The document discusses various statements about different drugs used for anesthesia and pain management. It provides options to evaluate statements about the actions and characteristics of opioid analgesics, beta-2 agonists, and other drugs. It also asks questions about the properties, uses, and side effects of anesthetic drugs like ketamine, barbiturates, and local anesthetics.
The document discusses various statements about different drugs used for anesthesia and pain management. It provides options to evaluate statements about the actions and characteristics of opioid analgesics, beta-2 agonists, and other drugs. It also asks questions about the properties, uses, and side effects of anesthetic drugs like ketamine, barbiturates, and local anesthetics.
The document discusses various statements about different drugs used for anesthesia and pain management. It provides options to evaluate statements about the actions and characteristics of opioid analgesics, beta-2 agonists, and other drugs. It also asks questions about the properties, uses, and side effects of anesthetic drugs like ketamine, barbiturates, and local anesthetics.
The document discusses various statements about different drugs used for anesthesia and pain management. It provides options to evaluate statements about the actions and characteristics of opioid analgesics, beta-2 agonists, and other drugs. It also asks questions about the properties, uses, and side effects of anesthetic drugs like ketamine, barbiturates, and local anesthetics.
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Evaluate the following statements regarding Statement 1: Serevent® contains a long
the action of opioid analgesics. acting Beta–2 agonist. Statement 1: It decreases the response to Statement 2: Formoterol is also a long pain stimuli through enhancement of acting beta-2 agonist. neuronal K+ influx. a. Statement 1 is correct while Statement 2: It decreases neurotransmitter statement 2 is wrong release through stimulation of Ca++ influx. b. Statement 1 is wrong while a. Statement 1 is correct while statement 2 is correct statement 2 is wrong c. Both statements are correct b. Statement 1 is wrong while d. Both statements are wrong statement 2 is correct 8. Which of the following is/are characteristic/s c. Both statements are correct of an ideal anesthetic drug? d. Both statements are wrong I. Induce loss of consciousness 2. The drug of choice for the management of smoothly and rapidly while allowing respiratory depression induced by opioid for prompt recovery of cognitive analgesics: function after its administration a. Narcan® II. Possess a wide margin of safety b. Nubain® III. Devoid of adverse effects c. Revex® a. I only d. Depade® b. II only 3. Which nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug c. I and II only when co-administered with opioids, reduces d. II and III only opioid requirements by 25%? e. I, II and III a. Ibuprofen 9. The following anesthetics are correctly b. Ketorolac matched: c. Mefenamic acid I. Ketamine-opioid anesthetics d. Indomethacin II. Cocaine-ester-containing local 4. Buprenorphine, an opioid analgesic, has the anesthetics following characteristics/s: III. Lidocaine-xylocaine I. Dissociates slowly from mu receptor a. I only II. Partial mu agonist b. II only III. Resistant to the reversal effect of c. I and II only naloxone d. II and III only a. I only e. I, II and III b. II only 10. Which among the following anesthetics c. I and II only have a depressant effect on arterial d. II and III only pressure as a result of a decrease in e. I, II and III systemic vascular resistance with minimal 5. Nalbuphine, an opioid analgesic, has the effect on cardiac output? following characteristic/s: I. Halothane I. Mu receptor agonist II. Desflurane II. Kappa receptor agonist III. Enflurane III. Gamma receptor agonist IV. Sevoflurane a. I only V. Isoflurane b. II only a. I only c. I and II only b. II only d. II and III only c. I and II only e. I, II and III d. II, IV and V 6. Which was the proposed maintenance drug e. I, II, III and IV in the treatment programs for opioid 11. At what stage of anesthesia does addiction? recurrence of regular respiration and a. Naloxone extension to complete cessation of b. Naltrexone spontaneous respiration occur? c. Nalbuphine a. Stage of modullary depression d. None of the above b. Stage of excitement 7. Evaluate the following regarding Beta-2 c. Stage of analgesia agonists. d. Stage of surgical anesthesia 12. Which among the ff. is the correct order of c. I and II only increasing depth of nervous system d. II and III only depression? e. None of the above I. Stage of surgical anesthesia 18. Which is/are not a characteristic/s of II. Stage of excitement dissociative anesthetic state? III. Stage of analgesia I. Catatonia IV. Stage of modullary depression II. Amnesia a. I-II-III-IV III. Analgesia b. III-II-I-IV a. I and II only c. IV-II-I-III b. III and IV only d. III-I-II-IV c. III only 13. Which of the following is/are not true about d. None of the above inhaled anesthetics? 19. Which is/are not true about opioid I. Increases the metabolic rate of the anesthetics? brain I. Opioid anesthetics are used in II. Increases the glomerular filtration combination with large doses of rate and renal blood flow depending benzodiazepines on the concentration II. Low doses during surgery causes III. Decreases mean arterial pressure in chest wall rigidity thereby impairing direct proportion to alveolar ventilation concentration III. Opioid anesthetics can be a. I only administered in very low doses by b. II only epidural and subarachnoid route c. I and II only a. I only d. II and III only b. II only e. I, II and III c. I and II only 14. It is the commonly used barbiturate to d. II and III only induce anesthesia. e. I, II, and III a. Thiopental 20. Which of the following is/are not true about b. Phenobarbital ketamine? c. Secobarbital I. Markedly increases cerebral blood d. Amobarbital flow, oxygen consumption and 15. At what site does amide containing local intracranial pressure anesthetics is converted to more water- II. Increases the respiratory rate, upper soluble metabolites and then excreted in the airway muscle tone is well urine? maintained and airway reflexes are a. Kidney usually preserved b. Plasma III. The only IV anesthetic that c. Liver possesses both analgesic properties d. Lungs and the ability to produce dose- 16. Which of the following local anesthetics are related cardiovascular stimulation correctly matched in terms of potency? a. I only I. Lidocaine<bupivacaine b. II only II. Ropivacaine>mepivacaine c. I and II only III. Tetracaine>procaine d. II and III only a. I & II only e. I, II, and III b. II & III only 21. All of the following statements concerning c. III only the autonomic nervous system are true d. II & III only EXCEPT for which one? 17. Which is not true about local anesthetics? a. The autonomic nervous system is I. Possesses membrane stabilizing composed entirely of efferent effects neurons. II. Used to treat patients with b. The sympathetic division is activated neuropathic pain syndrome in response to stressful situations III. Commonly used as adjuvants c. The parasympathetic division a. I only originates from cell bodies in the b. II only CNS d. The parasympathetic nervous 28. Which one from the following drugs does system is not required of life. not produce miosis (marked constriction of 22. Which of the following statements the pupil)? concerning the parasympathetic nervous a. Carbachol system is CORRECT? b. Isofluorophate a. The parasympathetic system uses c. Atropine norepinephrine as a d. Pilocarpine neurotransmitter 29. Which one from the following drugs would b. The parasympathetic system often be useful in long-term treatment of discharges as a single functional myasthenia gravis? system a. Carbachol c. The parasympathetic division is b. Isofluorophate involved in accommodation of near c. Atropine vision, movement of food and d. Pilocarpine urination 30. A 50-year-old male farm worker is brought d. The parasympathetic system to the emergency room. He was found controls the secretion of the adrenal confused in the orchard and since then has medulla. lost consciousness. His heart rate is 45 and 23. Which of the following is characteristic of his blood pressure is 80/40 mmHg. He is parasympathetic stimulation? sweating and salivation profusely. Which of a. Decrease in intestinal motility the following treatment is indicated? b. Inhibition of bronchial secretion a. Physostigmine c. Contraction of sphincter muscle in b. Norepinephrine the iris of the eye (miosis) c. Trimethaphan d. Contraction of sphincter of urinary d. Atropine bladder 31. Diastolic pressure is increased after the 24. Which of the following is not an expected administration of which of the following symptom of poisoning with isofluorophate? drugs? a. Paralysis of skeletal muscle a. Norepinephrine b. Increased bronchial secretion b. Epinephrine c. Miosis c. Isoproterenol d. Tachycardia d. Albuterol 25. Pilocarpine: 32. Which of these statements is incorrect? a. Used to lower intraocular pressure in a. Among the physiologic responses glaucoma caused by alpha-receptor stimulation b. Cleaved by acetylcholinesterase are vasoconstriction, mydriasis and c. Selectively binds to nicotinic decreased GIT motility. receptors b. Among the physiologic responses d. Inhibits secretions such as sweat, caused by beta-receptor stimulation tears and saliva. are vasoconstriction, cardiac 26. Neostigmine: stimulation and bronchial relaxation. a. Contraindicated in glaucoma c. Norepinephrine has a stronger b. Shorter duration of action than affinity for alpha receptors compared Edrophonium to beta-receptors. c. Decreases acetylcholine d. Dobutamine is a potent concentration at neuromuscular vasoconstrictor. junction 33. All of the following statements concerning d. May result in bowel hypermotility, phenylephrine are correct, EXCEPT: salivation and sweating a. It is an alpha agonist that causes 27. Which one of the following drugs most vasoconstriction closely resembles atropine in its b. It is a synthetic direct-acting agonist pharmacologic actions? c. It is used to prevent bronchospasm a. Scopolamine d. It causes mydriasis when introduced b. Physostigmine into the eye c. Acetylcholine 34. Systolic pressure is decreased after the d. Carbachol injection of which of the following drugs? a. Norepinephrine b. Dopamine 41. Which of the following is an appropriate c. Ephedrine therapeutic use for imipramine? d. Reserpine a. Insomnia 35. Which of the following drugs is useful in b. Epilepsy treating tachycardia? c. Bed-wetting in children a. Phenoxybenzamine d. Glaucoma b. Isoproterenol 42. MAO inhibitors are contraindicated with all c. Phentolamine of the following, EXCEPT: d. Propranolol a. Indirect adrenergic agents, such as 36. Which of the following statements is ephedrine correct? b. Tricyclic antidepressants a. Chlorpromazine is indicated in c. Beer and cheese treating nausea of levodopa d. Aspirin treatment 43. Which of the following statements b. Vitamin B6 increases the concerning tricyclic antidepressant is effectiveness of levodopa correct? c. Administration of dopamine is an a. All of the tricyclic antidepressants effective treatment of Parkinson’s show similar therapeutic efficacy disease b. Hypertension is a common adverse d. Levodopa-induced nausea is effect reduced by carbidopa c. These drugs show an immediate 37. All of the following statements are correct, therapeutic effect EXCEPT: d. These drugs must be administered a. Atropine blocks the cholinergic intramuscularly pathway in the neostriatum 44. Which of the following is common to the b. Antimuscarinic agents are generally tricyclic antidepressants and MAO less efficacious than levodopa in the inhibitors? treatment of Parkinson’s disease a. They can produce sedation c. Bromocriptine directly activates b. They can produce physical dopaminergic receptors dependence d. Amantadine inhibits the metabolism c. They show strong interaction with of levodopa certain foods 38. Which of the following is not a characteristic d. They can produce postural of cocaine overdose? hypotension a. Dilation of pupils 45. Which of the following antidepressant b. Euphoria agents exhibits an amphetamine-like CNS c. Tachycardia stimulation? d. Peripheral vasodilation a. Imipramine 39. Which of the following statements about b. Lithium salts amphetamine is incorrect? c. Tranylcypromine a. Overdosage can be managed with d. Trazodone chlorpromazine 46. A very upset mother brings her 10-year-old b. It is used as an adjunct with MAO son to ask help dealing with his bed wetting. inhibitors in the treatment of Which of the following drugs might alleviate depression this problem? c. Amphetamine has a longer duration a. Fluoxetine of action than cocaine b. Imipramine d. Amphetamine depresses the hunger c. Tranylcypromine center in the hypothalamus d. Trazodone 40. Which of the following statements 47. A neuroleptic drug: concerning tetrahydrocannabinol (THC) is a. Are equally effective against the correct? positive and negative symptoms of a. It decreases heart rate schizophrenia b. It increases muscle strength b. Can cause blurred vision, urinary c. It decreases appetite retention and other sings of d. It has an anti-emetic action muscarinic blockade c. Bind selectively to D2-dopaminergic a. It is used therapeutically to relieve receptors pain caused by severe head injury d. Have anti-parkinsonism effects b. Its withdrawal symptoms can be similar to levodopa relieved by methadone 48. All of the following are observed in patients c. It causes constipation taking neuroleptic drugs, EXCEPT: d. It is most effective by parenteral a. Sexual dysfunction administration b. Increased blood pressure 52. All of the following are useful in treating c. Altered endocrine function complex partial seizure, EXCEPT: d. Constipation a. Ethosuximide 49. All of the following statements concerning b. Phenobarbital methadone are correct, EXCEPT: c. Carbamazepine a. It has less potent analgesic activity d. Phenytoin than that of morphine 53. For which one of the following drugs is the b. It has a longer duration of action therapeutic indication incorrect? than that of morphine a. Ethosuximide – absence seizure c. If is effective by oral administration b. Phenobarbital – febrile seizure in d. It causes a milder withdrawal children syndrome than morphine c. Diazepam – status epilepticus 50. Which of the following statements about d. Primidone – hepatotoxicity pentazocine is incorrect? 54. Which of the following drug-toxicity pairs is a. It is a mixed agonist-antagonist incorrect? b. It may be administered orally or a. Valproic acid – nausea and vomiting parentally b. Ethosuximide – Steven-Johnson c. It produces less euphoria that syndrome morphine c. Carbamazepine – bone marrow d. It is often combined with morphine depression for maximal analgesic effects d. Primidone – hepatotoxicity 51. Which of the following statement about morphine is incorrect?