Corporate Finance - Lecture Note by Aswath Damodaran PDF
Corporate Finance - Lecture Note by Aswath Damodaran PDF
Corporate Finance - Lecture Note by Aswath Damodaran PDF
B40.2302
Lecture Note: Packet 1
Aswath Damodaran
Aswath Damodaran! 1!
The Objective in Corporate Finance
If you don t know where you are going, it does not matter how you get
there
Aswath Damodaran! 2!
First Principles
Aswath Damodaran! 3!
The Classical Viewpoint
Van Horne: "In this book, we assume that the objective of the firm is to
maximize its value to its stockholders"
Brealey & Myers: "Success is usually judged by value: Shareholders are
made better off by any decision which increases the value of their stake in the
firm... The secret of success in financial management is to increase value."
Copeland & Weston: The most important theme is that the objective of the
firm is to maximize the wealth of its stockholders."
Brigham and Gapenski: Throughout this book we operate on the assumption
that the management's primary goal is stockholder wealth maximization which
translates into maximizing the price of the common stock.
Aswath Damodaran! 4!
The Objective in Decision Making
Expected Value that will be Growth Assets Equity Residual Claim on cash flows
created by future investments Significant Role in management
Perpetual Lives
Aswath Damodaran! 5!
Maximizing Stock Prices is too narrow an objective: A
preliminary response
Aswath Damodaran! 6!
Why traditional corporate financial theory focuses on
maximizing stockholder wealth.
Stock price is easily observable and constantly updated (unlike other measures
of performance, which may not be as easily observable, and certainly not
updated as frequently).
If investors are rational (are they?), stock prices reflect the wisdom of
decisions, short term and long term, instantaneously.
The objective of stock price performance provides some very elegant theory
on:
• Allocating resources across scarce uses (which investments to take and which ones
to reject)
• how to finance these investments
• how much to pay in dividends
Aswath Damodaran! 7!
The Classical Objective Function
STOCKHOLDERS
Lend Money
No Social Costs
BONDHOLDERS
Managers
SOCIETY
Protect
Costs can be
bondholder
traced to firm
Interests
Reveal
Markets are
information
efficient and
honestly and
assess effect on
on time
value
FINANCIAL MARKETS
Aswath Damodaran! 8!
What can go wrong?
STOCKHOLDERS
Managers put
Have little control
their interests
over managers
above stockholders
Lend Money
Significant Social Costs
BONDHOLDERS
Managers
SOCIETY
Bondholders can
Some costs cannot be
get ripped off
traced to firm
Delay bad
news or
Markets make
provide
mistakes and
misleading
can over react
information
FINANCIAL MARKETS
Aswath Damodaran! 9!
I. Stockholder Interests vs. Management Interests
In most boards, the CEO continues to be the chair. Not surprisingly, the CEO
sets the agenda, chairs the meeting and controls the information provided to
directors.
The search for consensus overwhelms any attempts at confrontation.
Calpers, the California Employees Pension fund, suggested three tests in 1997
of an independent board
• Are a majority of the directors outside directors?
• Is the chairman of the board independent of the company (and not the CEO of the
company)?
• Are the compensation and audit committees composed entirely of outsiders?
Disney was the only S&P 500 company to fail all three tests.
When managers do not fear stockholders, they will often put their interests
No stockholder approval needed….. Stockholder Approval needed
The quickest and perhaps the most decisive way to impoverish stockholders is
to overpay on a takeover.
The stockholders in acquiring firms do not seem to share the enthusiasm of the
managers in these firms. Stock prices of bidding firms decline on the takeover
announcements a significant proportion of the time.
Many mergers do not work, as evidenced by a number of measures.
• The profitability of merged firms relative to their peer groups, does not increase
significantly after mergers.
• An even more damning indictment is that a large number of mergers are reversed
within a few years, which is a clear admission that the acquisitions did not work.
5,000
4,500
4,000
3,500
3,000
2,500
2,000
1,500
1,000
500
0
1988
1989
1990
1991
1992
Revenue
Operating Earnings
An article in the NY Times in August of 1993 suggested that Kodak was eager to shed
its drug unit.
• In response, Eastman Kodak officials say they have no plans to sell Kodak s Sterling Winthrop
drug unit.
• Louis Mattis, Chairman of Sterling Winthrop, dismissed the rumors as massive speculation,
which flies in the face of the stated intent of Kodak that it is committed to be in the health
business.
A few months later…Taking a stride out of the drug business, Eastman Kodak said that
the Sanofi Group, a French pharmaceutical company, agreed to buy the prescription drug
business of Sterling Winthrop for $1.68 billion.
• Shares of Eastman Kodak rose 75 cents yesterday, closing at $47.50 on the New York Stock
Exchange.
• Samuel D. Isaly an analyst , said the announcement was very good for Sanofi and very good
for Kodak.
• When the divestitures are complete, Kodak will be entirely focused on imaging, said George
M. C. Fisher, the company's chief executive.
• The rest of the Sterling Winthrop was sold to Smithkline for $2.9 billion.
Government
Outside stockholders Managers
- Size of holding - Length of tenure
- Active or Passive? - Links to insiders
- Short or Long term? Control of the firm
Employees Lenders
Inside stockholders
% of stock held
Voting and non-voting shares
Control structure
8.00%
6.00%
4.00%
2.00%
0.00%
-2.00%
-4.00%
-6.00%
Monday Tuesday Wednesday Thursday Friday
% Chg(EPS) % Chg(DPS)
Investors are irrational and prices often move for not reason at all. As a
consequence, prices are much more volatile than justified by the underlying
fundamentals. Earnings and dividends are much less volatile than stock prices.
Investors overreact to news, both good and bad.
Financial markets are manipulated by insiders; Prices do not have any
relationship to value.
Investors are short-sighted, and do not consider the long-term implications of
actions taken by the firm
Focusing on market prices will lead companies towards short term decisions
at the expense of long term value.
a.
I agree with the statement
b.
I do not agree with this statement
Allowing managers to make decisions without having to worry about the
effect on market prices will lead to better long term decisions.
a.
I agree with this statement
b. I do not agree with this statement
Neither managers nor markets are trustworthy. Regulations/laws should be
written that force firms to make long term decisions.
a.
I agree with this statement
b. I do not agree with this statement
Many critics of markets point to market bubbles and crises as evidence that
markets do not work. For instance, the market turmoil between September and
December 2008 is pointed to as backing for the statement that free markets are
the source of the problem and not the solution.
There are two counter arguments that can be offered:
• The events of the last quarter illustrate that we are more dependent on functioning,
liquid markets, with risk taking investors, than ever before in history. As we saw,
no government or other entity (bank, Buffett) is big enough to step in and save the
day.
• The firms that caused the market collapse (banks, investment banks) were among
the most regulated businesses in the market place. If anything, their failures can be
traced to their attempts to take advantage of regulatory loopholes (badly designed
insurance programs… capital measurements that miss risky assets, especially
derivatives)
In theory: All costs and benefits associated with a firm s decisions can be
traced back to the firm.
In practice: Financial decisions can create social costs and benefits.
• A social cost or benefit is a cost or benefit that accrues to society as a whole and not
to the firm making the decision.
– Environmental costs (pollution, health costs, etc..)
– Quality of Life' costs (traffic, housing, safety, etc.)
• Examples of social benefits include:
– creating employment in areas with high unemployment
– supporting development in inner cities
– creating access to goods in areas where such access does not exist
They might not be known at the time of the decision. In other words, a firm
may think that it is delivering a product that enhances society, at the time it
delivers the product but discover afterwards that there are very large costs.
(Asbestos was a wonderful product, when it was devised, light and easy to
work with… It is only after decades that the health consequences came to
light)
They are 'person-specific . (different decision makers weight them differently)
They can be paralyzing if carried to extremes.
Assume that you work for Disney and that you have an opportunity to open a store
in an inner-city neighborhood. The store is expected to lose about $100,000 a
year, but it will create much-needed employment in the area, and may help
revitalize it.
Would you open the store?
a) Yes
b) No
If yes, would you tell your stockholders and let them vote on the issue?
a) Yes
b) No
If no, how would you respond to a stockholder query on why you were not
living up to your social responsibilities?
STOCKHOLDERS
Managers put
Have little control
their interests
over managers
above stockholders
Lend Money
Significant Social Costs
BONDHOLDERS
Managers
SOCIETY
Bondholders can
Some costs cannot be
get ripped off
traced to firm
Delay bad
news or
Markets make
provide
mistakes and
misleading
can over react
information
FINANCIAL MARKETS
The interests/objectives of the decision makers in the firm conflict with the
interests of stockholders.
Bondholders (Lenders) are not protected against expropriation by
stockholders.
Financial markets do not operate efficiently, and stock prices do not reflect the
underlying value of the firm.
Significant social costs can be created as a by-product of stock price
maximization.
The strength of the stock price maximization objective function is its internal
self correction mechanism. Excesses on any of the linkages lead, if
unregulated, to counter actions which reduce or eliminate these excesses
In the context of our discussion,
• managers taking advantage of stockholders has lead to a much more active market
for corporate control.
• stockholders taking advantage of bondholders has lead to bondholders protecting
themselves at the time of the issue.
• firms revealing incorrect or delayed information to markets has lead to markets
becoming more skeptical and punitive
• firms creating social costs has lead to more regulations, as well as investor and
customer backlashes.
Institutional investors such as Calpers and the Lens Funds have become much
more active in monitoring companies that they invest in and demanding
changes in the way in which business is done
Individuals like Carl Icahn specialize in taking large positions in companies
which they feel need to change their ways (Blockbuster, Time Warner and
Motorola) and push for change
At annual meetings, stockholders have taken to expressing their displeasure
with incumbent management by voting against their compensation contracts or
their board of directors
Boards have become smaller over time. The median size of a board of directors has
decreased from 16 to 20 in the 1970s to between 9 and 11 in 1998. The smaller boards
are less unwieldy and more effective than the larger boards.
There are fewer insiders on the board. In contrast to the 6 or more insiders that many
boards had in the 1970s, only two directors in most boards in 1998 were insiders.
Directors are increasingly compensated with stock and options in the company, instead
of cash. In 1973, only 4% of directors received compensation in the form of stock or
options, whereas 78% did so in 1998.
More directors are identified and selected by a nominating committee rather than being
chosen by the CEO of the firm. In 1998, 75% of boards had nominating committees; the
comparable statistic in 1973 was 2%.
Required at least two executive sessions of the board, without the CEO or
other members of management present, each year.
Created the position of non-management presiding director, and appointed
Senator George Mitchell to lead those executive sessions and assist in setting
the work agenda of the board.
Adopted a new and more rigorous definition of director independence.
Required that a substantial majority of the board be comprised of directors
meeting the new independence standards.
Provided for a reduction in committee size and the rotation of committee and
chairmanship assignments among independent directors.
Added new provisions for management succession planning and evaluations of
both management and board performance
Provided for enhanced continuing education and training for board members.
While analysts are more likely still to issue buy rather than sell
recommendations, the payoff to uncovering negative news about a firm is
large enough that such news is eagerly sought and quickly revealed (at least to
a limited group of investors).
As investor access to information improves, it is becoming much more
difficult for firms to control when and how information gets out to markets.
As option trading has become more common, it has become much easier to
trade on bad news. In the process, it is revealed to the rest of the market.
When firms mislead markets, the punishment is not only quick but it is savage.
If firms consistently flout societal norms and create large social costs, the
governmental response (especially in a democracy) is for laws and regulations
to be passed against such behavior.
For firms catering to a more socially conscious clientele, the failure to meet
societal norms (even if it is legal) can lead to loss of business and value.
Finally, investors may choose not to invest in stocks of firms that they view as
socially irresponsible.
STOCKHOLDERS
1. More activist
Managers of poorly
investors
run firms are put
2. Hostile takeovers
on notice.
Protect themselves
Corporate Good Citizen Constraints
BONDHOLDERS
Managers
SOCIETY
1. Covenants
1. More laws
2. New Types
2. Investor/Customer Backlash
Firms are
punished
Investors and
for misleading
analysts become
markets
more skeptical
FINANCIAL MARKETS
At this point in time, the following statement best describes where I stand in
terms of the right objective function for decision making in a business
a) Maximize stock price, with no constraints
b) Maximize stock price, with constraints on being a good social citizen.
c) Maximize stockholder wealth, with good citizen constraints, and hope/pray that the
market catches up with you.
d) Maximize profits or profitability
e) Maximize earnings growth
f) Maximize market share
g) Maximize revenues
h) Maximize social good
i) None of the above
Since financial resources are finite, there is a hurdle that projects have to cross
before being deemed acceptable.
This hurdle will be higher for riskier projects than for safer projects.
A simple representation of the hurdle rate is as follows:
Hurdle rate =
Riskless Rate + Risk Premium
The two basic questions that every risk and return model in finance tries to
answer are:
• How do you measure risk?
• How do you translate this risk measure into a risk premium?
1. It should come up with a measure of risk that applies to all assets and not be
asset-specific.
2. It should clearly delineate what types of risk are rewarded and what are not, and
provide a rationale for the delineation.
3. It should come up with standardized risk measures, i.e., an investor presented
with a risk measure for an individual asset should be able to draw conclusions
about whether the asset is above-average or below-average risk.
4. It should translate the measure of risk into a rate of return that the investor
should demand as compensation for bearing the risk.
5. It should work well not only at explaining past returns, but also in predicting
future expected returns.
The variance on any investment measures the disparity between actual and
expected returns.
Low Variance Investment
Expected Return
Assume that you had to pick between two investments. They have the same
expected return of 15% and the same standard deviation of 25%; however,
investment A offers a very small possibility that you could quadruple your
money, while investment B s highest possible payoff is a 60% return. Would
you
a.
be indifferent between the two investments, since they have the same expected
return and standard deviation?
b.
prefer investment A, because of the possibility of a high payoff?
c. prefer investment B, because it is safer?
Would your answer change if you were not told that there is a small
possibility that you could lose 100% of your money on investment A
but that your worst case scenario with investment B is -50%?
Competition
may be stronger
or weaker than Exchange rate
anticipated and Political
risk
Projects may
do better or Interest rate,
worse than Entire Sector Inflation &
may be affected news about
expected
by action economy
Firm-specific Market
The marginal investor in a firm is the investor who is most likely to be the
buyer or seller on the next trade and to influence the stock price.
Generally speaking, the marginal investor in a stock has to own a lot of stock
and also trade a lot.
Since trading is required, the largest investor may not be the marginal investor,
especially if he or she is a founder/manager of the firm (Michael Dell at Dell
Computers or Bill Gates at Microsoft)
In all risk and return models in finance, we assume that the marginal investor
is well diversified.
The risk of any asset is the risk that it adds to the market portfolio Statistically,
this risk can be measured by how much an asset moves with the market (called
the covariance)
Beta is a standardized measure of this covariance, obtained by dividing the
covariance of any asset with the market by the variance of the market. It is a
measure of the non-diversifiable risk for any asset can be measured by the
covariance of its returns with returns on a market index, which is defined to be
the asset's beta.
The required return on an investment will be a linear function of its beta:
Expected Return = Riskfree Rate+ Beta * (Expected Return on the Market Portfolio -
Riskfree Rate)
The CAPM, notwithstanding its many critics and limitations, has survived as
the default model for risk in equity valuation and corporate finance. The
alternative models that have been presented as better models (APM,
Multifactor model..) have made inroads in performance evaluation but not in
prospective analysis because:
• The alternative models (which are richer) do a much better job than the CAPM in
explaining past return, but their effectiveness drops off when it comes to estimating
expected future returns (because the models tend to shift and change).
• The alternative models are more complicated and require more information than the
CAPM.
• For most companies, the expected returns you get with the the alternative models is
not different enough to be worth the extra trouble of estimating four additional
betas.
You can get information on insider and institutional holdings in your firm from:
http://finance.yahoo.com/
Enter your company s symbol and choose profile.
Looking at the breakdown of stockholders in your firm, consider whether the
marginal investor is
a) An institutional investor
b) An individual investor
c) An insider
The capital asset pricing model yields the following expected return:
Expected Return = Riskfree Rate+ Beta * (Expected Return on the Market Portfolio -
Riskfree Rate)
§ To use the model we need three inputs:
(a) The current risk-free rate
(b) The expected market risk premium (the premium expected for investing in risky
assets (market portfolio) over the riskless asset)
(c) The beta of the asset being analyzed.
On a riskfree asset, the actual return is equal to the expected return. Therefore,
there is no variance around the expected return.
For an investment to be riskfree, i.e., to have an actual return be equal to the
expected return, two conditions have to be met –
• There has to be no default risk, which generally implies that the security has to be
issued by the government. Note, however, that not all governments can be viewed
as default free.
• There can be no uncertainty about reinvestment rates, which implies that it is a zero
coupon security with the same maturity as the cash flow being analyzed.
The riskfree rate is the rate on a zero coupon government bond matching the
time horizon of the cash flow being analyzed.
Theoretically, this translates into using different riskfree rates for each cash
flow - the 1 year zero coupon rate for the cash flow in year 1, the 2-year zero
coupon rate for the cash flow in year 2 ...
Practically speaking, if there is substantial uncertainty about expected cash
flows, the present value effect of using time varying riskfree rates is small
enough that it may not be worth it.
Using a long term government rate (even on a coupon bond) as the riskfree
rate on all of the cash flows in a long term analysis will yield a close
approximation of the true value. For short term analysis, it is entirely
appropriate to use a short term government security rate as the riskfree rate.
The riskfree rate that you use in an analysis should be in the same currency
that your cashflows are estimated in.
• In other words, if your cashflows are in U.S. dollars, your riskfree rate has to be in
U.S. dollars as well.
• If your cash flows are in Euros, your riskfree rate should be a Euro riskfree rate.
The conventional practice of estimating riskfree rates is to use the
government bond rate, with the government being the one that is in
control of issuing that currency. In US dollars, this has translated into
using the US treasury rate as the riskfree rate. In May 2009, for
instance, the ten-year US treasury bond rate was 3.5%.
If the government is perceived to have default risk, the government bond rate
will have a default spread component in it and not be riskfree. There are three
choices we have, when this is the case.
• Adjust the local currency government borrowing rate for default risk to get a
riskless local currency rate.
– In May 2009, the Indian government rupee bond rate was 7%. the local currency rating
from Moody s was Ba2 and the default spread for a Ba2 rated country bond was 3%.
Riskfree rate in Rupees = 7% - 3% = 4%
– In May 2009, the Brazilian government $R bond rate was 11% and the local currency
rating was Ba1, with a default spread of 2.5%.
Riskfree rate in $R = 11% - 2.5% = 8.5%
• Do the analysis in an alternate currency, where getting the riskfree rate is easier.
With Aracruz in 2009, we could chose to do the analysis in US dollars (rather than
estimate a riskfree rate in R$). The riskfree rate is then the US treasury bond rate.
• Do your analysis in real terms, in which case the riskfree rate has to be a real
riskfree rate. The inflation-indexed treasury rate is a measure of a real riskfree rate.
The risk premium is the premium that investors demand for investing in an
average risk investment, relative to the riskfree rate.
As a general proposition, this premium should be
• greater than zero
• increase with the risk aversion of the investors in that market
• increase with the riskiness of the average risk investment
Assume that stocks are the only risky assets and that you are offered two investment
options:
• a riskless investment (say a Government Security), on which you can make 5%
• a mutual fund of all stocks, on which the returns are uncertain
How much of an expected return would you demand to shift your money from the riskless
asset to the mutual fund?
a) Less than 5%
b) Between 5 - 7%
c) Between 7 - 9%
d) Between 9 - 11%
e) Between 11- 13%
f) More than 13%
Check your premium against the survey premium on my web site.
If this were the entire market, the risk premium would be a weighted average
of the risk premiums demanded by each and every investor.
The weights will be determined by the wealth that each investor brings to the
market. Thus, Warren Buffett s risk aversion counts more towards
determining the equilibrium premium than yours and mine.
As investors become more risk averse, you would expect the equilibrium
premium to increase.
Go back to the previous example. Assume now that you are making the same
choice but that you are making it in the aftermath of a stock market crash (it
has dropped 25% in the last month). Would you change your answer?
a) I would demand a larger premium
b) I would demand a smaller premium
c) I would demand the same premium
Survey investors on their desired risk premiums and use the average premium
from these surveys.
Assume that the actual premium delivered over long time periods is equal to
the expected premium - i.e., use historical data
Estimate the implied premium in today s asset prices.
This is the default approach used by most to arrive at the premium to use in
the model
In most cases, this approach does the following
• Defines a time period for the estimation (1928-Present, 1962-Present....)
• Calculates average returns on a stock index during the period
• Calculates average returns on a riskless security over the period
• Calculates the difference between the two averages and uses it as a premium
looking forward.
The limitations of this approach are:
• it assumes that the risk aversion of investors has not changed in a systematic way
across time. (The risk aversion may change from year to year, but it reverts back to
historical averages)
• it assumes that the riskiness of the risky portfolio (stock index) has not changed
in a systematic way across time.
Historical data for markets outside the United States is available for much
shorter time periods. The problem is even greater in emerging markets.
The historical premiums that emerge from this data reflects this data problem
and there is much greater error associated with the estimates of the premiums.
Ratings agencies assign ratings to countries that reflect their assessment of the
default risk of these countries. These ratings reflect the political and economic
stability of these countries and thus provide a useful measure of country risk.
In May 2009, the local currency rating, from Moody s, for Brazil was Ba1.
If a country issues bonds denominated in a different currency (say dollars or
euros), we can assess how the bond market views the risk in that country. In
May 2009, Brazil had dollar denominated 10-year Bonds, trading at an interest
rate of 6%. The US treasury bond rate that day was 3.5%, yielding a default
spread of 2.50% for Brazil.
India has a rating of Ba2 from Moody s but has no dollar denominated bonds.
The typical default spread for Ba2 rated sovereign bonds is 3%.
Many analysts add this default spread to the US risk premium to come up with
a risk premium for a country. This would yield a risk premium of 6.38% for
Brazil and 6.88% for India, if we use 3.88% as the premium for the US
(3.88% was the historical risk premium for the US from 1928-2008)
While default risk spreads and equity risk premiums are highly correlated, one
would expect equity spreads to be higher than debt spreads.
Risk Premium for Brazil in 2009
• Standard Deviation in Bovespa (Equity) = 34%
• Standard Deviation in Brazil $ denominated Bond = 21.5%
• Default spread on $ denominated Bond = 2.5%
• Country Risk Premium (CRP) for Brazil = 2.5% (34%/21.5%) = 3.95%
• Total Risk Premium for Brazil = US risk premium (in 09) + CRP for Brazil
= 3.88% + 3.95% = 7.83%
Risk Premium for India in May 2009
• Standard Deviation in Sensex (Equity) = 32%
• Standard Deviation in Indian government bond = 21.3%
• Default spread based upon rating= 3%
• Country Risk Premium for India = 3% (32%/21.3%) = 4.51%
• Total Risk Premium for India = US risk premium (in 09) + CRP for India
= 3.88% + 4.51%= 8.39%
Aswath Damodaran! 104!
An alternate view of ERP: Watch what I pay, not what I say..
January 2008
January 1, 2008
S&P 500 is at 1468.36
4.02% of 1468.36 = 59.03
If we know what investors paid for equities at the beginning of 2007 and we
can estimate the expected cash flows from equities, we can solve for the rate of
return that they expect to make (IRR):
61.98 65.08 68.33 71.75 75.34 75.35(1.0402)
1468.36 = + + + + +
(1+ r) (1+ r) 2 (1+ r) 3 (1+ r) 4 (1+ r) 5 (r " .0402)(1+ r) 5
Year! Market value of index! Dividends! Buybacks! Cash to equity!Dividend yield! Buyback yield! Total yield!
2001! 1148.09
15.74! 14.34! 30.08! 1.37%! 1.25%! 2.62%!
2002! 879.82
15.96! 13.87! 29.83! 1.81%! 1.58%! 3.39%!
2003! 1111.91
17.88! 13.70! 31.58! 1.61%! 1.23%! 2.84%!
2004! 1211.92
19.01! 21.59! 40.60! 1.57%! 1.78%! 3.35%!
2005! 1248.29
22.34! 38.82! 61.17! 1.79%! 3.11%! 4.90%!
2006! 1418.30
25.04! 48.12! 73.16! 1.77%! 3.39%! 5.16%!
2007! 1468.36! 28.14! 67.22! 95.36! 1.92%! 4.58%! 6.49%!
2008! 903.25
28.47! 40.25! 68.72! 3.15%! 4.61%! 7.77%!
Normalized! 903.25! 28.47! 24.11! 52.584! 3.15%! 2.67%! 5.82%!
January 1, 2009
S&P 500 is at 903.25
Adjusted Dividends & Expected Return on Stocks (1/1/09) = 8.64%
Buybacks for 2008 = 52.58 Equity Risk Premium = 8.64% - 2.21% = 6.43%
Mature Markets: In May 2009, the number that we chose to use as the
equity risk premium for all mature markets was 6%. While lower than
the implied premium at the start of the year 6.43%, it is still much
higher than the historical risk premium of 3.88%. It reflected our
beliefs then that while the crisis was abating, it would leave a longer
term impact on risk premiums.
For emerging markets, we will use the melded default spread approach
(where default spreads are scaled up to reflect additional equity risk) to
come up with the additional risk premium.
• ERP for Brazil = Mature market premium + CRP for Brazil = 6% + 3.95%
= 9.95%
• ERP for India = Mature market premium + CRP for India = 6% + 4.51%
= 10.51%
By January 1, 2011, the worst of the crisis seemed to be behind us. Fears of a
depression had receded and banks looked like they were struggling back to a
more stable setting. Default spreads started to drop and risk was no longer
front and center in pricing.
2010
2009
2008
2007
2006
2005
2004
2003
2002
2001
2000
1999
Implied Premiums in the US: 1960-2010
1998
1997
1996
1995
1994
1993
1992
1991
1990
Implied Premium for US Equity Market
1989
1988
1987
1986
Year
1985
1984
1983
1982
1981
1980
1979
1978
1977
1976
1975
1974
1973
1972
1971
1970
1969
1968
1967
1966
1965
1964
1963
1962
1961
1960
7.00%
6.00%
5.00%
4.00%
3.00%
2.00%
1.00%
0.00%
Aswath Damodaran!
Implied Premium
Application Test: Estimating a Market Risk Premium
In early 2011, the implied equity risk premium in the US was 5.20% and the
historical risk premium was 4.31%. Which would you use as your equity risk
premium?
a) The historical risk premium (4.31%)
b) The current implied equity risk premium (4.74%)
c) Something else!
What would you use for another developed market (say Germany or France)?
a) The historical risk premium for that market
b) The risk premium for the United States
What would you use for an emerging market?
a) The historical risk premium for that market
b) The risk premium for the United States
c) The risk premium for the United States + Country Risk premium
The standard procedure for estimating betas is to regress stock returns (Rj)
against market returns (Rm) -
Rj = a + b Rm
• where a is the intercept and b is the slope of the regression.
The slope of the regression corresponds to the beta of the stock, and measures
the riskiness of the stock.
Intercept = 0.47%
• This is an intercept based on monthly returns. Thus, it has to be compared to a
monthly riskfree rate.
• Between 2004 and 2008
– Average Annualized T.Bill rate = 3.27%
– Monthly Riskfree Rate = 0.272% (=3.27%/12)
– Riskfree Rate (1-Beta) = 0.272% (1-0.95) = 0.01%
The Comparison is then between
What you expected to make
What you actually made
Intercept
versus
Riskfree Rate (1 - Beta)
0.47%
versus
0.01%
• Jensen s Alpha = 0.47% -0.01% = 0.46%
Disney did 0.46% better than expected, per month, between 2004 and 2008.
• Annualized, Disney s annual excess return = (1.0046)12-1= 5.62%
If you did this analysis on every stock listed on an exchange, what would the
average Jensen s alpha be across all stocks?
a) Depend upon whether the market went up or down during the period
b) Should be zero
c) Should be greater than zero, because stocks tend to go up more often than down
Disney has a positive Jensen s alpha of 5.62% a year between 2004 and 2008.
This can be viewed as a sign that management in the firm did a good job,
managing the firm during the period.
a) True
b) False
1600!
1400!
1200!
Number of Firms!
1000!
800!
600!
400!
200!
0!
<.10! .10 - .20! .20 - .30! .30 - .40! .40 -.50! .50 - .75! > .75!
R Squared = 41%
This implies that
• 41% of the risk at Disney comes from market sources
• 59%, therefore, comes from firm-specific sources
The firm-specific risk is diversifiable and will not be rewarded
You are a diversified investor trying to decide whether you should invest in
Disney or Amgen. They both have betas of 0.95, but Disney has an R Squared
of 41% while Amgen s R squared of only 20.5%. Which one would you
invest in?
a) Amgen, because it has the lower R squared
b) Disney, because it has the higher R squared
c) You would be indifferent
Would your answer be different if you were an undiversified investor?
As a potential investor in Disney, what does this expected return of 9.2% tell you?
a) This is the return that I can expect to make in the long term on Disney, if the stock
is correctly priced and the CAPM is the right model for risk,
b) This is the return that I need to make on Disney in the long term to break even on
my investment in the stock
c) Both
Assume now that you are an active investor and that your research suggests that
an investment in Disney will yield 12.5% a year for the next 5 years. Based
upon the expected return of 9.2%, you would
a) Buy the stock
b) Sell the stock
Managers at Disney
• need to make at least 9.2% as a return for their equity investors to break even.
• this is the hurdle rate for projects, when the investment is analyzed from an equity
standpoint
In other words, Disney s cost of equity is 9.2%.
What is the cost of not delivering this cost of equity?
Using your Bloomberg risk and return print out, answer the following
questions:
• How well or badly did your stock do, relative to the market, during the period of
the regression?
Intercept - (Riskfree Rate/n) (1- Beta) = Jensen s Alpha
where n is the number of return periods in a year (12 if monthly; 52 if weekly)
• What proportion of the risk in your stock is attributable to the market? What
proportion is firm-specific?
• What is the historical estimate of beta for your stock? What is the range on this
estimate with 67% probability? With 95% probability?
• Based upon this beta, what is your estimate of the required return on this stock?
Riskless Rate + Beta * Risk Premium
You are advising a very risky software firm on the right cost of equity to use in
project analysis. You estimate a beta of 3.0 for the firm and come up with a
cost of equity of 21.5%. The CFO of the firm is concerned about the high cost
of equity and wants to know whether there is anything he can do to lower his
beta.
How do you bring your beta down?
Should you focus your attention on bringing your beta down?
a) Yes
b) No
Beta = 1.18
67% range
1.04-1.32
The R squared for Deutsche Bank is very high (67%). Why is that?
The beta for Deutsche Bank is 1.69.
• Is this an appropriate measure of risk?
• If not, why not?
If you were an investor in primarily U.S. stocks, would this be an appropriate
measure of risk?
Beta > 1
Microsoft: 1..25
Beta = 0
Industry Effects: The beta value for a firm depends upon the sensitivity of the
demand for its products and services and of its costs to macroeconomic factors
that affect the overall market.
• Cyclical companies have higher betas than non-cyclical firms
• Firms which sell more discretionary products will have higher betas than firms that
sell less discretionary products
Phone service is close to being non-discretionary in the United States and Western
Europe. However, in much of Asia and Latin America, there are large
segments of the population for which phone service is a luxury. Given our
discussion of discretionary and non-discretionary products, which of the
following conclusions would you be willing to draw:
a) Emerging market telecom companies should have higher betas than developed
market telecom companies.
b) Developed market telecom companies should have higher betas than emerging
market telecom companies
c) The two groups of companies should have similar betas
Operating leverage refers to the proportion of the total costs of the firm that
are fixed.
Other things remaining equal, higher operating leverage results in greater
earnings variability which in turn results in higher betas.
Operating Leverage
= % Change in EBIT/ % Change in Sales
= 13.26% / 13.73% = 0.97
This is lower than the operating leverage for other entertainment firms, which
we computed to be 1.15. This would suggest that Disney has lower fixed costs
than its competitors.
The acquisition of Capital Cities by Disney in 1996 may be skewing the
operating leverage. Looking at the changes since then:
Operating Leverage1996-08 = 11.72%/9.91% = 1.18
Looks like Disney s operating leverage has increased since 1996. In fact, it is higher
than the average for the sector.
As firms borrow, they create fixed costs (interest payments) that make their
earnings to equity investors more volatile.
This increased earnings volatility which increases the equity beta.
The beta of equity alone can be written as a function of the unlevered beta and
the debt-equity ratio
βL = βu (1+ ((1-t)D/E))
where
βL = Levered or Equity Beta
βu = Unlevered or Asset Beta
t = Marginal tax rate
D = Market Value of Debt
E = Market Value of Equity
The regression beta for Disney is 0.95. This beta is a levered beta (because it is
based on stock prices, which reflect leverage) and the leverage implicit in the
beta estimate is the average market debt equity ratio during the period of the
regression (2004 to 2008)
The average debt equity ratio during this period was 24.64%.
The unlevered beta for Disney can then be estimated (using a marginal tax rate
of 38%)
= Current Beta / (1 + (1 - tax rate) (Average Debt/Equity))
= 0.95 / (1 + (1 - 0.38)(0.2464))= 0.8241
+
Capital Cities: The Target
Debt = $ 615 million
Equity Beta Market value of equity = $18, 500 million
0.95 Debt + Equity = Firm value = $18,500 +
$615 = $19,115 million
D/E Ratio = 615/18500 = 0.03
If Disney had used all equity to buy Cap Cities equity, while assuming Cap
Cities debt, the consolidated numbers would have looked as follows:
• Debt = $ 3,186+ $615 = $ 3,801 million
• Equity = $ 31,100 + $18,500 = $ 49,600 m (Disney issues $18.5 billion in equity)
• D/E Ratio = 3,801/49600 = 7.66%
• New Beta = 1.026 (1 + 0.64 (.0766)) = 1.08
Since Disney borrowed $ 10 billion to buy Cap Cities/ABC, funded the rest
with new equity and assumed Cap Cities debt:
• The market value of Cap Cities equity is $18.5 billion. If $ 10 billion comes from
debt, the balance ($8.5 billion) has to come from new equity.
• Debt = $ 3,186 + $615 million + $ 10,000 = $ 13,801 million
• Equity = $ 31,100 + $8,500 = $39,600 million
• D/E Ratio = 13,801/39600 = 34.82%
• New Beta = 1.026 (1 + 0.64 (.3482)) = 1.25
Firm Betas as weighted averages: The beta of a firm is the weighted average of
the betas of its individual projects.
At a broader level of aggregation, the beta of a firm is the weighted average of
the betas of its individual division.
!
Unlevered
beta
Number of Median Median D/ Unlevered Median Cash/ corrected for
Business
Comparable firms
firms
levered beta
E
beta
Firm Value
cash
Radio and TV
Media broadcasting
Networks
companies -US
19
0.83
38.71%
0.6735
4.54%
0.7056
Parks and Theme park & Resort
Resorts
companies - Global
26
0.80
65.10%
0.5753
1.64%
0.5849
Step 2: Compute levered betas and costs of equity for Disney s
operating businesses.
Step 2a: Compute the cost of equity for all of Disney s assets:
Equity BetaDisney as company = 0.6885 (1 + (1 – 0.38)(0.3691)) = 0.8460
Riskfree Rate = 3.5%
Risk Premium = 6%
Aswath Damodaran! 159!
Discussion Issue
Assume now that you are the CFO of Disney. The head of the movie business
has come to you with a new big budget movie that he would like you to fund.
He claims that his analysis of the movie indicates that it will generate a return
on equity of 12%. Would you fund it?
a) Yes. It is higher than the cost of equity for Disney as a company
b) No. It is lower than the cost of equity for the movie business.
What are the broader implications of your choice?
The beta for emerging market paper and pulp companies of 1.01 was used as
the unlevered beta for Aracruz.
When computing the levered beta for Aracruz s paper and pulp business, we
used the gross debt outstanding of 9,805 million BR and the market value of
equity of 8907 million BR, in conjunction with the marginal tax rate of 34%
for Brazil:
• Gross Debt to Equity ratio = Debt/Equity = 9805/8907 = 110.08%
• Levered Beta for Aracruz Paper business = 1.01 (1+(1-.34)(1.1008)) = 1.74
Aswath Damodaran! 161!
Aracruz: Cost of Equity Calculation
We will use a risk premium of 9.95% in computing the cost of equity, composed of the
mature market equity risk premium (6%) and the Brazil country risk premium of 3.95%
(estimated earlier).
U.S. $ Cost of Equity
Cost of Equity = 10-yr T.Bond rate + Beta * Risk Premium
= 3.5% + 1.74 (9.95%) = 20.82%
To convert to a Nominal $R Cost of Equity
Cost of Equity =
(1+ Inflation Rate Brazil )
(1+ $ Cost of Equity) "1
(1+ Inflation Rate US )
= 1.2082 (1.07/1.02) -1 = .2675 or 26.75%
(Alternatively, you could just replace the riskfree rate with a nominal $R riskfree rate, but you
would then be keeping risk premiums which were computed in dollar terms fixed while moving
to a higher
! inflation currency)
To estimate the cost of equity in Euros, we will use the German 10-year bond
rate of 3.6% as the riskfree rate and the 6% as the mature market premium.
Because the debt/equity ratios used in computing levered betas are market debt
equity ratios, and the only debt equity ratio we can compute for Bookscape is a
book value debt equity ratio, we have assumed that Bookscape is close to the
book industry median debt to equity ratio of 53.47 percent.
Using a marginal tax rate of 40 percent for Bookscape, we get a levered beta
of 1.35.
Levered beta for Bookscape = 1.02 [1 + (1 – 0.40) (0.5347)] = 1.35
Using a riskfree rate of 3.5% (US treasury bond rate) and an equity risk
premium of 6%:
Cost of Equity = 3.5% + 1.35 (6%) = 11.60%
Beta measures the risk added on to a diversified portfolio. The owners of most
private firms are not diversified. Therefore, using beta to arrive at a cost of
equity for a private firm will
a) Under estimate the cost of equity for the private firm
b) Over estimate the cost of equity for the private firm
c) Could under or over estimate the cost of equity for the private firm
Adjust the beta to reflect total risk rather than market risk. This adjustment is a
relatively simple one, since the R squared of the regression measures the
proportion of the risk that is market risk.
Total Beta = Market Beta / Correlation of the sector with the market
In the Bookscape example, where the market beta is 1.35 and the average R-
squared of the comparable publicly traded firms is 21.58%; the correlation
with the market is 46.45%.
Market Beta 1.35
= = 2.91
R squared .4645
• Total Cost of Equity = 3.5% + 2.91 (6%) = 20.94%
Based upon the business or businesses that your firm is in right now, and its
current financial leverage, estimate the bottom-up unlevered beta for your
firm.
Data Source: You can get a listing of unlevered betas by industry on my web
site by going to updated data.
The cost of capital is a composite cost to the firm of raising financing to fund
its projects.
In addition to equity, firms can raise capital from debt
If the firm has bonds outstanding, and the bonds are traded, the yield to
maturity on a long-term, straight (no special features) bond can be used as the
interest rate.
If the firm is rated, use the rating and a typical default spread on bonds with
that rating to estimate the cost of debt.
If the firm is not rated,
• and it has recently borrowed long term from a bank, use the interest rate on the
borrowing or
• estimate a synthetic rating for the company, and use the synthetic rating to arrive at
a default spread and a cost of debt
The cost of debt has to be estimated in the same currency as the cost of equity
and the cash flows in the valuation.
The rating for a firm can be estimated using the financial characteristics of the
firm. In its simplest form, we can use just the interest coverage ratio:
Interest Coverage Ratio = EBIT / Interest Expenses
For the four non-financial service companies, we obtain the following:
Disney and Aracruz are rated companies and their actual ratings are different
from the synthetic rating.
Disney s synthetic rating is AA, whereas its actual rating is A. The difference
can be attributed to any of the following:
• Synthetic ratings reflect only the interest coverage ratio whereas actual ratings
incorporate all of the other ratios and qualitative factors
• Synthetic ratings do not allow for sector-wide biases in ratings
• Synthetic rating was based on 2008 operating income whereas actual rating reflects
normalized earnings
Aracruz s synthetic rating is BB+, but the actual rating for dollar debt is BB.
The biggest factor behind the difference is the presence of country risk but the
derivatives losses at the firm in 2008 may also be playing a role.
Deutsche Bank had an A+ rating. We will not try to estimate a synthetic rating
for the bank. Defining interest expenses on debt for a bank is difficult…
For Bookscape, we will use the synthetic rating (A) to estimate the cost of debt:
• Default Spread based upon A rating = 2.50%
• Pre-tax cost of debt = Riskfree Rate + Default Spread = 3.5% + 2.50% = 6.00%
• After-tax cost of debt = Pre-tax cost of debt (1- tax rate) = 6.00% (1-.40) = 3.60%
For the three publicly traded firms that are rated in our sample, we will use the actual
bond ratings to estimate the costs of debt:
For Tata Chemicals, we will use the synthetic rating of A-, but we also
consider the fact that India faces default risk (and a spread of 3%).
• Pre-tax cost of debt = Riskfree Rate(Rs) + Country Spread + Company spread
= 4% + 3% + 3% = 10%
• After-tax cost of debt = Pre-tax cost of debt (1- tax rate) = 10% (1-.34) = 6.6%
Aswath Damodaran! 179!
Default looms larger.. And spreads widen.. The effect of the
market crisis – January 2008 to January 2009
Rating
Default Spread: Over 10-year riskfree rate in January 2011
AAA
0.50%
AA
0.65%
A+
0.85%
A
1.00%
A-
1.10%
BBB
1.60%
BB
3.35%
B+
3.75%
B
5.00%
B-
5.25%
CCC
8.00%
CC
10.00%
C
12.00%
D
15.00%
Aswath Damodaran! 181!
Application Test: Estimating a Cost of Debt
Based upon your firm s current earnings before interest and taxes, its interest
expenses, estimate
• An interest coverage ratio for your firm
• A synthetic rating for your firm (use the tables from prior pages)
• A pre-tax cost of debt for your firm
• An after-tax cost of debt for your firm
The weights used in the cost of capital computation should be market values.
There are three specious arguments used against market value
• Book value is more reliable than market value because it is not as volatile: While it
is true that book value does not change as much as market value, this is more a
reflection of weakness than strength
• Using book value rather than market value is a more conservative approach to
estimating debt ratios: For most companies, using book values will yield a lower
cost of capital than using market value weights.
• Since accounting returns are computed based upon book value, consistency
requires the use of book value in computing cost of capital: While it may seem
consistent to use book values for both accounting return and cost of capital
calculations, it does not make economic sense.
In Disney s 2008 financial statements, the debt due over time was footnoted.
Disney s total debt due, in book value terms, on the balance sheet is $16,003
million and the total interest expense for the year was $728 million. Assuming
that the maturity that we computed above still holds and using 6% as the pre-
tax cost of debt:
# 1 &
Estimated MV of Disney Debt =
% (1 " ( 16,003
(1.06)5.38
728% (+ = $14,962 million
% .06 ( (1.06)5.38
%$ ('
Year
Commitment
Present Value
Disney reported $619 million in
1
$392.00
$369.81
commitments after year 5. Given
2
$351.00
$312.39
that their average commitment
3
$305.00
$256.08
over the first 5 years of $302
4
$265.00
$209.90
million, we assumed two years @
5
$198.00
$147.96
$309.5 million each.
6 & 7
$309.50
$424.02
Debt Value of
leases =
$1,720.17
Debt outstanding at Disney
= MV of Interest bearing Debt + PV of Operating Leases
= $14,962 + $ 1,720= $16,682 million
Estimate the
• Market value of equity at your firm and Book Value of equity
• Market value of debt and book value of debt (If you cannot find the average
maturity of your debt, use 3 years): Remember to capitalize the value of operating
leases and add them on to both the book value and the market value of debt.
Estimate the
• Weights for equity and debt based upon market value
• Weights for equity and debt based upon book value
Equity
• Cost of Equity = Riskfree rate + Beta * Risk Premium
= 3.5% + 0.9011 (6%) = 8.91%
• Market Value of Equity =
$45.193 Billion
• Equity/(Debt+Equity ) =
73.04%
Debt
• After-tax Cost of debt =(Riskfree rate + Default Spread) (1-t)
= (3.5%+2.5%) (1-.38) =
3.72%
• Market Value of Debt =
$ 16.682 Billion
• Debt/(Debt +Equity) =
26.96%
Cost of Capital = 8.91%(.7304)+3.72%(.2696) = 7.51%
45.193/ (45.193+16.682)
Disney
Tata Chemicals
Tata Chemicals
Aracruz
Inf
Inflation rate in US $ = 2%
Cost of capital in $R =
1.1284 (1.07) "1 = 18.37% Inflation rate in $R = 7%
(1.02)
(1)
Real Cost of capital =
1.1284 "1 = 10.63%
! (1.02)
!
Earlier we computed a cost of equity of 10.55% for Deutsche Bank. We won t
even try to estimate the cost of capital. Why?
Earlier, we noted that the cost of equity would be much higher for an
undiversified investor than a diversified one and use a contrast between total
and market beta to illustrate the point.
The cost of capital illustrates the divide:
Using the bottom-up unlevered beta that you computed for your firm, and the
values of debt and equity you have estimated for your firm, estimate a bottom-
up levered beta and cost of equity for your firm.
Based upon the costs of equity and debt that you have estimated, and the
weights for each, estimate the cost of capital for your firm.
How different would your cost of capital have been, if you used book value
weights?
Either the cost of equity or the cost of capital can be used as a hurdle rate,
depending upon whether the returns measured are to equity investors or to all
claimholders on the firm (capital)
If returns are measured to equity investors, the appropriate hurdle rate is the
cost of equity.
If returns are measured to capital (or the firm), the appropriate hurdle rate is
the cost of capital.
Use cash flows rather than earnings. You cannot spend earnings.
Use incremental cash flows relating to the investment decision, i.e.,
cashflows that occur as a consequence of the decision, rather than total cash
flows.
Use time weighted returns, i.e., value cash flows that occur earlier more
than cash flows that occur later.
The Return Mantra: Time-weighted, Incremental Cash Flow Return
Rio Disney: We will consider whether Disney should invest in its first theme
parks in South America. These parks, while similar to those that Disney has in
other parts of the world, will require us to consider the effects of country risk
and currency issues in project analysis.
New Paper Plant for Aracruz: Aracruz, as a paper and pulp company, is
examining whether to invest in a new paper plant in Brazil.
An Online Store for Bookscape: Bookscape is evaluating whether it should
create an online store to sell books. While it is an extension of their basis
business, it will require different investments (and potentially expose them to
different types of risk).
Acquisition of Sentient by Tata Chemicals: Sentient is a US firm that
manufactures chemicals for the food processing business. This cross-border
acquisition by Tata Chemicals will allow us to examine currency and risk
issues in such a transaction.
The theme parks to be built near Rio, modeled on Euro Disney in Paris and
Disney World in Orlando.
The complex will include a Magic Kingdom to be constructed, beginning
immediately, and becoming operational at the beginning of the second year,
and a second theme park modeled on Epcot Center at Orlando to be
constructed in the second and third year and becoming operational at the
beginning of the fourth year.
The earnings and cash flows are estimated in nominal U.S. Dollars.
Revenue estimates for the parks and resort properties (in millions)
Year
Magic Kingdom
Epcot II
Resort Properties
Total
1
$0
$0
$0
$0
2
$1,000
$0
$250
$1,250
3
$1,400
$0
$350
$1.750
4
$1,700
$300
$500
$2.500
5
$2,000
$500
$625
$3.125
6
$2,200
$550
$688
$3,438
7
$2,420
$605
$756
$3,781
8
$2,662
$666
$832
$4,159
9
$2,928
$732
$915
$4,575
10
$2,987
$747
$933
$4,667
The operating expenses are assumed to be 60% of the revenues at the parks,
and 75% of revenues at the resort properties.
Disney will also allocate corporate general and administrative costs to this
project, based upon revenues; the G&A allocation will be 15% of the revenues
each year. It is worth noting that a recent analysis of these expenses found
that only one-third of these expenses are variable (and a function of total
revenue) and that two-thirds are fixed.
The capital maintenance expenditures are low in the early years, when the parks are still new but
increase as the parks age.
12.5% of book
value at end of
prior year
($3,000)
a
The exchange rate risk should be diversifiable risk (and hence should not
command a premium) if
• the company has projects is a large number of countries (or)
• the investors in the company are globally diversified.
For Disney, this risk should not affect the cost of capital used. Consequently, we would
not adjust the cost of capital for Disney s investments in other mature markets
(Germany, UK, France)
The same diversification argument can also be applied against some political
risk, which would mean that it too should not affect the discount rate.
However, there are aspects of political risk especially in emerging markets that
will be difficult to diversify and may affect the cash flows, by reducing the
expected life or cash flows on the project.
For Disney, this is the risk that we are incorporating into the cost of capital when
it invests in Brazil (or any other emerging market)
We did estimate a cost of capital of 6.62% for the Disney theme park business,
using a bottom-up levered beta of 0.7829 for the business.
This cost of equity may not adequately reflect the additional risk associated
with the theme park being in an emerging market.
The only concern we would have with using this cost of equity for this project
is that it may not adequately reflect the additional risk associated with the
theme park being in an emerging market (Brazil).
Country risk premium for Brazil = 2.50% (34/21.5) = 3.95%
Cost of Equity in US$= 3.5% + 0.7829 (6%+3.95%) = 11.29%
We multiplied the default spread for Brazil (2.50%) by the relative volatility of
Brazil s equity index to the Brazilian government bond. (34%/21.5%)
Using this estimate of the cost of equity, Disney s theme park debt ratio of
35.32% and its after-tax cost of debt of 3.72% (see chapter 4), we can estimate
the cost of capital for the project:
Cost of Capital in US$ = 11.29% (0.6468) + 3.72% (0.3532) = 8.62%
Do not invest in this park. The return on capital of 4.05% is lower than the
cost of capital for theme parks of 8.62%; This would suggest that the
project should not be taken.
Given that we have computed the average over an arbitrary period of 10 years,
while the theme park itself would have a life greater than 10 years, would you
feel comfortable with this conclusion?
a) Yes
b) No
The key to value is earning excess returns. Over time, there have been
attempts to restate this obvious fact in new and different ways. For instance,
Economic Value Added (EVA) developed a wide following in the the 1990s:
EVA = (ROC – Cost of Capital ) (Book Value of Capital Invested)
The excess returns for the four firms can be restated as follows:
For the most recent period for which you have data, compute the after-tax
return on capital earned by your firm, where after-tax return on capital is
computed to be
After-tax ROC = EBIT (1-tax rate)/ (BV of debt + BV of Equity-Cash)previous year
For the most recent period for which you have data, compute the return spread
earned by your firm:
Return Spread = After-tax ROC - Cost of Capital
For the most recent period, compute the EVA earned by your firm
EVA = Return Spread * ((BV of debt + BV of Equity-Cash)previous year
While depreciation reduces taxable income and taxes, it does not reduce the
cash flows.
The benefit of depreciation is therefore the tax benefit. In general, the tax
benefit from depreciation can be written as:
Tax Benefit = Depreciation * Tax Rate
Disney Theme Park: Depreciation tax savings (Tax rate = 38%)
Proposition 1: The tax benefit from depreciation and other non-cash charges is
greater, the higher your tax rate.
Proposition 2: Non-cash charges that are not tax deductible (such as amortization
of goodwill) and thus provide no tax benefits have no effect on cash flows.
Capital expenditures are not treated as accounting expenses but they do cause
cash outflows.
Capital expenditures can generally be categorized into two groups
• New (or Growth) capital expenditures are capital expenditures designed to create
new assets and future growth
• Maintenance capital expenditures refer to capital expenditures designed to keep
existing assets.
Both initial and maintenance capital expenditures reduce cash flows
The need for maintenance capital expenditures will increase with the life of
the project. In other words, a 25-year project will require more maintenance
capital expenditures than a 2-year project.
Assume that you run your own software business, and that you have an
expense this year of $ 100 million from producing and distribution
promotional CDs in software magazines. Your accountant tells you that you
can expense this item or capitalize and depreciate it over three years. Which
will have a more positive effect on income?
a) Expense it
b) Capitalize and Depreciate it
Which will have a more positive effect on cash flows?
a) Expense it
b) Capitalize and Depreciate it
2/3rd of allocated G&A is fixed.
Add back this amount (1-t)
Tax rate = 38%
Any expenditure that has already been incurred, and cannot be recovered (even
if a project is rejected) is called a sunk cost. A test market for a consumer
product and R&D expenses for a drug (for a pharmaceutical company) would
be good examples.
When analyzing a project, sunk costs should not be considered since they are
not incremental.
Assume that you have a time series of revenues and G&A costs for a
company.
What percentage of the G&A cost is variable?
Incremental cash flows in the earlier years are worth more than incremental
cash flows in later years.
In fact, cash flows across time cannot be added up. They have to be brought to
the same point in time before aggregation.
This process of moving cash flows through time is
• discounting, when future cash flows are brought to the present
• compounding, when present cash flows are taken to the future
2. Annuity
"
1 -
1 %
$ " (1 + r) - 1 %
n
(1 + r) n ' A$ '
A$ '
# r &
$ r '
# &
3. Growing Annuity
" (1 + g) n % !
$1 - n '
!
A(1 + g) $
(1 + r) '
$ r-g '
$# '&
4. Perpetuity
A/r
5. Growing Perpetuity
Expected Cashflow next year/(r-g)
!
Net Present Value (NPV): The net present value is the sum of the present
values of all cash flows from the project (including initial investment).
NPV = Sum of the present values of all cash flows on the project, including the initial
investment, with the cash flows being discounted at the appropriate hurdle rate (cost
of capital, if cash flow is cash flow to the firm, and cost of equity, if cash flow is to
equity investors)
• Decision Rule: Accept if NPV > 0
Internal Rate of Return (IRR): The internal rate of return is the discount rate
that sets the net present value equal to zero. It is the percentage rate of return,
based upon incremental time-weighted cash flows.
• Decision Rule: Accept if IRR > hurdle rate
In a project with a finite and short life, you would need to compute a salvage
value, which is the expected proceeds from selling all of the investment in the
project at the end of the project life. It is usually set equal to book value of
fixed assets and working capital
In a project with an infinite or very long life, we compute cash flows for a
reasonable period, and then compute a terminal value for this project, which
is the present value of all cash flows that occur after the estimation period
ends..
Assuming the project lasts forever, and that cash flows after year 10 grow 2%
(the inflation rate) forever, the present value at the end of year 10 of cash flows
after that can be written as:
• Terminal Value in year 10= CF in year 11/(Cost of Capital - Growth Rate)
=692 (1.02) /(.0862-.02) = $ 10,669 million
The project should be accepted. The positive net present value suggests that
the project will add value to the firm, and earn a return in excess of the cost of
capital.
By taking the project, Disney will increase its value as a firm by $2,877
million.
The project is a good one. Using time-weighted, incremental cash flows, this
project provides a return of 12.35%. This is greater than the cost of capital of
8.62%.
The IRR and the NPV will yield similar results most of the time, though there
are differences between the two approaches that may cause project rankings to
vary depending upon the approach used.
The analysis was done in dollars. Would the conclusions have been any
different if we had done the analysis in Brazilian Reais?
a) Yes
b) No
The cash flows on a project and the discount rate used should be defined in the
same terms.
• If cash flows are in dollars ($R), the discount rate has to be a dollar ($R) discount
rate
• If the cash flows are nominal (real), the discount rate has to be nominal (real).
If consistency is maintained, the project conclusions should be identical, no
matter what cash flows are used.
Based on our expected cash flows and the estimated cost of capital, the
proposed theme park looks like a very good investment for Disney.
Which of the following may affect your assessment of value?
a) Revenues may be over estimated (crowds may be smaller and spend less)
b) Actual costs may be higher than estimated costs
c) Tax rates may go up
d) Interest rates may rise
e) Risk premiums and default spreads may increase
f) All of the above
How would you respond to this uncertainty?
a) Will wait for the uncertainty to be resolved
b) Will not take the investment
c) Ignore it.
d) Other
If your biggest fear is losing the billions that you invested in the project, one
simple measure that you can compute is the number of years it will take you to
get your money back.
Discounted Payback
= 17.7 years
The NPV, IRR and accounting returns for an investment will change as we
change the values that we use for different variables.
One way of analyzing uncertainty is to check to see how sensitive the decision
measure (NPV, IRR..) is to changes in key assumptions. While this has
become easier and easier to do over time, there are caveats that we would
offer.
Caveat 1: When analyzing the effects of changing a variable, we often hold all
else constant. In the real world, variables move together.
Caveat 2: The objective in sensitivity analysis is that we make better decisions,
not churn out more tables and numbers.
Corollary 1: Less is more. Not everything is worth varying…
Corollary 2: A picture is worth a thousand numbers (and tables).
NPV ranges from -$4 billion to +$14 billion. NPV is negative 12% of the
time.
Assume that you are the person at Disney who is given the results of
the simulation. The average and median NPV are close to your base
case values of $2.877 billion. However, there is a 12% probability that
the project could have a negative NPV and that the NPV could be a
large negative value? How would you use this information?
a) I would accept the investment and print the results of this simulation and file them
away to show that I exercised due diligence.
b) I would reject the investment, because 12% is higher than my threshold value for
losing on a project.
c) Other
The investment analysis can be done entirely in equity terms, as well. The
returns, cashflows and hurdle rates will all be defined from the perspective of
equity investors.
If using accounting returns,
• Return will be Return on Equity (ROE) = Net Income/BV of Equity
• ROE has to be greater than cost of equity
If using discounted cashflow models,
• Cashflows will be cashflows after debt payments to equity investors
• Hurdle rate will be cost of equity
The plant is expected to have a capacity of 750,000 tons and will have the
following characteristics:
It will require an initial investment of 250 Million BR. At the end of the fifth
year, an additional investment of 50 Million BR will be needed to update the
plant.
Aracruz plans to borrow 100 Million BR, at a real interest rate of 6.3725%,
using a 10-year term loan (where the loan will be paid off in equal annual
increments).
The plant will have a life of 10 years. During that period, the plant (and the
additional investment in year 5) will be depreciated using double declining
balance depreciation, with a life of 10 years. At the end of the tenth year, the
plant is expected to be sold for its remaining book value.
The plant will be partly in commission in a couple of months, but will have a
capacity of only 650,000 tons in the first year, 700,000 tons in the second year
before getting to its full capacity of 750,000 tons in the third year.
The capacity utilization rate will be 90% for the first 3 years, and rise to 95%
after that.
The price per ton of linerboard is currently $400, and is expected to keep pace
with inflation for the life of the plant.
The variable cost of production, primarily labor and material, is expected to be
55% of total revenues; there is a fixed cost of 50 Million BR, which will grow
at the inflation rate.
The working capital requirements are estimated to be 15% of total revenues,
and the investments have to be made at the beginning of each year. At the end
of the tenth year, it is anticipated that the entire working capital will be
salvaged.
The analysis is done in real terms and to equity investors. Thus, the hurdle rate
has to be a real cost of equity.
In the earlier section, we estimated costs of equity, debt and capital in US
dollars, $R and real terms for Aracruz s paper business.
As with the earlier analysis, where we used return on capital and cost of
capital to measure the overall quality of projects at firms, we can compute
return on equity and cost of equity to pass judgment on whether firms are
creating value to its equity investors.
Equity Excess Returns and EVA: 2008
In computing the NPV of the plant, we estimated real cash flows and
discounted them at the real cost of equity. We could have estimated
the cash flows in nominal terms (either US dollars or $R) and
discounted them at a nominal cost of equity (either US dollar or $R).
Would the answer be different?
a) Yes
b) No
Explain
Like the Disney Theme Park, the Aracruz paper plant s actual value will be
buffeted as the variables change. The biggest source of variability is an
external factor –the price of paper and pulp.
The value of this plant is very much a function of paper and pulp
prices. There are futures, forward and option markets on paper and
pulp that Aracruz can use to hedge against paper price movements.
Should it?
a) Yes
b) No
Explain.
The value of the plant is also a function of exchange rates. There are
forward, futures and options markets on currency. Should Aracruz
hedge against exchange rate risk?
a) Yes
b) No
Explain.
Project 1 has two internal rates of return. The first is 6.60%, whereas the
second is 36.55%. Project 2 has one internal rate of return, about 12.8%.
Why are there two internal rates of return on project 1?
If your cost of capital is 12%, which investment would you accept?
a) Project 1
b) Project 2
Explain.
Project A
Cash Flow
$ 350,000
$ 450,000
$ 600,000
$ 750,000
Investment
$ 1,000,000
NPV = $467,937
IRR= 33.66%
Project B
Cash Flow
$ 3,000,000
$ 3,500,000
$ 4,500,000
$ 5,500,000
Investment
$ 10,000,000
NPV = $1,358,664
IRR=20.88%
Assume that you can pick only one of these two projects. Your choice will
clearly vary depending upon whether you look at NPV or IRR. You have
enough money currently on hand to take either. Which one would you pick?
a) Project A. It gives me the bigger bang for the buck and more margin for
error.
b) Project B. It creates more dollar value in my business.
If you pick A, what would your biggest concern be?
If you pick B, what would your biggest concern be?
The problem with the NPV rule, when there is capital rationing, is that it is a
dollar value. It measures success in absolute terms.
The NPV can be converted into a relative measure by dividing by the initial
investment. This is called the profitability index.
• Profitability Index (PI) = NPV/Initial Investment
In the example described, the PI of the two projects would have been:
• PI of Project A = $467,937/1,000,000 = 46.79%
• PI of Project B = $1,358,664/10,000,000 = 13.59%
Project A would have scored higher.
Project A
Cash Flow
$ 5,000,000
$ 4,000,000
$ 3,200,000
$ 3,000,000
Investment
$ 10,000,000
NPV = $1,191,712
IRR=21.41%
Project B
Cash Flow
$ 3,000,000
$ 3,500,000
$ 4,500,000
$ 5,500,000
Investment
$ 10,000,000
NPV = $1,358,664
IRR=20.88%
These projects are of the same scale. Both the NPV and IRR use time-weighted
cash flows. Yet, the rankings are different. Why?
Which one would you pick?
a) Project A. It gives me the bigger bang for the buck and more margin for error.
b) Project B. It creates more dollar value in my business.
The NPV rule assumes that intermediate cash flows on the project get
reinvested at the hurdle rate (which is based upon what projects of comparable
risk should earn).
The IRR rule assumes that intermediate cash flows on the project get
reinvested at the IRR. Implicit is the assumption that the firm has an infinite
stream of projects yielding similar IRRs.
Conclusion: When the IRR is high (the project is creating significant surplus
value) and the project life is long, the IRR will overstate the true return on the
project.
A project can have only one NPV, whereas it can have more than one IRR.
The NPV is a dollar surplus value, whereas the IRR is a percentage measure of
return. The NPV is therefore likely to be larger for large scale projects,
while the IRR is higher for small-scale projects.
The NPV assumes that intermediate cash flows get reinvested at the hurdle
rate , which is based upon what you can make on investments of comparable
risk, while the IRR assumes that intermediate cash flows get reinvested at the
IRR .
Project A
$400
$400
$400
$400
$400
-$1000
NPV of Project A = $ 442
IRR of Project A = 28.7%
Project B
$350
$350
$350
$350
$350
$350
$350
$350
$350
$350
-$1500
NPV of Project B = $ 478
IRR for Project B = 19.4%
Hurdle Rate for Both Projects = 12%
The net present values of mutually exclusive projects with different lives
cannot be compared, since there is a bias towards longer-life projects. To
compare the NPV, we have to
• replicate the projects till they have the same life (or)
• convert the net present values into annuities
The IRR is unaffected by project life. We can choose the project with
the higher IRR.
Project A: Replicated
$400
$400
$400
$400
$400
$400
$400
$400
$400
$400
-$1000
-$1000 (Replication)
NPV of Project A replicated = $ 693
Project B
$350
$350
$350
$350
$350
$350
$350
$350
$350
$350
-$1500
NPV of Project B= $ 478
Decision Rule
% of Firms using as primary decision rule in
1976
1986
1998
IRR
53.6%
49.0%
42.0%
Accounting Return
25.0%
8.0%
7.0%
NPV
9.8%
21.0%
34.0%
Payback Period
8.9%
19.0%
14.0%
Profitability Index
2.7%
3.0%
3.0%
Most projects considered by any business create side costs and benefits for that
business.
• The side costs include the costs created by the use of resources that the business
already owns (opportunity costs) and lost revenues for other projects that the firm
may have.
• The benefits that may not be captured in the traditional capital budgeting analysis
include project synergies (where cash flow benefits may accrue to other projects)
and options embedded in projects (including the options to delay, expand or
abandon a project).
The returns on a project should incorporate these costs and benefits.
An opportunity cost arises when a project uses a resource that may already
have been paid for by the firm.
When a resource that is already owned by a firm is being considered for use in
a project, this resource has to be priced on its next best alternative use, which
may be
• a sale of the asset, in which case the opportunity cost is the expected proceeds from
the sale, net of any capital gains taxes
• renting or leasing the asset out, in which case the opportunity cost is the expected
present value of the after-tax rental or lease revenues.
• use elsewhere in the business, in which case the opportunity cost is the cost of
replacing it.
Assume that Disney owns land in Rio already. This land is undeveloped and
was acquired several years ago for $ 5 million for a hotel that was never built.
It is anticipated, if this theme park is built, that this land will be used to build
the offices for Disney Rio. The land currently can be sold for $ 40 million,
though that would create a capital gain (which will be taxed at 20%). In
assessing the theme park, which of the following would you do:
a) Ignore the cost of the land, since Disney owns its already
b) Use the book value of the land, which is $ 5 million
c) Use the market value of the land, which is $ 40 million
d) Other:
The initial investment needed to start the service, including the installation of
additional phone lines and computer equipment, will be $1 million. These
investments are expected to have a life of four years, at which point they will
have no salvage value. The investments will be depreciated straight line over
the four-year life.
The revenues in the first year are expected to be $1.5 million, growing 20% in
year two, and 10% in the two years following.
The salaries and other benefits for the employees are estimated to be $150,000
in year one, and grow 10% a year for the following three years.
The cost of the books will be 60% of the revenues in each of the four years.
The working capital, which includes the inventory of books needed for the
service and the accounts receivable will be10% of the revenues; the
investments in working capital have to be made at the beginning of each year.
At the end of year 4, the entire working capital is assumed to be salvaged.
The tax rate on income is expected to be 40%.
Wee will re-estimate the beta for this online project by looking at publicly
traded Internet retailers. The unlevered total beta of internet retailers is 4.25,
and we assume that this project will be funded with the same mix of debt and
equity (D/E = 53.47%, Debt/Capital = 34.84%) that Bookscape uses in the rest
of the business. We will assume that Bookscape s tax rate (40%) and pretax
cost of debt (6%) apply to this project.
Levered Beta Online Service = 4.25 [1 + (1 – 0.4) (0.5357)] = 5.61
Cost of Equity Online Service = 3.5% + 5.61 (6%) = 37.18%
Cost of CapitalOnline Service= 37.18% (0.6516) + 6% (1 – 0.4) (0.3484) = 25.48%
NPV adjusted for side costs= -98,775- $29,865 - $1405 = $130,045
Opportunity costs aggregated into cash flows
In the Aracruz example, assume that the firm will use its existing distribution
system to service the production out of the new paper plant. The new plant
manager argues that there is no cost associated with using this system, since it
has been paid for already and cannot be sold or leased to a competitor (and
thus has no competing current use). Do you agree?
a) Yes
b) No
If I do not add the new product, when will I run out of capacity?
If I add the new product, when will I run out of capacity?
When I run out of capacity, what will I do?
1. Cut back on production: cost is PV of after-tax cash flows from lost sales
2. Buy new capacity: cost is difference in PV between earlier & later investment
Year
Old
New
Old + New
Lost ATCF
PV(ATCF)
1
50.00%
30.00%
80.00%
$0
2
55.00%
31.50%
86.50%
$0
3
60.50%
33.08%
93.58%
$0
4
66.55%
34.73%
101.28%
$5,115
$ 3,251
5
73.21%
36.47%
109.67%
$38,681
$ 21,949
6
80.53%
38.29%
118.81%
$75,256
$ 38,127
7
88.58%
40.20%
128.78%
$115,124
$ 52,076
8
97.44%
42.21%
139.65%
$158,595
$ 64,054
9
100%
44.32%
144.32%
$177,280
$ 63,929
10
100%
46.54%
146.54%
$186,160
$ 59,939
PV(Lost Sales)=
$ 303,324
PV (Building Capacity In Year 3 Instead Of Year 8) = 1,500,000/1.123
-1,500,000/1.128 = $ 461,846
Opportunity Cost of Excess Capacity = $ 303,324
Assume that in the Disney theme park example, 20% of the revenues at the Rio
Disney park are expected to come from people who would have gone to
Disney theme parks in the US. In doing the analysis of the park, you would
a) Look at only incremental revenues (i.e. 80% of the total revenue)
b) Look at total revenues at the park
c) Choose an intermediate number
Would your answer be different if you were analyzing whether to introduce a new
show on the Disney cable channel on Saturday mornings that is expected to
attract 20% of its viewers from ABC (which is also owned by Disney)?
a) Yes
b) No
A project may provide benefits for other projects within the firm. Consider, for
instance, a typical Disney animated movie. Assume that it costs $ 50 million to
produce and promote. This movie, in addition to theatrical revenues, also
produces revenues from
• the sale of merchandise (stuffed toys, plastic figures, clothes ..)
• increased attendance at the theme parks
• stage shows (see Beauty and the Beast and the Lion King )
• television series based upon the movie
In investment analysis, however, these synergies are either left unquantified
and used to justify overriding the results of investment analysis, i.e,, used as
justification for investing in negative NPV projects.
If synergies exist and they often do, these benefits have to be valued and
shown in the initial project analysis.
Assume that you are considering adding a café to the bookstore. Assume also
that based upon the expected revenues and expenses, the café standing alone is
expected to have a net present value of -$91,097.
The cafe will increase revenues at the book store by $500,000 in year 1,
growing at 10% a year for the following 4 years. In addition, assume that the
pre-tax operating margin on these sales is 10%.
The net present value of the added benefits is $115,882. Added to the NPV of
the standalone Café of -$91,097 yields a net present value of $24,785.
Aswath Damodaran! 305!
Case 2: Synergy in a merger..
=
(1.03)
(1.096) - 1 = 10.67%
(1.02)
!
Aswath Damodaran! 307!
!
Estimating the value of synergy… and what Tata can pay for
Sensient…
We can now discount the expected cash flows back at the cost of
capital to derive the value of synergy:
• Value of synergyYear 3 =
Expected Cash FlowYear 4 1500
= = Rs 22,476 million
(Cost of Capital - g) (.1067 -.04)
• Value of synergy today =
Value of Synergy year 3 22,476
= = Rs 16,580 million
(1 + Cost of Capital)3 (1.1067)3
!
Earlier, we estimated the value of equity in Sensient Technologies,
with no synergy, to be $1,107 million. Converting the synergy value
into dollar terms at! the current exchange rate of Rs 47.50/$, the total
value that Tata Chemicals can pay for Sensient s equity:
• Value of synergy in US $ = Rs 16,580/47.50 = $ 349 million
• Value of Sensient Technologies = $1,107 million + $349 million = $1,456 million
When a firm has exclusive rights to a project or product for a specific period, it
can delay taking this project or product until a later date. A traditional
investment analysis just answers the question of whether the project is a
good one if taken today. The rights to a bad project can still have value.
PV of Cash Flows
Initial Investment in
Project
NPV is positive in this section
Taking a project today may allow a firm to consider and take other valuable
projects in the future. Thus, even though a project may have a negative NPV,
it may be a project worth taking if the option it provides the firm (to take other
projects in the future) has a more-than-compensating value.
PV of Cash Flows
from Expansion
Additional Investment
to Expand
A firm may sometimes have the option to abandon a project, if the cash flows
do not measure up to expectations.
If abandoning the project allows the firm to save itself from further losses, this
option can make a project more valuable.
PV of Cash Flows
from Project
Cost of Abandonment
In a post-mortem, you look at the actual cash You can also reassess your expected cash
flows, relative to forecasts.
flows, based upon what you have learned,
and decide whether you should expand,
continue or divest (abandon) an investment
The actual cash flows from an investment can be greater than or less than
originally forecast for a number of reasons but all these reasons can be
categorized into two groups:
• Chance: The nature of risk is that actual outcomes can be different from
expectations. Even when forecasts are based upon the best of information, they will
invariably be wrong in hindsight because of unexpected shifts in both macro
(inflation, interest rates, economic growth) and micro (competitors, company)
variables.
• Bias: If the original forecasts were biased, the actual numbers will be different from
expectations. The evidence on capital budgeting is that managers tend to be over-
optimistic about cash flows and the bias is worse with over-confident managers.
While it is impossible to tell on an individual project whether chance or bias is
to blame, there is a way to tell across projects and across time. If chance is the
culprit, there should be symmetry in the errors – actuals should be about as
likely to beat forecasts as they are to come under forecasts. If bias is the
reason, the errors will tend to be in one direction.
t =n
NFn
"
<0
n
........
Liquidate the project
t =0 (1 + r)
t =n
NFn
........
Terminate the project
"
t =0 (1 + r)
n
< Salvage Value
!
t =n
NFn
!
"
t =0 (1 + r)
n
<
Divestiture
Value
........
Divest the project
t =n
NFn > 0
> Divestiture
........
Continue the project
!
"
t =0 (1 + r)
n
Value
Aswath!
Damodaran! 317!
Example: Disney California Adventure
Disney opened the Disney California Adventure (DCA) Park in 2001, at a cost
of $1.5 billion, with a mix of roller coaster ridesand movie nostalgia. Disney
expected about 60% of its visitors to Disneyland to come across to DCA and
generate about $ 100 million in annual after-cash flows for the firm.
By 2008, DCA had not performed up to expectations. Of the 15 million people
who came to Disneyland in 2007, only 6 million visited California Adventure,
and the cash flow averaged out to only $ 50 million between 2001 and 2007.
In early 2008, Disney faced three choices:
Shut down California Adventure and try to recover whatever it can of its initial
investment. It is estimated that the firm recover about $ 500 million of its investment.
Continue with the status quo, recognizing that future cash flows will be closer to the
actual values ($ 50 million) than the original projections.
Invest about $ 600 million to expand and modify the par, with the intent of increasing
the number of attractions for families with children, is expected to increase the
percentage of Disneyland visitors who come to DCA from 40% to 60% and increase the
annual after tax cash flow by 60% (from $ 50 million to $ 80 million) at the park.
!
Aswath Damodaran! 319!
First Principles