitude angle is corresponding to
a) Zenith angle b) Azimuth angle c) Latitude angle d) Hour angle
14) Solar collector coverts solar energy into
a) Electricity b) Radiation
c) Thermal energy d) None of the above
15) The speed of the shaft to the generator has to be __________ in wind turbine.
a) Decreased b) Increased
c) Maintained constant d) Cyclically reversed in direction
16) The principle of ocean thermal energy conversion is based on
a) Wave energy
b) High tides
c) Temperature difference between the top layer of the ocean and the cooler water
at its depth
d) High tides plus low tides
17) Tides are caused because of
a) Sun b) Mars
c) Both sun and mars d) Ocean depth
18) Geothermal energy is the energy from
a) Radiation of the sun b) Forces of attraction of earth and sun
c) Earths crust d) Atmosphere
19) Energy management focuses on
a) Controlling the supply and consumption of energy
b) Maximizing productivity and comfort levels and minimize energy costs and
pollution with effective use of energy
c) Both a) and b)
20) Energy management aims
a) Regulating the pollution levels b) Totally preventing pollution
c) Both a) and b) d) None of the above
______________
Set P
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

2) Draw figures where necessary.
3) Assume suitable data if required and mention it.
SECTION I
2. a) Describe the role of private sector in energy management. 6

b) Describe in brief circuit breakers and starters. 7
c) The maximum (peak) load on a thermal power plant of 60 MW capacity is
50 MW at an annual load factor of 50%. The loads having maximum demands of
25 MW, 20 MW, 8 MW and 5 MW are connected to the power station. Determine :
a) Average load on power station
b) Energy generated per year
c) Demand factor
d) Diversity factor. 7
3. a) Describe in detail the effect of variable load on power plant design and operation. 7
b) Explain performance and operation characteristics of power plants. 6
c) Discuss effect of variable load on power plant. 7
4. Write short note on the following (any four) : (5×4=20)

a) Load sharing between base load and peak load power stations.
b) Fixed and operating cost
c) Tariff methods
d) Power factor and its measurement
e) Selection of generation equipment.
Set P
SECTION II
5. a) Describe the solar radiation measurement in detail. 7

b) Calculate the angle made by beam radiation with the normal to a flat-plate collector
on May 1 at 09.00h (local apparent time). The collector is located in New Delhi
(28°35N, 77°12E). It is tilted at an angle of 360 with the horizontal and is pointing
due south. Repeat the calculation for 12.00 h (local apparent time). 6
c) Describe in detail the performance of wind machines. 7
6. a) Describe the components of single basin tidal power plant system, state also
the advantages and disadvantages of tidal energy. 6
b) Describe with neat sketch vapour dominated geothermal system with its
applications. 5
c) i) Describe in brief energy conservation Legislation. 4
ii) Definition, strategies and objective of energy audit. 5

a) Energy flow diagram
b) Energy conservation in pulp and paper industries
c) Types of geothermal resources
d) Performance analysis of liquid flat plate collector
e) Advantages, disadvantages and application of wind energy.
_____________________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set Q
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
clearly.

a) Wave energy
b) High tides
at its depth
a) Sun b) Mars
c) Both a) and b)
P.T.O.
d) Average
a) HP b) kVA c) kVAr d) kW
based on
______________
Set Q
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I

c) Demand factor

c) Tariff methods
Set Q
SECTION II

applications. 5

_____________________
Set Q
Seat
No.
Set R
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
clearly.
based on
a) Wave energy
b) High tides
at its depth
a) Sun b) Mars
P.T.O.
c) Both a) and b)
d) Average
______________
Set R
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I

c) Demand factor

c) Tariff methods
Set R
SECTION II

applications. 5

_____________________
Set R
Seat
No.
Set S
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
clearly.
based on
c) Thermal energy d) None of the above P.T.O.
a) Wave energy
b) High tides
at its depth
a) Sun b) Mars
c) Both a) and b)
d) Average
______________
Set S
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I

c) Demand factor

c) Tariff methods
Set S
SECTION II

applications. 5

_____________________
Set S
P
S e a t
5 A J
N o .

EXPERIMENTAL STRESS ANALYSIS (Professional Elective II)

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Make necessary assumptions, if required and mention it

clearly.
2) Write the correct answer/answers for objective questions
in the answer sheet for question 1.

1. A) Match the most appropriate pairs : (4×1=4)

Column (1) Column (2)
a) Zero order isochromatics p. Stress difference is zero
b) Tardys method q. Teledeltos paper
c) Foil strain gauges r. Fractional fringe
d) Oblique incidence s. Separation method
t. Insensitive to cross-axis sensitivity
B) Match the most appropriate pairs : (4×1=4)

a) Pressure measurement p. Laplace equation
b) Force measurement q. Proving ring
c) Series or shunt balance r. Fine balance
d) Differential balance (series or shunt) s. Pressure cell
t. Coarse balance
P.T.O.
C) Solve multiple correct answers : (4×2=8)

1) Strain gauge, as a transducer can measure
a) Stress b) Strain c) Torque d) Pressure
2) Dummy strain gauge is not required for Wheatstone bridge having
a) Four arm sensitive
b) Two arm sensitive, strains equal in magnitude and opposite in nature
c) Two arm sensitive, strains equal in magnitude and same in nature
d) One arm sensitive
3) Material fringe value of photoelastic material can be obtained by the
following specimen/s.
a) Tensile specimen
b) Beam under bending
c) Disc under diametral compression
d) Electrical analogy method
4) Which of the following is/are the temporary or permanent birefringent
optical element/s ?
a) Polariser b) Analyser c) Wave plate d) Model under test
D) Solve classical objectives : (4×1=4)

1) Threshold strain in brittle coating refers to following
a) Maximum strain in coating b) Minimum strain in coating
c) Shear modulus d) Electric effect
2) Rope analogy refers to
a) Strain gauge b) Polarization of light
c) Stress separation d) None of a), b), c)
3) Circular polariscope light field is used to get the
a) Full order fringe b) Half order fringe
c) Fractional fringe d) None of a), b), c)
4) Circular polariscope dark field is used to get the
______________
Set P
S e a t
N o .


Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
clearly.
SECTION I
2. a) Differentiate between Plane and Circular Polariscope. 4

b) Derive the expression for the light intensity observed through analyzer when
the stressed model is kept in plane polariscope. 10
c) Explain the Babinet Soleil Compensator method for determination of fractional
fringe order. 6
3. a) Explain the properties of photo elastic materials. 6

b) A loaded two dimensional photo elastic model of 10 mm thickness is observed in
circular polariscope. The isochromatics fringe pattern revealed that the point of
interest lies between 3rd and 4th order fringe. On rotation of analyzer through 45°,
the 3rd order fringe passed through the point of interest. Calculate the fractional
fringe order and maximum shear stress, if material fringe value is 13.5 N/mn. 8
c) Derive an expression for determination of material fringe value using specimen
under pure bending. 6
4. a) Discuss : 12
i) Oblique Incidence Method
ii) Electrical Analogy Method.
b) Discuss how the model results can be related to prototype. 8
Set P
SECTION II
5. a) The strain readings as measured by a three element rectangular rosette at a

point in the stressed body are as follows :
ða = 235 micro-strain, ðb = 285 micro-strain and ðc = 240 micro-strain.
Determine the maximum principal strain direction, the principal stresses and
the maximum shear stress. Take E = 210 GPa and = 0.3.
12
b) Explain bonding of strain gauges and moisture proofing. 8
6. a) Define transverse sensitivity of a strain gauge. Derive the expression for

transverse sensitivity of a strain gauge. 8
b) Explain various ways of initial balance of Wheatstones bridge. 8
c) Explain ideal properties of grid and backing material used in strain gauges. 4
7. a) Explain Moiré fringe method. What are the merit and demerit ? 6
b) Explain the measurement of stresses at large number of location using strain
gauges. 6
c) Explain different configuration of Wheatstone bridge circuit. 8
______________
Set P
Q
S e a t
5 A J
N o .


Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

clearly.

1. A) Solve multiple correct answers : (4×2=8)

a) Tensile specimen
optical element/s ?
P.T.O.
B) Solve classical objectives : (4×1=4)

C) Match the most appropriate pairs : (4×1=4)

D) Match the most appropriate pairs : (4×1=4)

t. Coarse balance
______________
Set Q
S e a t
N o .


Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
clearly.
SECTION I

fringe order. 6

4. a) Discuss : 12
Set Q
SECTION II

12

gauges. 6
______________
Set Q
R
S e a t
5 A J
N o .


Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

clearly.

1. A) Match the most appropriate pairs : (4×1=4)

t. Coarse balance
B) Match the most appropriate pairs : (4×1=4)

P.T.O.
C) Solve classical objectives : (4×1=4)

D) Solve multiple correct answers : (4×2=8)

a) Tensile specimen
optical element/s ?
______________
Set R
S e a t
N o .


Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
clearly.
SECTION I

fringe order. 6

4. a) Discuss : 12
Set R
SECTION II

12

gauges. 6
______________
Set R
S
S e a t
5 A J
N o .


Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

clearly.

1. A) Solve classical objectives : (4×1=4)

P.T.O.
B) Solve multiple correct answers : (4×2=8)

a) Tensile specimen
optical element/s ?
C) Match the most appropriate pairs : (4×1=4)

t. Coarse balance
D) Match the most appropriate pairs : (4×1=4)

______________
Set S
S e a t
N o .


Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
clearly.
SECTION I

fringe order. 6

4. a) Discuss : 12
Set S
SECTION II

12

gauges. 6
______________
Set S
Seat
No.
Set P
POWER PLANT AND ENERGY ENGINEERING PROFESSIONAL (Elective – II)
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
4) Make suitable assumptions if necessary and state them clearly.


1) Load curve shows variation in
a) Demand w.r.t. supply b) Supply w.r.t. time
c) Demand w.r.t. time d) Supply w.r.t. demand
2) India’s first nuclear power plant was installed at
a) Tarapur b) Kota c) Kalpakkam d) None of these
3) Load factor of power station is generally
a) Equal to unity b) Less than unity c) More than unity d) None of these
4) The load factor of heavy industries may be taken as
a) 10 to 20% b) 25 to 40% c) 50 to 70% d) 70 to 80%
5) Diversity factor is usually highest for
a) Industrial consumers b) Commercial loads
c) Residential consumers d) Municipal loads
6) Pumped storage hydroelectric power plant is more suitable use as
a) Peak load plant b) Base load plant
c) Intermediate load plant d) All of the above
7) The general type of tariff is
8) Insurance premium of power plant is considered as
a) Variable cost b) Fixed variable cost
c) Fixed cost d) None of the above
9) Annual depreciation cost is calculated by
a) Sinking fund method b) Straight line method
c) Both a) and b) d) Estimate value
P.T.O.
SLR-EP – 440 -2- *SLREP440*
10) In Hopkinson demand rate the energy bill is dependant upon
a) The energy consumed
b) The maximum demand of the consumer
c) Both a) and b)
11) Pyranometer is used to measure
a) Beam radiation b) Diffuse radiation
c) Global radiation d) All of the above
12) The ratio of beam radiation flux falling on a tilted surface to that falling on horizontal
surface is
a) Skew factor b) View factor c) Tilt factor d) Surface factor
13) The dispersion of solar energy is maximum at a wavelength of
a) 1.0 μm b) 0.48 μm c) 1.4 μm d) 2.2 μm
14) Energy conservation involves
a) Scrap rejection
b) Surplus use of facilities
c) Investment into energy efficient instrument
d) Depreciation of funds
15) The geometric concentration ratio for parabolic collectors increases with increase in
a) Aperture area b) Absorber area
c) Reflector area d) All of the above
16) For drag type wind machines tip speed ratio is
a) < 1 b) > 1 c) ≤ 0.59 d) = 0.59
a) Solar energy into electricity b) Solar energy into radiation
c) Solar energy into thermal energy d) All of the above
18) At the same wind speed wind turbine output power will increases with
a) Altitude b) Solidity of rotor
c) Diameter of rotor d) None of the above
19) The turbine which is used in tidal power plant for getting continuous power is
a) Simple impulse turbine b) Reversible type
c) Propeller type d) All of the above
20) Geothermal power plants as compared to fossil fuel plants have load factor
a) Equal b) Lower
c) Higher d) None of the above
______________
Set P
*SLREP440* -3- SLR-EP – 440
Seat
No.


Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

SECTION – I
2. a) Describe in brief “Energy Policy of India”. 6

b) Describe with neat sketches various types of loads on power plant and their variation. 7
c) A power plant supplies the loads having maximum demands of 40 MW, 50 MW and
30 MW respectively. The load factor of the plant on the basis of annual load curve is 60%
and the diversity factor of the load is 1.2.
Determine :
a) The maximum load on the power plant
b) The capacity of the power plant
c) Annual energy supplied by the power plant. 7
3. a) Describe various factors affecting efficiency of thermal power station used as base load
power plant. 7
b) Draw a neat diagram of pump storage plant explaining its working as a peak load plant. 7
c) Differentiate between fixed and operating costs of power plants; enlist and explain the
items which constitute the fixed and the operating cost. 6
4. Write short note on any four : (5×4=20)

a) Role of private sector in energy management
b) Tariff methods
c) Load sharing between base load and peak load power stations
d) Selection of generation equipments
e) Effect of variable load on power plant.
Set P
SLR-EP – 440 -4- *SLREP440*
SECTION – II
5. a) Define Hour angle, Inclination angle, Zenith angle with neat sketches. 6
b) Explain with neat sketch pyranometer. 7
c) Discuss the classification of wind turbines. 7
6. a) Explain with neat sketch horizontal axis wind machine. 6

b) Determine the diameter of the wind mill required to develop 500 kw power. The wind
speed available at the site is 10 m/s and power coefficient is 0.45.
a) Find the power produced by the wind mill per year if its effective use is 2500 hrs
per year.
b) Torque when rotor is rotating at 300 rpm.
(Take ρ (Air) = 1.205 kg/m3 at the site). 7
c) How can power be produced by using various tidal power plants ? 7

a) Ocean thermal energy
b) Dolphin type wave machine
c) Energy audit
d) Energy conservation
e) Energy flow diagram.
_____________________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set Q
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.


a) < 1 b) > 1 c) ≤ 0.59 d) = 0.59
a) Equal b) Lower
a) 10 to 20% b) 25 to 40% c) 50 to 70% d) 70 to 80%
P.T.O.
SLR-EP – 440 -2- *SLREP440*
c) Both a) and b)
surface is
a) 1.0 μm b) 0.48 μm c) 1.4 μm d) 2.2 μm
a) Scrap rejection
______________
Set Q
*SLREP440* -3- SLR-EP – 440
Seat
No.


Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

SECTION – I

Determine :
power plant. 7

b) Tariff methods
Set Q
SLR-EP – 440 -4- *SLREP440*
SECTION – II

per year.

c) Energy audit
_____________________
Set Q
Seat
No.
Set R
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.


surface is
a) 1.0 μm b) 0.48 μm c) 1.4 μm d) 2.2 μm
a) Scrap rejection
a) < 1 b) > 1 c) ≤ 0.59 d) = 0.59
P.T.O.
SLR-EP – 440 -2- *SLREP440*
a) Equal b) Lower
a) 10 to 20% b) 25 to 40% c) 50 to 70% d) 70 to 80%
c) Both a) and b)
______________
Set R
*SLREP440* -3- SLR-EP – 440
Seat
No.


Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

SECTION – I

Determine :
power plant. 7

b) Tariff methods
Set R
SLR-EP – 440 -4- *SLREP440*
SECTION – II

per year.

c) Energy audit
_____________________
Set R
Seat
No.
Set S
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.


c) Both a) and b)
surface is
P.T.O.
SLR-EP – 440 -2- *SLREP440*
a) 1.0 μm b) 0.48 μm c) 1.4 μm d) 2.2 μm
a) Scrap rejection
a) < 1 b) > 1 c) ≤ 0.59 d) = 0.59
a) Equal b) Lower
a) 10 to 20% b) 25 to 40% c) 50 to 70% d) 70 to 80%
______________
Set S
*SLREP440* -3- SLR-EP – 440
Seat
No.


Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

SECTION – I

Determine :
power plant. 7

b) Tariff methods
Set S
SLR-EP – 440 -4- *SLREP440*
SECTION – II

per year.

c) Energy audit
_____________________
Set S
Seat Set P
No.
T.E. (Mech.) (Part II) Examination, 2016

Professional Elective II
MECHANICAL VIBRATION
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.


1) If mass of body increases 9 times
a) Frequency decreases 3 times b) Frequency increases 3 times
c) Frequency does not change d) Zero
2) In energy method for finding frequency of system
a) The sum of kinetic and potential energy is zero
b) The sum of kinetic and potential energy is constant
c) System is assumed to be non-conservative
d) Frequency cannot be determined
3) A system is said to be critically damped if damping factor for the system is
a) more than one b) equal to one c) less than one d) equal to zero
4) During Resonance
a) high amplitude of vibration occurs b) low amplitude of vibration occurs
c) no vibration occurs d) vibration remain unaffected
5) Dynamic vibration absorber is suitable for
a) constant speed machine b) varying speed machines
c) zero speed range machines d) none of above
6) Resultant stiffness of two springs in series as compared to individual stiffness of any of
two springs
a) is more b) is less c) is equal d) none of above
7) In a spring mass system if mass of system is doubled with spring stiffness halved, the
natural frequency of vibration
a) remain unchanged b) is doubled
c) is halved d) is quadrupled
P.T.O.
8) In a spring mass system the mass m and spring stiffness k is taken very high altitude,
the natural frequency of longitudinal vibrations
a) increases
b) remain unchanged
c) decreases
d) may increase or decrease depends on value spring mass
9) The energy dissipated per cycle depends upon of coefficient of friction in case of
a) viscous damping b) coulomb damping
c) structural damping d) slip damping
10) The characteristics of under damped system of motion are
a) amplitude increases with time b) amplitude decreases with time
c) amplitude is constant with time d) none
11) A harmonic motion is
a) necessarily periodic motion b) non-periodic motion
c) a motion described in a circle d) a random motion
12) In a dynamic vibration absorber system, under tuned conditions which of following relation
hold ?
a) K1K2 = M1M2 b) K1M2 = M1K2
c) K1M1 = M2K2 d) none
13) The equivalent stiffness of spring connected in series having stiffness k1 & k2 can be
written as
a) (1/k1) + (1/k2) b) k1 + k2 c) (1/k1) (1/k2) d) none
14) Main properties of vibrating system
a) Mass and Stiffness b) Mass, stiffness and damping
c) Stiffness and damping d) Damping and Stiffness
15) If spring of stiffness K units is cut into 2 equal pieces, then stiffness of each spring
a) K/3 b) 2K c) 3K d) 5K
16) Accelerometer is designed with
a) low frequency b) high frequency c) zero frequency d) none
17) Vibrometers have natural frequency of order
a) 4Hz b) 100Hz c) 1000Hz d) above 10kHz
18) The material normally used for vibration isolation is
a) rubber b) metallic spring c) both a & b d) glass
19) In case of nonlinear vibration frequency of system
a) is constant b) is not constant
c) cannot be predicted d) none
20) Each outcome of an experiment for random variable
a) a sample point b) a random point
c) an observed value d) all of above
______________
Set P
Seat
No.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Solve any three questions from each Section-I & Section-II.
SECTION I
2. a) Define following terms (any four). 8
i) Simple Harmonic Motion
ii) Cycle
iii) Resonance
iv) Stiffness
v) Forced vibration.
b) State types of damping and explain any one type of damping system. 5
3. a) Derive governing equation single degree spring mass damped system under harmonic
excitation. 8
b) Explain logarithmic decrement of spring mass undamped system. 5
4. a) For spring mass system as shown in figure (01), determine (i) equation of motion
(ii) Natural frequency (iii) normal mode of system. 10
b) Distinguish between Periodic & non-periodic motion. 4

Set P
5. a) For the system as shown in figure (02) find equation of motion and also find its natural
frequency. 8
b) Explain steps involved in vibration analysis. 5
SECTION II
6. a) Distinguish between linear and nonlinear vibrations. 5

b) Explain Principal of accelerometer with sketch and frequency curve. 3
c) Explain FFT analyzer in brief. 5
7. a) Explain principal of superposition in Nonlinear vibration and brief about nature of nonlinearity
for simple pendulum. 8
b) Write a short note on Vibration Exciter. 5
8. a) Determine the natural frequency of torsional vibration of shaft with two circular discs of
uniform thickness at the ends as shown in figure (03). The masses of discs are M1 = 500 kg
and M2 = 1000 kg and their outer diameters are D1 = 125 cm and D2 = 190 cm. The
length of shaft is L = 300 cm and its diameter d = 10 cm. Take G = 0.83 × 1011 N/m2. 8
b) Write as short note on Random vibration analysis. 5
9. Write a short note on (attempt any two). 14

a) Torsional Vibration of shaft
b) Force Transmissibility
c) Time and Frequency domain analysis.
___________________
Set P
Seat Set Q
No.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.


P.T.O.
9) During Resonance
two springs
a) increases
b) remain unchanged
c) decreases
hold ?
a) K1K2 = M1M2 b) K1M2 = M1K2
written as
a) (1/k1) + (1/k2) b) k1 + k2 c) (1/k1) (1/k2) d) none
a) K/3 b) 2K c) 3K d) 5K
______________
Set Q
Seat
No.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
SECTION I
ii) Cycle
iii) Resonance
iv) Stiffness
excitation. 8

Set Q
frequency. 8
SECTION II


___________________
Set Q
Seat Set R
No.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.


hold ?
a) K1K2 = M1M2 b) K1M2 = M1K2
written as
a) (1/k1) + (1/k2) b) k1 + k2 c) (1/k1) (1/k2) d) none
a) K/3 b) 2K c) 3K d) 5K
P.T.O.
14) During Resonance
two springs
a) increases
b) remain unchanged
c) decreases
______________
Set R
Seat
No.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
SECTION I
ii) Cycle
iii) Resonance
iv) Stiffness
excitation. 8

Set R
frequency. 8
SECTION II


___________________
Set R
Seat Set S
No.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.


two springs
a) increases
b) remain unchanged
c) decreases
P.T.O.
hold ?
a) K1K2 = M1M2 b) K1M2 = M1K2
written as
a) (1/k1) + (1/k2) b) k1 + k2 c) (1/k1) (1/k2) d) none
a) K/3 b) 2K c) 3K d) 5K
19) During Resonance
______________
Set S
Seat
No.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
SECTION I
ii) Cycle
iii) Resonance
iv) Stiffness
excitation. 8

Set S
frequency. 8
SECTION II


___________________
Set S
Seat
No. Set P
T.E. (Mechanical) Part II Examination, 2016
TOOL ENGINEERING (Professional Elective II)
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 2.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Question number 1, 2 and 6 are compulsory.
2) Answer any two full questions from the remaining in each Section.
Book Page No. 3.


A) 1) In bending allowance the value of K is dependent on
a) Inner radius b) Length of bend
c) Bend angle d) All above
2) For carrying out boring operation on lathe machine of a component on mass basis
a) Jig is used b) Fixture is used
c) Both jig and fixture are used d) Neither jig nor fixture is used
3) Tool life is largely affected by
a) Depth of cut b) Cutting speed
c) Feed d) All above
4) Spring back phenomenon is associated with
a) Drawing b) Bending
c) Cutting d) Forming
5) In sheet metal work, the cutting force on the tool can be reduced by
a) Grinding the cutting edges sharp
b) Increasing hardness of tool
c) Providing shear angle on tool
d) Increasing hardness of die
6) In ASA system, if tool signature is 8 - 14 - 5 - 5 - 10 - 15 - 2 mm then side rake angle
a) 5° b) 8°
c) 14° d) 10°
7) The process by which multiple holes which are very small and close together are cut in a flat work
material is
a) Shaving b) Trimming
c) Bending d) Perforating
P.T.O.
8) The male component of the die assembly which is fastened to press ram is
a) Bolster plate b) Punch
c) Die d) Stripper
9) Dynamometer is used to measure

a) Cutting force b) Power
c) Cutting speed d) None of these
10) The most common material for multiple point cutting tool is
a) Mild steel b) Stainless steel
c) HSS d) None of these
B) 11) Which of the following elements belong to fixture ? (5×2=10)

a) Guide post b) Tennon
c) Finger stop d) Setting block
12) Jigs are machine shop devices which consist of

a) Location b) Clamping
c) Means of tool guiding d) Setting block
13) Which can be treated as assets ?

a) Buildings b) Manpower
c) Equipments d) Equity
14) Which of the following is chip removal process ?

a) Die casting b) Broaching
c) Forging d) Grinding
15) Breakeven point is used to analyze

a) Capacity of machine
b) Min. Qty. to be produced for No. loss
c) Profit or loss
______________
Set P
Seat
No.
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 2.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Question number 2 and 6 are compulsory.
SECTION I
2. Design a progressive die for a component shown in Fig 1. 20

Calculate the following :
1) Strip layout
2) Punch and die size
3) Cutting force
4) Die block dimensions
5) Clearance
D = 30 mm, t = 5, d = 10 mm, Ts = 415 N/mm2.
OR
Design a drawing tool for production of a cup with diameter of 50 mm and height of 60 mm and having
inner radius of 1.6 mm, t = 1 mm, yield stress = 45 Kg/mm2. Draw two view of drawing tool out of one
should be sectional view.
Fig : 1
3. a) The following data relates to an orthogonal cutting process. 5

Chip thickness = 0.4 mm, feed = 0.2 mm/rev, rake angle = 10°, cutting force = 120 kg, feed force = 30 kg,
width of cut = 2.3 mm
Calculate :
1) Shear angle 2) Shear stress
Set P
b) While machining with steel by HSS tool at a feed rate of 0.2 mm/rev and 2 mm depth of cut, following
observations are made,
Cutting speed (m/min) 25 35
Tool life (min) 90 20
Assuming Taylors tool life equation, recommend the speed for tool life of 1 hr. 5
4. a) What is chip ? Discuss types of chip. 5

b) Discuss orthogonal and oblique cutting. 5
5. Write notes on the following (Any 2) : (5×2=10)

a) How to reduce cutting force in press working ?
b) Blanking and piercing.
c) Tool materials.
d) Bending dies.
SECTION II
6. Design a drill jig for 4 holes as shown in fig. 2. Draw one sectional view and top view. 20
OR
Design a milling fixture for a slot of 30 × 10 × 2 as shown figure 2. Draw two views out of one should be
sectional view. 30
10
Slot 30 × 10 × 2 mm
30
20
4 4
45 PCD 4 Holes
60
Fig : 2
7. a) Discuss 3-2-1 principle. 5

b) What is redundancy and how to avoid it ? 5
8. a) Discuss types of clamping with a neat sketch. 5

b) Discuss types of bushes with a neat sketch. 5
9. Write short notes on (any 2) : (5×2=10)

a) Elements of cost and cost estimation.
b) Nomenclature and angle of a twist drill.
c) Diamond pin locator.
d) Depreciation.
_____________________
Set P
Seat
No. Set Q
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 2.00 p.m.
Book Page No. 3.


A) 1) In ASA system, if tool signature is 8 - 14 - 5 - 5 - 10 - 15 - 2 mm then side rake angle
a) 5° b) 8°
c) 14° d) 10°
material is
c) Die d) Stripper


6) In bending allowance the value of K is dependent on
P.T.O.
B) 11) Jigs are machine shop devices which consist of (5×2=10)




c) Profit or loss
15) Which of the following elements belong to fixture ?

______________
Set Q
Seat
No.
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 2.00 p.m.
SECTION I

1) Strip layout
3) Cutting force
5) Clearance
D = 30 mm, t = 5, d = 10 mm, Ts = 415 N/mm2.
OR
Fig : 1

Calculate :
Set Q


c) Tool materials.
d) Bending dies.
SECTION II
OR
sectional view. 30
10
Slot 30 × 10 × 2 mm
30
20
4 4
45 PCD 4 Holes
60
Fig : 2



d) Depreciation.
_____________________
Set Q
Seat
No. Set R
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 2.00 p.m.
Book Page No. 3.


A) 1) Spring back phenomenon is associated with
a) 5° b) 8°
c) 14° d) 10°
material is
a) Shaving b) Trimming c) Bending d) Perforating
c) Die d) Stripper


P.T.O.
B) 11) Which can be treated as assets ? (5×2=10)



c) Profit or loss


______________
Set R
Seat
No.
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 2.00 p.m.
SECTION I

1) Strip layout
3) Cutting force
5) Clearance
D = 30 mm, t = 5, d = 10 mm, Ts = 415 N/mm2.
OR
Fig : 1

Calculate :
Set R


c) Tool materials.
d) Bending dies.
SECTION II
OR
sectional view. 30
10
Slot 30 × 10 × 2 mm
30
20
4 4
45 PCD 4 Holes
60
Fig : 2



d) Depreciation.
_____________________
Set R
Seat
No. Set S
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 2.00 p.m.
Book Page No. 3.


A) 1) The most common material for multiple point cutting tool is
a) 5° b) 8°
c) 14° d) 10°
P.T.O.
material is
c) Die d) Stripper

B) 11) Which of the following is chip removal process ? (5×2=10)


c) Profit or loss



______________
Set S
Seat
No.
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 2.00 p.m.
SECTION I

1) Strip layout
3) Cutting force
5) Clearance
D = 30 mm, t = 5, d = 10 mm, Ts = 415 N/mm2.
OR
Fig : 1

Calculate :
Set S


c) Tool materials.
d) Bending dies.
SECTION II
OR
sectional view. 30
10
Slot 30 × 10 × 2 mm
30
20
4 4
45 PCD 4 Holes
60
Fig : 2



d) Depreciation.
_____________________
Set S
S e a t
N o .
5 A J
B.E. (Mechanical Engineering) (Part I) Examination, 2016

Professional (Elective III)
FINITE ELEMENT METHOD
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


1) The matrix showing relation between strain vector and displacement vector or temperature vector
and temperature gradient is
A) [D] B) [K] C) [C] D) [B]
2) The material property matrix is represented as
A) [D] B) [K] C) [C] D) [B]
3) Which of the following is a Weighted Residual method ?
A) Galerkins method B) Variational formulations
C) Potential energy method D) None of the above
4) Shock spectrum analysis is
A) Steady state problem B) Eigen value problem
C) Transient problem D) Static analysis
5) Tetrahedron with four corner nodes relates
A) 3D simplex element B) Complex element
C) Multiplex element D) None
6) A piston is fastened to the connecting rod using a gudgeon pin. What element must be used to
define the connecting between the piston and gudgeon pin and gudgeon pin and connecting rod ?
A) Isoparametric element B) Mass element
C) Gap or contact element D) Axisymmetric shell
7) The function which dictate the nodal contribution of field variable is
A) Stress function B) Displacement function
C) Force function D) Shape function
8) For analysis of fluid problems the appropriate commercial software package is
A) Catia B) Pro-E C) FLUENT D) Hypermesh
P.T.O.
9) A measure of distortion of a element is

A) bandwidth B) damping ratio C) aspect ratio D) shape function
10) In Computer Integrated Manufacturing (CIM) FEM is the following phase of a manufacturing
A) CAD B) CAM C) CAE D) CAD/CAM
11) NAFEMS is a national agency which publishes guidelines on commercial software packages for
following
A) Finite Element Analysis B) CAM
C) CAD D) None of the above
12) A problem which is not a function of a time
A) Eigen value problem B) Steady state problem
C) Transient problem D) Propogation problem
13) If the physical formulation of the problem is described as a differential equation, then the most
popular solution method is the
A) Method of Weighted Residuals B) Variational Formulation
C) Direct stiffness matrix D) None of the above
14) Consider a differential equation D y

( x ) + Q = 0
Suppose that y = h(x) is an approximate solution to
it. Substitution then gives D h

( x ) + Q = R
, where R is a
A) Nonzero residual B) Zero residual
C) Resultant D) None of the above
15) The MWR (Method of Weighted Residual) requires that

W
E
( x ) R ( x ) = 0
where Wi (x) are
A) The weighting functions B) Weighted residual
C) Error term D) None of the above
16) The equations defining approximate distribution are known as interpolation functions and can take
any mathematical form in practice they are usually
A) Polynomials B) Trigonometric functions
C) Exponential function D) Hermetic function
17) The coordinate system that are local to each element but are dimensionless and have a maximum
absolute magnitude of unity.
A) Global coordinate system B) Cartisian coordinate system
C) Natural coordinate system D) Polar coordinate system
18) The element with quadratic interpolation function is called as
A) Quadratic element B) Cubic element
C) Linear D) None of the above
19) The bandwidth of a matrix after node numbering where D is largest difference between nodes in a
single element and f is the number of degrees of freedom at each node is
A) D × f B) D + f C) (D + 1) f D) (D 1) f
20) Accuracy and reliability in modeling is achieved by
A) Higher order element B) 1 D Element
C) Both A and B D) None of above
______________ Set P
S e a t
N o .


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
2. a) Explain Weighted Residual Method. Classify its weak and nonweak forms. 7
b) Applications of FEM in different domains. 6
c) Solve by Galerkin method and compare u(0.8) with exact solution. 7
d u
BCS : u (0) = 0 find u(0.8)

d u
4 u x = 0
( 1 ) = 1
d x
d x
3. a) Discuss the various matrices stated in the following equation. 7
K = B D B d v

b) Derive 6
.
E

( e )

= K U F = 0

C = 1
U

c) Discuss one dimensional, two dimensional and three dimensional elements and their properties. 7
4. Write short notes on any five : (4×5=20)
a) Advantage and disadvantage of FEM

b) Galerkin method
c) Properties of Global stiffness matrix
d) Element connectivity
e) Truss Element
f) Numerical methods.
Set P
SECTION II
5. a) Derive 1D Quadratic element shape function in natural coordinates. 7
b) Explain valid and invalid mesh designs with neat sketch. 7

c) Explain shock spectrum analysis. 6
6. a) Explain General FEM procedure. 7

b) Explain model validity and accuracy using approximation of geometry and material property. 7
c) Differentiate static and dynamic analysis. 6
7. Write short notes on any five. (4×5=20)
a) Commercial FEM software packages with their field applications

b) Isoparametric element
c) Jacobian
d) Element distortion and check
e) Modal analysis
f) h and p Refinements.
_____________________
Set P
S e a t
N o .
5 A J

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


A) D × f B) D + f C) (D + 1) f D) (D 1) f
A) [D] B) [K] C) [C] D) [B]
A) [D] B) [K] C) [C] D) [B]
P.T.O.
following

( x ) + Q = Suppose that y = h(x) is an approximate solution to

0

( x ) + Q = R
, where R is a
W
E
( x ) R ( x ) = 0
where Wi (x) are
Set Q
______________
S e a t
N o .


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
d u
BCS : u (0) = 0 find u(0.8)

d u
4 u x = 0
( 1 ) = 1
d x
d x
K = B D B d v

b) Derive 6
.
E

( e )

= K U F = 0

C = 1
U


b) Galerkin method
e) Truss Element
Set Q
SECTION II



c) Jacobian
e) Modal analysis
_____________________
Set Q
S e a t
N o .
5 A J

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


following

( x ) + Q = 0 Suppose that y = h(x) is an approximate solution to

( x ) + Q = R , where R is a

W
E
( x ) R ( x ) = 0
where Wi (x) are
P.T.O.
A) D × f B) D + f C) (D + 1) f D) (D 1) f
A) [D] B) [K] C) [C] D) [B]
A) [D] B) [K] C) [C] D) [B]
______________ Set R
S e a t
N o .


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
d u
BCS : u (0) = 0 find u(0.8)

d u
4 u x = 0
( 1 ) = 1
d x
d x
K = B D B d v

b) Derive 6
.
E

( e )

= K U F = 0

C = 1
U


b) Galerkin method
e) Truss Element
Set R
SECTION II



c) Jacobian
e) Modal analysis
_____________________
Set R
S e a t
N o .
5 A J

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


following
P.T.O.

( x ) + Q = 0 Suppose that y = h(x) is an approximate solution to


( x ) + Q = R , where R is a

W
E
( x ) R ( x ) = 0
where Wi (x) are
A) D × f B) D + f C) (D + 1) f D) (D 1) f
A) [D] B) [K] C) [C] D) [B]
A) [D] B) [K] C) [C] D) [B]
______________
Set S
S e a t
N o .


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
d u
BCS : u (0) = 0 find u(0.8)

d u
4 u x = 0
( 1 ) = 1
d x
d x
K = B D B d v

b) Derive 6
.
E

( e )

= K U F = 0

C = 1
U


b) Galerkin method
e) Truss Element
Set S
SECTION II



c) Jacobian
e) Modal analysis
_____________________
Set S
Seat
No.
Set P
AUTOMOBILE ENGINEERING
(Professional Elective III)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Figure to the right indicates full marks.


1) The basic automobile structure consists of the suspension system, axles,
wheels and
a) Steering b) Brakes
c) Frame d) Lights
2) Weight of the vehicle produces in the side members of the frame
a) Vertical bending b) Horizontal bending
c) Torsion d) All of these
3) The clutch is located between the transmission and the
a) Engine b) Rear axle
c) Propeller shaft d) Different
4) Increase of torque in a vehicle is obtained by
a) Decreasing speed b) Decreasing power
c) Decreasing petrol consumption d) All of the above
5) The central gear of an epicyclic gear set is called a
a) Ring gear b) Sun gear
c) Planet gear d) Internal gear
6) The function of a universal joint is to allow the propeller shaft to
a) Change length b) Bend sideways
c) Transfer torque at a angle d) Change inclination
P.T.O.
7) The function of a shackle with a leaf spring is to
a) Allow pivoting of spring end b) Allow spring length to change
c) Control sides way d) Control rear torque
8) The angle formed by the line joining the stub axle-steering arm ball joints with
the vertical, when this line slants forward at the top is called
a) Positive camber b) Negative camber
c) Positive castor d) Negative castor
9) The type of wheels preferred in sports cars are
a) Disc wheel b) Wire wheel
c) Magnesium alloy wheel d) Aluminum alloy wheel
10) The brake efficiency of a new vehicle is about
a) 30 per cent b) 50 per cent c) 80 per cent d) 100 per cent
11) A discharged lead acid battery has on its plate
a) Pb b) PbO2 c) PbSO4 d) H2SO4
12) Gradient resistance is expressed as
a) WKr b) KV2A c) W/G d) None of these
13) Function of overdrive is
a) Give stability b) Give ride control
c) Give high power d) Give high speed
14) The steering ratio for manual steering of cars is approximately
a) 5 b) 15 c) 50 d) 100
15) The coefficient of friction for the clutch facing is approximately
a) 0.1 b) 0.4 c) 0.8 d) 1.2
16) The maximum torque multiplication ratio in a torque converter is about
a) 2.5 b) 10 c) 25 d) 100
17) Another name for a torsion bar is
a) Stabilizer bar b) Strut rod
c) Panhard rod d) Radius rod
18) Most popular manual steering gear for cars today is
a) Rack and pinion type b) Worm and wheel type
c) Cam and roller type d) Worm and Nut type
19) The brakes employed in cars are usually operated
a) Mechanically b) Hydraulically
c) By means of engine vacuum d) By compressed air
20) Differential is present in
a) Two wheeler b) Four wheeler
______________
Set P
S e a t
N o .

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

3) Figure in right indicates full marks.
SECTION I
2. a) Explain with figure conventional chassis layout. List various components and
write their functions. 8
b) What are the functions and requirements of clutch in automobiles ? Explain
with neat sketch electromagnetic clutch. 8
c) Write short notes on automotive body construction. 4
3. a) Explain with neat sketch working of sliding mesh gear box and explain double
declutching problem. 8
b) Discuss necessity of gear box with the help of vehicle performance curves. 6
c) Explain the function of final drive in automobiles and also explain its types. 6
4. a) For typical motor car the road resistance is given by 23 N per 1000 N, the air
resistance by expression 0.0827 V2, transmission efficiency 88% in top speed,
car weighs 19934 N when fully loaded. Calculate : 10
i) The brake power in KW required for a top speed of 144 km/hr
ii) The acceleration in m/s2 at 48 km/hr, assuming the torque at 48 km/hr in
top gear 25% more than at 144 km/hr.
iii) The BP in KW required for driving the car up a gradient of 1 in 5 at 48 km/hr,
transmission efficiency 80% in bottom gear. The resistance being N and V
the speed in km/hr and g, acceleration due to gravity is 9.81 m/s2.
b) Discuss various types of resistances acting on vehicle. 6
c) Write short note on any one : 4
i) Wind screen wiper
ii) Transaxle
Set P
SECTION II
5. a) Enlist the functions and requirements of steering system also explain

Ackermann steering mechanism with neat sketch. 8
b) Explain the following terms with figures : 6
i) Caster angle
ii) Camber angle
iii) Slip angle
c) Explain with a neat sketch the working of linkage type of power steering. 6
6. a) Explain working of a hydraulic braking system with a neat sketch. What is

meant by bleeding of brakes ? 8
b) Derive an expression for the stopping distance in meter of a truck equipped
with all wheel brakes in terms of coefficient of friction and speed in km per
hour. Calculate the value of
if the vehicle is stopped in 27.45 m from
64 km/hr. If coefficient of friction is reduced to 0.3 by rain, what will be
stopping distance ? Predict the stopping distance in either case, if instead of
truck, a car weighing a quarter of truck is used in the experiment. 8
c) Write a short note on power brakes. 4
7. a) Compare independent suspension with conventional suspension. Also enlist

the types of independent suspension systems used in automobiles. 8
b) Write short notes on any two : 8
i) Leaf spring and coil springs
ii) Reaction members used in automobiles
iii) Sprung and unsprung mass
c) Explain traction control device used in modern vehicles. 4
_____________________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set Q
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


a) 2.5 b) 10 c) 25 d) 100
wheels and
a) Steering b) Brakes c) Frame d) Lights
P.T.O.
a) 5 b) 15 c) 50 d) 100
a) 0.1 b) 0.4 c) 0.8 d) 1.2
______________
Set Q
S e a t
N o .

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
ii) Transaxle
Set Q
SECTION II

i) Caster angle
ii) Camber angle
iii) Slip angle


_____________________
Set Q
Seat
No.
Set R
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
a) 5 b) 15 c) 50 d) 100
a) 0.1 b) 0.4 c) 0.8 d) 1.2
a) 2.5 b) 10 c) 25 d) 100
P.T.O.
wheels and
c) Frame d) Lights
______________
Set R
S e a t
N o .

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
ii) Transaxle
Set R
SECTION II

i) Caster angle
ii) Camber angle
iii) Slip angle


_____________________
Set R
Seat
No.
Set S
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


P.T.O.
a) 5 b) 15 c) 50 d) 100
a) 0.1 b) 0.4 c) 0.8 d) 1.2
a) 2.5 b) 10 c) 25 d) 100
wheels and
c) Frame d) Lights
______________
Set S
S e a t
N o .

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
ii) Transaxle
Set S
SECTION II

i) Caster angle
ii) Camber angle
iii) Slip angle


_____________________
Set S
Seat
No.
Set P
B.E. (Mechanical) (Part – I) Examination, 2016
PROCESS ENGINEERING (Professional Elective – III)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Note : 1) Question Number 1, 2 and 6 are compulsory.
2) Answer any two full questions from the remaining in each
Section.


1) Which of the following is input for process planning ?
A) Jigs and fixtures B) Design drawing
C) Machine D) Tools
2) Elimination of operation can be accomplished by
A) Changing product design B) Changing tooling
C) Changing auxiliary processes D) Changing machine setting
3) GPM is selected for
A) Cost B) Quality C) Quantity D) Flexibility
4) SPM is selected for
A) Project manufacturing B) Job production
C) Batch manufacturing D) Mass production
5) Which of the following is not the dept. of production engineering ?
A) Production design B) Tool design
C) Tool making D) Tool store and mgt.
6) Which of the following product is not continuous / process mfg. system ?
A) Cars B) Fertilizer C) Petrochemical D) Steel
P.T.O.
SLR-EP – 445 -2- *SLREP445*
7) Symbol used for inspection in method study is
A) Cone B) Pyramid C) Square D) Triangle
8) Which of the following is the cause of tolerance stack ?
A) Product design B) Inspection method
C) Tooling D) Machines
9) The selection of the suitable process can be made on the basis of
A) Product design B) Product material
C) Volume of production D) Tool design
10) Which is the most important skill is not required by a process engineer ?
A) Interpret engg. drawings
B) Design of product
C) Knowledge of jigs and fixtures
D) Knowledge of manufacturing process
B) Match the pair : 10

4
a) Cleaning 1) Supporting operation
b) Metal cutting 2) Auxiliary operation
c) Casting 3) Principal process operation
d) Packaging 4) Basic process operation
3
a) Product engineer 1) Process picture
b) Process engineer 2) Jigs and fixtures
c) Tool design 3) Manufacturing specifications
3
a) Job production 1) Capstan lathe
b) Batch production 2) Automatic lathe
c) Mass production 3) Centre lathe
______________
Set P
*SLREP445* -3- SLR-EP – 445
Seat
No.


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Note : 1) Q. 2 and Q. 6 are compulsory.

2) Solve any 2 questions from each Section.
SECTION – I
2. Prepare a process plan for manufacturing the component in Figure 1 w.r.t. data supplied
there in along following lines :
A) Route sheet
B) Operations list indicating sequence of operation indicating machine selected,
holding methods, tool specifications and machining parameters per set up.
C) Gauges and inspection methods and instruments. 20
MH – M.S.
Tolerances on m/cned
dimensions are ± 0.1
All dimensions are in mm
Production Batch Type
Figure 1
Set P
SLR-EP – 445 -4- *SLREP445*
3. a) What are the different types of production ? Explain in detail. 5

b) Define manufacturing system. What are the inputs and outputs of manufacturing
system ? 5
4. Explain position and function of product and process engineer in detail. 10
5. a) Explain in detail manufacturing engineering. 5

b) What are the general guidelines for manual process ? 5
SECTION – II
6. Draw the process picture sheet for any four operations for manufacturing the component
in Figure 1 w.r.t. sequence. Use standard symbols for locating, clamping along with
material removal. 20
7. a) Discuss various sources of information for selection of machine tools. 5

b) How do you select machine tool ? Explain. 5
8. How do you classify the operations ? 10
9. a) Explain the factors for combining and eliminating the operations. 5

b) Write a note on technical feasibility study. 5
_____________________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set Q
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Section.

1. A) Match the pair : 10

4
3
3
P.T.O.
SLR-EP – 445 -2- *SLREP445*
C) Machine D) Tools
______________
Set Q
*SLREP445* -3- SLR-EP – 445
Seat
No.


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION – I
A) Route sheet
MH – M.S.
Figure 1
Set Q
SLR-EP – 445 -4- *SLREP445*

system ? 5

SECTION – II


_____________________
Set Q
Seat
No.
Set R
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Section.


C) Machine D) Tools
P.T.O.
SLR-EP – 445 -2- *SLREP445*
B) Match the pair : 10

4
3
3
______________
Set R
*SLREP445* -3- SLR-EP – 445
Seat
No.


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION – I
A) Route sheet
MH – M.S.
Figure 1
Set R
SLR-EP – 445 -4- *SLREP445*

system ? 5

SECTION – II


_____________________
Set R
Seat
No.
Set S
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Section.

1. A) Match the pair : 10

4
3
3
P.T.O.
SLR-EP – 445 -2- *SLREP445*
C) Machine D) Tools
______________
Set S
*SLREP445* -3- SLR-EP – 445
Seat
No.


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION – I
A) Route sheet
MH – M.S.
Figure 1
Set S
SLR-EP – 445 -4- *SLREP445*

system ? 5

SECTION – II


_____________________
Set S
Seat
No. Set P
Elective – I : INDUSTRIAL ROBOTICS
Day and Date : Thursday, 8-12-2016 Total Marks : 100
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
one mark.
only. Don’t forget to mention, Q.P. Set (P/Q/R/S) on Top
of Page.

1) The term robot was first used by
a) Aurther C. Clarke b) Issac Asimov
c) Leonardo Da Vinci d) Karl Capek
2) Robot grippers for industrial robot typically employ _________ actuator.
a) Pneumatic b) Hydraulic c) Electric d) Magnetic
3) For short range distance measurements, which type of sensor in more suitable ?
a) Tactile sensor b) Ultrasonic sensor
c) Optical sensor d) Laser sensor
4) Forward Kinematics is
a) Going from joint space to world space
b) Going from world space to joint space
c) Both a and b
5) In a CCD camera the term CCD stands for
a) Charge Conduction Device b) Camera Charge Device
c) Charge Coupled Device d) Camera Coupled Device
6) Which of the following is not a segmentation technique ?
a) Edge detection b) Thresholding
c) Region growing d) Template matching
7) Singularity in a robot occurs when
a) Order of jacobian is 1 b) Order of jacobian is 0
c) Order of jacobian is 2 d) None of the above
P.T.O.
SLR-EP – 446 -2- *SLREP446*
8) Which of the following is a robot programming language ?

a) SAIL b) MAIL c) RAIL d) TAIL
9) Lead through programming is an
a) Off-line programming method b) On-line programming method
c) Both a and b d) None of the above
10) UGV stands for
a) Unarmed Ground Vehicle b) Unmanned Ground Vehicle
c) Unlocked Grip Vehicle d) None of the above
11) The minimum numbers of wheel required for both static and dynamic balancing
(Both in X and Y direction) is
a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four
12) Tracked robots compare to wheeled robots have
a) More traction b) Less traction
c) Medium traction d) No traction
13) The two most commonly used technique in image sensing are
a) RGB and HSV b) CCD and HSV
c) CMOS and CCD d) CMOS and RGB
14) The frame rates for a standard video camera is about __________ frames
per second.
a) 100 – 1000 b) 100 – 200 c) 50 – 100 d) 25 – 30
15) Which of the following sensor is used in robot gripper ?
a) Optical b) Tactile c) Laser d) Ultrasonic
16) Pick the best configuration of robot in terms of structural rigidity
a) Cylindrical b) Cartesian c) SCARA d) Spherical
17) _________ is the path with specified qualities of motion such as velocity,
acceleration at each point.
a) Knot point b) Trajectory c) Via point d) Spline
18) The most widely used controlled in industrial robot control system is
a) PI controller b) PD controller c) PID controller d) ID controller
19) The configuration of industrial robot in welding operation is usually
a) Cartesian b) Cylindrical c) Spherical d) Jointed arm
20) The term UAV stands for
a) Unmanned Air Vehicle b) Unmanned Arm Vehicle
c) Unmanned Aerial Vehicle d) Unmanned Aircraft Vehicle
______________
Set P
*SLREP446* -3- SLR-EP – 446
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instruction : Answer any two questions from Section I and any two
from Section II.
SECTION – I
2. a) What is Automation and explain the different types of automation with their
merits and demerits ? 6
b) Explain with neat sketch any two types of robot configurations. 8
c) What are grippers and explain any two types of gripper used in robots ? 6
3. a) Explain with neat sketch the working principles of DC motor. 6

b) What are sensors and explain any two types of proximity sensors ? 6
c) For the point 3i + 7j + 5k perform the following operations
i) Rotate 30° about X-axis
ii) Rotate 45° about Y-axis
iii) Translate 8 units along Y axis. 8
4. a) Obtain a rotation matrix for a robot arm when it is rotated about X-axis, and
Y axis. 6
b) A robot arm points in X direction with joint 2 extended to 0.5 m. Find the tool
linear velocity if joint 1 is rotating at 2rad/sec and joint 2 is extended at
1 m/sec. 6
c) Explain with neat block diagram the steps involved in robot vision system. 8
Set P
SLR-EP – 446 -4- *SLREP446*
SECTION – II
5. a) What is segmentation and explain the different technique of segmentation ? 8

b) List out the differences between wheeled and tracked robots. 6
c) List out the advantages, disadvantages and applications of wheeled robots. 6
6. a) With neat sketch explain the any two types of robot work cell. 8
b) Differentiate between on-line programming and off-line programming in robots. 6
c) Explain the different programming languages used in robots. 6
7. Write short notes on :

a) Future scope of robots.
b) Material handling applications of robot.
c) PID controller.
d) CCD camera. (5×4=20)
_____________________
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Seat
No. Set Q
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
one mark.
of Page.

P.T.O.
SLR-EP – 446 -2- *SLREP446*
c) Both a and b
15) UGV stands for
per second.
a) 100 – 1000 b) 100 – 200 c) 50 – 100 d) 25 – 30
______________
Set Q
*SLREP446* -3- SLR-EP – 446
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
from Section II.
SECTION – I

Y axis. 6
1 m/sec. 6
Set Q
SLR-EP – 446 -4- *SLREP446*
SECTION – II


c) PID controller.
_____________________
Set Q
Seat
No. Set R
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
one mark.
of Page.

per second.
a) 100 – 1000 b) 100 – 200 c) 50 – 100 d) 25 – 30
P.T.O.
SLR-EP – 446 -2- *SLREP446*

c) Both a and b
20) UGV stands for
______________
Set R
*SLREP446* -3- SLR-EP – 446
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
from Section II.
SECTION – I

Y axis. 6
1 m/sec. 6
Set R
SLR-EP – 446 -4- *SLREP446*
SECTION – II


c) PID controller.
_____________________
Set R
Seat
No. Set S
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
one mark.
of Page.

5) UGV stands for
P.T.O.
SLR-EP – 446 -2- *SLREP446*

per second.
a) 100 – 1000 b) 100 – 200 c) 50 – 100 d) 25 – 30
c) Both a and b
______________
Set S
*SLREP446* -3- SLR-EP – 446
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
from Section II.
SECTION – I

Y axis. 6
1 m/sec. 6
Set S
SLR-EP – 446 -4- *SLREP446*
SECTION – II


c) PID controller.
_____________________
Set S
Set P
S e a t
N o .
B.E. (Mechanical) (Part I) Examination, 2016

SUGAR ENGINEERING (Elective I)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
4) Q. No. 1 is compulsory.It should be solved in first 30 minutes
1) Area of the feeder table
a) 2R/3 b) 3R/2 c) 2L/3 d) 0.25 L
2) Mill setting depends upon
a) pH value of juice b) size of the trash plate
c) desired rate of crushing d) none of the above
3) Underfeed roller diameter is
a) Two third of mill diameter b) Three fourth of mill diameter
c) Half to two third of mill diameter d) None of the above
4) Juice clarifier is used for
a) Heating of juice b) Sulphitation of juice
c) Settling of mud d) None of the above
5) Inventor of multiple effect evaporators
a) Pieter Honing b) Nobert Rillieux c) E. Hugot d) CGM Perk
6) Vapour line juice heater is installed
a) Between last body and condenser
b) Between juice sulphiter and juice clarifier
c) Between weighing machine and juice sulphiter
7) Mill sanitation is required for
a) To extract the maximum amount of juice
b) Weighing of juice
c) To prevent the fermentation of juice
d) Heating of juice
P.T.O.
8) This roller is used for first mill in case of top roller
a) Underfeed roller b) Lime roller c) Messchart roller d) Lotus roller
9) The vacuum in the last evaporator body of multiple effect evaporator
a) 200 to 250 mm b) 600 to 625 mm
c) 400 to 500 mm d) None of the above
10) If condensate water from juice heater is not removed
a) Entrainment increases b) Heater starts vibrating
c) Water gets evaporated d) Formation of conglomerates
11) In India the massecuite boiling scheme preferred is
a) Two massecuite boiling scheme b) Three massecuite boiling scheme
c) Three and half boiling scheme d) Four massecuite boiling scheme
12) Disadvantage of batch type centrifugal machine
a) Running at high speed b) Irregular use of electricity
c) Size of the sugar crystal increases d) None of the above
13) Sucrose molecules from the bulk of solution will be transported to the crystal
face is due to
a) Metastable process b) Diffusion process
c) Labile process d) None of the above
14) Crystallisers are located
a) Above the pan b) On the floor
c) Below the pan d) Near to the centrifugal machine
15) Factor affecting the centrifugal machine performance
a) Ploughing operation b) Grain size
c) Temperature of massecuite d) None of the above
16) Humidity of sugar godown should not exceed
a) Above 60% b) Above 90%
c) Above 80% d) None of the above
17) In rotary dryer, hot air and sugar flows in the
a) Same direction b) Bottom direction
c) Counter current direction d) All the above
18) Sugar elevator is used for
a) Packing the sugar b) Lifting the sugar to higher level
c) Drying of sugar d) All the above
19) In vacuum pan for formation of sugar crystal
a) State of conglomerate is important
b) State of super saturation of mother liquid is important
c) State of evaporation is important
20) In this water treatment bacteria utilizes the oxygen to degrade the organic matter
a) Anaerobic type b) Screening type c) Aerobic type d) Sanitation type
______________
Set P
S e a t
N o .

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
SECTION I
2. a) Discuss fibrizer used in the sugar industry with neat sketch. 7

b) Explain three roller crusher mill with neat sketch. 7
c) Why mill sanitation is required ? Explain mill setting. 6
3. a) Discuss vertical juice heater with neat sketch. 7

b) Discuss measurement of weighing of juice. Explain lever and counterweight
weighing machine. 7
c) Explain two entrainment catchers with neat sketch. 6

a) Cane unloading
b) Direct vapour contact juice heater
c) Long tube vertical falling film evaporator
d) Chevron grooves on the roller
e) Mill drive.
SECTION II
5. a) Explain the construction and working of vacuum pan with neat sketch. 7
b) How sugar solution can be classified according to the degree of saturation ? 7
c) Discuss continuous centrifugal machine with neat sketch. 6
Set P
6. a) Explain rotary dryer with neat sketch. 7

b) Explain sugar grader. How gradation of is done ? 7
c) Why industrial waste water treatments are essential ? Explain any one
treatment with neat sketch. 6

a) False grain and conglomerates
b) Slurry preparation methods in vacuum pan
c) Air pollution control in sugar industry
d) Automation of centrifugal machine operation
e) Vertical crystalliser.
_____________________
Set P
Set Q
S e a t
N o .

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
a) Anaerobic type b) Screening type
c) Aerobic type d) Sanitation type
a) 2R/3 b) 3R/2 c) 2L/3 d) 0.25 L
P.T.O.
d) Heating of juice
a) 200 to 250 mm b) 600 to 625 mm
face is due to
______________
Set Q
S e a t
N o .

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
SECTION I


weighing machine. 7

a) Cane unloading
e) Mill drive.
SECTION II
Set Q


_____________________
Set Q
Set R
S e a t
N o .

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
face is due to
P.T.O.
a) Anaerobic type b) Screening type c) Aerobic type d) Sanitation type
a) 2R/3 b) 3R/2 c) 2L/3 d) 0.25 L
d) Heating of juice
a) 200 to 250 mm b) 600 to 625 mm
______________
Set R
S e a t
N o .

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
SECTION I


weighing machine. 7

a) Cane unloading
e) Mill drive.
SECTION II
Set R


_____________________
Set R
Set S
S e a t
N o .

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
d) Heating of juice
a) 200 to 250 mm b) 600 to 625 mm
P.T.O.
face is due to
a) Anaerobic type b) Screening type
c) Aerobic type d) Sanitation type
a) 2R/3 b) 3R/2 c) 2L/3 d) 0.25 L
a) Pieter Honing b) Nobert Rillieux
c) E. Hugot d) CGM Perk
______________
Set S
S e a t
N o .

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
SECTION I


weighing machine. 7

a) Cane unloading
e) Mill drive.
SECTION II
Set S


_____________________
Set S
Seat
No.
Set P
TEXTILE ENGINEERING (Elective – I)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
2) Use of non-programmable calculator, steam table, psychometric
chart is allowed.
3) Assume suitable data wherever necessary.


1) In indirect yarn system
A) Number and yarn diameter are directly proportionate
B) Number and yarn diameter are indirectly proportionate
C) Number and diameter have no relation
D) Number and diameter are same
2) Viscose is _________ type fibre.
A) Natural B) Manmade C) Regenerated D) Animal
3) Weft means
A) Set of threads parallel to selvedge
B) Set of threads perpendicular to selvedge
C) Any thread in the fabric
D) Set of threads parallel and perpendicular to each other
4) Comber is used for
A) Removal of short fibres B) Removal of cotton seeds
C) Individualization of fibres D) Twisting of fibres
5) If weight of the 9000 m yarn weighs 100 grams. It Denier will be
A) 90 B) 900 C) 10 D) 100
6) Shedding mechanism has object of
A) Divide warp into two layers B) Insert pick in the shed
C) Push the weft to the fell of the cloth D) Release the warp sheet
7) Which process is a temporary process ?
A) Winding B) Warping C) Sizing D) Weaving
P.T.O.
SLR-EP – 448 -2- *SLREP448*
8) Jacquard capacity is expressed in
A) Number of cylinders B) Number of hooks
C) Number of jacks D) Number of harnesses
9) Horizontal stripe effect in the fabric is produced by using
A) Sectional warping machine B) Dobby mechanism
C) Drop Box mechanism D) Jacquard
10) Desizing process is used for
A) Improving the whiteness of fabric B) For improving luster of fabric
C) For removal of size paste D) For improving the absorbency of fabric
11) Solapur centre is famous for
A) Chaddar B) Suiting C) Dhoti D) Saree
12) Differential motion is used on
A) Comber B) Draw Frame C) Ring Frame D) Speed Frame
13) ‘Starting marks’ defect in the fabric can be reduced by using
A) Best quality yarn B) Higher tension on warp sheet
C) Clutch motion D) Brake motion
14) For 2 up 1 down twill weave how many tappets are required ?
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4
15) Machine vibrations can be reduced by
A) Using dampers B) Reducing speed
C) Increasing height of the machine D) Increasing weight of the machine
16) Routine and preventive are the types of
A) Tensile testing B) Maintenance
C) Shedding mechanisms D) Let off motions
17) If the denting order is 2
A) EPI and reed count are same B) PPI and reed count are same
C) EPI will be double the reed count D) PPI will be double the reed count
18) Which fabric strength is suitable to test knitted fabric ?
A) Tensile B) Ballistic C) Tearing D) Bursting
19) Checks type fabric can be produced by
A) Sectional warping and drop box motion
B) Sectional warping and Jacquard
C) Beam warping and drop box motion
D) Beam warping and Jacquard
20) Arrange the technologies in ascending order with reference to their speeds
A) Projectile – Air Jet – Water Jet – Rapier
B) Air Jet – Water Jet – Rapier – Projectile
C) Projectile – Rapier – Water Jet – Air Jet
D) Rapier – Water Jet – Air Jet – Projectile
______________
Set P
*SLREP448* -3- SLR-EP – 448
Seat
No.


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

2) Use of non-programmable calculator, steam table,
psychometric chart is allowed.
SECTION – I
2. a) What are the essential and desirable properties of the textile fibre ? 8
b) What are the objects of the carding machine ? With line diagram explain the
working of the machine. 7
c) What is yarn numbering system ? Explain in brief the most commonly used
systems. 5
3. a) Explain the objects and working principle of Comber. 8
b) Which type of size ingredients are used in size paste ? What are their functions ? 7
c) Give the advantages of the textured yarn. 5
4. a) What are the primary motions of the loom ? Explain any one in details. 8
b) What are the elements in the beam warping machine ? Write their functions. 7
c) Give the process sequence of wet processing machines for a dyed cotton
fabric. 5
Set P
SLR-EP – 448 -4- *SLREP448*
SECTION – II
5. a) Give the object and working of differential motion used on speed frame. 8
b) What are the different factors to be considered for construction of the shedding
tappet ? 7
c) Give the functions of clutch and brake motions used on auto loom. 5
6. a) Give the list of equipments and their functions required for erection of textile
machines. 8
b) Give the advantages of routine and preventive maintenance. 7
c) What are the different types of lubricants used in textile industry ? 5
7. a) Give the different applications of non-woven fabrics. Give the process flow
for any such fabric. 8
b) Compare air jet and water jet weaving technologies. 7
c) Calculate the production of air jet weaving machine in meters per shift of
8 hours running at 1000 rpm and producing the fabric having 28 picks
per cm at 95% efficiency. 5
_____________________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set Q
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
chart is allowed.

P.T.O.
SLR-EP – 448 -2- *SLREP448*
8) Weft means
A) 90 B) 900 C) 10 D) 100
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4
______________
Set Q
*SLREP448* -3- SLR-EP – 448
Seat
No.


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION – I
systems. 5
fabric. 5
Set Q
SLR-EP – 448 -4- *SLREP448*
SECTION – II
tappet ? 7
machines. 8
_____________________
Set Q
Seat
No.
Set R
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
chart is allowed.


A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4
P.T.O.
SLR-EP – 448 -2- *SLREP448*
13) Weft means
A) 90 B) 900 C) 10 D) 100
______________
Set R
*SLREP448* -3- SLR-EP – 448
Seat
No.


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION – I
systems. 5
fabric. 5
Set R
SLR-EP – 448 -4- *SLREP448*
SECTION – II
tappet ? 7
machines. 8
_____________________
Set R
Seat
No.
Set S
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
chart is allowed.


P.T.O.
SLR-EP – 448 -2- *SLREP448*
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4
18) Weft means
A) 90 B) 900 C) 10 D) 100
______________
Set S
*SLREP448* -3- SLR-EP – 448
Seat
No.


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION – I
systems. 5
fabric. 5
Set S
SLR-EP – 448 -4- *SLREP448*
SECTION – II
tappet ? 7
machines. 8
_____________________
Set S
Seat
No. Set P
ENTREPRENEURSHIP DEVELOPMENT (Elective I)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Note : 1) Answer any two full questions from each Section.
1) The details of machinery and equipments are shown in the project report under
the head
a) Capital cost and source of finance b) General information
c) Project description d) Market potential
2) The important social consideration for a project is
a) Prevention of environmental damage b) Promotion of employment
c) Introduction of import substitution d) Development of the local area
3) To provide financial assistance to entrepreneurs the government has set up a
number of
a) Financial Institutions b) Financial Advisors
c) Financial Intermediaries d) Industrial Estates
4) The person who creates an enterprise is called
a) Entrepreneur b) Managers c) Leaders d) Owners
5) Which of the following is not a personal barrier to an entrepreneur ?
a) Lack of sustained motivation b) Practical values
c) Lack of clear perception d) Lack of vision
6) __________ is a form of organization, which is owned by two or more partners.
a) Partnership Firm b) Joint Hindu Family Business
c) Sole Proprietorship d) Private Limited Company
7) A voluntary association of minimum two and maximum 50 members is called
a) Public Limited Company b) Joint Hindu Family Business
8) A __________ is the most common and the oldest form of business/organization.
P.T.O.
9) Which
SLR-EP *SLREP449*
449 of the following describes how-2-the product or service will be distributed,
priced and promoted ?
a) Financial Plan b) Operations Plan
c) Market Plan d) Management and Organization Plan
10) Which of the following involves information regarding anticipated risks and the
ways to mitigate them ?
a) Management and Organization Plan b) Contingency Plan
c) Operations Plan d) Financial Plan
11) Which of the following is the short term source of finance ?
a) Lease Finance b) Hire Purchase c) Public Deposits d) Trade Credit
12) Bank credit is source of
a) Long term financing b) Short-term financing
c) Medium term financing d) Short as well as long term financing
13) Managerial Bottleneck arises due to
a) Lack of managerial capacity b) Lack of infrastructure
c) Adequate managerial resources d) Inadequate managerial resources
14) Which of the following bring synergy between technology and finance ?
a) NMCP
b) CLCSS
c) Technology Bureau for small enterprises
d) ISO 9000/14001 certification fee reimbursement scheme
15) Which of the following step was taken by the government to create new
entrepreneurs in the country ?
a) Micro, Small, Medium, Enterprise Development
b) Scheme of Survey, Studies and Policy Research
c) Rajiv Gandhi Udyami Mitra Yojana (RGUMY)
d) Entrepreneurship Development Programs (EDPs)
16) Royalty is the amount paid by the franchisee to the
a) Licensor b) License c) Franchisor d) Legal Advisor
17) The main function of SIDO is
a) Co-ordination b) Industrial development
c) Extension d) All
18) Which of the following sector is termed as priority sector ?
a) Large Scale Sector b) Tiny Enterprise Sector
c) Medium Enterprise Sector d) Small Scale Sector
19) Which of the following is an internal factor that influences entrepreneurs ?
a) Technological Capacity b) Political Interference
c) Social Environment d) Economic Conditions
20) Which of the following is not a function of an entrepreneur ?
a) Altering the government system b) Arranging finance
c) Staffing d) Risk and uncertainty bearing
______________
Set P
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
2. a) Define entrepreneur, entrepreneurship and its importance. 10

b) Discuss growth of entrepreneurial activity. 10
3. a) Discuss characteristics and qualities of entrepreneur. 10

b) Discuss classification and types of entrepreneur. 10
4. a) Explain factors influencing entrepreneurial development. 10

b) Write a note on EDP. 10
SECTION II
5. a) Discuss idea generation, sources and its classification. 10

b) Explain phases of project. 10
6. a) Discuss in detail project appraisal methods. 10

b) Write a note on Micro Small Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) and Tax benefits
to SMEs. 10
7. a) Write notes on SISI and SIDBI. 10

b) Describe organization structure of a small scale industries with the help of
suitable example. 10
_____________________
Set P
Set P
Seat
No. Set Q
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
c) Extension d) All
the head
number of
P.T.O.
14) Which of the following describes how the product or service will be distributed,
a) NMCP
b) CLCSS
______________
Set Q
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I



SECTION II


to SMEs. 10

_____________________
Set Q
Set Q
Seat
No. Set R
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
a) NMCP
b) CLCSS
c) Extension d) All
P.T.O.
the head
number of
______________
Set R
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I



SECTION II


to SMEs. 10

_____________________
Set R
Set R
Seat
No. Set S
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
P.T.O.
a) NMCP
b) CLCSS
c) Extension d) All
the head
number of
______________
Set S
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I



SECTION II


to SMEs. 10

_____________________
Set S
Set S
P
S e a t
N o .
Set

AUTOMOBILE ENGINEERING (Elective II)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


1) The co-efficient of friction for the clutch facing is approximately
a) 0.1 b) 0.4 c) 0.8 d) 1.2
c) Propeller shaft d) Differential gear box
4) The component of torque convertor that allows multiplication of torque is the
a) Turbine b) Impeller c) Pump d) Stator
5) The function of universal joint is to allow the propeller shaft to
a) Change length b) Bend sideway
c) Transfer torque at angle d) Change inclination
6) The smaller gear inside differential casing are
a) Pinion gear b) Sun gear c) Side gear d) Ring gear
7) The inner end of the axle shaft is splined to
a) Sun gear b) Planet pinion
c) Crown wheel d) Differential cage
P.T.O.
8) The type of rear axle used on truck is
a) Semi-floating b) Fully-floating
c) Three quarter floating d) None of these
9) Most commonly used power plant on automobile is
a) I.C. Engine b) Gas turbine c) Battery d) None of these
10) Free pedal play in car clutches is about
a) 3 mm b) 30 mm c) 60 mm d) 100 mm
11) The type of steering gear used in a Maruti 800 car is
a) Rack and pinion b) Worm and roller
c) Worm and wheel d) None of these
12) Cornering force divided by slip angle is called
a) Cornering power b) Self-righting torque
c) Pneumatic trail d) Castor trail
a) 30 percent b) 50 percent c) 80 percent d) 100 percent
14) In antilock brakes
a) Locking is prevented b) Pressure modulation is done
c) Wheel skidding is prevented d) All of the above
15) The MacPherson suspension system consists of
a) A telescopic strut b) A single arm
c) A diagonal stay d) All above
16) The unsprung weight is weight of the
a) Weight of passenger carriage b) Weight of the wheel axle system
c) Weight of driver carriage d) None of these
17) Odometer is used for indicating
a) Vehicle speed b) Distance travelled
c) Engine rpm d) None of the above
18) The electrolyte used in lead acid battery is diluted
a) Sulphuric acid b) Nitric acid c) Lactic acid d) All of the above
19) Electronic control module gets signals from
a) Different parameter measuring devices
b) Sensors used at various locations
c) Driver controls
d) All of the above
20) The vertical oscillations of unsprung mass is called as
a) Hopping b) Rolling
c) Pitching d) None of the above
______________
Set P
S e a t
N o .


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
2. a) What are the type of automobile layout ? Explain Front engine rear wheel
drive layout. 7
b) List various type of automobile bodies. Explain any two with figure. 6
c) Explain Electric vehicle with figure. 7
3. a) Explain various type of resistances to vehicle movement. 4

b) A truck has a gross vehicle weight of 89026 N. Engine power is 77.3 kW at a
governed speed of 2400 rpm and maximum torque 345.8 Nm at 1400 rpm.
Rear axle ratio is 6.166 : 1. Fourth speed reduction ratio in transmission is
1.605 : 1. Drive line losses amount to 10.7 kW at 2400 rpm and 6.3 kW at
1400 rpm. Effective wheel dia. Is 0.950 m, frontal area of truck is 6.95 m2.
Calculate the grades which the vehicle can climb in fourth gear in still air
condition : 10
a) At governed engine speed
b) At speed of maximum torque.
c) Explain Electromagnetic clutch with figure. 6
4. a) What is epicyclic gear box ? Explain with figure. 6

b) Explain in detail sliding mesh gear box with diagram. 6
c) Compare constant mesh gear box with synchromesh gear box. 8
Set P
SECTION II
5. a) Enlist the different types of steering gear boxes used in automobiles ? Explain
with sketch ball and nut type of steering gear box. 8
i) King pin inclination and steering axis inclination.
ii) Toe-in and Toe-out
iii) Cornering power.
1) Slip angle
2) Antilock brakes.
6. a) What is power brake ? Explain with neat sketch air braking system and list
advantages and disadvantages of it. 8
b) A car whose wheel base is equal to five times the height of its C.G. above the
ground. If the vehicle is braked on all the four wheels over a road and if the
coefficient of adhesion between car tyres and road is 0.6, determine the
dynamic weight transferred. 4
1) Lead acid battery.
2) Two wheeler layout.
7. a) Enlist the requirements of automobile suspension system. Compare

independent suspension system with conventional suspension. 8
b) Explain telescopic shock absorber with neat sketch. 6
1) Stabilizer bar
2) Engine electronic control module.
___________
Set P
Q
S e a t
N o .
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


c) Driver controls
d) All of the above
a) 0.1 b) 0.4 c) 0.8 d) 1.2
P.T.O.
a) 3 mm b) 30 mm c) 60 mm d) 100 mm
Set Q
______________
S e a t
N o .


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
drive layout. 7

condition : 10

Set Q
SECTION II
1) Slip angle
2) Antilock brakes.

1) Stabilizer bar
___________
Set Q
R
S e a t
N o .
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


P.T.O.
c) Driver controls
d) All of the above
a) 0.1 b) 0.4 c) 0.8 d) 1.2
a) 3 mm b) 30 mm c) 60 mm d) 100 mm Set R
______________
S e a t
N o .


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
drive layout. 7

condition : 10

Set R
SECTION II
1) Slip angle
2) Antilock brakes.

1) Stabilizer bar
___________
Set R
S
S e a t
N o .
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


a) 3 mm b) 30 mm c) 60 mm d) 100 mm
P.T.O.
c) Driver controls
d) All of the above
a) 0.1 b) 0.4 c) 0.8 d) 1.2
______________
Set S
S e a t
N o .


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
drive layout. 7

condition : 10

Set S
SECTION II
1) Slip angle
2) Antilock brakes.

1) Stabilizer bar
___________
Set S
Seat
No. Set P
A
B.E. (Mech.) (Part II) (Old) Examination, 2016
Elective II : PRODUCTION MANAGEMENT
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


1) Manufacturing of a cold drink is
a) Job type production b) Batch type production
c) Continuous type production d) None of the above
2) TPM means
a) Total Production Management b) Total Process Management
c) Total Product Mix d) None of these
3) In ABC analysis C stands for
a) Components having high cost and high usage
b) Components having low cost and low usage
c) Components having high cost and low usage
d) Components having low cost and high usage
4) Regression analysis is a
a) Delphi model b) Group technique
c) Causal model d) Time series model
5) Bill of material is a subsequence of
a) MPS b) Line balancing c) Routing d) None of these
6) Production planning and control means
a) Preplanning and routing b) Scheduling and dispatching
c) Expediting d) All of above
7) Long term forecasting considers a period of
a) One year or less b) One to three years
c) More than three years d) None of these
8) Penalty cost is included in
a) Shortage cost b) Ordering cost c) Holding cost d) None of these
P.T.O.
9) Buffer stock is the level of stock
a) Half of the actual stock
b) At which the ordering process should start
c) Minimum stock level below which actual stock should not fall
d) Maximum stock in inventory
10) Re-ordering level is calculated as
a) Maximum consumption rate × Maximum re-order period
b) Minimum consumption rate × Minimum re-order period
c) Maximum consumption rate × Minimum re-order period
d) Minimum consumption rate × Maximum re-order period
11) JIT is targeted for
a) Average inventory b) Zero inventory
c) High inventory d) None of above
12) The length of time between placing an order and receipt of material is called as
a) Lead time b) Order time c) Cycle time d) Process time
13) Which of the following is not an inventory ?
a) Machines b) Raw material
c) Finished products d) Consumable tools
14) OEE in TPM means
a) Overall Engine Effectiveness b) Overall Engine Emission
c) Overall Equipment Efficiency d) None of these
15) The following classes of costs are usually involved in inventory decisions except
a) Cost of ordering b) Carrying cost
c) Cost of shortages d) Machining cost
16) Services are
a) Tangible b) Intangible c) Both of above d) None of above
17) Determining start and finish times for waiting jobs by assigning them to earliest available
time slot at the work centre is known as
a) Backward scheduling b) Forward scheduling
c) General scheduling d) None of above
18) Mean rate of consumption during lead time (R) multiplied by mean lead time (L) is equal to
a) Reserve stock b) Buffer stock c) Other stock d) None of above
19) Pareto principle is used in
a) ABC analysis b) XYZ analysis c) SDE analysis d) None of above
20) Gantt chart is used for
a) Routing b) Sequencing c) Scheduling d) Dispatching
______________
Set P
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
N.B. : Solve any two questions from each Section.
SECTION I
2. a) Explain the objective and scope of production management in detail. 7
b) Explain in detail aggregate planning. 7
c) Explain the production management framework. 6
3. a) A dealer for electrical appliances forecasts the demand for the Geyser at the rate of
500 per month for the next three months. The actual demands turned out to be 400, 560 and
700. Calculate the forecast error and bias, comment on the same. 7
b) Explain exponential smoothening method of forecasting. 6
c) Compare production planning with production control. 7
4. a) Five jobs are to be processed on two machines M1 and M2 in the order M1, M2 processing
time in hours are given below.
Job 01 02 03 04 05
Machine 05 01 09 03 10
M1
Machine 02 06 07 08 04
M2
Find out the optimum sequence and total elapsed time. 7
b) What are the functions and objectives of scheduling ? 7
c) Explain the factors affecting investment decisions in detail. 6
Set P
SECTION II
5. a) ABC corporation has got a demand for particular part at 10,000 units per year. The cost
per unit is Rs. 2 and it costs Rs. 36 to place an order and to process the delivery. The
inventory carrying cost is estimated at 9 percent of average inventory investment. Determine :
i) EOQ
ii) Optimum numbers of orders to be placed per annum
iii) Minimum total cost of inventory per annum. 7
b) Explain in brief the inputs to MRP processor. 7
c) Explain various costs associated with inventory. 6
6. a) Explain how total productive maintenance differ from conventional breakdown maintenance.7
b) Explain the principles of material handling. 6
c) Explain in detail the term JIT. 7
7. Write notes on (five marks each) : 20
i) ABC analysis
ii) Reliability
iii) Supply chain management
iv) Kanban system.
_____________________
Set P
Seat
No. Set Q
A
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


1) Services are
7) TPM means
P.T.O.
19) OEE in TPM means
______________
Set Q
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
SECTION I
Job 01 02 03 04 05
Machine 05 01 09 03 10
M1
Machine 02 06 07 08 04
M2
Set Q
SECTION II
i) EOQ
i) ABC analysis
ii) Reliability
iv) Kanban system.
_____________________
Set Q
Seat
No. Set R
A
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


4) OEE in TPM means
6) Services are
P.T.O.
12) TPM means
______________
Set R
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
SECTION I
Job 01 02 03 04 05
Machine 05 01 09 03 10
M1
Machine 02 06 07 08 04
M2
Set R
SECTION II
i) EOQ
i) ABC analysis
ii) Reliability
iv) Kanban system.
_____________________
Set R
Seat
No. Set S
A
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


P.T.O.
9) OEE in TPM means
11) Services are
17) TPM means
______________
Set S
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
SECTION I
Job 01 02 03 04 05
Machine 05 01 09 03 10
M1
Machine 02 06 07 08 04
M2
Set S
SECTION II
i) EOQ
i) ABC analysis
ii) Reliability
iv) Kanban system.
_____________________
Set S
Seat
No.
Set P
MATERIAL HANDLING SYSTEMS (Elective – II)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


1) Overbridge crane has
a) Transverse and longitudinal movement
b) Angular movement
c) Circular movement
2) For _________ type material flow having less difficulty in returning empty
containers.
3) Hand truck are characterised by
a) Pallet + Walk + No Stack + Powered
b) Pallet + Walk + No Stack + Manual
4) Symbol represents for

a) Operation b) Store c) Inspection d) Movement
5) Conveyors and industrial trucks are the ____________ equipment.
a) Transport b) Positioning
c) Storage d) Identification and control equipment
6) Material handling consists of movement of material from
a) One machine to another b) One shop to another shop
c) Stores to shop d) All of the above
7) The equipment used to handle materials at a single location so that, it is in the
correct position for Machining
P.T.O.
SLR-EP – 452 -2- *SLREP452*
8) _____________ Conveyor is used to transport flat bottoms materials.
a) Belt conveyor b) Roller conveyor
c) Chain conveyor d) None of the above
9) Conveyor are used for _________ type industry.
a) Process layout b) Line layout c) Fixed layout d) None of the above
10) ____________ equipments are worked on counterbalanced principle.
a) Gravity conveyor b) Fork lift trucks
c) Picking Robot d) Warehouse Trolley
11) Assembly chart show
a) Lay out of the product
b) Sequence in which component are assembled
c) Figure component
d) None of these
12) _________ types of restrictions are considered in manual material handling.
a) Physical b) Financial c) Ethical d) All of these
13) Equipment evaluation sheet consists of equipment characteristics, utilization
and _____________
a) Safety b) Vendor characteristics
c) Flexibility d) Unit load
14) The material handling equation consists of the material characteristics, the move
requirement, and
a) The method capabilities b) Human capabilities
c) Load d) Gravity
15) Procedure chart gives the information about
a) Inventory b) Inspection
c) Communication d) Material requirement
16) For single storing building when the flat floor area is available then __________
system is used.
a) Horizontal flow b) Vertical c) Zig-Zag d) Inclined
17) Loads are supported by arms (cantilever) in _____________ racks.
a) Sliding rack b) Push back rack c) Drive in rack d) Cantilever rack
a) Unit load b) Unit mass c) Unit wt. d) None of these
19) Form to chart gives the information about
a) Density of moves between depts. b) Equipment
c) Selection procedure d) None of these
a) Gravity b) Manual c) Signal d) Equipment
______________
Set P
*SLREP452* -3- SLR-EP – 452
Seat
No.


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION – I
2. a) Explain diff. types of material handling principles applied to plant layout. 7
b) Explain any three types of storing equipments. 7
c) Explain any three types of industrial trucks. 6
3. a) Define material handling system and give equipment classification. 7
b) “Material handling is supporting activity for the manufacturing but it is the

significant element of productivity improvement”. Justify the above statement. 7
c) Explain material handling in CIMS. 6
a) Types of conveyor (any three) 6
b) Hoisting equipments 6
c) Automated Guided Vehicles (AGV) 7
d) Containerization and Palletisation. 7
Set P
SLR-EP – 452 -4- *SLREP452*
SECTION – II
5. a) Describe different activities at the receiving, shipping, in Process function to

improve the efficiency of MHS. 7
b) Explain with figure material handling equation. 7
c) Explain in detail choice of material handling equipments. 6
6. a) Describe with figure types of flow patterns for material handling. 7
b) Discuss the importance of material handling safety. 7
c) Explain with figure string diagram. 6
a) Common forklift accidents in industry 7
b) Procedure chart 6
c) Equipment evaluation sheet 7
d) Selection of material handling equipment in Sugar plant. 6
___________________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set Q
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


system is used.
b) Angular movement
containers.
P.T.O.
SLR-EP – 452 -2- *SLREP452*
c) Figure component
d) None of these
and _____________
requirement, and
c) Load d) Gravity
______________
Set Q
*SLREP452* -3- SLR-EP – 452
Seat
No.


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION – I

Set Q
SLR-EP – 452 -4- *SLREP452*
SECTION – II

___________________
Set Q
Seat
No.
Set R
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


c) Figure component
d) None of these
and _____________
requirement, and
c) Load d) Gravity
system is used.
P.T.O.
SLR-EP – 452 -2- *SLREP452*
b) Angular movement
containers.
______________
Set R
*SLREP452* -3- SLR-EP – 452
Seat
No.


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION – I

Set R
SLR-EP – 452 -4- *SLREP452*
SECTION – II

___________________
Set R
Seat
No.
Set S
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


c) Figure component
d) None of these
and _____________
P.T.O.
SLR-EP – 452 -2- *SLREP452*
requirement, and
c) Load d) Gravity
system is used.
b) Angular movement
containers.
______________
Set S
*SLREP452* -3- SLR-EP – 452
Seat
No.


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION – I

Set S
SLR-EP – 452 -4- *SLREP452*
SECTION – II

___________________
Set S
S e a t
5 A J
N o .
B.E. (Mechanical) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2016

MECHATRONICS (Professional Elective IV)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
3) Solve any two of the remaining three questions from each Section.
4) Support your answers with neat sketches wherever required.


1) A sensor has a non-linear output characteristic. Which amplifier circuit must
we use to make the final output linear ?
a) inverting b) integrating c) logarithmic d) difference
2) In _________ transmission we transmit all n bits at a time.
a) Serial b) Synchronous c) Parallel d) Mixed
3) A set of rules that govern data communications between the sender and
receiver is called
a) Rule b) Law c) Option d) Protocol
4) In the OSI model, a program such as a web browser is a part of _________
layer.
a) Physical b) Data link c) Application d) Session
5) In a _________ , if master node fails, the whole network cannot function.
a) Ring topology b) Star topology c) Tree topology d) Mesh topology
6) There are five ladder diagrams labelled A, B, C and D. Which one of these
represents NOR logic ?
a) A b) B c) C d) D

P.T.O.
7) Decide whether each of these statements is true (T) or false (F).
A triac output channel from a PLC :
1) is used only AC switching.
2) is isolated from the output by an optocoupler.
Decide whether each of these statements is true (T) or false (F) and thus
which option best describes the two statements ?
a) (1) T and (2) F b) (1) F and (2) T c) (1) T and (2) T d) (1) F and (2) F
8) The term PLC stands for
a) Personal Logic Computer b) Programmable Local Computer
c) Personal Logic Controller d) Programmable Logic Controller
9) A comparator is basically an OPAMP with
a) No feedback b) Only one feedback
c) One feed forward circuit d) None of the above
10) Filters that transmit all frequencies above a defined cut-off frequency are
known as
a) Low pass filters b) High pass filters c) Band pass filters d) All pass filters
11) Alternative functions such as timer, serial port, write and read signals are
provided on __________ in the 8051.
a) Port 0 b) Port 1 c) Port 3 d) Port 2
12) Which port can be used as the high address bus to access external memory ?
13) The 8085 but architecture consists of __________ address lines and
__________ data lines.
14) The various flags used in 8085 are
a) Sign, Zero, Parity, Auxillary and Borrow
b) Sign, Carry, Borrow and Parity
c) Sign, Error, Parity, Carry, Borrow
d) Sign, Zero, Parity, Auxillary and Carry
15) What form of sound actuator would usually be used for ultrasonic applications ?
a) Piezoelectric actuator b) Hydraulic actuator
c) Piezomagnetic actuator d) Pneumatic speaker
16) Large force, high power and rugged operation conditions warrants the use of
______ actuators
a) Electrical b) Pneumatic c) Magnetic d) Hydraulic
17) Pyroelectric sensors when heated to a temperature just below its _______
temperature in an electric field and the material cooled while remaining in the
field, the electric dipoles within the material line up and it becomes polarised.
a) Crystallization b) Curie c) Eutectic d) Kelvin
18) Gauge factor for semi-conductor strain gauges is typically
a) 10 to 20 b) 20 to 50 c) 20 to 50 d) 50 to 200
19) Variable inductance transducers are based on
a) Peltier effect b) Faradays law c) Pascals law d) Murphys law
20) The __________ of a transducer is the range of input values for which there
is no output.
a) Resolution b) Repeatability c) Dead band d) Stability
______________ Set P
S e a t
N o .

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) The first question from each Section (Question No. 2 and
Question No. 6) is compulsory.
2) Solve any two of the remaining three questions from each
Section.
SECTION I
2. Solve any four questions : 20

a) Discuss the working of a washing machine from a mechatronic perspective.
b) Define with regards to sensor characteristics : Hysteresis, Rise time, Time
constant, Precision and Stability and Drift.
c) What do you understand by the term Signal Conditioning ?
d) Define microprocessor and microcontroller. How do the two differ ?
e) What is memory ? What are the different types of memory ?
f) What are OPAMPs ? List its types and their applications.
3. a) Discuss applications of sensors for condition monitoring. 6

b) What are the different types of signal filters ? 4
4. a) List applications of DC, AC and Stepper Motors. 6

b) Explain data acquisition and computer based instrumentation. 4
5. a) Sketch the 8051 pin diagram. List the features 8051 I/O ports. 6
b) Discuss how a car engine management system works. 4
Set P
SECTION II

a) Sketch the ladder diagram for a device used to control motor rotation similar
to a DPDT switch. When a switch is momentarily pressed the motor moves in
one direction and when a second switch is momentarily pressed the motor
moves in another direction.
b) Discuss in brief CANbus and SCADA.
c) What are Genetic Algorithms ? List its applications.
d) Discuss the role of Mechantronics in Automotive systems.
e) Discuss the role of Mechatronics in Industrial automation.
f) Explain different network topologies.
7. a) Explain the OSI networking model. 6

b) Draw the ladder diagram for the following task. The presence of an item as it
passes over a conveyor is detected using a proximity sensor. The conveyor
motor is stopped for about 20 seconds for the operation to be carried out and
the conveyor is started again. The motor for the conveyor belt is started by a
normally open start switch and stopped by a normally closed switch. 4
8. a) What is Fuzzy logic ? List its applications. 6

b) What is an Internal Relay ? Explain using a suitable example. 4
9. a) Discuss the role of Mechantronics in MEMs. 6

b) Draw the ladder diagram for a circuit that will switch on an output for 100 sec
and then switch it off. The output is activated via an internal relay. 4
_____________________
Set P
S e a t
5 A J
N o .

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


________ actuators
2) Pyroelectric sensors when heated to a temperature just below its_________
a) 10 to 20 b) 20 to 50 c) 20 to 50 d) 50 to 200
is no output.
receiver is called
layer.
P.T.O.
a) A b) B c) C d) D

known as
______________
Set Q
S e a t
N o .

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Section.
SECTION I



Set Q
SECTION II




_____________________
Set Q
S e a t
5 A J
N o .

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


_________ actuators
7) Pyroelectric sensors when heated to a temperature just below its__________
a) 10 to 20 b) 20 to 50 c) 20 to 50 d) 50 to 200
P.T.O.
is no output.
receiver is called
layer.
a) A b) B c) C d) D

known as
______________ Set R
S e a t
N o .

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Section.
SECTION I



Set R
SECTION II




_____________________
Set R
S e a t
5 A J
N o .

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


a) A b) B c) C d) D

P.T.O.
known as
_________ actuators
12) Pyroelectric sensors when heated to a temperature just below its_________
a) 10 to 20 b) 20 to 50 c) 20 to 50 d) 50 to 200
is no output.
receiver is called
layer.
______________ Set S
S e a t
N o .

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Section.
SECTION I



Set S
SECTION II




_____________________
Set S
Seat
No.
Set P
B.E. (Mech.) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2016
COMPUTATIONAL FLUID DYNAMICS (Professional Elective IV)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

1) The method in which the boundary occupied by the fluid is divided into a
surface mesh is
a) Finite volume method b) Finite element method
c) Boundary element method d) Spectral element method
2) Skewness is equal to
a) (optimal cell size cell size)/cell size
b) (optimal cell size cell size)/optimal cell size
c) (cell size optimal cell size)/optimal cell size
d) (optimal cell size cell size)
3) The forces which act directly on surface of fluid element called
a) fluid forces b) body forces c) direct forces d) none of the above
4) Meshing is
a) Localization process b) Merging process
c) Discretization process d) None of these
5) Finite difference method is
a) exact solution method b) approximate solution method
c) unique solution method d) none of these
6) Truncation error becomes zero as mesh spacing tends to
a) maximum b) minimum c) zero d) none of these
7) When a direct computation of the dependent variables can be made in terms
of known quantities, the computation is said to be
a) implicit b) explicit c) unique d) dependent
P.T.O.
8) When Mach number > 0.3, the flow is
a) Incompressible
b) Compressible
c) Either compressible or incompressible
d) None of these
9) Representation of finite difference derivative is based on
a) Taylor series expansion b) Newtons 2nd law
c) Frederick law d) None of these
10) In turbulent flow, inertial forces
a) are greater than viscous forces b) are lesser than viscous forces
c) are equal to viscous forces d) none of these
11) The difference between the exact solution to the mathematical model and the
discretized equations used to approximate it is called
a) modeling error b) discretization error
c) convergence error d) none of these
12) The greater will be the rate of convergence
a) better will be the mesh quality b) worst will be the mesh quality
c) medium will be the mesh quality d) none of these
13) The ratio of momentum diffusivity and thermal diffusivity is called
a) Reynolds number b) Mach number
c) Ruark number d) Prandtl number
14) The numerical method for solving the differential equations by approximating
them with difference equations is called
a) finite volume b) finite difference
c) finite element d) none of these
15) The test used to check accuracy of solution is called
a) grid independence test b) solution test
c) optimal test d) aspect test
16) The meshes which only requires the element size on the lines and surfaces
that define the geometry as input
a) Structured mesh b) Unstructured mesh
c) Dirichlet mesh d) None of these
17) Formula of forward differencing is
a) hf(x) = f(x + h) f(x)

b) 2 hf(x) = f(x + h) f(x h)

c) hf(x) = f(x) f(x + h)

d) hf(x) = f(x + h) + f(x h)

18) The ratio between the longest side and the shortest side of mesh is called
a) mesh orthogonality b) mesh skewness
c) mesh aspect ratio d) mesh smoothness
19) The mesh requires the blocking as input called
20) A process in which flow in boundary layer can no longer stay attached to the
surface and separates from the surface is called
a) force separation b) boundary separation
c) flow separation d) surface separation
______________
Set P
S e a t
N o .

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
SECTION I
2. a) Explain the steps involved in CFD. 7
b) List out the advantages of CFD. 6
c) Derive an expression for three dimensional momentum equation in X-direction. 7
3. a) Derive an expression for unsteady one dimensional heat conduction equation. 7
b) Explain four basic rules of a finite control volume. 7
c) What is FDM ? 6
4. a) Explain Explicit and Implicit Schemes of a unsteady ID heat conduction
equation. 7
b) Write a short notes on Grid Independence Test. 6
c) Consider steady two dimensional heat transfer in a long solid bar of a
rectangular cross section is given in the fig. The measured temperatures at
selected points of the outer surfaces are as shown. The thermal conductivity
of the body K = 20 W/M °C and there is no heat generation. Using the FDM
with a mesh size of , determine the temperatures at the indicated
x y 1 c m
points in the medium. 7
Set P
SECTION II
5. a) Explain the Relaxation Technique. 6
b) Write short note on simple algorithm steps of Patankar and Spalding. 7
c) Explain different plots of computer graphics. 7
6. a) Explain the FVM for steady two dimensional convection and diffusion. 6
b) Explain the FVM for one dimensional steady state diffusion. 7
c) Write short note on Stream function and Vorticity method. 7
7. a) Explain the effect of turbulence fluctuations on properties of the mean flow. 7

b) What is turbulence ? Explain K- turbulence Models.

6
c) Consider transient heat conduction in a plane wall with variable heat generation
and constant thermal conductivity. The nodal network of the medium consists
of nodes 0, 1, 2, 3 and 4 with a uniform nodal spacing of
. The wall is
N
initially at specified temperature. Using the energy balance approach, obtain

the explicit finite formulation of the boundary nodes for case of uniform heat
flux qo at the left boundary (node 0) and convection at the right boundary
(node 4) with a convection coefficient of h and ambient temperature of 6

. 7
_____________________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set Q
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

a) hf(x) = f(x + h) f(x)

b) 2 hf(x) = f(x + h) f(x h)

c) hf(x) = f(x) f(x + h)

d) hf(x) = f(x + h) + f(x h)

surface mesh is
P.T.O.
9) Meshing is
a) Incompressible
b) Compressible
d) None of these
______________
Set Q
S e a t
N o .

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
SECTION I
c) What is FDM ? 6
equation. 7
x y 1 c m
Set Q
SECTION II


6
. The wall is
N


. 7
_____________________
Set Q
Seat
No.
Set R
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

a) hf(x) = f(x + h) f(x)

b) 2 hf(x) = f(x + h) f(x h)

c) hf(x) = f(x) f(x + h)

d) hf(x) = f(x + h) + f(x h)

P.T.O.
surface mesh is
14) Meshing is
a) Incompressible
b) Compressible
d) None of these
______________
Set R
S e a t
N o .

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
SECTION I
c) What is FDM ? 6
equation. 7
x y 1 c m
Set R
SECTION II


6
. The wall is
N


. 7
_____________________
Set R
Seat
No.
Set S
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


a) Incompressible
b) Compressible
d) None of these
P.T.O.
a) hf(x) = f(x + h) f(x)

b) 2 hf(x) = f(x + h) f(x h)

c) hf(x) = f(x) f(x + h)

d) hf(x) = f(x + h) + f(x h)
surface mesh is
19) Meshing is
______________
Set S
S e a t
N o .

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
SECTION I
c) What is FDM ? 6
equation. 7
x y 1 c m
Set S
SECTION II


6
. The wall is
N


. 7
_____________________
Set S
S e a t
5 A J
N o .

PRODUCTION AND OPERATION MANAGEMENT
(Professional Elective IV)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
4) Make suitable assumptions wherever necessary and state them,
clearly.


1) The Father of Scientific Management is 1
a) Henry Ford b) Fredrick W. Taylor
c) Michael Schumacher d) Eli Whitney
2) Productivity increases when 1
a) inputs decrease while outputs remain the same
b) output decrease while inputs remain the same
c) inputs and outputs increase proportionately
d) inputs increase while outputs remain the same
3) The person who introduced standardized, interchangeable parts was 1
a) Eli Whitney b) Hentry Ford
c) W. Edwards Deming d) Adam Smith
4) What is meant by Kaizen ? 1
a) card signal b) to avoid inadvertent errors
c) change for better quality d) none of the above
5) Which of the following is NOT a time-series model ? 1
a) naive approach b) linear regression
c) moving averages d) exponential smoothing
6) Which one the following is focused to reduce the incidence of failures in the plant or
equipment to avoid the associated costs ? 1
a) Preventive maintenance b) Predictive maintenance
c) Reactive maintenance d) Total productive maintenance
P.T.O.
7) Match the pairs 4
a) Technical skills i) Ability to work effectively with other persons
b) Human skills ii) Ability to recognize significant elements in a situation
c) Conceptual skills iii) Ability to solve problems in ways that will benefit the enterprise
d) Design skills iv) Pertaining to knowledge and proficiency in activities
8) Dispatching authorizes the start of production operations by 2
i) Release of material and components from stores to first process
ii) Release of material from process to process
iii) Issue of drawings instruction sheets
Which of the following is (are) true ?
a) Only i b) Only ii c) i and ii d) i, ii and iii
9) Measurement has revealed the following information on an operations system. Design
capacity was 84 units per hour, planned losses were 12 units per hour, and actual output
was 65 units per hour. What were the utilisation and efficiency of the operation respectively ? 2
a) 77% and 90% b) 78% and 90% c) 68% and 83% d) 90% and 77%
10) Given an actual demand of 59, a previous forecast of 64, and an alpha of 3, what would
the forecast for the next period be using simple exponential smoothing ? 2
a) 36.9 b) 57.5 c) 60.5 d) 62.5 e) 65.5
11) The general exponential smoothing equation is 2
a) Ft = Ft 1 +
(Dt 1 Ft 1) b) Ft = Ft 1 (Dt 1 + Ft 1)

c) Ft = .Dt 1 + (1 ). Ft 1

d) Ft = .Dt 1 (1 + ). Ft 1

12) Which of the following are benefits of the Value Engineering ? 2

a) Cost Reduction
b) Robust Design
c) Improvement in functions of the product
d) Design for quality
______________
Set P
S e a t
N o .

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Solve any three questions from each Section.
2) Que. 2 and 6 are compulsory.
4) Make suitable assumptions wherever necessary and state them
clearly.
5) Draw neat diagram wherever necessary.
SECTION I
2. a) Define POM and discuss its objectives. 6
b) Write a short note on : 8

i) Historic evolution of production and operation management.
ii) Scope of an organization.
3. a) What is need of forecasting in production management ? State the different techniques

used for it. 5
b) Following data gives the information of export of an item by a company during the various
years. Fit the straight line and forecast for the year 2010 and 2011. 8
Y e a r : ! " # $ % & '
N o . o f i t e m s ( 0 0 0 ) : ! & ! ! ! ! ! & " !
4. a) Explain importance of capacity planning in production management and list the factors
affecting effective capacity of an organization. 8
b) Enumerate the factors which initiate replacement decision. 5
Set P
5. a) Define the term production planning and control and discuss its functions. 5
b) There are seven jobs which are to be processed on Machines M1 and M2 in order of
M1 M2. Processing Times in hours are given below :
J o b : ) * + , - . /
M a c h i n e M : $ " ! &
M a c h i n e M : $ ! " $
Find the optimal sequence and total elapsed time. Also compute idle time on Machines M2. 8
SECTION II
6. Write a short note on (any three) : 12

a) MRP
b) TPM
c) JIT
d) Six sigma.
7. a) ABC Corporation has got a demand for particular part at 10,000 units per year. The cost
per unit is 2 Rs. and it costs 36 Rs. to place an order and to process and delivery. The
inventory carrying cost is estimated at 9% average inventory investment.
Determine :
i) EOQ
ii) Optimum number of orders to be placed per annum.
iii) Min. total cost of inventory per annum. 8
b) Explain Inventory concept and discuss its objectives. 6
8. a) Discuss various types of maintenance with its merits and demerits. 8
b) Maintenance of Machines in an industry is not a waste of time and money only. Justify
the sentence. 6
9. a) What is value engineering and value analysis ? Why it is necessary to do the value analysis
of an product ? 6
b) Explain value analysis procedure in details with one example. 4
c) Write a short note on advance manufacturing systems in production management. 4
_____________________ Set P
S e a t
N o .
Set Q
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
clearly.


a) 36.9 b) 57.5 c) 60.5 d) 62.5 e) 65.5
a) Ft = Ft 1 + (Dt 1 Ft 1) b) Ft = Ft 1 (Dt 1 + Ft 1)

c) Ft = .Dt 1 + (1 ). Ft 1

d) Ft = .Dt 1 (1 + ). Ft 1

P.T.O.
a) Cost Reduction
b) Robust Design
______________
Set Q
S e a t
N o .

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
clearly.
SECTION I


used for it. 5
Y e a r : ! " # $ % & '
N o . o f i t e m s ( 0 0 0 ) : ! & ! ! ! ! ! & " !
Set Q
J o b : ) * + , - . /
M a c h i n e M : $ " ! &
M a c h i n e M : $ ! " $
SECTION II

a) MRP
b) TPM
c) JIT
d) Six sigma.
Determine :
i) EOQ
the sentence. 6
of an product ? 6
_____________________ Set Q
S e a t
N o .
Set R
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
clearly.


a) 36.9 b) 57.5 c) 60.5 d) 62.5 e) 65.5
a) Ft = Ft 1 + (Dt 1 Ft 1) b) Ft = Ft 1 (Dt 1 + Ft 1)

c) Ft = .Dt 1 + (1 ). Ft 1

d) Ft = .Dt 1 (1 + ). Ft 1


a) Cost Reduction
b) Robust Design
P.T.O.
______________
Set R
S e a t
N o .

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
clearly.
SECTION I


used for it. 5
Y e a r : ! " # $ % & '
N o . o f i t e m s ( 0 0 0 ) : ! & ! ! ! ! ! & " !
Set R
J o b : ) * + , - . /
M a c h i n e M : $ " ! &
M a c h i n e M : $ ! " $
SECTION II

a) MRP
b) TPM
c) JIT
d) Six sigma.
Determine :
i) EOQ
the sentence. 6
of an product ? 6
_____________________ Set R
S e a t
N o .
Set S
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
clearly.


P.T.O.
a) Ft = Ft 1 + (Dt 1 Ft 1)

b) Ft = Ft 1 (Dt 1 + Ft 1)

c) Ft = .Dt 1 + (1 ). Ft 1
d) Ft = .Dt 1 (1 + ). Ft 1


a) Cost Reduction
b) Robust Design
a) 36.9 b) 57.5 c) 60.5 d) 62.5 e) 65.5
______________
Set S
S e a t
N o .

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
clearly.
SECTION I


used for it. 5
Y e a r : ! " # $ % & '
N o . o f i t e m s ( 0 0 0 ) : ! & ! ! ! ! ! & " !
Set S
J o b : ) * + , - . /
M a c h i n e M : $ " ! &
M a c h i n e M : $ ! " $
SECTION II

a) MRP
b) TPM
c) JIT
d) Six sigma.
Determine :
i) EOQ
the sentence. 6
of an product ? 6
_____________________ Set S
P
S e a t
N o .
Set
B.E. (Part II) (Mechanical) (New) Examination, 2016

AGRO MACHINE ENGINEERING (Elective II)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
2) Make suitable assumptions, if necessary and mention them clearly.


1) A perfect seeding gives
i) Correct amount of seed per unit area
ii) Correct depth at which seed is placed in the soil
iii) Correct spacing between row-to-row and plant-to-plant
a) Only i b) Only ii c) i and iii d) All of the above
2) Seed drill is equipment is used for
a) Harvesting b) Ploughing c) Sowing d) Threshing
3) Seed metering mechanism is mainly used for
a) Supporting the parts of seed drill b) Opening the furrows
c) Covering the soil on the seed d) Delivers the seeds at selected rate
4) Interculture equipments are
1) Cultivator 2) Weeders 3) Rotary hoe 4) Thresher
a) Only 1 b) 1, 2 and 3 c) Only 2 d) All of above
5) The angle made by a disc of disc plough with the direction of motion is known as
a) Tilt angle b) Plough angle c) Disc angle d) None of these
6) The operation performed to open up any cultivated land with a view to prepare seedbed
for growing crops is termed as
a) Secondary tillage b) Primary tillage
c) Pulverization d) Harvesting
7) Function of star wheel of reaper
a) Cutting the crops b) Guiding the crops toward the cutter bar
c) Provide supports to the crops d) Blocking the crops
P.T.O.
8) Winnowing device of thresher is
a) Providing Feeding action b) Produces air blast which blow the chaff
c) A handling unit d) None of the above
9) Separating Sieves is used for
a) Separating Chaff from grain b) Rotating the winnowing unit
c) Providing Cutting action d) None of the above
10) Plant protection equipments are
a) Harvester b) Thresher
c) Harvester and Thresher d) Duster
11) Components of Mould Board plough are
a) Share, Land side, Frog b) Share, Disc scraper, Standard
c) Land side, Frog, Disc scraper d) Frog, Disc scraper, Standard
12) In Mould Board plough function of Gauge wheel is
a) To joint the jointer to the frame
b) To provide sharing action
c) To control depth of ploughing
d) To prevent weed to stick with share
13) Single Action Disc harrow having
a) Two gangs are placed end to end
b) Two gangs are placed one behind the other
c) There is no gang
d) Three gangs are placed one behind the other
14) Conoweeder is generally used in
a) Wet land area b) Dry land area c) Desert area d) Stony area
15) Junior hoe is primarily used for
a) Breaking clods b) Weeding
c) Seed bed preparation d) None of the above
16) In Hydraulic nozzle, decrease in pressure
a) Decreases droplet size
b) Increases droplet size
c) First decrease and then increase droplet size
d) Does not depend upon droplet size
17) _________ is a machine used to cut the herbage crop and leave them in swath.
a) Pitman b) Mower c) Rotavator d) Seed drill
18) __________ transmit the reciprocating motion to the knife head of mower.
a) Pitman b) Differential c) Star wheel d) Crop divider
19) ___________ is a tool which breaks the ground at greater depth, will break the hard pan
and will not pulverize the surface soil as much as other tools.
a) Sub-soiler b) Plough c) Harrow d) Rotavator
20) ___________ is the main purpose of puddling.
a) To reduce leaching of water b) To reduce transpiration
c) To reduce evaporation d) None of the above
______________
Set P
S e a t
N o .

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

iii) Make suitable assumptions if necessary and state it clearly.
iv) Neat diagrams must be drawn whenever necessary.
SECTION I

a) Explain Present status of farm mechanisation. 7
b) Explain construction of Mould Board plough. 6
c) Describe construction and working of Disc plough. 7
a) Write a short note on : 7

1) Rotavators.
2) Subsoiler.
3) Paddypuddler.
b) Explain how to select Disc harrow. 7
c) Write a short note on Force acting on disc harrow and their analysis. 6
a) Write a short note on Special tillage Equipments. 6
b) What is meant by tillage ? What is the objective tillage ? 7
c) Explain with neat sketch methods of planting. 7
Set P
SECTION II

a) Explain construction and working of seed cum fertilizer drill. 7
b) A fluted feed seed drill has 8 furrow openers of single disc type. The furrow openers are
spaced 25 cm apart and the main drive wheel has a diameter of 120 cm. How many turns
of main drive wheel would occur when the seed drill has covered one hector of area. 6
c) What are different types of Weeders ? Explain in brief. 7

a) Explain construction and working principle of Stirrup pump or Bucket type sprayer. 7
b) Explain construction and working principle of Thresher. 7
c) What is meant by Duster ? Enlist the different types of duster. Explain any one type of
duster. 6

a) Explain construction and working principle of Combine Harvester. 6
b) Explain construction and working principle of Tractor operated reaper. 7
c) Write a short note on furrow opening unit. 7
_____________________
Set P
Q
S e a t
N o .
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


P.T.O.
c) There is no gang
______________
Set Q
S e a t
N o .

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I


1) Rotavators.
2) Subsoiler.
3) Paddypuddler.
Set Q
SECTION II


duster. 6

_____________________
Set Q
R
S e a t
N o .
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


c) There is no gang
P.T.O.
______________
Set R
S e a t
N o .

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I


1) Rotavators.
2) Subsoiler.
3) Paddypuddler.
Set R
SECTION II


duster. 6

_____________________
Set R
S
S e a t
N o .
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


P.T.O.
c) There is no gang
______________
Set S
S e a t
N o .

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I


1) Rotavators.
2) Subsoiler.
3) Paddypuddler.
Set S
SECTION II


duster. 6

_____________________
Set S
Seat
No. Set P
B.E. (Mechanical) (Part – II) (New) Examination, 2016
Elective – II : PLASTIC ENGINEERING
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
3) Assume suitable data whenever necessary and state it clearly.
4) Attempt any 3 questions from Q2, Q3, Q4, Q5 and 3 questions
from to Q6, Q7, Q8, Q9.


1) In case of processability testing, MI stands for
a) Moment of Inertia b) Melt Index
c) Malleability Index d) None of above
2) Epoxy resin is example of _________ plastics.
a) Thermoplastics b) Elastomers
c) Thermosetting d) None of above
3) Polymers can be very _________ to chemicals.
a) Resistant b) Similar c) Opposite d) None of above
4) Compression molding process is one of the __________ cost molding method as
compare to injection molding.
a) High b) Medium c) Low d) None of these
5) Transfer molding process combines the principle of _________ and transfer of
polymer charge.
a) Injection b) Compression c) Blow d) Rotation
6) ____________ welding is less dependent than other welding methods on the
properties of the materials being welded.
a) Thermal b) Heated tool
c) Induction heating d) All of the above
7) Which of the welding process is used for thermoplastics ?
a) Hot gas welding b) Induction heating
c) Heated tool d) All of the above
P.T.O.
SLR-EP – 458 -2- *SLREP458*
8) What should be the draft for polyethylene material ?
a) 1/2° b) 1/4° c) 1/8° d) 1/3°
9) What should be the draft for Nylon material ?
a) 0 – 1/4° b) 0 – 1/8° c) 0 – 1/2° d) 0 – 1/3°
10) The rib thickness should be between _________ of wall thickness.
a) 30% and 40% b) 40% and 60%
c) 50% and 60% d) 60% and 80%
11) The properties of the polymer will also depend on the ________ available for
cooling.
a) Colour b) Rate
c) Both colour and rate d) None of above
12) It is the _________ operation that sets the shape of thermoplastics.
a) Heating b) Cutting c) Grinding d) Cooling
13) In Injection molding Melt temperatures are of the order of ________ for low-
density polymers materials.
a) 160 – 190°C b) 120 – 170°C
c) 110 – 160°C d) 100 – 150°C
14) Plasticizers are considered ________ solvents.
a) Volatile b) Non-volatile c) Both a & b d) None of these
15) A biodegradable polymer should
a) Contained hydrophilic group b) Contain hydrophobic
c) Group contain only C-C d) Contain aromatic group
16) An example of biodegradable polymer is
a) PHBV b) PVC
c) Polyethylene d) Polyacetylene
17) A Biodegradable polymer is one which
a) Can be synthesized by biological route
b) Is degradable by action of microorganism
c) Is not degradable by action of microorganism
d) None of these
18) In _________ welding method, the workpieces to be joined are irradiated with a
steam of neutrons.
a) Infrared b) Nuclear
c) Hot gas d) Heated tool
19) In compression molding, for phenolic materials suitable pressure range is
_________ kg/cm2.
a) 100 to 158 b) 158 to 211 c) 211 to 258 d) 250 to 300
20) Bulk factor is the ratio of volume of loose plastic powder to the
a) Actual cavity volume b) Volume of the molding
c) Volume of loose plastic powder d) None of these
______________
Set P
*SLREP458* -3- SLR-EP – 458
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Assume suitable data whenever necessary and state it clearly.

SECTION – I
2. A) Explain the testing methods for plastics. 7

B) Write a note on additives in plastics. 6
3. A) Explain the Calendaring method for plastics. 7
B) Write a note on Welding for plastics. 6
4. A) Explain with a neat sketch a Extrusion Moulding Process for plastics. 7
B) Explain the Hot Tool Welding for plastic along with its advantages and applications. 6
5. A) Discuss on “Coring and Undercuts” as a key area in moulded plastic part design. 6
B) Plastic Part Design : 8
Design the plastic part for the assembly. A Crutch of a Weight 4 Kg. having a leg
support require plastic bottom support bush to restrict scratches, noise, skidding
etc. Pipe of leg is Dia. 30 mm. & bush is fitted with screw (Dia. 5 mm) to its
bottom flat end as shown in Fig.
Suggests suitable manufacturing methods for plastic part. Assume suitable
mould material, plastic part material, and its necessary relative quantitative data.
Draw a sketch of final part design.
Set P
SLR-EP – 458 -4- *SLREP458*
SECTION – II
6. a) With neat sketch explain transfer moulding process with advantages limitations
and application. 7
b) Design a compression mould for a machine component shown in Fig. 6.b which is
made up of phenol formaldehyde, thermoset plastic. Take bulk factor = 3,
Compression pressure = 180 kg./cm2, density 2g/cm3. 7
Fig. 6.b.
7. a) Explain in detail hot runner system used in injection mould die. 7

b) Differentiate between two plate and three plate mould for injection moulding process
with figure. 6
8. a) Explain any one type of cooling of plastic injection moulding. 4
b) A plastic material with temperature 90°C is injected to a mould with flow rate of
100 kg/hr. 8. If latent heat of fusion is 140 kJ/kg. Find out the temperature of water
to be supplied for cooling system if 20000 kJ heat is removed per hour
(Cp = 1.67 kJ/kgK). 5
c) What are biodegradable plastics ? 4
9. Write short note on :

a) Ingates used in injection moulding process. 4
b) Polymer degradation. 4
c) Advanced plastics used in sports. 5
_____________________
Set P
Seat
No. Set Q
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

a) PHBV b) PVC
d) None of these
steam of neutrons.
_________ kg/cm2.
a) 100 to 158 b) 158 to 211 c) 211 to 258 d) 250 to 300
P.T.O.
SLR-EP – 458 -2- *SLREP458*

polymer charge.
a) 1/2° b) 1/4° c) 1/8° d) 1/3°
a) 0 – 1/4° b) 0 – 1/8° c) 0 – 1/2° d) 0 – 1/3°
a) 30% and 40% b) 40% and 60%
c) 50% and 60% d) 60% and 80%
cooling.
a) Colour b) Rate
a) 160 – 190°C b) 120 – 170°C
c) 110 – 160°C d) 100 – 150°C
______________
Set Q
*SLREP458* -3- SLR-EP – 458
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION – I

Set Q
SLR-EP – 458 -4- *SLREP458*
SECTION – II
and application. 7
Fig. 6.b.

with figure. 6
(Cp = 1.67 kJ/kgK). 5

_____________________
Set Q
Seat
No. Set R
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


cooling.
a) Colour b) Rate
a) 160 – 190°C b) 120 – 170°C
c) 110 – 160°C d) 100 – 150°C
a) PHBV b) PVC
d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-EP – 458 -2- *SLREP458*

steam of neutrons.
_________ kg/cm2.
a) 100 to 158 b) 158 to 211 c) 211 to 258 d) 250 to 300
polymer charge.
a) 1/2° b) 1/4° c) 1/8° d) 1/3°
a) 0 – 1/4° b) 0 – 1/8° c) 0 – 1/2° d) 0 – 1/3°
a) 30% and 40% b) 40% and 60%
c) 50% and 60% d) 60% and 80%
______________
Set R
*SLREP458* -3- SLR-EP – 458
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION – I

Set R
SLR-EP – 458 -4- *SLREP458*
SECTION – II
and application. 7
Fig. 6.b.

with figure. 6
(Cp = 1.67 kJ/kgK). 5

_____________________
Set R
Seat
No. Set S
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


a) 1/2° b) 1/4° c) 1/8° d) 1/3°
a) 0 – 1/4° b) 0 – 1/8° c) 0 – 1/2° d) 0 – 1/3°
a) 30% and 40% b) 40% and 60%
c) 50% and 60% d) 60% and 80%
cooling.
a) Colour b) Rate
P.T.O.
SLR-EP – 458 -2- *SLREP458*
a) 160 – 190°C b) 120 – 170°C
c) 110 – 160°C d) 100 – 150°C
a) PHBV b) PVC
d) None of these
steam of neutrons.
_________ kg/cm2.
a) 100 to 158 b) 158 to 211 c) 211 to 258 d) 250 to 300
polymer charge.
______________
Set S
*SLREP458* -3- SLR-EP – 458
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION – I

Set S
SLR-EP – 458 -4- *SLREP458*
SECTION – II
and application. 7
Fig. 6.b.

with figure. 6
(Cp = 1.67 kJ/kgK). 5

_____________________
Set S
Seat
No.
Set P
B.E. (Mechanical) (Part – II) Examination, 2016
Elective – II : ECONOMICS FOR ENGINEERS (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
2) No negative or partial marking.
4) Draw the graph wherever necessary.
5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Don’t forget to


1) Which is the following is NOT an economic activity ?
a) Painting for self use
b) Maintenance of Public Park by local administration
c) Painting for commercial use
d) Running an academic school
2) If supply and demand both shift outward, but demand shift outward more than supply, the equilibrium
price
a) Will increase and quantity will increase b) Will increase and quantity will decrease
c) Will decrease and quantity will decrease d) Will decrease and quantity will increase
3) An improvement in technology would shift
a) The demand curve inward b) The demand curve outward
c) The supply curve inward d) The supply curve outward
4) The price of ford automobiles increases and the price of Chevrolets remain constant, the demand
for Chevrolets will
a) Increase b) Decrease
c) Decrease then increase d) Increase then decrease
5) If the price of sandwich rises from Rs. 12 per piece to Rs. 18 per piece, as a result of which the daily
sales decrease from 750 to 400 per day. The price elasticity if demand can be estimated as
a) 0.93 b) 0.79 c) 1.65 d) 0.57
6) Bread and butter have __________
a) Negative cross price elasticity of demand b) Positive cross elasticity of demand
c) Positive income elasticity of demand d) Negative income elasticity of demand
7) Law of returns of scale applies when
a) All cost are partly fixed and partly variable b) All input cost are fixed
c) All inputs cost are variable d) None
P.T.O.
SLR-EP – 459 -2- *SLREP459*
8) Total Product is maximum when
a) MP = 0 b) MP is increasing c) MP is decreasing d) MP is constant
9) The shape of a short run total product curve reflects the operation of
a) Law of diminishing marginal utility b) Law of diminishing returns
c) Law of returns to scale d) Law of demand
10) When a proportionate change in input combination causes the same proportionate change in output,
the returns to scale is said to exhibit
a) Increasing returns b) Decreasing returns
c) Constant returns d) Negative returns
11) Average revenue is
a) Total revenue divided by the number of units sold
b) Revenue earned by all the units of the output
c) Revenue earned by the average sized firm in the industry
d) Net addition made to the total revenue by selling one more unit of a commodity
12) The negative sloped part of long run average cost curve of a firm is due to
a) Increase in production due to specialization and division of labour
b) Diseconomies of scale
c) Diminishing returns to scale
d) Marginal utility theory
13) ____________ is a listing of the flows of cash into and out of the business or project.
a) Balance sheet b) Cash flow statement
c) Working capital statement d) None of these
14) ____________ is inevitable in a business organization when undertaking projects.
a) Profit maximization b) Risk
c) Wealth maximization d) None of these
15) ___________ is the tangible fixed asset of the company.
a) Plant and Machinery b) Goodwill c) Patent d) Royalty
16) Cash from ___________ activities are included in cash flow statement.
a) Operating activities b) Financial activities
c) Investment activities d) All of the above
17) ____________ is a form of economic analysis that compares the relative cost and effects of two or
more course of action.
a) Cost benefit analysis b) Cost effectiveness analysis
c) Risk management d) Cash flow analysis
18) There are ____________ phases in project life cycle.
a) Three b) Seven c) Eight d) Four
19) ____________ is the first step in project risk management.
a) Risk identification b) Risk quantification
c) Risk response d) Risk monitoring and control
20) ____________ is the first phase in project life cycle stages.
a) Planning b) Initiation c) Execution d) None of these
______________
Set P
*SLREP459* -3- SLR-EP – 459
Seat
No.


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) No negative or partial marking.

SECTION – I
2. The table below provides cost and revenue information of a firm supplying a commodity in a competitive
market. The technology of the firm is such that AC and MC curves are U-shaped. Complete the table
and answer following questions :
a) Determine Break-Even Quantity

b) Quantity at which MC is minimum. 13
Q TFC TVC TC MC AC P TR Profit

0 1000 0 1000 NA 200 –1000
1 1000 181 1181 1181 200 –981
2 1000 328 1328 664 200 –928
3 1000 447 1447 482 200 –847
4 1000 544 1544 386 200 –744
5 1000 625 1625 325 200 –625
6 1000 696 1696 283 200 –496
7 1000 763 1763 252 200 –363
8 1000 832 1832 229 200 –232
9 1000 909 1909 212 200 –109
10 1000 1000 2000 200 200 0
11 1000 1111 2111 192 200 89
12 1000 1248 2248 187 200 152
13 1000 1417 2417 186 200 183
14 1000 1624 2624 187 200 176
15 1000 1875 2875 192 200 125
Set P
SLR-EP – 459 -4- *SLREP459*
3. What is engineering economics ? Discuss scope of engineering economics. 14
4. a) Write short note on law of demand. 6
b) Write detail note on factors of production. 7
5. Define economics of scale; discuss various types of economics of scale. 13
SECTION – II
6. a) Discuss how economic life of an asset is determined. 7
b) Explain types of replacement problems. 6
7. a) Explain factors considered for project selection. 7
b) Short note on make of buy decision. 6
8. a) Short note on cost effectiveness analysis. 7
b) Short note on resource management. 6
9. a) Discuss design selection for a product. 6
b) Discuss the effects of inflation. 8
_____________________
Set P
Seat
No.
Set Q
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


price
P.T.O.
SLR-EP – 459 -2- *SLREP459*
for Chevrolets will
a) 0.93 b) 0.79 c) 1.65 d) 0.57
______________
Set Q
*SLREP459* -3- SLR-EP – 459
Seat
No.


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION – I


0 1000 0 1000 NA 200 –1000
1 1000 181 1181 1181 200 –981
2 1000 328 1328 664 200 –928
3 1000 447 1447 482 200 –847
4 1000 544 1544 386 200 –744
5 1000 625 1625 325 200 –625
6 1000 696 1696 283 200 –496
7 1000 763 1763 252 200 –363
8 1000 832 1832 229 200 –232
9 1000 909 1909 212 200 –109
10 1000 1000 2000 200 200 0
11 1000 1111 2111 192 200 89
12 1000 1248 2248 187 200 152
13 1000 1417 2417 186 200 183
14 1000 1624 2624 187 200 176
15 1000 1875 2875 192 200 125
Set Q
SLR-EP – 459 -4- *SLREP459*
SECTION – II
_____________________
Set Q
Seat
No.
Set R
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


P.T.O.
SLR-EP – 459 -2- *SLREP459*
price
for Chevrolets will
a) 0.93 b) 0.79 c) 1.65 d) 0.57
______________
Set R
*SLREP459* -3- SLR-EP – 459
Seat
No.


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION – I


0 1000 0 1000 NA 200 –1000
1 1000 181 1181 1181 200 –981
2 1000 328 1328 664 200 –928
3 1000 447 1447 482 200 –847
4 1000 544 1544 386 200 –744
5 1000 625 1625 325 200 –625
6 1000 696 1696 283 200 –496
7 1000 763 1763 252 200 –363
8 1000 832 1832 229 200 –232
9 1000 909 1909 212 200 –109
10 1000 1000 2000 200 200 0
11 1000 1111 2111 192 200 89
12 1000 1248 2248 187 200 152
13 1000 1417 2417 186 200 183
14 1000 1624 2624 187 200 176
15 1000 1875 2875 192 200 125
Set R
SLR-EP – 459 -4- *SLREP459*
SECTION – II
_____________________
Set R
Seat
No.
Set S
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.


P.T.O.
SLR-EP – 459 -2- *SLREP459*
price
for Chevrolets will
a) 0.93 b) 0.79 c) 1.65 d) 0.57
______________
Set S
*SLREP459* -3- SLR-EP – 459
Seat
No.


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION – I


0 1000 0 1000 NA 200 –1000
1 1000 181 1181 1181 200 –981
2 1000 328 1328 664 200 –928
3 1000 447 1447 482 200 –847
4 1000 544 1544 386 200 –744
5 1000 625 1625 325 200 –625
6 1000 696 1696 283 200 –496
7 1000 763 1763 252 200 –363
8 1000 832 1832 229 200 –232
9 1000 909 1909 212 200 –109
10 1000 1000 2000 200 200 0
11 1000 1111 2111 192 200 89
12 1000 1248 2248 187 200 152
13 1000 1417 2417 186 200 183
14 1000 1624 2624 187 200 176
15 1000 1875 2875 192 200 125
Set S
SLR-EP – 459 -4- *SLREP459*
SECTION – II
_____________________
Set S

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*SLREP54* SLR-EP – 54

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in

MCQ/Objective Type Questions

1. Choose the correct answer :

1) Bulk modulus is the ratio of

11) Rankine’s formula taken into account which of the following

13) Diameter of Mohr’s circle always represents

S.E. (Mechanical Engineering) (Part – I) (CGPA) Examination, 2016

Instructions : 1) Solve any two questions from each Section.

2. a) A bar of steel has cross section 80 mm × 50 mm and is 250 mm long. It is subjected to

b) A circle of 50 mm diameter is inscribed on a MS plate, after stressing circle deform to an

b) Derive relationship between Young’s modulus E and modulus of rigidity C. 6

b) Write the assumptions made in theory of pure bending. 4

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in

MCQ/Objective Type Questions

1. Choose the correct answer :

2) In double integration method, second integration will be value of

4) Rankine’s formula taken into account which of the following

S.E. (Mechanical Engineering) (Part – I) (CGPA) Examination, 2016

Instructions : 1) Solve any two questions from each Section.

2. a) A bar of steel has cross section 80 mm × 50 mm and is 250 mm long. It is subjected to

b) A circle of 50 mm diameter is inscribed on a MS plate, after stressing circle deform to an

b) Derive relationship between Young’s modulus E and modulus of rigidity C. 6

b) Write the assumptions made in theory of pure bending. 4

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in

MCQ/Objective Type Questions

1. Choose the correct answer :

7) Rankine’s formula taken into account which of the following

9) Diameter of Mohr’s circle always represents

11) Bulk modulus is the ratio of

S.E. (Mechanical Engineering) (Part – I) (CGPA) Examination, 2016

Instructions : 1) Solve any two questions from each Section.

2. a) A bar of steel has cross section 80 mm × 50 mm and is 250 mm long. It is subjected to

b) A circle of 50 mm diameter is inscribed on a MS plate, after stressing circle deform to an

b) Derive relationship between Young’s modulus E and modulus of rigidity C. 6

b) Write the assumptions made in theory of pure bending. 4

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in

MCQ/Objective Type Questions

1. Choose the correct answer :

2) Rankine’s formula taken into account which of the following

4) Diameter of Mohr’s circle always represents

S.E. (Mechanical Engineering) (Part – I) (CGPA) Examination, 2016

Instructions : 1) Solve any two questions from each Section.

2. a) A bar of steel has cross section 80 mm × 50 mm and is 250 mm long. It is subjected to

b) A circle of 50 mm diameter is inscribed on a MS plate, after stressing circle deform to an

b) Derive relationship between Young’s modulus E and modulus of rigidity C. 6

b) Write the assumptions made in theory of pure bending. 4

MCQ/Objective Type Questions

1. Choose the correct answer : (1×14=14)

efficiency of actual vapour power cycle ( Actual Cycle) ?

A) ( Rankine) = ( Actual Cycle)

B) ( Rankine) > ( Actual Cycle)

C) ( Rankine) < ( Actual Cycle)

D) None of the above

S.E. (Mech.) (Part  I) (CGPA) Examination, 2016

2. A) What is throttling ? Explain with neat sketch throttling Calorimeter. 7

Enthalpies of formation for

3. A) Prove that entropy is property of system. 7

6. a) Dry saturated steam at 7 bar, is passed through a convergent  divergent

SLREP54 SLR-EP – 54

S.E. (Mech.) (Part I) (CGPA) Examination, 2016

6. a) Dry saturated steam at 7 bar, is passed through a convergent divergent

S.E. (Mech.) (Part I) (CGPA) Examination, 2016

6. a) Dry saturated steam at 7 bar, is passed through a convergent divergent

S.E. (Mech.) (Part I) (CGPA) Examination, 2016

6. a) Dry saturated steam at 7 bar, is passed through a convergent divergent

S.E. (Mech.) (Part I) (CGPA) Examination, 2016

6. a) Dry saturated steam at 7 bar, is passed through a convergent divergent

where C is the circle |z 1| = 5 is

S.E. (Part I) (Mechanical Engg.) (CGPA) Examination, 2016

b) Solve (D2 4D + 4)y = e2x x2. 3

where C is the circle |z 1| = 5 is

S.E. (Part I) (Mechanical Engg.) (CGPA) Examination, 2016