REVIEWER

AFPOS: INFANTRY 
RANK: CORPORAL 

1. It involves military, paramilitary, political, economic, psychological and civic

actions taken by a government to defeat insurgency.

a. COIN Operations c. Psychological Operations

b. Public Affairs d. Civil Affairs

2. Its mission is “to close with the enemy by means of fire and maneuver, to
destroy or capture him or repel his assault by fire, close combat and counter attack”.

a. Final Service c. Infantry

b. Field Artillery d. Cavalry

3. Planned operations to convey selected information and indicators to targeted

audiences to influence their emotions, motives, objective reasoning and ultimately
the behavior of an organizations, groups and individuals.

a. COIN Operations c. Civil Affairs

b. Public Affairs d. Psychological Operations

4. It enhances the relationship between military forces and civilian authorities

and promotes favorable emotion, attitudes or behavior in neutral, friendly or hostile
group.

a. Public Affair c. Civil Affairs

b. Civil Military Operation d. Information Support

5. It involves detailed planning, reconnaissance and security patrols, positioning

forces in depth, improving terrain to favor the defender, wargaming plans, organizing
the force for movement and support, rehearsing and taking measures to protect the
force.

a. Disruption c. Preparation
b. Mass and Concentration d. Security

6. It involves conduct of OPs, patrols, camouflaging, destruction of enemy recon

and deception.

a. Disruption c. Preparation
b. Mass and Concentration d. Security

7. This is done by defeating or misleading enemy recon, separating enemy

resources, isolating enemy units, breaking-up his formations and interrupting enemy
Fire Support, CSS and C3.

a. Disruption c. Preparation
b. Mass and Concentration d. Security
8. To obtain an advantage at the decisive point, the defender economizes and
takes risks in some areas; retains and reconstitutes a reserve; and synchronize fires
at decisive place and time.

a. Flexibility c. Preparation
b. Mass and Concentration d. Security

9. This stems from detailed planning, organizing in depth and maintaining a

decisive reserve.

a. Flexibility c. Preparation
b. Mass and Concentration d. Security

10. It refers to any person in the military organization categorized as having been
declared dead, missing, captured, interned, wounded, injured or seriously ill.

a. Missing c. Casualty
b. Captured d. Prisoner of War

11. Is an emergency or temporary care given to a person who becomes suddenly ill or
injured before the services of the physician is obtained.

a. Self-Aid c. First Aider

b. First Aid d. Wound

12. A form of offense in which the attacker extends the destruction of the
defending force by maintaining offensive pressure.

a. Exploitation c. Envelopment
b. Pursuit d. Frontal Attack

13. An offensive maneuver in which the main action is directed against the front of
the enemy forces

a. Frontage c. Envelopment
b. Pursuit d. Frontal Attack

14. It is one of the five types of maneuver wherein a commander must find or
create an assailable flank by passing forces around one, both or over (vertical) the
sides of an enemy force, pitting his strength against the enemy's weakness.

a. Frontage c. Pursuit
b. Envelopment d. Frontal Attack

15. A type of maneuver executed by forces that move around both flanks of an
enemy position to attack the flanks or objectives in the rear of the enemy. The
enemy normally is fixed in position by a supporting frontal attack or by indirect or
aerial fires.

a. Frontage c. Pursuit
b. Double Envelopment d. Frontal Attack
16. An attack by part or all of a defending force against an enemy attacking force,
for such specific purposes as regaining ground lost, cutting off or destroying enemy
advance units with the general objective of denying the enemy of attaining of his
purpose in attacking.

a. Counter attack c. Double Envelopment

b. Frontal Attack d. Pursuit

17. It is an offensive operation against the retreating enemy forces. This simply
means running after the enemy.

a. Movement to Contact c. Exploitation

b. Pursuit d. Attack

18. It is a manner of striking the enemy at a time or place or in manner for which it
is not physically or mentally ready.

a. Surprise c. Audacity
b. Concentration d. Tempo

19. It is the rate of speed of military action.

c. Audacity c. Surprise
d. Concentration d. Tempo

20. It is a movement technique that is used when enemy contact is not likely
possible but speed is important.

a. Bouncing Overwatch c. Travelling

b. Bounding Overwatch d. Travelling Over watch

21. This type of defense allows the platoon to fight throughout a designated sector
(or area) by locating and dividing itself into small units in dispersed locations.It is a
technique that provides the most freedom of action to a unit.

a. Defense in Sector c. Defense from a Battle Position

b. Mobile d. Area Defense

22. Defense of an area or position in which maneuver is used with organization of

fire and utilization of terrain to seize the initiative from the enemy. It orients on the
destruction or defeat of the enemy through a decisive attack by the striking force.

a. Defense in Sector c. Defense from a Battle Position

b. Mobile d. Area Defense

23. The setting of mutually supporting defensepositions designed to absorb and

progressively weaken attack, to preventinitial observations of the whole position by
the enemy and to allow thecommander to maneuver his reserve.
 a. Defensive Operation c. Defense from a Battle Position
b. Defense in Sector d. Defense in Depth

24. An operation conducted with an immediate purpose of causing an enemy

attack to fail.

a. Defensive Operation c. Defense from a Battle Position

b. Defense in Sector d. Area Defense

25. Combat operations designed primarily to destroy the enemy. It may be

undertaken to secure key or decisive terrain, to deprive the enemy of resources or
decisive terrain, to deceive or divert the enemy, to develop intelligence and to hold
the enemy in position.

a. Offensive Operation c. Defense from a Battle Position

b. Defense in Sector d. Area Defense

26. A covert action where the perpetrators seize a person or group of persons
and may not make themselves known for some time.

a. Hostage Taking c. Seizure

b. Sabotage d. Kidnapping

27. It refers to persons, events or actions which the information about the enemy,
weather of terrain is derived.

a. Information c. Intelligence
b. Sources of information d. Collection Agency

28. It refers to unevaluated materials of every description that was derived from
observation, communication, reports, rumors, imagery and other source from which
intelligence is produced.

a. Information c. Source of information

b. Intelligence d. Collection Agency

29. The process of practicing a plan before actual execution. It assist units in
clarifying the scheme of maneuver, synchronizing the battlefield operating systems,
orienting subordinates to the positions and actions of other units, and practicing any
possible branches and sequels from the decision support matrix.It is being
conducted to help a unit gain agility, ensure synchronization, increase initiative and
improve the depth of a force.

a. Brief backs c. First Brief backs

b. Rehearsals d. Second Brief backs

30. What is the 3rdstep in Troop Leading Procedure?

a. Complete Plan c. Conduct Reconnaissance

b. Make a Tentative Plan d. Initiate Movement
31. What is the 5th step in Troop Leading Procedure

a. Complete Plan c. Conduct Reconnaissance

b. Make a Tentative Plan d. Reconnoiter

32. A directive issued by a commander to subordinate commanders for the

purpose of affecting the coordinated execution of an operation. It is also called the
five (5) paragraph field order, it contains a minimum description of the task
organization, situation, mission, execution, administrative and logistics support and
command and signal for the specified operation.

a. Fragmentary Orders (FRAGO) c. Orders

b. Warning Orders d. Operation Orders (OPORD)

33. A preliminary notice issued in an oral or written form to give subordinates time
to make necessary plans and preparation.

a. Warning Order c. Initiate Movement

b. Issue Order d. Make tentative plan

34. It is the daily history record of the unit that indicates the status of personnel.

a. Disposition Form c. Disposition of Troops

b. Morning Report d. Report of Changes

35. A directive issued by a higher unit in order to effect the coordinated execution
of a specific operation.

a. Logistics c. Warning
b. Personnel d. Operation

36. A psychological condition that should be overcome and eliminated through

proper training and briefing in order to survive.

a. Fear of discomfort c. Fear of the unknown

b. Fear of people d. Fear of training

37. Is a predetermined point on the ground used as a means of coordinating

friendly movement.

a. start point c. release point

b. checkpoint d. contact point

38. Overlay showing the location, size and scheme of maneuver and fires of
friendly forces involved in an operation. As an exception, it may indicate predicted
movements and locations of enemy forces.

a. Operation Overlay c. GESCON Techniques

b. Military Symbols d. Marginal Information
39. It is the position between the line of departure and the objective from which
forces assault the objective.

a. Assault Position (AP) c. Probable Line of Deployment

b. Zone of Attack d. Battle Position (BP)

40. In Overlay Techniques,it is a defensive location oriented on the most likely

enemy avenue of approach from which a unit may defend or attack.

a. Assault Position (AP) c. Battle Position (BP)

b. Zone of Attack d. Probable Line of Deployment

41. One of the oldest and the most secured means of communications that is
available in all units.

a. Satellite Phones c. Radio

b. Wire d. Trained animals

42. In principles of the Signal Communication, it is the principle that provides the
commander or a superior of higher unit is responsible for the installation, operation
and maintenance of signal communication to subordinates or lower units.

a. Superior to Subordinate c. Lateral Communication

b. Supporting to Supported d. Internal Communication

43. A battlefield operating system that preserves the freedom of maneuver of

friendly forces (includes breaching enemy obstacles, increasing battlefield
circulation, and improving existing routes) and protects them from the effects of
enemy weapon systems and from natural occurrences (includes hardening of
facilities and fortification of battle positions).

a. Topographic Engineering c. Mobility Survivability

b. Survivability d. Counter-mobility

44. In Engineer Combat Support, it is the support measures/activities undertaken

to delay, impede enemy movement.

a. Topographic Engineering c. Counter-mobility

b. Sustainment Engineering d. Survivability

45. What is the effective range of M16A1 rifle?

a. 360 meters c. 380 meters

b. 460 meters d. 160 meters

46. What is the Maximum Range of M16A1 rifle?

a. 1,260 meters c. 360 meters

b. 460 meters d. 2,653 mtrs
47. The maximum range of 40mm M203 in meters.

a. 350 c. 500
b. 400 d. 530

48. It is the proper alignment of the front sight, rear sight and the firer’s eye on the
target.

a. Trigger squeeze c. Aiming

b. Breath control d. Steady position

49. It refers to the pulling of the trigger and releasing of the hammer to strike the
firing pin which strikes the primer. The primer ignites and in turn ignites the powder
charge within the cartridge case.

a. Feeding c. Cocking
b. Firing d. Chambering

50. A firing activity with an empty chamber assimilating that a live bullet would be
fired.
a. Live Fire c. Dry Fire
b. Control d. Trigger Squeeze

51. What is the organic indirect fire weapon of the Infantry Battalion?

a. 60mm Mortar c. 81mm Mortar

b. M66 LMAW d. M60 GPMG

52. What is the organic indirect fire weapon of the Infantry Company?

a. M60 GPMG b. 81mm Mortar

c. M66 LMAW d. 60mm Mortar

53. How many squad automatic weapons (SAW) are there in an infantry squad?

a. One c. Four
b. Three d. Two

54. It is the protection from the enemies’ hostile fire, it could be natural and
artificial.

a. Cover c. Camouflaging
b. Concealment d. Blending

55. It is a measure you take to conceal yourself, equipment and position from the
enemy observation.

a. Cover c. Concealment
b. Camouflaging d. Camouflage
56. It consists of two words comprising of a challenge and a password to aid
guards in their scrutinyof persons who pass.

a. Challenge c. Countersign
b. Password d. Reply

57. The basic requirement for Field Fortification, which should be provided
against hazards to obtain maximum protection. Excavation should be as small as
possible.

a. Employment of Weapons c. Simplicity and Economy

b. Protection d. Improve the use of fortifications

58. The following are some of the considerations in the selection and occupation
of a Bivouac area EXCEPT one:

a. Good road nets

b. Large enough to permit dispersion of entire unit
c. Low ground
d. Nearto the route of march

59. A type of ambush that supports only one killing zone and the passage point of
the enemy is identified.

a. Near c. Point
b. Far d. Area

60. Classification of ambush where the attacking force is located within the
assaulting distance whose intent is to destroy the equipment and personnel of the
enemy.

a. Near Ambush c. Far Ambush

b. Area Ambush d. Point Ambush

61. Is one of the combat patrol mission that is characterized as a surprise attack
from a concealed position on a moving or temporarily halted target.

a. Ambush b. Raid c. Attack

62. It provides clearer picture of the enemy and to the troops on what they are
going to do in the Battlefield before the conduct of raid.

a.Crossing of LD/LC to ORP c. Movement to AA

b. Conduct Briefing d. Checking of Equipment & Personnel

63. It is conducted to gather information or to destroy the enemy.

a. Patrol c. March
b. Bivouac d. Reconnaissance Patrol
64. A method of moving troops from one place to another when transportation is
not available and distance to be covered is relatively short.

a. Death March c. Long March

b. Forward March d. Foot March

65. The senior Enlisted Leader that assists the Company Commander on matters
affecting the personnel, discipline, morale and welfare and operation of the unit.

a. Team Sergeant c. First Sergeant

b. Platoon Sergeant d. Team Leader

66. He is responsible for all that the infantry squad does or fails to do.

a. Platoon Leader c. Team Sergeant

b. Squad Leader d. Team Leader

67. He is a fighting leader who leads by personal example and helps the squad
leader as required.

a. Platoon Leader c. Team Sergeant

b. Squad Leader d. Team Leader

68. He is responsible in providing sustained automatic fire for the squad and
secures the flank area of the squad during movements and halts.

a. Rifleman c. Automatic Rifleman

b. Team Leader d. Grenadier

69. He is responsible for the food supply and medical requirements of the team.
He monitors the health and hygiene of the team and administers first aid and combat
lifesavers for the team.

a. Rifleman c. Automatic Rifleman

b. Grenadier d. Team Leader

70. A member of the team that provides grenade capability for maximum
firepower and secures the flank area during movements and halts.

a. Automatic Rifleman c. Team Leader

b. Rifleman d. Grenadier

-GOOD LUCK-
 
 REVIEWER

AFPOS: Infantry
Rank: SERGEANT

1. Is a method or a scheme for a military action. It is a proposal to carry out a

command decision or project.

a. Plan c. Frag-O
b. Order d. Operational Plan

2. _____are written or oral communications that convey information governing

action.
a. Order c. Combat Plans and Orders
b. Plan d. Operations Plan

3. It is a plan used in accomplishing the different missions and anticipated major

events before, during, and after operations.

a. Concept c. Contingency
b. Campaign d. Implementing Plan

4. A directive issued by competent military authorities which delineates the

circumstances and limitations during combat engagement.

a. Marching Order c. Rules of Evidence

b. Order of Battle d. Rules of Engagement

5. A complex set of activities embracing socio-cultural, political and economic

dimension in order to influence the behavior, feeling and attitudes of the people.

a. Civil-Military Operations c. ISA

b. Public Affairs d. CA

6. A politico-military geographic unit of the CPP/NPA that consists of a political

organization consisting of a front committee, districts, sections and barrio organizing
committees.

a. Guerilla Base c. Legal Front

b. Guerilla Front d. Mass Base

7. Any form of communication designed to influence the opinions, emotions,

attitudes or behavior of any group either directly or indirectly.

a. Counter Psyops c. Propaganda

b. Information Support d. Deed Psyops
8. It is a psychological condition to overcome in order to survive and can only be
eliminated by proper training and briefing.

a. Fear of the unknown c. Fear of your own weakness

b. Fear of discomfort d. Fear of people

9. It is a command given to any unit or individual firing any weapon to stop

engaging the target.

a. Volume Fire c. Cease Fire

b. Lift Fire d. Shift Fire

10. An NCO that assists the Company Commander on matters affecting the
personnel, discipline, morale and welfare and operation of the unit.

a. Platoon Sergeant c. First Sergeant

b. Team Leader d. Team Sergeant

11. The infantry squad has 9 members and consists of how many fire teams?

a. 4 c. 3
b. 1 d. 2

12. An NCO that is responsible for what the squad does or fails to do.

a. Squad Leader c. Team Leader

b.Platoon Leader d. Team Sergeant

13. A fighting leader that leads by personal example and helps the squad leader
as required.

a. Team Sergeant c. Fire Team Leader

b. Squad Leader d. Platoon Leader

14. In Tenets of Army Operations, which fundamental of operations mentions that

initiative is never allowing the enemy to recover from the initial shock of attack?

a. In the Offense c. In Battle

b. In the Defense d. In Operations other than War

15. In Tenets of Army Operations, what type of initiative implies, quickly turning
the tables against the attacker?

a. In the Offense c. In Battle

b. In the Defense d. In Operations other than War

16. The ability to mass effect the enemy without massing large formation.

a. Concentration c. Tempo
b. Surprise d. Audacity
17. It is the willingness to take risk by doing bold actionsto achieve positive
results. A leader’s decision, although quick are based ona reasoned approach to the
tactical situation and on his knowledge of hissoldiers, enemy and the terrain.

a. Concentration c. Audacity
b. Tempo d. Surprise

18. It is the rate of speed of military action; it is adjusted to ensure

synchronization.

a. Concentration c. Audacity
b. Tempo d. Surprise

19. It is a manner of striking the enemy at a time or place or in manner for which it
is not physically or mentally ready.

a. Surprise c. Audacity
b. Concentration d. Tempo

20. It is the offensive operation against the retreating enemy forces. This simply
means running after the enemy.

a. Movement to Contact c. Exploitation

b. Attack d. Pursuit

21. It is a form of tactical offense that conducted to gain or reestablish contact with
the enemy.

a. Attack c. Movement to Contact

b. Exploitation d. Pursuit

22. It is a form of tactical offense where the attacker extends the destruction of
the defending force by maintaining offensive pressure.

a. Movement to Contact c. Exploitation

b. Attack d. Pursuit

23. It is another form of attack that conducted after enemy launches his attack to
destroy enemy main effort or attack enemy assailable flank.

a. Attack c. Raid
b. Counter Attack d. Pursuit

24. The following are some of the capabilities of an Infantry Squad EXCEPT—

b. Seize and hold terrain

c. Maneuver in all types of local weather and terrain
d. Provide a base of fire and maneuver
e. Perform operations under limited visibility
25. Those actions, including area damage control, taken by all units (combat,
combat support and combat service support), singly or in a combined effort to secure
the force, neutralize or defeat enemy operations in the rear area and ensure freedom
of action in the deep and close operations.

a. Deep Operations
b. Reconnaissance and Security Operations
c. Close Operations/Defensive Operations in MBA
d. Rear Operations

26. It is a technique that refers to a general location and orientation of forces on

the ground from where units defend.

a. Mass and Concentration c. Defense from a Battle Position

b. Defense in Sector d. Perimeter Defense

27. It is the use of topographical crest to mask from attacker’s observation and
direct fires.

a. Battle Position c. Strong Point

b. Linear Defense d. Reverse Slope

28. A key point in a defensive position, usually strongly fortified and heavily armed
with automatic weapons around which other positions are grouped for its protection.

a. Battle Position c. Strong Point

b. Linear Defense d. Reverse Slope

29. All military actions planned and conducted on a topographical complex and its
adjacentnatural terrain where man-made construction is the dominant feature. It
includes combat-in-cities, involving house-to house and street-by-street fighting in
towns and cities.

a. River Crossing c. Limited Visibility

b. MOUT d. Recon & Selection of Delay Positions

30. The task is to provide close and immediate fire support to maneuver units in
the Infantry Battalion (Light).

a. Recon Platoon c. Anti-armor Platoon

b. Scout Platoon d. Mortar Platoon

31. It is an indirect fire organic to an Infantry Battalion (Light).

a. 81mm Mortar c. 90RR

b. 60mm Mortar d. 57RR
32. In the Fundamental Concept of Organization for Combat in Armor Operations,
it is a combined arms team formed around a company.

a. Battalion Task Force (TF) c. Brigade Task Force (TF)

b. Company Team d. Advanced Command Post (ACP)

33. In Armor Operations, it is complimented by mobility which enables a

commander to concentrate and to switch fire power on the battlefield.

a. Firepower c. Mobility
b. Flexibility d. Shock Action

34. In Armor Operations, it is the effect of the tanks which depends on surprise
achieved by speed and mobility.

a. Firepower c. Mobility
b. Flexibility d. Shock Action

35. In fundamentals of fire support, these are fires that engage enemy troops,
weapons, or position that are threatening or can threaten the force in either the
attack of defense.

a. Close Support Fires c. Interdiction Fires

b. Counter Fires d. Close/Counter Fires

36. What is the approximate maximum range of 105-mm Howitzer M101A1 is?

a. approx 11,000 meters c. approx 9,000 meters

b. approx 12,000 meters d. approx 13,000 meters

37. In Fundamentals of Fire Support, it is consists of Hqs & Hqs Btry and three (3)
Firing Batteries.

a. Field Artillery Battery c. Field Artillery Battalion

b. Field Artillery Company d. Field Artillery Regiment

38. These are gunfire delivered on objectives not in the immediate vicinity of own
forces (within 600 yards of friendly troops) to further their current and future efforts in
that vicinity or to reduce the effectiveness of the enemy in that area.

a. Close Supporting Fire c. Harassing Fire

b. Deep Supporting Fire d. Interdiction Fire

39. These are sporadic gunfire delivered during otherwise quiet periods to prevent
enemy rest, recuperation or movement.

a. Close Supporting Fire c. Harassing Fire

b. Deep Supporting Fire d. Interdiction Fire
40. It is a type of aerial method of adjustment used if the Forward Air Guide is
unable to observe the point of impact.

a. Preplanned Request c. IMPACT (Observe)

b. IMPACT (Sound) d. Hand & Arm Signal

41. In Close air support operations, it is the mode of air movement of personnel
and cargo by aircraft available to the unified commander.

a. Forward Air Guide c. Close Air Support

b. Tactical Air Reconnaissance d. Tactical Aircraft

42. The availability of Close Air Support (CAS) to the maneuver unit offers the
commander an extremely effective means to project combat power beyond the range
of direct fire weapon systems.

a. True b. False

43. The method of guiding the aircraft towards its designated Landing Zone.

a. De-Piloting c. Marshalling
b. Ground Control d. Diverting

44. This step gets the planning and preparation process underway by enabling
the leader to prepare and issue a Warning Order as quickly as possible.

a. Receive the mission c. Issue the Order

b. Issue Warning Order d. Complete Plan

45. What is the last step in Troop Leading Procedure?

a. Complete Plan c. Issue Warning Order

b. Issue the Order d. Supervise

46. The third step in Troop Leading Procedure is?

a. Receive the Mission c. Issue Warning Order

b. Conduct Reconnaissance d. Make Tentative Plan

47. It is the authority that a commander in the military service lawfully exercises
over subordinates by virtue of his rank or assignment.

a.Control c. Command
b.Management d. Command and Control

48. It is considered as the best means of communication used in guiding an

aircraft.

a. Tweeter c. Radio
b. Cellular Phone d. Beeper
49. An abbreviated form of an operation order used to make changes in missions
to units and to inform them of changes in the tactical situation.

a. Administrative/Logistics c. Verbal
b. Fragmentary Order d. Warning

50. A plan for major contingencies that can reasonably be anticipated in the
principal geographic sub-areas of the command.

a. Concept plan c. Contingency plan

b. Campaign plan d. Implementing plan

51. An abbreviated plan, or outline for an operation that requires considerable

expansion or alteration to convert it into an OPLAN or OPORD

a. Concept plan c. Contingency plan

c. Campaign plan d. Implementing plan

52. Based on the handouts, the commanders should consider the following factors
in planning for and conducting a relief in place operation.

a. AGADAP c. METT-TC
b. MDMP d. OAKOC

53. It is made of assembled maps, templates, prescribed icons and symbols used
for counter insurgency.

a. GESCON c. Intel Estimate

b. Intelligence Report d. Military Symbols

54. It is a short paragraph normally part of an operation order that states the task
and purpose of the operation to be conducted.

a. Mission Statement c. Concept of Operation

b. Mission Analysis d. Terrain Analysis

55. It is the end product resulting from the evaluation, analysis, integration and
interpretation of information.

a. Operation c. Tactics
b. Intersection d. Intelligence

56. In Internal Security Operations, it sought to restrict the enemy of its

movements by stopping, holding, or surrounding its forces.

a. Hold c. Contain
b. Clear d. Develop
57. It is a systematic and continuous process that helps the commander in
analyzing the threat and environment that define the battlefield.

a. Area of Interest
b. Area of Operation
c. Intelligence Preparation of the Battlefield
d. GESCON

58. A geographical area where the commander is assigned the responsibility and
authority to accomplish his mission.

a. Area of Operation c. Area of Influence

b. Area of Interest d. Area of Responsibility

59. A geographical area from which information and intelligence are required to
permit planning or successful conduct of the command’s operation.

a. Area of Operation c. Area of Responsibility

b. Area of Interest d. Area of Influence

60. An area along an enemy avenue of approach where the commander intends
to destroy an enemy force using all available firepower.

a. Danger Area c. Engagement Area

b. Phase line d. Limit of Advance

61. A detachment sent out for the purpose of gathering information or carrying out
a destructive, harassing, mopping-up or security mission.

a. Reconnaissance c. Patrol
b. Peace Development Team d. Special Operation Team

62. It is the meeting of two or more units in enemy-controlled areas to consolidate

forces, for coordination, or for resupply.

a. Consolidation c. Meeting Engagement

b. Link up operation d. Passage of Line

63. It is a type of patrol purposely conducted to gather information.

a. Reconnaissance c. Combat
b. Bivouac d. Combat Operation

64. It is the collection, analysis, evaluation, and interpretation of geographic

information on the natural and man-made features to predict the effect of military
operations.

a. Intelligence Analysis c. Mission Analysis

b. Weather Analysis d. Terrain Analysis
65. It is a predetermined point on the ground used as a means of coordinating
friendly movement.

a. start point c. release point

b. contact point d. checkpoint

66. It is a tracing on translucent paper graphics from a situation map representing

the situation at the time the overlay was made.

a. Marginal Information c. GESCON Techniques

b. Military Symbols d. Operation Overlay

67. It is the position between the line of departure and the objective from which
forces assault the objective.

a. Assault Position (AP) c. Probable Line of Deployment

b. Zone of Attack d. Battle Position (BP)

68. A type of ambush conducted that support only one killing zone where there is
only one or identified passage point of the enemy.

a. Near c. Area
b. Far d. Point

69. A type of ambush where the attacking force is located within the assaulting
distance from an enemy force.

a. Far c. Point
b. Near d. Area

70. is any locality or area, the seizure or retention of which affords a

marked advantage to either combatant.

a. Decisive Terrain b. Restricted Terrain

c. Key Terrain d. Severely Restricted Terrain

-GOOD LUCK-
 REVIEWER
AFPOS: Infantry       
Rank: STAFF SERGEANT 
 
1. It is an organized armed rebellion that aims to seize power from a government
and to change the socio political- economic system of the country.

a. Escape and Evasion c. Insurgency

b. Sabotage d. Intelligence

2. A directive issued by competent military authority which delineates the

circumstances and limitations during combat engagement.

a. Marching Order c. Rules of Engagement

b. Order of Battle d. Rules of Evidence

3. It is a collection of principles that guides war fighting at the strategic,

operational, and tactical levels as enduring bedrock of military doctrine

a. Strategic Principle c. Principle of Economy

b. Principles of War d. Principle of Understanding

4. It is a military and police operation aimed to suppress insurgency and other

serious threats to national security.

a. Combined Operations c. Internal Security Operations

b. Security Threat d. Tactical Offensive

5. It is a covert operation conducted by government agencies to assure secrecy

or concealment.

a. Clandestine c. Tactical
b. Overt d. Demonstration

6. It is an act meant to injure, interfere, or obstruct the defense by willfully

destroying war and national defense material, premises, human and natural
resources.

a. Insurgency c. Intelligence
b. Escape and Evasion d. Sabotage

7. A detained person who has been captured by the enemy during war.

a. Hostage c. Custody
b. Prisoner of War d. Prison of the state

8. A unit train that provides immediate response to the needs of forward tactical
elements consisting of medical recovery, supply, and maintenance.
 a. Combat c. Company
b. Brigade d. Battalion Combat

9. This type of attack is a fully synchronized operation that employs the effects of
every available asset against the enemy defense and is synchronization requires
careful planning and extensive coordination.

a. Hasty Attack c. SpoilingAttack

b. Deliberate Attack d. Attack by Fire

10. It is classified as rapid, fairly accurate gunfire delivered for the purpose of
hampering, interrupting, or preventing enemy fire, movement or action.

a. Destruction c. Direct Fire

b. Harassing Fires d. Neutralization

11. A form of offense which the attacker extends the destruction of the defending
force by maintaining offensive pressure.

a. Exploitation c. envelopment
b. Pursuit d. Frontal Attack

12. Used when enemy flanks are not assailable.

a. Penetration c. Turning Movement

b. Frontal Attack d. Infiltration

13. It is a form of maneuver wherein the attacking unit fixes the enemy’s attention
forward and maneuvers his main effort towards the enemy’s flanks or rear.

a. Infiltration c. Penetration
b. Envelopment d. Turning movement

14. Conducted by smaller maneuver units to destroy threat, protect the force,
collect information, deny area to the threat and usually conducted on a close terrain
unsuitable for mounted troops.

a. Recon in Force c. Raid

b. Patrols d. Search and Attack

15. Other forms of attack that deliberately exposing false info to obtain advantage.

a. Feint c. Demonstration
b. Ruses d. Deception

16. It is a meeting of friendly ground forces that occurs in enemy controlled areas.

a. Eyeball Operation c. Link-up Operations

b. Linking Operation d. Relief-in-Place Operation
17. It is a part of offensive framework that receives the essential combat and
combat support assets to ensure its success.

a. Main Attack c. Reserve operations

b. Deep operations d. Supporting Attack

18. An operation by which a unit replaces another unit and assumes the relieved
unit's responsibilities.

a. First Relief c. Retrograde in Place

b. Link up in place d. Relief in Place

19. When a unit moving toward the enemy and passes through the stationary
units or friendly units it is called?

a. Forward passes c. Rearward passage

b. Forward passage of Lines d. Downward passage

20. A line which indicates the most forward positions of friendly forces in any kind
of military operation at a specific time.

a. Engagement Area c. Forward Edge of the Battle Area

b. Main Battle Area d. Forward Line of Own Troops

21. It is an operation in which unit passes through the lines or lanes of another
unit.
a. Breakout from encirclement c. Passage of lines
b. Linkup Operations d. none of the above

22. When a unit is moving away from the enemy and passes through the
stationary unit or friendly units it is called?

a. Forward passes c. Rearward passage

b. Forward passage d. Downward passage

23. Operations conducted with an immediate purpose of causing an enemy

attack to fail.

a. Offensive Operations c. Disaster Operations

b. Defensive Operations d. Police Operations

24. The following are the purposes of defensive operations EXCEPT –

a. Defeat an enemy attack

b. Buy time for other operations
c. Defeat, destroy or neutralize enemy forces
d. Hold key terrain
25. A key point in a defensive position, usually strongly fortified and heavily armed
with automatic weapons around which other positions are grouped for its protection.

a. Contact point c. Strongpoint

b. Checkpoint d. Chokepoint

26. A defensive position occupied to deny the enemy access to a given area or to
prevent his advance in a given direction.

a. Blocking Position c. Avenue of Approach

b. Base of fire d. Sector of Fire

27. Which of the following is a type of offensive operation?

a. Envelopment c. Frontal Attack

b. Penetration d. Hasty Attack

28. It involves detailed planning, reconnaissance and security patrols, positioning

forces in depth, improving terrain to favor the defender, wargaming plans, organizing
the force for movement and support, rehearsing, and taking measures to protect the
force.
a. Disruption c. Preparation
b. Mass and Concentration d. Security

29. It involves conduct of OPs, patrols, camouflaging, destruction of enemy recon

and deception.

a. Disruption c. Preparation
b. Mass and Concentration d. Security

30. This is done by defeating or misleading enemy recon, separating enemy

resources, isolating enemy units, breaking-up his formations and interrupting enemy
Fire Support, CSS and C3.

a. Disruption c. Preparation
b. Mass and Concentration d. Security

31. To obtain an advantage at the decisive point, the defender economizes and
takes risks in some areas; retains and reconstitutes a reserve; and synchronize fires
at decisive place and time.

a. Flexibility c. Preparation
b. Mass and Concentration d. Security

32. This stems from detailed planning, organizing in depth, and maintaining a
decisive reserve.

a. Flexibility c. Preparation
b. Mass and Concentration d. Security

33. It is a defensive technique done when defense is not tied with adjacent units.
It is a defense without an exposed flank.
 a. Defense in Sector c. Perimeter defense
b. Defense from a Reverse Slope d. None of the Above

34. An imitation of a person, an object, and or a phenomenon intended to deceive

enemy surveillance devices or mislead enemy evaluation.

a. Cover c. Decoy
b. Fortification d. Protection

35. Employed to disrupt enemy formations, turn them into a desired area, fix them
in position under direct and indirect fires, or block their penetration while multiplying
the effects and capabilities of firepower.

a. Protective obstacle c. Tactical obstacle

b. Situational obstacle d. Reserve obstacle

36. This was employed in multiple locations and at various times can confuse the
enemy on the specific location and timing of breaching operations

a. Suppress c. Obscure
b. Reduce d. Assault

37. A breaching operation is complete when the attacking force has strike through
the obstacle, seized the farside objective and eliminated enemy direct and observed
indirect fires on the reduction area; and battle handover (if planned) with follow-on
forces has occurred.

a. Suppress c. Obscure
b. Secure d. Assault

38. Total elimination or neutralization of an obstacle or a portion of the obstacle.

Clearing operations are not conducted under fire and are usually performed by
follow-on engineer forces.

a. Breach c. Redundancy
b. Clear d. Reduce

39. It is a combined arms force that creates and marks lane while using his own
suppression and obscuration.

a. Assault force c. Security force

b. Breach force d. Reduction force

40. A systematic continuous process of analyzing the threat and the environment.

a. Intelligence Preparation of the Battlefield

b. Intelligent Preparation of the Battlefield
c. GESCON
d. All of the above
41. First Step of IPB:

a. Determine Threat Courses of Actions (COAs)

b. Define the Battlefield Environment
c. Evaluate the Threat
d. Describe Battlefield Effects

42. An area in which the commander intends to trap and destroy an enemy force
with the massed fires of all available weapons.

a. Forward Edge of the Battle Area c. Forward Line of Own Troops

b. Main Battle Area d. Engagement Area

43. Where the commander is given authority and responsibility to conduct Military
operations, assigned by Higher Hqs based on METT-TC and defined by boundaries.

a. Area of Operations (AO) c. Area of Interest (AI)

b. Battle Space d. Battlefield

44. It is a brief overview of the operation order that describes the enemy and
friendly forces in the area of operations.

a. Scheme of Maneuver c. Situation

b. Task Organization d. Task to Combat Units

45. METT-TC is a planning consideration that stands for:

a. Mission, Enemy, Terrain and Weather, Time and Civilian

b. Mission, Evacuation, Troops, Time and Casualty
a. Mission, Enemy, Terrain, Troops, Time Available and Civil
Considerations
c. Mission, Education, Time, and Combat Operation

46. Geographic area that includes any threat forces or characteristics of the
battlefield that will significantly influence the AO and the mission.

a. Area of Operations c. Area of Interest

b. Battle Space d. Battlefield

47. An air or ground route of an attacking force of a given size leading to its
objective or to key terrain in its path.

a. Avenues of Approach c. Avenues of Advance

b. Mobility Corridor d. Axis of Advance

48. Terrain whose seizure or control affords a marked advantage to either side.

a. Key Terrain c. High Terrain

 b. Hilly Terrain d. Rolling Terrain

49. A topographical crest used to mask a force from the attacker’s observation
and direct fires.

a. Reverse Slope c. Strong Point

b. Linear Defense d. Battle Position

50. A system of practical beliefs developed by the characteristics of a group

whose members have common political, economic, cultural or religious bond.

a. Leadership c. Ideology
b. Cadre d. Communist member

51. In Combating Terrorism, _______ is a type of objective wherein the objective

of terrorist acts is to provoke overreaction on the part of government forces.

a. Recognition c. Intimidation
b. Provocation d. Coercion

52. In the Fundamental Concept of Organization for Combat in Armor Operations,

it is a combined arms team formed around a company.

a. Battalion Task Force (TF) c. Company Team

b. Brigade Task Force (TF) d. Advanced Command Post (ACP)

53. A unit that provides close and immediate indirect fire support to maneuver
units of the Infantry Battalion (Light).

a. Recon Platoon c. Mortar Platoon

b. Anti-armor Platoon d. Scout Platoon

54. It is the reconnaissance and security element of the Infantry Battalion (Light).
a. Mortar Platoon c. Anti-armor Platoon
b. Scout Platoon d. Armor Platoon

55. In Fundamentals of Fire Support, consists of Hqs&HqsBtry and three (3)

Firing Batteries.

a. Field Artillery Battalion c. Field Artillery Battery

b. Field Artillery Company d. Field Artillery Regiment

56. It is the approximate maximum range of 105-mm Howitzer M101A1 in meters.

a. 9,000 c. 12,000
b. 10,000 d. 11,000

57. In IPB, the G2/S2 prepares intelligence estimate. What is paragraph 3 of the
Intelligence estimate?
 a. Enemy Situation c. Mission
b. Enemy capabilities d. Area of Operations

58. In GESCON, it depicts roadnets, observation and fields of fire, cover and
concealment, obstacles, key terrain and avenues of approach and withdrawals?

a. Terrain and Weather Template c. Events Template

b. Opposing Forces Template d. Economic Template

59. In GESCON, it depicts insurgents violent and non-violent activities?

a. Events Template c. Opposing Forces Template

b. Terrain and Weather Template d. Economic Template

60. The last step in Troop Leading Procedure.

a. Complete Plan c. Supervise and refine

b. Issue the Order d. Issue Warning Order

61. It is a plan for the conduct of military operations in response to actual and
potential contingencies that becomes an order upon its execution.

a. Tactical c. Operation
b. Strategic d. Campaign

62. In Combat Plans and Orders, ____is a plan that covers a single operation or a
series of connected operations to be carried out simultaneously or in succession.

a. Campaign Plan c. Operation Plan (OPLAN)

b. Operation Order OPORD) b. Mobilization Plan

63. It is a clear and concise statement of a Commander why an operation is being

conducted and what he hopes to achieve.

a. Scheme of Maneuver c. Tasks to Maneuver Units

b. Command and Control d. Commander's Intent

64. A control measure that controls the movement of forces and preventing them
from engaging one another.

a. Checkpoint c. Phase Line

b. Control point d. Link-up Point

65. In Overlay Techniques, ___is a clearly defined control point on a route at

which specific elements of a column of ground vehicles or flight aircraft revert to their
respective commanders.

a. Start Point c. Contact Point

b. Release Point d. Checkpoint
66. A specifically designated place where units are expected to pass through one
another either in the advance or in the withdrawal.

c. Final Coordination Line c. Passage Point Passage Point

d. Limit of Advance d. Passage Line

67. In Overlay Techniques, ______ is a designated, easily identifiable point on the

terrain where two or more units are required to physically meet.

a. Start Point c. Contact Point

b. Release Point d. Checkpoint

68. In Bn/Bde CSS, principle of _______suggests that a simple plan, organization

and system is more likely to work well than a complicated plan, organization and
system.

a. Focused Support c. Reliability

b. Timeless d. Simplicity

69. It is the willingness to take risk by doing bold actions to achieve positive
results.

a. Audacity c. Leadership
b. Initiative d. Discipline

70. A member of the squad responsible for food supply and medical requirements
of the team.

a. Team Leader c. Squad Leader

b. Grenadier d. Rifleman

-GOOD LUCK-
 REVIEWER
AFPOS: Infantry
Rank: Technical Sergeant

1. A unit train that provides immediate response to the needs of forward tactical
elements consist of medical recovery, supply, and maintenance.

a. Company c. Battalion Combat `

b. Brigade d. Combat

2. The following are the levels of war EXCEPT—

a. Strategic c. Regional
b. Tactical d. Operational

3. It is the collection, analysis, evaluation, and interpretation of geographic

information on the natural and man-made features to predict the effect of terrain on
military operations.

a. Terrain Analysis c. Area Analysis

b. Weather Analysis d. Situation Analysis

4. A directive issued by competent military authorities which delineates the

circumstances and limitations during combat engagement.

a. Order of Battle c. Rules of Engagement

b. Rules of Evidence d. Marching Order

5. Operations conducted with an immediate purpose of causing an enemy attack

to fail.

a. Offensive Operations c. Disaster Operations

b. Defensive Operations d. Police Operations

6. It involves detailed planning, reconnaissance and security patrols, positioning

forces in depth, improving terrain to favor the defender, wargaming plans, organizing
the force for movement and support, rehearsing, and taking measures to protect the
force.

a. Disruption c. Preparation
b. Mass and Concentration d. Security

7. A principle of war that capitalize the initiative, employing fire and movement,
and sustaining freedom of maneuver and action while causing an enemy to be
reactive.

a. Offensive c. Mass
b. Objective d. Economy of Force

8. It is considered the flexibility of a commander during operations.

 a. Reserve c. Supporting Effort
b. Reconnaissance d. Main Effort

9. This is done by defeating or misleading enemy recon, separating enemy

resources, isolating enemy units, breaking-up his formations and interrupting enemy
Fire Support, CSS and C3.

a. Disruption c. Preparation
b. Mass and Concentration d. Security

10. It is the relative speed and rhythm of military operations over time with respect
to the enemy or situation.

a. Time c. Audacity
b. Initiative d. Tempo

11. It is the willingness to take risk by doing bold actions to achieve positive
results.

a. Audacity c. Leadership
b. Initiative d. Discipline

12. A principle of war characterized by ensuring one responsible commander for

every objective towards a common goal.

a. Simplicity c. Economy of Force

b. Security d. Unity of Command

13. To obtain an advantage at the decisive point, the defender economizes and
takes risks in some areas; retains and reconstitutes a reserve; and synchronize fires
at decisive place and time.

a. Flexibility c. Preparation
b. Mass and Concentration d. Security

14. This stems from detailed planning, organizing in depth, and maintaining a
decisive reserve.

a. Flexibility c. Preparation
b. Mass and Concentration d. Security

15. It is a defensive technique done when defense is not tied with adjacent units.
It is a defense without an exposed flank.

a. Defense in Sector c. Perimeter defense

b. Defense from a Reverse Slope d. None of the Above

16. defensive techniques, it is a technique that provides the most freedom of

action to a unit.

a. Mass and Concentration c. Defense from a Battle Position

 b. Defense in Sector d. Perimeter Defense

17. It is a technique that refers to a general location and orientation of forces on

the ground from where units defend.

a. Mass and Concentration c. Defense from a Battle Position

b. Defense in Sector d. Perimeter Defense

18. Employed to disrupt enemy formations, turn them into a desired area, fix them
in position under direct and indirect fires, or block their penetration while multiplying
the effects and capabilities of firepower.

a. Protective obstacle c. Tactical obstacle

b. Situational obstacle d. Reserve obstacle

19. Total elimination or neutralization of an obstacle or a portion of the obstacle.

Clearing operations are not conducted under fire and are usually performed by
follow-on engineer forces.

a. Breach c.Redundancy
b. Clear d.Reduce

20. It is a combined arms force that creates and marks lane while using his own
suppression and obscuration.

a. Assault force c.Security force

b. Breach force d.Reduction force

21. It is an area occupied by the unit to prepare for future operations.

a. Assembly Area c. Objective

b. Passage Point d. Rally Point

22. A type of attack used as a deception intended to draw the enemy's attention
away from the area of the main attack that requires contact with the enemy.

a. Frontal c. Feint
b. Demonstration d. Counterattack

23. The following are types of retrograde operations EXCEPT:

a. Withdrawal c. Retirement
b. Extricate d. Delay

24. It is an action of individuals who are isolated in a hostile or unfriendly territory

to avoid capture with the goal of successfully returning to areas under friendly
control.

a. Intelligence c. Insurgency
b. Escape and Evasion d. Sabotage
25. It is a covert operation conducted by government agencies to assure secrecy
or concealment.

a. Tactical c. Demonstration
b. Overt d. Clandestine

26. It is an act with intent to injure, interfere, or obstruct the national defense of a
nation by willfully destroying any national defense or war material, premises, or
utilities, to include human and natural resources.

a. Sabotage c. Escape and Evasion

b. Intelligence d. Insurgency

27. The concept of a central tenet of any insurgent organizational technique is the
formation of a nucleus of disciplined, trained and highly motivated members.

a. Leadership c. Communist member

b. Ideology d. Cadre

28. A methodology of winning a barangay from the influence of insurgents and

setting up structures that will prevent the return of the insurgents and pave way for
economic development.

a. Clear-Hold-Consolidate-Develop
b. Key Hole Approach
c. Clear- Hold-Consult- Develop
d. Clean- Hold-Contain- Develop

29. A system of practical beliefs developed by the characteristics of a group

whose members have common political, economic, cultural or religious bond.

a. Leadership c. Communist member

b. Ideology d. Cadre

30. It is a CMO pillar that influences the beliefs, emotions, attitudes, opinions and
ultimately the behavior of the enemy and its mass base, supporters

a. Public Information c.Civil Affairs

b. Psychological Operations d.Community Relations

31. A method of Link-up operations that requires detailed planning and

coordination particularly if the stationary force is under enemy pressure.

a. Link-up of two or more moving units c. Link-up resupply

b. Link-up of moving unit and stationary unit d. Link-up checkpoint

32. This point is used to control movement and designate as over-watch

positions.

a. Release Point c. Control point

 b. Link-up Point d. Checkpoint

33. It is a geographic place, specific key event, critical factor, or function that,
when acted upon, allows commanders to gain a marked advantage over an
adversary or contribute materially to achieving success.

a. Engagement area c. Limit of Advance

b. Check Point d. Decisive Point

34. A line used for control and coordination of military operations along a
recognizable terrain feature extending across the zone of action.

a. Phase Line c. Check Point

b. Assembly Area d. Limit of Advance

35. The following are active security measures EXCEPT:

a. Patrols c. Listening posts

b. Observation posts d. Camouflaging

36. It is the last covered and concealed position between the line of departure and
the objective from which forces assault the objective.

a. Objective Rally Point c. Battle Position

b. Assembly Area d. Assault Position

37. It is a defensive location oriented on the most likely enemy avenues of

approach from which a unit may defend or attack.

a. Assault Position c. Zone of Attack

b. Battle Position d. Probable Line of Deployment

38. The task is to provide close and immediate fire support to maneuver units in
the Infantry Battalion (Light).

a. Mortar Platoon c. Anti-armor Platoon

b. Scout Platoon d. Recon Platoon

39. The following are some of the capabilities of an infantry squad EXCEPT –

a. Infiltrate into enemy-controlled terrain or areas

b. Seize and hold any terrain.
c. Maneuver in all types of local weather and terrain.
d. Sustain Mortar fire support

40. In Armor Operations, it is complimented by mobility which enables a

commander to concentrate and to switch fire power on the battlefield.

a. Firepower c. Mobility
b. Shock Action d. Flexibility
41. In Armor Operations, it is the effect of the tanks which depends on surprise
achieved by speed and mobility.

a. Firepower c. Mobility
b. Shock Action d. Flexibility

42. In Armor-infantry Operations, the characteristics of airland battle are:

a. Stability, Coordination and Control

b. Solidarity, valor, honor and loyalty
c. Intelligence, Operations and CMO
d. Initiative, Agility, Depth, and Synchronization

43. Approximately,what is the maximum range of 105-mm Howitzer M101A1 is?

a. approx 9,000 meters c. approx 11,000 meters

b. approx 12,000 meters d. approx 13,000 meters

44. It is a systematic and continuous process of analyzing the threat and the environment
of the battlefield

a. TLP c. SOT
b. CMO d. IPB

45. It is the third step in the Troop Leading Procedure.

a. Receive the mission c. Reconnaissance

b. Supervise d. Make a tentative plan

46. It is a step-by-step process of action, reaction, and counteraction for

visualizing the execution of each friendly course of action in relation to enemy COAs
and reactions.

a. Formation c. Supervision
b. Operation d. War gaming

47. The IPB assists the commander to develop courses of action. The threat,
weather and terrain presented through the Intel estimate. The G2/S2 prepares
intelligence estimate. What is paragraph 3 of the Intel estimate?

a. Mission c. Enemy capabilities

b. Enemy Situation d. Area of Operations

48. The 5th step in the Troop Leading Procedure is…

a. Make a tentative plan c. Reconnaissance

b. Issue warning order d. Receive the mission
49. The S2 depicts in this template the violent and non-violent incidents and other
insurgent activities that occurred in the AO. These incidents and activities are most
likely to be repeated in these particular areas.

a. Community Situation Template c. Opposing Forces Template

b. Events Template d. Terrain & Weather Template

50. It is a template that depicts disposition and location of both forces within the
area of operation.

a. Events c. Terrain and Weather

b. Economic d. Opposing Forces

51. A directive issued by a commander to subordinate commanders for effecting

the coordinated execution of an operation; it includes tactical movement orders.

a. Operation Overlay c. Execution Order

b. Operation Order d. Order of Battle

52. It is traced in a translucent paper that indicates the location, size, and scheme
of maneuver and fires of friendly forces involved in an operation.

a. Intelligence overlay c. Operation Overlay

b. Economic Template d. Events Template

53. In this template, the S2 identifies those areas which can provide water and
food to the guerrilla, or the S2 can mark those areas that, due to their economic
status and location, have capabilities to provide logistics sustainability to the
insurgent and easy access to their logistics supply resources. (Ex: Key Industrial
Facilities, Vital Installations, Public Facilities)

a. Events Template c. Opposing Forces Template

b. Community Situation Template d. Economic Template

54. It depicts disposition and location of friendly forces within the area of
operation.

a. Opposing Forces Template c. Events Template

b. Terrain and Weather Template d. Economic Template

55. These are orders applied to all sentries to the main and special guards.

a. General Orders c.Countersign

b. Password d. Sentinel Post

56. A five paragraph field order that contains minimum description of the task
organization, situation, mission, execution, administrative, logistics support, and
command and signal for the specified operation.
 a. Movement Order c. Operations Order
b. Service Support Order d. Administrative Orders

57. An abbreviated form of an operation order used to make changes in missions

to units and to inform them of changes in the tactical situation.

a. Warning c. Operation
b. Administrative/Logistics d. Fragmentary

58. In Combat Plans and Orders, ______ is a plan that provides a series of
related military operations to accomplish a common objective.

a. Operation Order (OPORD) c. Campaign Plan

b. Operation Plan (OPLAN) d. Mobilization Plan

59. It is a plan used in accomplishing different missions and anticipated major

events before, during, and after operations.

a. Verbal Order c. Fragmentary

b. Warning order d. Contingency Plan

60. It is the last paragraph of an operation order.

a. Situation c. Command and Signal

b. Mission d. Execution

61. It is a brief overview of the operation order that describes the enemy and
friendly forces in the area of operations.

a. Scheme of Maneuver c. Situation

b. Task Organization d. Task to Combat Units

62. It is the third part of an Operation Order.

a. Mission c. Situation
b. Execution d. Command and Signal

63. A tool that assist the commander and staff in developing estimates and plans.

a. GESCON c. TLP
b. MDMP d. IPB

64. METT-TC is an acronym that must be considered during the planning or

execution of a tactical operation which means.

a. Mission, Evacuation, Troops, Time and Casualty

b. Mission, Enemy, Terrain, Troops, Time Available and Civil Considerations
c. Mission, Enemy, Terrain and Weather, Time and Civilian
 d. Mission, Education, Time, and Combat Operation

65. Intelligent use of direct and indirect fires to support the scheme of maneuver.

a.Protection c. Leadership
b. Maneuver d. Firepower

66. To inspire and motivate soldiers to perform difficult tasks under trying
circumstances.

a. Leadership c.Protection
b. Maneuver d. Firepower

67. What is the maximum effect range of 5.56mm M16 Rifle?

a. 460 meters c. 360 meters

b. 420 meters d. 560 meters

68. How many meters in the area target of 40mm M203 Grenade Launcher?

a. 460 meters c. 350 meters

b. 420 meters d. 360 meters

69. How many 81mm Mortars are there in the Infantry Battalion (Light)?

a. 2 c. 4
b. 6 d. 3

70. The forward headquarters in the battlefield that consists of a commander and
battle staffs that directly influence operations in the operational area.

a. Command Post c. Command Headquarters

b. Rear Command Post d. Tactical Command Post

-GOOD LUCK-