Clinical and Hospital Pharmacy (PACOP BLUE)

1. It is refers to the responsible of drug therapy to achieve definite outcomes that are intended to improve a
patients quality of life
A. Professional – patient relationship
B. Therapeutic drug monitoring
C. Drug therapy assessment
D. Pharmaceutical care
E. Formal documentation

2. It involves measuring directly and indirect cost attributable to a specific disease.

A. Cost-of –illness evaluation
B. Cost-effectiveness analysis
C. Cost-minimization analysis
D. Cost-utility analysis
E. Cost- benefit analysis

3. The method that allows for identification, measurement, and comparison of the costs of a program or
treatment alternative
A. Cost-of –illness evaluation
B. Cost-effectiveness analysis
C. Cost-minimization analysis
D. Cost-utility analysis
E. Cost- benefit analysis

4. The method that involves the determination of the least costly alternative when comparing two or more
treatment alternatives
A. Cost-of –illness evaluation
B. Cost-effectiveness analysis
C. Cost-minimization analysis
D. Cost-utility analysis
E. Cost- benefit analysis

5. The method that integrates the patient preferences and health-related quality of life
A. Cost-of –illness evaluation
B. Cost-effectiveness analysis
C. Cost-minimization analysis
D. Cost-utility analysis
E. Cost- benefit analysis

6. A way of summarizing the health benefits and resources used by competing health care programs so that
policy makers can choose among them
A. Cost-of –illness evaluation
B. Cost-effectiveness analysis
C. Cost-minimization analysis
D. Cost-utility analysis
E. Cost- benefit analysis

7. It refers to the value assigned to duration of life as modified by impairments, functional states, perceptions,
and social opportunities that are influenced by disease, injury, treatment or policy
A. Optimum health
B. Quality of life
C. Health outcomes
D. Responsiveness
E. Wellness of being

8. A study design in which neither the study subject nor the study staff is aware of which group or intervention
the subjects has been assigned
A. Randomized control trial
B. Crossover study
C. Cohort study
D. Blinded study
E. Cross-sectional study

9. A retrospective comparison of casual factors or exposures in a group of persons with disease and those of
persons without disease
A. Randomized control trial
B. Case control study
C. Cohort study
D. Meta analysis
E. Open-label trial
10. A retrospective or prospective follow-up study of exposed and non-exposed defined groups in which a
variable of interest is measured
A. Cross sectional study
B. Case control study
C. Cross over study
D. Cohort study
E. Pen label study

11. A trial comparing treatments in which participants, on completion of one treatment, are switched to the other
A. Cross sectional study
B. Cross over study
C. Meta analysis
D. Open label trial
E. Cohort study

12. A study that examines the presence or absence of a disease and other variable in a defined population
A. Cross sectional study
B. Cohort study
C. Case control study
D. Cross over study
E. Case series

13. Which of the following best describes the neonates?

A. Those who are 1 month to 1 year of age
B. Those who are 1 year to 12 year of age
C. Those who are 12 to 16 years of age
D. Those between 1 day and 1 month of age
E. Those born before 37 weeks of gestational age

14. Which of the following best describes the infants?

A. Those who are 1 month to 1 year of age
B. Those who are 1 year to 12 year of age
C. Those who are 12 to 16 years of age
D. Those between 1 day and 1 month of age
E. Those born before 32 weeks of gestational age

15. Clinical manifestations of gray baby syndrome include:

I. Characteristic gray color
II. Abdominal distention
III. Hypertension
IV. Progressive shock
A. I only
B. I and IV only
C. I,II, and III only
D. I, II, and IV only
E. I and III only

16. Which of the following is associated with the use of thalidomide?

I. Polyneuritis
II. Mental retardation
III. Limb deformities
A. I only
B. I, II and III only
C. II and III only
D. III only
E. I and III only

17. Factors that increase the risk of drug related problems in the elderly include
I. Polypharmacy
II. Inappropriate prescribing
III. Medication adherence
IV. Multiple diseases
A. I only
B. I, II and III only
C. II and IV only
D. I, II and IV only
E. I, II, III, and IV

18. Potential difficulties that may occue while taking medication histories from the elderly include:
I. Impaired hearing
 II. Mental acuity
III. Multiple diseases and medication
IV. Reliance on a caregiver for the history
A. I, II and III only
B. I, III and IV only
C. II, III and IV only
D. I, II and IV only
E. I, II, III and IV

19. Refers to the continual monitoring for unwanted effects and other safety-related aspects of marketed drugs
A. Pharmacoepidemiology
B. Pharmacovigilance
C. Pharmacoinformatics
D. Pharmacogenetics
E. Pharmacogenomics

20. Study the use of and effectsof drugs in a large number of people
A. Pharmacoepidemiology
B. Pharmacovigilance
C. Pharmacoinformatics
D. Pharmacogenetics
E. Pharmacogenomics

21. Any noxious, unintended, and undesired effect of a drug that occurs at doses used in humans for
prophylaxis, diagnosis or therapy
A. Adverse drug event
B. Allergy
C. Hypersensitivity
D. Adverse drug reaction
E. Idiosyncrasy

22. Which of the following is/are true regarding chest X-ray?

I. Provides supplemental information to the physical examination and usually the first
diagnostic test in a cardiac workup.
II. Provides details of internal cardiac structures.
III. Gives information about position and size of the heart and chambers and surrounding
anatomy.
A. I only
B. I, II and III
C. I and II only
D. I and III only
E. II and III only

23. The manifestations of chromium deficiency include:

I. Alopecia
II. Depigmentation of hair and skin
III. Red blood cell fragility
IV. Glucose intolerance
A. I and II only
B. II and IV only
C. I, II, III and IV
D. III only
E. IV only

24. The manifestation of zinc deficiency include:

I. Poor wound healing
II. Poor growth
III. Poor resistance to infection
A. I only
B. II and III only
C. I and IV only
D. III only
E. I, II and III

25. Incompatibilities with fat emulsion cause majority of formulation problems in TPN. Which of the following
affects lipid stability in TPN preparations?
I. Nature of amino acid solution
II. pH
III. the amount of dissolved oxygen in the solution
 IV. electrolyte content
A. I, II and III only
B. II, III and IV only
C. I, II and IV only
D. I and II only
E. I and IV only

26. Ascorbic acid is the most rapidly oxidized vitamin. The rate of oxidation depends on:
I. Electrolyte content
II. Presence of trace animals
III. Amount of dissolved oxygen in the solution
IV. pH
A. IV only
B. II and III only
C. I, II and III
D. II, III and IV only
E. II and IV only

27. Which of the following is the most rapidly reduced vitamins?

A. Riboflavin
B. Niacin
C. Thiamine
D. Cevitamic acid
E. Ascorbic acid

28. Which of the following are associated with dilutional hyponatremia?

I. Administration of albumin
II. Congestive heart failure
III. Cirrhosis
A. II only
B. II and III only
C. I and II only
D. I only
E. I, II and III

29. Which of the following is/are true regarding blood urea nitrogen (BUN)?
I. End product of protein metabolism
II. Product by liver and kidney
III. Filtered completely at glomerulus
A. I and II only
B. I and III only
C. II and III only
D. I, II and III
E. I only

30. Which of the following accurately describes creatinine?

I. Not absorbed and secreted by the kidney
II. Filtered freely at the glomerulus
III. Metabolized by the kidney
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II only
E. II and III only

31. Which of the following is/are true regarding Aspartate aminotransferase (AST)?
I. Also called serum glutamic pyruvic transaminase
II. Abundant in heart and liver tissue
III. Used to evaluate myocardial injury and case prognosis of liver disease resulting from
heparocellular injury
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. I and III only
D. II and III only
E. III only

32. Which of the following is/are true regarding the comparison of ALT and AST enzyme?
I. ALT elevations persist longer than those of AST
II. ALT is more liver specific
 III. The liver contains 3.5 times more AST than ALT
A. I, II and III
B. I and II only
C. II and III only
D. I and III only
E. II only

33. Which of the following may result to a decrease in hematocrit?

I. Hemolysis
II. Polycythemia vera
III. Sickle cell anemia
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. I and III only
E. I, II and III

34. According to the seventh report of the Joint National Committee (JNC 7), which of the following best
describes the normal blood pressure?
A. An SBP less than 130, and DBP less than 85
B. An SBP between 120 and 139, or a DBP between 80 to 89
C. An SBP less than 120, and DBP less than 80
D. An SBP between 140 and 159, or a DBP between 90 to 99
E. An SBP equal to or greater than 160, or a DBP equal to or greater than 100

35. According to JNC 7, which of the following best describes Stage 1 hypertension?
A. An SBP less than 130, and DBP less than 85
B. An SBP between 120 and 139, or a DBP between 80 to 89
C. An SBP less than 120, and DBP less than 80
D. An SBP between 140 and 159, or a DBP between 90 to 99
E. An SBP equal to or greater than 160, or a DBP equal to or greater than 100

36. Which of the following are the objectives of evaluating patients with documented hypertension?
I. To assess lifestyle and identify other cardiovascular risk factors or concomitant that may
affect prognosis and guide treatment
II. To reveal identifiable causes of high blood pressure and allow patient self-medication
III. To assess the presence or absence of target organ damage and cardiovascular disease
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. I, II and III only
E. I and III only

37. Routine laboratory tests for hypertension recommended before initiating therapy include:
I. Electrocardiogram
II. Urinary albumin excretion
III. Blood glucose and hematocrit
IV. Lipid profile
A. I and IV only
B. I and II only
C. I, II and III only
D. I, III and IV only
E. I, II and IV only

38. Lifestyle modifications for hypertension include:

I. Diet rich in potassium and calcium
II. Physical activity
III. Moderation of alcohol consumption
IV. Weight reduction for overweight and obese patients
A. II, III and IV only
B. I, III and IV only
C. I, II and IV only
D. I, II and III only
E. I, II, III and IV

39. Which of the following diuretics should be used as initial therapy for most patients with hypertension, either
alone or in combination?
A. Thiazide diuretics
B. Loop diuretics
 C. Potassium-sparing diuretics
D. Osmotic diuretics
E. A and B

40. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the potential unfavorable effectrs of anti hypertensive
drug choices?
I. Thiazide diuretics should be used cautiously in patients with gout
II. Beta blockers should generally be avoided in individuals with asthma
III. Aldosterone antagonists and potassium-sparing diuretics can cause hypokalemia
A. I, II and III
B. I and II only
C. I and III only
D. II and III only
E. I only

41. Factors that increase the chances of patients’ non adherence to antihypersensitive therapy include:
I. Misunderstanding of condition or treatment
II. Lack of patient involvement in the care plan
III. Unexpected adverse effects of medications
IV. Complexity of care
A. I and II only
B. III and Iv only
C. I, II and III only
D. I, II and IV only
E. I, II, III, and IV

42. Which of the following is/are true regarding cholesterol?

I. It is naturally occurring alcohol
II. It is the precursor molecule for the synthesis of the bile acids and steroid hormones
III. It is used by the body to form cell membranes
A. II only
B. II and III only
C. I and II only
D. III only
E. I, II and III

43. General principles of the diet therapy intended to lower cholesterol include:
I. Choose foods high in complex carbohydrates like starch and fiber
II. Replace monounsaturated fats with saturated fats and fish oils
III. Eat less high-fat, high cholesterol foods
A. I only
B. III only
C. I, II and III
D. II and III
E. I and III

44. Which of the following i/are true regarding bile acid resins as part of management of hypercholesterolemia?
I. Resins are not absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract and thus lack systemic toxicity
II. They reduce total LDL cholesterol in a dose-independent manner
III. They have a strong record established from years of use
A. I only
B. III only
C. I, II and III
D. II and III
E. I and III

45. Which of the following is/are the side effects of bile acid resins?
I. Constipation
II. Bloating and epigastric fullness
III. Nausea
IV. Flatulence
A. I and II only
B. II and IV only
C. I and IV only
D. II, III and IV only
E. I, II ,III and IV

46. Which of the following is/are true regarding niacin in the management of hypercholesterolemia?
I. It inhibits the mobilization of free acids from peripheral adipose tissue to the liver
 II. It reduces the synthesis and secretion of VLDL particles by the liver
III. One of its side effects is vasoconstriction which leads to flushing, itching and headache
A. I and II only
B. II and IV only
C. I and IV only
D. II, III and IV only
E. I, II, III and IV

47. Which of the following drugs has the most potent cholesterol lowering potential?
A. Bile acid resins
B. HMG-CoA Reductase Inhibitors
C. Beta Blockers
D. ACE inhibitors
E. Calcium Channel Blockers

48. Drug interactions with statins that result in higher blood levels of the statin or active metabolite can increase
risk of myositis. Which of the following statins are most vulnerable to this interaction?
A. Atorvastatin and Pravastatin
B. Fluvastatin and Simvastatin
C. Cerivastatin and Lovastatin
D. Lovastatin and Simvastastin
E. Atorvastatin and Fluvastatin

49. A small part of clot that braeks off and travels to another part of the vascular system
A. Embolus
B. Thrombosis
C. Infarction
D. Ischemia
E. Stroke

50. Which of the following are the primary factors that influence the information of pathologic clots?
I. Abnormalities of blood flow that cause venous stasis
II. Abnormalities of blood vessel walls
III. Hypocoagubility resulting from alterations in the availability or the integrity of blood
clotting components
A. I and II only
B. II and III onyl
C. I and III only
D. I, II and III
E. I only

51. Which of the following is/are true regarding heparin?

I. A rapid-acting anticoagulant that is effective only when administered parenterally
II. Obtained from bovine lung or porcine intestinal mucosa
III. Acts by binding to the naturally circulating anticoagulant antithrombin II
A. I only
B. II and III only
C. I and III only
D. I, II and III
E. I only
F.

52. Which of the following is/are true regarding warfarin?

I. Acts as vitamin K agonist
II. A rapid-acting anticoagulant that is effective only when administered parenterally
III. Rapidly and completely absorbed in the upper gastrointestinal tract
A. I only
B. II and III only
C. I and III only
D. I, II and III
E. I only

53. Which of the following is/are true regarding prothrombin Time (PT)?
I. Prolonged by deficiencies of clotting factors II, V, VII and X
II. Reflects alterations in the intrinsic and common pathways of the clotting cascade
III. The internationally recognized standard for monitoring warfarin therapy when expressed
as INR
A. I only
B. II and III only
 C. I and III only
D. I, II and III
E. I only

54. Which of the following is/are true regarding Activated Partial Thrombopalstin time (aPTT)?
I. Reflects alterations in the extrinsic and common pathways of clotting cascade
II. Used to monitor heparin therapy
III. Performed by adding a surface-activating agent, a partial thromboplastin reagent, and
calcium to the plasma sample
A. I only
B. II and III only
C. I and III only
D. I, II and III
E. I only

55. A clinical syndrome characterized by discomfort in the chest, jaw, shoulder, back or arm
A. Atrial fibrillation
B. Angina pectoris
C. Myocardial infarction
D. Deep vein thrombosis
E. Ischemic heart disease

56. Which of the following statements describe/s accurately events in the process of atherosclerosis?
I. Extracellular lipids accumulate and undergo oxidation
II. As lesions progress, smooth muscle cells migrate proliferate and secrete large amounts
of extracellular matrix
III. The end result is the presence of an elevated plaque, which occludes the vessel lumen
A. I only
B. II and III only
C. I, II and III
D. III only
E. II only

57. A type angina which can be induced by exertion, emotional stress, or a heavy meal, and can be relieved by
rest, nitroglycerin, or both
A. Prinzmetal’s angina
B. Angina decubitus
C. Unstable angina
D. Stable or classic angina
E. Preinfarction angina

58. A type of angina precipitated by coronary artery spasm that reduces blood flow, and usually occurs at rest
rather than with exertion or emotional stress
A. Prinzmetal’s angina
B. Angina decubitus
C. Unstable angina
D. Stable or classic angina
E. Preinfarction angina

59. Which of the following is/are true regarding the mechanism of action of nitrates?
I. Causes venous dilation, which reduces left ventricular volume and myocardial wall
tension, decreasing oxygen requirements
II. Reduces arteriolar resistance, helping to reduce afterload, which decreases myocardial
oxygen demand
III. Facilitates collateral circulation by reducing pressure in cardiac tissues

60. Nitrate tolerance is one major problem with the long-term use of nitroglycerin and long-acting nitrates. Which
of the following drugs have shown to be capable of reversing this phenomenon?
I. Acetylcysteine
II. Beta blockers
III. Ace inhibitors
IV. Diuretics
A. I and II only
B. II and III only
C. II, III and IV only
D. I, III and IV only
E. I, II, III and IV

61. Considered drug of choice in treatment of angina at rest

 A. Nitroglycerin
B. Calcium-channel blockers
C. ACE inhibitors
D. Beta blockers
E. Clopidogrel

62. Used for the same arrhythmias for which quinidine is given, but possess added concern when used
intravenously because of increased cardiovascular effects such as hypotrension syncope and myocardial
depression.
A. Procainamide
B. Disopyramide
C. Tocainamide
D. Mexiletine
E. Flecainide

63. Most commonly used to treat digitalis-induced ventricular and supraventricular arrhythmias
A. Propafenone
B. Flecainide
C. Phenytoin
D. Quinidine
E. Propanolol

64. Class I anti-arrhythmias work by blocking the rapid inward sodium current and thereby slow sown the rate of
rise of the cardiac tissue’s action potential. Which sub classification moderately reduces the depolarization
rate and prolong repolarization?
A. Class IA
B. Class IB
C. classic
D. class ID
E. Class IA and IB

65. Which of the following is/are not associated with cinchonism caused by quinidine?
I. Hearing loss
II. Photophobia
III. Tinnitus
IV. Blurred vision
A. I and II only
B. III and IV only
C. I, II and III only
D. I, III and IV only
E. II, III and IV only

66. Among the type III antiarrhythmics listed below, which has been reported as causing Torsades de pointes
type of ventricular tachycardia?
A. Sotalol
B. Flecainaide
C. Amiodarone
D. Quinidine
E. Lidocaine

67. A class I antiarrhythmic drug that can causes fatigue, arthralgia, myalgia, and low-grade fever, suggestive of
systemic lupus erythematosus like syndrome
A. Flecainide
B. Disopyramide
C. Mexilitine
D. Procainamide
E. Quinolone

68. A class IV antiarrhythmic that is primarily indicated for the treatment of supraventricular tachyarrhythmias
A. Verapamil
B. Disopyramide
C. Mexilitine
D. Procainamide
E. Ibutilide

69. The New York heart association functional limitation class indicates that the degree of effort necessary to
elicit Heart failure symptoms is equal to those that would limit normal individuals
A. Class I
 B. Class II
C. Class III
D. Class IV
E. Class V

70. The New York heart association functional limitation class that indicates that the degree of effort necessary
to elicit Heart failure symptoms occurs with less than ordinary exertion
A. Class I
B. Class II
C. Class III
D. Class IV
E. Class V

71. The New York heart association functional limitation class that indicates that the degree of effort necessary
to elicit Heart failure symptoms occurs while at rest
A. Class I
B. Class II
C. Class III
D. Class IV
E. Class V

72. Refers to the for that exerted on the ventricular muscle at the end of diastole that determines the degree of
muscle fiber stretch
A. Frank-string mechanism
B. Afterload
C. Cardiac output
D. Preload
E. Decompensation

73. Determined by the amount of force needed to overcome pressure in the aorta
A. Frank-string mechanism
B. Afterload
C. Cardiac output
D. Preload
E. Decompensation

74. Which of the following is/are true regarding precautions with the use of digoxin
I. Increased potassium levels favor digoxin binding to cardiac cells and increase its effect
II. Increased calcium levels increase the force of myocardial contraction
III. Magnesium levels are inversely related to digoxin activity
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. I and III only
E. II and III only

75. Which of the following dosages of dopamine is selected for its positive inotropic effects intreating the patient
with Heart failure?
A. 40 mg/kg/min
B. 40 mcg/kg/min
C. 10-20 mcg/kg/min
D. 5-10 mcg/kg/min
E. 2 mcg/kg/min

76. A loop diuretic that is used as a rapid-acting intravenous agent in reversing acute pulmonary edema
A. Ethacrynic acid
B. Furosemide
C. Spironolactone
D. Bumetinide
E. Mannitol

77. Diuretics which have become preferred due to their ability to increase sodium excretion by 20-25% of the
filtered load and to maintain their efficacy until renal function is severly impaired
I. Spironolactone
II. Ethacrynic acid
III. Furosemide
IV. Bumetanide
A. I and II only
B. II and III only
 C. I, II and III only
D. II, III and IV only
E. I, III and IV only

78. Which of the following may be used in the acute management of digitalis toxicity?
I. Potassium
II. Cholestyramine resin
III. Fab fragment antibody
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. I and III only
E. I, II and III

79. Which of the following best describes isoniazid?

A. May be nephrotoxic and ototoxic
B. Has limited use due to its hepatotoxic potential
C. Requires pyridoxine supplementation
D. May discolor the tears and urine orange re
E. A pyrazine analogue of nicotinamide

80. Which of the following may be treated with streptomycin

I. Bacterial endocarditis
II. Tularemia
III. Urinary tract infection
IV. Tuberculosis
A. I, II and III only
B. II, III and IV only
C. I and II only
D. II and IV only
E. III and IV only

81. Which of the following best illustrates the relative ototoxicity of aminoglycosides?
A. Streptomycin=kanamycin>amikacin=gentamicin
B. Kanamycin>streptomycin=tobramycin>amikacin
C. Streptomycin=gentamicin>kanamycin=amikacin
D. Kanamycin>streptomycin>kanamycin>amikacin
E. Streptomycin>kanamycin>amikacin>gentamicin

82. Which of the following aminoglycosides can cause primarily vestibular damage?
A. Neomycin and amikacin
B. Gentamicin and neomycin
C. Kanamycin and streptomycin
D. Amikacin and streptomycin
E. Amikacin and gentamicin

83. Which of the following aminoglycosides can cause mainly auditory damage?
A. Gentamicin and streptomycin
B. Streptomycin and neomycin
C. Amikacin and kanamycin
D. Kanamycin and streptomycin
E. Amikacin and gentamicin

84. Which is the least nephrotoxic aminoglycoside?

A. Streptomycin
B. Tobramycin
C. Neomycin
D. Amikacin
E. Netilmicin

85. Which is the most nephrotoxic aminoglycoside?

A. Streptomycin
B. Tobramycin
C. Neomycin
D. Amikacin
E. Netilmicin
86. Which carbapenem needs to be combined with cilastatin sodium to inhibit the action of renal dipeptidases to
this drug?
A. Aztreonam
B. Meropenem
C. Carbamazepine
D. Ertapenem
E. Imipenem

87. Which of the following is/are the routes of administration of Penicillin G sodium and potassium?
I. Intradermal
II. Intravenous
III. Intramuscular
IV. Oral
A. II, III and IV only
B. I, III and IV only
C. II and III only
D. IV only
E. II and IV only

88. Anaphylaxis is a life threatening reaction that most commonly occurs with parenteral administration of
penicillin. The following are its sign and symptoms:
I. Nausea
II. Bronchoconstriction
III. Abdominal pain
IV. Severe hypertension
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. I, II and III only
D. I, II and IV only
E. II only

89. With which antibiotics does antibiotic antagonism occur when given 1 hour of penicillin administration?
A. Tetracycline and cephalosporins
B. Aminoglycosides and macrolides
C. Carbapenems and vancomycin
D. Erythromycin and chloramphenicol
E. Carbenicillin and isoniazid

90. An extended spectrum penicillin that is 10 times as active as carbenicillin against Pseudomonas organisms?
A. Carbenicillin
B. Piperacillin
C. Ticarcillin
D. Mezlocillin
E. Tazobactam

91. Which of the following are manifestations of complex partial seizures?

I. Glassy stare
II. Visual, auditory, or olfactory hallucinations
III. Automation
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. I and III only
D. I, II and III only
E. III only

92. Seizures that present as alteration of consciousness lasting 10-30 seconds

A. Generalized seizures
B. Petit mal seizures
C. Myocolnic seizures
D. Tonic-clonic seizures
E. Complex partial seizures

93. In a grand mal seizure, which of the following may mark the clonic phase?
A. Contraction of the diaphragm
B. Aching of the back
C. Nausea
D. Muscle jerking and flaccidity of the muscle
E. Soreness
94. Which of the following is/are true regarding the tonic phase of a grand mal seizure?
I. The individual becomes rigid and falls
II. Respiration are interrupted
III. The tonic phase lasts for about a minute
IV. The individual may experience confusion and disorientation
A. I only
B. II only
C. I, II, III and IV
D. I, II, III only
E. I, II, IV only

95. Which of the following may comprise the postical phase of generalized tonic-clonic seizure?
I. Heavy salivation
II. Incontinence
III. Tachycardia
IV. Drowsiness
A. I, II, III and IV
B. I, II and III only
C. I and II only
D. I, II and IV only
E. IV only

96. Which of the following is/are true regarding the major phases of seizure activity?
I. The ictal phase may precede the seizure by hours or days depending on the changes in
the behavior or mood of the patient
II. The proximal phase may include a subjective sensation, lethargy and confusion
III. The ictal phase is the seizure itself, and its onset is heralded by a scream or cry
A. I only
B. II only
C. II and III only
D. I and II only
E. I, II and III

97. Measures the electrical activity of the brain, and helps to identify cerebral changes underlying structural
abnormalities
A. CBC
B. EEG
C. MRI
D. PET
E. CSF

98. Which of the following is/are true regarding neurological imaging studies for seizures?
I. The MRI can detect brain lesions related to epilepsy
II. The PET measures the electrical activity of the brain
III. EEG offer functional views of the brain to detect hypermetabolism or relative hypoperfusion
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. I and III only
D. I, II and III
E. II only

99. Which of the following anticonvulsants is contraindicated in patients with a history of tricyclic antidepressants
hypersensitivity?
A. Ethosuximide
B. Carbamazepine
C. Phenobarbital
D. Phenytoin
E. Gabapentin

100. What are the most common adverse effect of anticonvulsive drugs?
I. Alternation in cognition and mentation
II. Headaches and dizziness
III. Gastointestinal symptoms
A. II only
B. Carbamazepine
C. Phenobarbital
D. Phenytoin
E. Gabapentin
101. Which of the following drugs may increase the level of carbamazepine due to its ability to decrease
carbamazepine metabolism?
A. Valproic acid
B. Primidone
C. Phenytoin
D. Phenobarbital
E. Topiramate

102. Which of the following is/are known side effects of phenytoin?

I. Stevens-Johnson syndrome
II. Gingival hyperplasia
III. Ataxia
IV. Lupus erythematosus
A. II and III only
B. I, II and III
C. II and IV only
D. II only
E. I, II, III and IV

103. Which of the following anticonvulsive drugs has higher incidence of kidney stones?
A. Phenytion
B. Ethosuximide
C. Topiramate
D. Carbamazepine
E. Phenobarbital
104. A slowly progressive degenerative neurological disease characterized by tremors, rigidity, bradykinesia
and postural instability
A. Cerebral palsy
B. Multiple sclerosis
C. Schizophrenia
D. Parkinson disease
E. Disease epilepsy

105. Which of the following is/are true regarding Parkinson’s disease?

I. It is neurodegenerative disease associated with depigmentation of substantia nigra
II. It involves surplus of dopaminergic input to the basal ganglia
III. There is an imbalance between dopamine and acetylcholine
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. I and III only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III

106. Which of the following drugs may cause secondary parkinsonism?

I. Chlorpromazine
II. Carbamazepine
III. Perphenazine
IV. Haloperidol
A. I, II and III only
B. II and IV only
C. I, III and IV only
D. IV only
E. I and III only

107. Refers to slowness in performing common voluntary movements, including standing, walking, writing and
talking
A. Bradykinesia
B. Dystonia
C. Akinesia
D. Ataxia
E. Dyskinesia

108. Which of the following is/are true regarding selegiline?

I. Selective inhibitor of MAO type A, which prevents the breakdown of dopamine selectivity
in the brain
II. Most commonly used as an adjunct with levodopa/carbidopa when patients experience a
“wearing off” phenomenon
III. Most patients experience side effects at doses higher than 30-40 mg/day
A. I only
 B. I, II and III only
C. I and III only
D. II only
E. II and III only

109. Failure to adequately minimize severe and long term airway inflammation in asthma may result in this kind
of change
A. Airway remodeling
B. Lung remodeling
C. Respiratory remodeling
D. Bronchial reconstruction
E. Respiratory arrest

110. Hyperactivity in asthmatic patients ca be measured in a physician’s office by having them perform one of
the following activity/ies
I. Inhale nebulized histamine
II. Inhale nebulized nitric oxide
III. Treadmill
IV. Inhale nebulized methacoline
A. I only
B. I, II and III only
C. II, III and IV only
D. II and III only
E. I, III and IV only

111. According to NIH Guidelines, the classification of asthma is arranged according to increasing severity is:
I. Intermittent
II. Mild persistent
III. Moderate persistent
IV. Severe persistent
A. I only
B. II only
C. I, II and III only
D. I, II, III and IV
E. I and II only

112. What are the most common adverse effect of anticonvulsive drugs?
I. Decreased vital Capacity
II. Increased residue volume
III. Decreased total lung capacity
IV. Normal total lung capacity
A. I and IV only
B. I, II and IV only
C. II, III and IV only
D. I, II, III and IV
E. I, II and III

113. Agent/s that inhibit smooth muscle contractions in asthmatic patients is/are
I. Beta-adrenergic
II. Methylxanthines
III. Glucocorticoids
IV. Anticholinergics
A. I and IV
B. I, II and IV
C. II, III and IV
D. I, II, III and IV
E. I, II and III

114. These agents are called “quick relief medications” for asthmatic patients
I. Beta-adrenergic
II. Methylxanthines
III. Glucocorticoids
IV. Anticholinergics
A. I and IV
B. I, II and IV
C. II, III and IV
D. I, II, III and IV
E. I, II and III
115. These agents are called “long-term controlled medications” for asthmatic patients
I. Beta-adrenergic
II. Leukotriene inhibitors
III. Glucocorticoids
IV. Receptor antagonists
A. I and IV
B. I, II and IV
C. II, III and IV
D. I, II, III and IV
E. I, II and III

116. These agents are analogues and produce airway dilation through stimulation of beta-adrenergic receptors
activation of G proteins with the resultant formation of cyclic adenosine monophosphate (AMP)
I. Catecholamines
II. Resorcinols
III. Saligenins
IV. Methylxanthines
A. I and IV
B. I, II and IV
C. II, III and IV
D. I, II, III and IV
E. I, II and III

117. This agent inhibit the degranulation of mast cells in asthmatic patients, thereby preventing the release of
the chemical mediators of anaphylaxis
A. Theophylline
B. Albuterol
C. Cromolyn sodium
D. Catecholamines
E. Saligenins

118. Opiates, sedatives and tranquilizers should be absolutely avoided in the acutely ill patient with asthma
because of
A. Depressing alveolar ventilation
B. Bronchospasm
C. Depressing tracheal ventilation
D. Bronchoconstriction
E. Seizures

119. What is the difference of chronic bronchitis, a primary contributor to COPD, in airway inflammation to that
asthma?
I. Slower to develop and is nonspecific
II. Predominance of IL-8
III. Relative absence of IL-5 and eosinophils
IV. Predominance of type 1 helper (CD8) T cells
A. I and IV only
B. I, II and IV
C. II, III and IV
D. I, II, III and IV
E. I, II and III

120. The primary contributor/s to COPD is/are

A. Asthma
B. Chronic bronchitis
C. Emphysema
D. Asthma and chronic bronchitis
E. Chronic bronchitis and emphysema

121. It is primary initial intervention in the management of COPD

A. Proper diet
B. Exercise
C. Smoking cessation
D. Breathing regimen
E. Pulmonary transplant

122. The primary pharmacologic therapy used in the management of COPD

I. Beta agonist
II. Anticholinergics
III. Methylxanthines
 IV. Theophylline
A. I and IV only
B. I, II and IV
C. II, III and IV
D. I, II, III and IV
E. I, II and III

123. Acute renal failure is characterized clinically by an abrupt decrease in renal function over a period of hours
to days, one of the effects is azotemia. What is azotemia?
A. Inability to maintain and regulate fluid, electrolyte and acid-base balance
B. Inability to control the flow of urine output
C. Accumulation of nitrogenous waste products
D. Accumulation of oxalates in the nephrons
E. Decrease in renal threshold

124. Acute renal failure incidence is principally observed in

A. Home-cared patients
B. Hospitalized patients
C. Community dwellers
D. City dwellers
E. Provincial residents

125. The oliguric phase in acute renal failure is characterized by a/an

A. Progressive decrease in urine output and may last from days to several weeks
B. Increased urine production over several days
C. Occurrence of several weeks to months and the normalization of kidney function
D. Progressive decrease in urine reabsorptive capacity of the kidney for several days
E. Increased urine blood flow for a week

126. The diuretic phase in acute renal failure is characterized by a/an

A. Progressive decrease in urine output and may last from days to several weeks
B. Increased urine production over several days
C. Occurrence of several weeks to months and the normalization of kidney function
D. Progressive decrease in urine reabsorptive capacity of the kidney for several days
E. Increased urine blood flow for a week

127. Which of the following is recommended bronchodilator therapy for stage II COPD?
A. Beta 2 agonist
B. Anticholinergic and beta 2 agonist
C. Long acting beta 2 antagonist
D. Sustained release theophylline
E. Long acting beta 2 agonist and sustained release theophylline

128. Which of the following is recommended bronchodilator therapy for stage I COPD?
A. Beta 2 agonist
B. Anticholinergic and beta 2 agonist
C. Long acting beta 2 antagonist
D. Sustained release theophylline
E. Long acting beta 2 agonist and sustained release theophylline

129. Which of the following is recommended bronchodilator therapy for stage III COPD?
A. Beta 2 agonist
B. Anticholinergic and beta 2 agonist
C. Long acting beta 2 antagonist
D. Sustained release theophylline
E. Long acting beta 2 agonist and sustained release theophylline

130. Which of the following is/are the mechanism/s by which NSAIDs induce mucosal injury seen during peptic
ulcer disease?
I. Interruption of prostaglandin synthesis
II. Intracellular of NSAIDs in an ionized form
III. Alteration of the surface mucosal layer, permitting back diffusion of H and pepsin
IV. Extracellular entrapment of NSAIDs in an ionized form
A. I and IV
B. I, II and IV
C. II, III and IV
D. I, II, III and IV
E. I, II and III
131. Prevpac, an anti-Helicobacter pylori regimen available in prepackaged formulation include:
A. Lansoprazole, tetracycline and metronidazole
B. Bismuth subsalicylate, tetracycline and metronidazole
C. Lansoprazole, tetracycline and amoxicillin
D. Bismuth subsalicylate, clarithromycin and amoxicillin
E. Lansoprazole, clarithromycin and amoxicillin

132. Helidac, an anti-Helicobacter pylori regimen available in prepackaged formulation include:

A. Lansoprazole, tetracycline and metronidazole
B. Bismuth subsalicylate, tetracycline and metronidazole
C. Lansoprazole, tetracycline and amoxicillin
D. Bismuth subsalicylate, clarithromycin and amoxicillin
E. Lansoprazole, clarithromycin and amoxicillin

133. Mechanism/s by which prostaglandins maintain gastric epithelial integrity

I. Regulate the release of mucosal bicarbonate and mucus
II. Inhibit parietal cell secretion
III. Maintain mucosal blood flow and epithelial cell restitution
A. I and IV
B. I, II and IV
C. II, III and IV
D. I, II, III and IV
E. I, II and III

134. Heart burn, commonly described as a pain in the center of the chest is a classic symptom of
A. Cardiac angina
B. Asthma
C. GERD
D. Zollinger-ellison syndrome
E. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

135. What is the reasonable way of administering the Proton pump inhibitor, omeprazole, with NG tubes?
A. Placed directly into the NG tube
B. Crushed and mixed with water to make a slurry/ suspension
C. Dissolution of the gelatin capsule with sodium bicarbonate injection
D. Suspension of the enteric coated beads in sodium bicarbonate injection
E. Crushed and mixed with sodium bicarbonate to make a slurry suspension koda-kimbe 25-19

136. What is/are the joint changes observed in rheumatoid arthritis?

I. Loosening of tendon sheath and other periarticular structures
II. Synovial thickening, leading to pannus formation
III. Joint space widening, leading to bone erosion and osteoporosis
IV. Erosion of articular surfaces
A. I and IV
B. I, II and IV
C. II, III and IV
D. I, II, III and IV
E. I, II and III

137. These agents preventor or slow joint or slow joint destruction in rheumatic arthritis
I. NSAIDs
II. Azathioprine
III. D-Penicillamine
IV. Hydroxychloroquine
A. I and IV
B. I, II and IV
C. II, III and IV
D. I, II, III and IV
E. I, II and III

138. In the synovium of the rheumatoid arthritis patients, the balance of cytokinesis is heavily weighted toward
the proinflammatory cytokines, leading to sustained inflammation and tissue destruction. Proinflammatory
cytokines include/s
I. IL-1
II. IL-Ra
III. IL-10
IV. IL-11
A. I only
 B. I and IV
C. II and IV
D. I, III and IV
E. I, II and III

139. This anti-inflammatory drug for rheumatoid arthritis should only be administered for a brief period due to
serious adverse effects such as osteoporosis, cataract formation and impaired wound healing on long-term
use
A. Aspirin
B. Prednisone
C. Sulfasalazine
D. Infliximab
E. Gold

140. Synovial joint consist of two bone ends covered by articular cartilages. This cartilage can be characterized
to be
I. Avascular and aneural
II. Metabolically active and undergone continual internal remodeling
III. Incharge of the production of proteoglycans and collagen in the extracellular matrix
IV. A membrane that produces a viscous fluid that lubricates the joint
A. I only
B. I, II and IV
C. II only
D. I, II, III and IV
E. II and I

141. This is a hallmark of the pathophysiology of rheumatoid arthritis

A. Generic marker such as HLA-DR4
B. Bacterial and viral infection
C. Inflammed synovium
D. Prostaglandin of TNF-a, IL-1, IL-6
E. Chonrocytes degradation

142. Classified as a Disease-Modifying Antirheumatic Drug, it indicates as amonotherapy for rheumatoid

arthritis and necessities liver function monitoring
A. Etanercept
B. Infliximab
C. Methotrexate
D. Leflunomide
E. Sulfasalazine

143. Neds, a 51 yo postal office clerk was diagnosed with osteoarthritis, the nonpharmacological treatment
most likely advised to her is/are
I. Aerobic exercise
II. Use supportive mechanism e.g. cane
III. Weight loss
IV. Physical therapy
A. I only
B. I, II and III
C. II only
D. I, II, III and IV
E. I, II and III

144. In the patients diagnosed with gout, it is expected that this serum acid level rises
A. Picric
B. Lactic
C. Uric
D. Dipicolinic
E. Glycolic

145. The following drug/s is/are contraindicated to patients with gout and hyperuricemia since it/they increase/s
uric acid production
I. Ethambutol
II. Salicylates
III. Diuretic
IV. Acetaminophen
A. I only
B. I, II and IV
C. II only
 D. I, II and III
E. II and IV

146. If gout is left untreated eventual joint deformity and disability may be observed. This occurrence is due to
tophi or tophaceous deposit. Tophi is defined as
A. Remains of degraded urate crystals
B. Deposits of monosodium urate crystals
C. Deposits of disodium urate crystals
D. Precipitate of dipotassium urate crystals

147. Assymptomatic hyperuricemia is characterized by increased serum uric acid level but has no signs or
symptoms of deposit disease. The logical primary intervention would be
A. Community intervention
B. Pharmacological intervention
C. Supportive intervention
D. Pharmaceutical intervention
E. Nutritional (increased purine rich food) intervention

148. Urate-lowering drugs should be administered for acute gouty arthritis when
A. Acute attack is controlled
B. Acute attack has not yet occurred as prophylaxis
C. An acute attack is transpiring
D. An acute attack just had occurred
E. In concomitant use with proinflammatory agents

149. The greatest potential risks of therapy with uricosuric drugs are the formation of uric acid crystals in urine
and the deposition of uric acid in the renal tubules, pelvis, or ureter. To reduce this risk, patients are advised
to do the following activities:
I. Maintain high fluid intake (2L/day)
II. Maintain high fluid intake (1.5L.day)
III. Take 1 g of NaHCO3, 3-4 times a day
IV. Take 1 g of NahCO3, 2-3 times a day
A. I and IV
B. II and III
C. II and IV
D. I only
E. I and III
150. Sarcomas are malignant tumors of the
A. Epithelial cells
B. Lymphoid
C. Nephron
D. Schwann cells
E. Lung cancer

151. The tumor marker Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is commonly seen in

A. Hepatocellular carcinoma
B. Colorectal cancer
C. Prostate cancer
D. Breast cancer
E. Lung cancer

152. Cyclophosphamide is an alkylating chemotherapeutic agent where they generally form covalent DNA
adducts. The following should be consider for cyclophosphomide regimen
I. Absence of liver disease
II. Coadministartion with mercaptoethanesulfonate
III. Maintenance of excellent hydration during therpy
IV. Control of purine-rich food
A. I only
B. I, II and IV
C. II only
D. I, II and III
E. II and IV

153. This antidopaminergic phenothiazine drug can be administered rectally and acts directly at the
chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ)
A. Haloperidol
 B. Lorazepam
C. Prochlorperazine
D. Thiethylperazine
E. ondasentron

154. IV catheters are commonly used in cancer therapy and are prone to infections. When is it advised to remove
the catheter?
I. If the patient has a “tunneled” catheter with a red streak over the subcutaneous part of the
tunnel
II. If it is an exit-site infection
III. If it is coagulase-positive staphylococcal infection
IV. If infection is due to P. aeruginosa and Candida species
A. I only
B. I, II and IV
C. II only
D. I, II and III
E. I, III and IV

155. Metformin is used in the management of diabetes mellitus. Patients receiving it should be monitoredfor
development of
A. Lactic acidosis
B. Tinnitus
C. Agranulocytosis
D. Hirsutism
E. Parakeratosis

156. Which of the following is an effect associated with the use of pilocarpine ophthalmic products?
I. Mydriasis
II. Cholinergic agonism
III. Papillary constriction
A. I and II only
B. II and III only
C. III only
D. I only
E. I, II and III

157. Psoriasis is one of the most common dermatologic disease. It best characterized by
A. Siler micaceous scale
B. Polygonal, flat-topped papules
C. Small red vesicles
D. Granulomas lesions
E. Water-filled blister

158. Which of the following statement is/are true regarding candidiasis?

I. It is a fungal infection caused by a related group of yeast
II. It may be systemic and life-threatening
III. It is very common among HIV-infected individuals
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. I, II and III
D. II and III only
E. III only

159. The clinical hallmark of acne vulgaris

A. Papuls
B. Pustules
C. Nodules
D. Comedones
E. Lesions

160. Transient lesions that are composed of a central wheal surrounded by an erythematous halo
A. Bullae
B. Acne
C. Psoriasis
 D. Eczema
E. Urticaria

161. Include tumors of connective tissue such as bone or muscle

A. Carcinomas
B. Sarcomas
C. Lymphomas
D. Leukemia
E. Hematoma

162. Include tumors of blood-forming elements and are classified as acute or chronic, myeloid or lymphoid
A. Carcinomas
B. Sarcomas
C. Lymphomas
D. Leukemia
E. Hematoma

163. The stage in carcinogenesis wherein the environment becomes altered to allow preferential growth of
mutated cells over normal cells
A. Promotion
B. Initiation
C. Progression
D. Regression
E. Metastasis

164. The first stage of carcinogenesis wherein normal cells are exposed to a carcinogen
A. Promotion
B. Initiation
C. Progression
D. Regression
E. Metastasis

165. A metabolite of cyclophosphamide and ifosfamide that is thought to cause a chemical irritation of bladder
mucosa resulting to bleeding
A. Mesna
B. Amifostine
C. Acrolein
D. Dextrazoxane
E. Histamine

166. Which of the following is/are true regarding pain?

I. An unpleasant sensory and emotional experience that is usually associated with structural or
tissue damage
II. A subjective, individual experience
III. Has physical, psychological and social determinants
A. I and II only
B. II and III only
C. I, II and III
D. III only
E. I only

167. Stimulation of mu receptors produces the characteristics narcotic effects. These morphine-like effects incude
I. Analgesia
II. Euphoria
III. Sedation
IV. Physical dependence
A. I, II, III and IV
B. I, II and III only
C. I, II and IV only
D. I and II only
E. I and III only

168. A component of red pepper that causes release of subsatance P from sensory nerve fibers, resulting in the
prolonged cutaneous pain transmission, histamine release, and erythema because of reflex vasodilatation
 A. Glucosamine sulfate
B. Chondroitin
C. Capsaicin
D. Capsicum oleoresin
E. Cycooxygenase

169. Natural or synthetic polysaccharide derivatives that adsorb water to soften the stool and increase the bulk
A. Saline laxatives
B. Osmotic laxatives
C. Emollient laxatives
D. Bulk-forming laxatives
E. Stimulant laxatives

170. Natural or synthetic polysaccharide derivatives that adsorb water to soften the stool and increase the bulk
A. Saline laxatives
B. Osmotic laxatives
C. Emollient laxatives
D. Bulk-forming laxatives
E. Stimulant laxatives

171. Laxatives that act as surfactants by allowing absorption of water into the stool, which makes the softened
stool easier pass
A. Saline laxatives
B. Osmotic laxatives
C. Emollient laxatives
D. Bulk-forming laxatives
E. Stimulant laxatives

172. Clusters of dilated blood vessels in the lower rectum or anus

A. Anal abscess
B. Cryptitis
C. Anal fissure
D. Polyps
E. Hemorrhoids

173. Which of the following statements adequately describes bulk-forming laxatives

A. Can cause diarrhea if not taken with water
B. Onset of action is in 4-8 hours
C. Produce much more complete evacuation of constipation than stimulant products
D. Are derived from polysaccharides and resemble fiber in mechanism of acton
E. All of its kind can cause abdominal cramping

174. Which of the following is/are factor/s for hyperphosphatemia and death from sodium phosphate enema?
I. Renal insufficiency
II. Hirschprung’s disease
III. Anorectal malformations
A. I and II only
B. II and III only
C. I, II and III
D. III only
E. I only

175. Which of the following is/are true regarding lactulose?

I. An osmotic laxative
II. May cause flatulence and cramping
III. Should be taken with fruit juice or milk to increase its palatability
A. I and II only
B. II and III only
C. I, II and III
D. III only
E. II only

176. A condition characterized in a poorly functioning colon and resembles the symptoms of ulcerative colitis,
caused by chronic use of stimulant laxatives
A. Melanosis coli
B. Cathartic colon
C. Lipid pneumonitis
D. Laxative abuse
 E. Hyperphosphatemia

177. A dark pigmentation of the colonic mucosa that results from long-term use of anthraquinone laxatives
A. Melanosis coli
B. Cathartic colon
C. Lipid pneumonitis
D. Laxative abuse
E. Hyperphosphatemia

178. Adverse effects of metoclopramide limit its usefulness. These adverse effects include
I. Insomnia
II. Depression
III. Extrapyramidal effects
A. I and II only
B. II and III only
C. II only
D. I, II and III
E. III only

179. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding emollient laxatives?
I. Not good for acute constipation
II. More effective than placebo for long term use
III. Good for patients who should not strain by passing a hard stool
A. I, II and III
B. I and III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I only

180. The biological active thyroid hormone produced by the thyroid gland that is four times more potent than
the other is:
A. Triiodothyronine
B. Thyroxine
C. Thyroid stimulating hormone
D. TRH
E. A and B

181. It is the hyper metabolic syndrome that occurs form excessive production of thyroid hormone with classic
symptoms of weight loss despite increased appetite, nervousness, palpitations, heat tolerance and insomnia
A. Hypothyroidism
B. Hashimoto’s disease
C. Thyrotoxicosis
D. Graves disease
E. Cushing syndrome

182. Thyroid preparations that are used to treat hypothyroidism

I. L-thyroxine
II. PTU
III. Methimazole
IV. Liothrix
A. I and II only
B. I, II and III
C. II and III only
D. I and IV only
E. I, II, III, and IV

183. In this condition, there is a loss of insulin secretion that results from autoimmune destruction of the insulin-
producing B-cells in the pancreas
A. Type 2 DM
B. Type 1 DM
C. Diabetes insipidus
D. Gestational diabetes
E. Type 3 DM

184. It is a condition defined as any carbohydrate intolerance with onset of the first recognition during
pregnancy and its duration affect the prognosis for a good obstetric and perinatal outcome
A. Juvenile-onset DM
B. Adult-onset DM
C. Gestational DM
 D. Obese type 2 DM
E. Pediatric DM

185. The normal fasting plasma glucose levels (FPG)

A. <140 mg/dL (7.8 mmol/L)
B. <100 mg/ dL (6.1 mmol/L)
C. <126 mg/dL (7.0 mmol/L)
D. 110-125 mg/dL (6.1-7.0 mmol/dL)
E. >200 mg/dL (11mmol/L)

186. The classical signs of diabetes Mellitus include the following: polydipsia, polyuria, ketonuria, rapid weight
loss, combined with random plasma glucose levels of:
A. ≥200 mg/dL
B. 105 mg/dL
C. 190 mg/dL
D. 140 mg/dL
E. ≥100 mg/dL

187. It is a rapid-acting insulin preparation that has a 4-5 hours duration of action
A. Insulin glargine
B. Insulin lispro
C. NPH
D. Lente (Insulin Zinc Suspension)
E. RAI

188. It is a condition where blood glucose concentration is < 50mg/dL and patient may be asymptomatic or a
blood glucose of < 40mg/dL where patients suffers from blurred vision, sweaty palms, generalized sweating,
tremors, hunger, confusion, anxiety and circumoral tingling and numbness and that severe condition can
lead to seizure and coma.
A. Hyperglycemia
B. Hyperuricemia
C. Ketoacidosis
D. Hypoglycemia
E. Diabetes insipidus

189. It reversibly inhibits a variety of enzymes present in the brush-border of the mucosa of the small intestine
that are responsible for the breakdown of complex polysaccharide and sucrose into absorbable
monosaccharides
A. Metformin
B. Acarbose
C. Miglitol
D. B and C
E. A and B

190. First generation sulfonylureas

I. Tolbutamide
II. Chlorpropamide
III. Acetohexamide
IV. Glipizide
A. I, II and III
B. I and II only
C. I only
D. I and III only
E. II only

191. A condition characterized by an increase in intraocular pressure (IOP) and is influenced by the production
of aqueous humor by the ciliary processes and the outflow of aqueous humor through the trabelar meshwork
A. Glaucoma
B. Stye
C. Conjunctivitis
D. Corneal ulcers
E. Diplopia

192. An IOP greater than 21 mm Hg, normal visual fields, normal optic discs, open angles, and the absence of
any ocular disease contributing to the elevation of IOP
A. Angle-closure glaucoma
B. Open-angle glaucoma
C. Ocular hypertension
D. Primary open angle glaucoma
 E. Diplopia

193. In this condition, aqueous humor outflow from the anterior chamber is constantly subnormal primarily
because of a degenerative process in the trabecular meshwork
A. Angle-closure glaucoma
B. Ocular hypertension
C. Primary open angle glaucoma
D. Diplopia
E. Corneal ulcers

194. It is a parasympathetic agent that causes contraction of ciliary muscle fibers attached to the trabecular
meshwork and sclera spur. This opens the trabecular meshwork to enhance aqueous humor outflow
A. Epinephrine
B. Pilocarpine
C. Apraclonidine
D. Levobunolol
E. Atropine

195. Are infections of the hair follicle or sebaceous glands of the eyelids commonly caused by Staphylococcus
aureus
A. Conjunctivitis
B. Hordeolum
C. Corneal ulcers
D. Cataracts
E. Comedones

196. Cholestatic jaundice is an adverse effect reported for all the salts of this antimicrobial especially for its
estolate salt
A. Tetracycline
B. Erythromycin
C. Clindamycin
D. Netilmicin
E. Polymixin

197. Associated with aplastic anemia and gray baby syndrome

A. Flucytosine
B. Ketoconazole
C. Quinolones
D. Chloramphenicol
E. Salicylates

198. Type of pain that usually last less than 30 days and occurs following muscle strains and tissue injury
A. Breakthrough pain
B. Chronic pain
C. Acute pain
D. Chronic non-malignant pain
E. Chronic cancer pain

199. Type of pain which is the intermittetnt, transitory increase in pain that occurs at a greater intensity over
baseline chronic pain
A. Acute pain
B. Chronic malignant pain
C. Chronic non-malignant pain
D. Breakthrough pian
E. Chronic cancer pain

200. Potential adverse effects of aspirin include

I. Gastrointestinal ulceration
II. Hypersensitivity asthma
III. Cardiac arrhythmias
A. I and II only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and III only
E. I, II and III

201. If the hospital pharmacy is decentralized, each satellite pharmacy must be

A. Supervised by a single pharmacist who is knowledgeable and experienced in hospital operations
 B. Supervised by a pharmacy technician or aide, in order to maximize human resources in the hospital
C. Supervised by a licensed pharmacist who reports to the director of the pharmacy
D. Supervised by pharmacy interns in order to facilitate full training experience
E. Supervised by a registered nurse if there is no pharmacist available

202. Routine inspections must be done in all areas where medications are dispensed, administered and stored.
Documented checks are to be made to make sure that
I. Outdated and other unusable drugs are removed from locations where they could be
admitted in error
II. The use of investigational drugs conforms poorly with pharmacy policies and procedures
III. External and internal drug preparations must be stored in the same pharmacy area
A. I, II and III
B. I and II only
C. II only
D. I only
E. I and III only

203. Responsible for the development and surveillance of pharmacy and therapeutics policies and practices,
particularly drug utilization within the hospital
A. Medical director
B. Board of directors
C. Pharmacy and therapeutics committee
D. Chief pharmacist
E. Pharmaceutical services director

204. Which of the following are the recommended functions of Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee
I. Advises the medical staff and pharmacy service on matters pertaining to the choice of
drugs available for patient care and diagnostic testing
II. Adds and deletes drugs in the hospital formulary or drug list and continually reviews it
III. Ensures constant supply of drugs by facilitating regular inventory and stocks review
A. I, II and III
B. I and II only
C. I and III only
D. II and III only
E. I only

205. By customs, acts as the secretary of the Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee
A. Registered nurse
B. Head of the legal division of the hospital
C. Medical doctor
D. Pharmacist
E. Administrative clerk

206. When medications are dispersed to inpatients at the time of their discharge, the labels must include
I. Full name of the patient
II. Name of the drug, strength, and amount dispensed
III. Unit cost of the drug
IV. Name of the prescribing practiotioner
A. I, II and III only
B. I, II, III and IV
C. II only
D. I and II only
E. I, II and IV only

207. Refers to a define course or method of action to guide and determine present and future decisions
A. Framework
B. Policy
C. Operations
D. Procedure
E. Strategic planning

208. Refers to a series of steps followed in a regular definite sequence in order to accomplish something
A. Framework
B. Policy
C. Operations
D. Procedure
E. Vision-mission statement
F.
209. Which of the following are included in the administrative information division of most policy and procedure
manual?
I. Personnel policies and procedures
II. Philosophy
III. Organizational relationships
IV. Job descriptions
A. I only
B. II only
C. I, II and III only
D. III and IV only
E. II, III and IV only

210. Which of the following is/are characteristics of the information contained in policy and procedure manuals?
I. Current
II. Reliable
III. Static
A. I only
B. II only
C. I, II and III only
D. I and II only
E. II and III only

211. Which of the following factors mainly determine/s the type of services offered by a hospital
I. Government health policies
II. The health care services demands of the patients in the target market
III. The resources of the organization
A. I only
B. II only
C. I, II and III only
D. I- and II only
E. II and III only

212. Which of the following are components of hospital marketing?

I. Product or types of service
II. Price
III. Place promotion
A. I and II only
B. III and IV only
C. I, II and III only
D. II, III and IV only
E. I, II, III and IV

213. Refers to an amount that is above the break-even cost of providing a product or service and is necessary
to provide for replacement and upgrading of hospital equipment and facilities
A. Overhead cost
B. Revenue deductions
C. Profit margin
D. Direct personnel costs
E. Supply cost

214. Refers to the pricing method wherein the price is calculated by adding a fixed fee to the acquisition cost of
the unit of product dispensed
A. Percentage markup method
B. Dispensing fee method
C. Per diem method
D. Standard method
E. Special cost method

215. Refers to the pricing method where the patient receiving a more costly drug pays for a proportionately
larger part of overall pharmacy service costs regardless of the amount of service received
A. Percentage markup method
B. Dispensing fee method
C. Per diem method
D. Standard method
E. Special cost method

216. Refers to the pricing method wherein the average drug cost per patient day, the average pharmacy
service cost per patient day, and the desired profit margin are computed to arrive at a single pharmacy
charge for each day the patient stayed in the hospital
 A. Percentage markup method
B. Dispensing fee method
C. Per diem method
D. Standard method
E. Special cost method

217. A visual display technique that can be used as a scheduling tool for the entire planning process
A. Curve fitting
B. Gant chart
C. Cyclical change
D. Regression
E. Distribution

218. A physical quantity of a drug product ordered by a prescriber to be administered to a specified patient at
one time, in ready to administer from with no further physical or chemical alterations required
A. Unit dose package
B. Single unit package
C. Unit dose
D. Multiple dose
E. Unit dose dispensing system

219. A package that contains one discrete pharmaceutical dosage form

A. Unit dose package
B. Single unit package
C. Unit dose
D. Multiple dose
E. Unit dose dispensing system

220. Refers to the act of a pharmacist in supplying one or more drug products to or for a patient, usually in
response to an order from an authorized prescriber
A. Patient counseling
B. Drug utilization review
C. Distribution
D. Compounding
E. Dispensing

221. Refers to a system that has its purpose the selection, acquisition, control, storage, dispensing, delivery,
preparation, and administration of drug product in health care institution in response of an authorized
prescriber
A. Drug distribution control system
B. Drug use information system
C. Drug distribution system
D. Drug packaging system
E. Drug availability system

222. Which of the following are considered as drug distribution control information necessary to ensure that a
unit dose package is delivered as ordered to the right patient, at the right date, and the right time?
I. A description of the unit dose ordered
II. Socio-economic statues of the patient
III. Identification and location of the patient
IV. Time and date of administration
A. I, II, III and IV
B. I, II and II only
C. I, III and IV only
D. II, III and IV only
E. I, II and IV only

223. A standard “bid” dosing schedule means that a drug must be given at
A. 7am & 7pm
B. 8am & 8pm
C. 6am & 6pm
D. 9am & 9pm
E. 10am & 10pm

224. A standard “tid” dosing schedule means that the drug must be given at
A. 7am – 12nn – 4pm
B. 8am – 1pm – 5pm
C. 10am – 2pm – 6pm
 D. 7am – 11am – 3pm
E. 6am – 10am – 2 pm

225. A standard “q6h” dosing schedule means that the drug must be given at
A. 7am – 1pm – 7pm – 1am
B. 8am – 2pm – 8pm – 2am
C. 9am – 3pm – 9pm – 3am
D. 6 am – 12nn – 6pm- 12am
E. 10am – 4 pm – 10pm – 4am

226. Refers to a drug distribution system wherein a bulk supply of each drug product is maintained on the
nursing unit in advance of need and the nurse prepare the doses of administration
A. Patient prescription system
B. Floor stock
C. Emergency carts
D. Unit dose dispensing system
E. Decentralized system

227. Refers to a drug distribution system wherein all drugs are retained in the pharmacy until the order is
received, and then a multiple dose supply is dispensed to the nursing unit labeled for use by a specific
patient
A. Patient prescription system
B. Floor stock
C. Emergency carts
D. Unit dose dispensing system
E. Decentralized system

228. Factors aside from the system design that affect the total systems cost of maintaining a hospital drug
distribution system
I. Mission of the hospital
II. Bed size
III. Physical layout of hospital
IV. Enforcement of performance standards
A. I, II, III and IV
B. II and III only
C. I, II and IV only
D. I and IV only
E. I, III and IV only

229. Which of the following is/are advantage/s of unit dose dispensing systems?
I. Less drug losses due to waste and pilferage
II. Greater accuracy in inventory control, cost accounting, and charging
III. Improved ability of the hospital to attract and retain highly qualified and motivated
pharmacy personnel
A. I and II only
B. I and II only
C. I and III only
D. II only
E. I, II and III only

230. A “stat” order means

I. The drug is to be administered immediately
II. The order takes precedence over the regularly scheduled medications
III. The drug is to be administered at a specified time
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. I and III only
D. I, II and III
E. II and III only

231. Which of the following is/are true regarding subcutaneous injection administration?
I. The main areas of administration are the thigh, abdomen and the upper arm
II. The needle is inserted through the skin at a 90-degree angle
III. Rotation of the injection sites will reduce the chance of local irritation or damage
A. I, II and III only
B. I and II only
C. I and III only
D. II and III only
E. II only
232. Which of the following is/are true regarding intramuscular injection administration?
I. The usual sites of administration are the deltoid and gluteal muscles
II. 5-6 ml is usually the recommended maximal volume
III. The needle is inserted through the skin at a 45-60 degree angle
A. I, II and III only
B. I and II only
C. I and III only
D. I only
E. III only

233. Which of the following is/are true regarding intradermal injection?

I. Used to check for circulating antibodies to the injected antigen
II. Inradermal skin test is usually read at 24, 36 and 48 hours
III. A reddened area of in duration of 5 mm or greater usually indicates an intact immune
system
A. I, II and III only
B. I and II only
C. I and III only
D. I only
E. III only

234. Which of the following are indications of intravenous therapy?

I. Replacement of fluid and electrolytes
II. Parenteral nutrition
III. Administration of drugs requiring a rapid high blood level
IV. Emergency situations like cardiac arrest
A. I and II only
B. I, II and III only
C. I, II and IV only
D. II, III and V only
E. I, II, III and IV only

235. Which of the following are possible adverse effects of intravenous administration?
I. Thrombophlebitis
II. Air emboli
III. Speed shock
IV. Injection of pathogens
A. I and III only
B. I, II and III only
C. I, III and IV only
D. II, III and IV only
E. I, II, III and IV

236. The optimal pH range for aminophylline

A. Below 7.0
B. Above 7.0
C. Above 8.0
D. Below 8.0
E. Above 6.0

237. Which of the following is/are nutrition support activities of a pharmacist?

I. Catheter care
II. Nutritional assessment
III. Parenteral formulation design
IV. Metabolic monitoring of therapy
A. I and III only
B. II and III only
C. I, III and IV only
D. III and IV only
E. I, II, III and IV only

238. Which of the following is/are essential human nutrients for intravenous diets?
I. Carbohydrates
II. Protein
III. Electrolytes
IV. Fats
A. I and III only
B. I, II, and III only
 C. I, III, and IV only
D. II, III, and IV only

239. The most important human nutrient required for tissue synthesis, repair, transport of body nutrients and
waste, and maintenance of immune function
A. Carbohydrates
B. Protein
C. Fats
D. Dextrose
E. Lactose

240. Most widely utilized carbohydrate in parenteral nutrition because of its low cost, availability, and proven
utility
A. Glycerol
B. Fructose
C. Sucrose
D. Dextrose
E. Lactose

241. Which of the following is/are mechanical tube feeding complication/s?

I. Aspiration pneumonia
II. Mucosal erosions
III. Hypertonic dehydration
IV. Nasopharyngeal irritation
A. I and II only
B. III and IV only
C. I, II and III only
D. I, II and IV only
E. I, II, III and IV

242. Which of the following is/are metabolic tube feeding complication/s?

I. Electrolyte imbalance
II. Glucose intolerance
III. Diarrhea
IV. Distention
A. I and II only
B. III and IV only
C. I, II and III
D. I, II, and IV only
E. I, II, III and IV

243. The extent to which a technique consistently measures whatever it measures regardless of the
investigator or the situation
A. Validity
B. Dependability
C. Vulnerability
D. Sensitivity
E. Reliability

244. Which of the following is/are gastrointestinal tube feeding complication/s?

I. Electrolyte imbalance
II. Glucose intolerance
III. Diarrhea
IV. Distention

A. I and II only
B. III and IV only
C. I, II and III
D. I, II, and IV only
E. I, II, III and IV

245. The extent to which a technique measures what it is intended to measure?

A. Validity
B. Dependability
C. Vulnerability
D. Sensitivity
E. Reliability
246. An authorized, structured and continuing program that reviews, analyzes and interpret patterns of the drug
usage in a given health care delivery system against pre determined standards
A. Pharmaceutical care plan
B. Therapeutic drug monitoring
C. Drug utilization review
D. Quality assurance
E. Drug auditing and inventory control

247. Pre-clinical studies that determine the new drug’s absorptive, distributive, metabolic and excretory
pathways
A. Pharmacologic studies
B. Pharmacodynamics studies
C. Toxicologic studies
D. Pharmacokinetic studies
E. Biogenetic studies

248. Pre-clinical studies that determine the action of the new drug in animals to estimate the magnitude of its
intended therapeutic effect
A. Pharmacologic studies
B. Pharmacodynamics studies
C. Toxicologic studies
D. Pharmacokinetic studies
E. Biogenetic studies

249. Pre-clinical studies in animals that determines the relative safety in humans and monitor parameters that
will be used in clinical trials
A. Pharmacologic studies
B. Pharmacodynamic studies
C. Toxicologic studies
D. Pharmacokinetic studies
E. Biogenetic studies

250. Any drug that has not yet been released for general use, and has not yet been cleared for sale in
commerce
I. Investigational drug
II. Experimental drug
III. Regulated drug
IV. New drug
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. I and III only
D. I and IV only
E. I, II and IV only

251. Various strategies and techniques are in place for use in counseling and educating patients. The effective
domain of learning process involves
I. Perceptions
II. Emotions
III. Memory
IV. Beliefs
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. I, II, and IV only
D. I, II, III only
E. IV only

252. The behavioral domain of learning process involves

I. Decision making
II. Actions
III. Physical abilities
IV. Perceptions
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. I, II and IV only
D. I, II, and III only
E. IV only

253. An order for medication issued by physician, dentist, or other properly licensed medical practitioner
A. Medication profile
 B. Patient chart
C. Voucher
D. Prescription
E. Insurance policy

254. Medications that may be dispensed legally only on prescription

A. Over-the-counter drugs
B. Sample drugs
C. Imported drugs
D. Investigational drugs
E. Legend drugs

255. Prescription part generally understood to be a contraction of the Latin verb recipe, meaning take thou or
you take
A. Superscription
B. Inscription
C. Subscription
D. Signature
E. Transcription

256. The body or principal part of the prescription order t hat contains the names and the quantities of t he
prescribed ingredients
A. Superscription
B. Inscription
C. Subscription
D. Signature
E. Transcription

257. Part of the prescription that consists of directions to the pharmacist for preparing the prescription
A. Superscription
B. Inscription
C. Subscription
D. Signature
E. Transcription

258. Part of the prescription where the prescriber indicates the directions for the patient’s use of medication
A. Superscription
B. Inscription
C. Subscription
D. Signature
E. Transcription

259. They are commonly used abbreviations in prescription and medication orders. What does “aa.” mean?
A. Before meals
B. Up to
C. Left ear
D. Each ear
E. Of each

260. The abbreviation “po” means

A. After surgery
B. Rectally
C. By mouth
D. When necessary
E. After eating

261. The abbreviation “ss” means

A. After surgery
B. Rectally
C. By mouth
D. One half
E. Immediately

262. Defined as the preparation, mixing, assembling, packaging, or labeling of a drug or device as a result of
prescription-drug order
A. Pharmacy dispensing
B. Pharmacy compounding
C. Pharmacy manufacturing
 D. Pharmacy quality assurance
E. Pharmacy practice

263. Use for bulk powders, large quantities of tablets or capsules, and viscous liquids that can not be poured
readily
A. Prescription bottles
B. Applicator bottles
C. Wide mouth bottles
D. Round vials
E. Sifter-top containers

264. Use for powders to be applied sprinkling

A. Prescription bottles
B. Slide boxes
C. Wide mouth bottles
D. Dropper bottles
E. Aerosol containers

265. Use for powders to be applied sprinkling

A. Prescription bottles
B. Collapsible tubes
C. Wide mouth bottles
D. Dropper bottles
E. Ointment jars

266. Any substance that may be considered a food or part of a food and provides medical or health benefits,
including prevention and treatment of disease
A. Designer food
B. Nutraceutical
C. Pharmafood
D. Phytochemical
E. Chemopreventive agent

267. Substances found in edible fruits and vegetable that may be ingested by humans daily in gram quantities
and that exhibit a potential for modulating human metabolism in a manner favorable for cancer prevention
A. Designer food
B. Nutraceutical
C. Pharmafood
D. Phytochemical
E. Chemopreventive agent

268. Nutritive or nonnutritive food component being scientifically investigated as a potential inhibitor of
carcinogenesis for primary and secondary cancer prevention
A. Designer food
B. Nutraceutical
C. Pharmafood
D. Phytochemical
E. Chemopreventive agent

269. Processed food that are supplemented with food ingredients naturally rich in disease-preventing
substances
A. Designer food
B. Nutraceutical
C. Pharmafood
D. Phytochemical
E. Chemopreventive agent

270. Which of the following are considered as categories of complementary and alternative medicine?
I. Mind-body interventions
II. Bioelectromagnetic intravenous
III. Herbal medicine
IV. Diet and nutrition
A. I and II only
B. III and IV only
C. I, II and III only
D. I, II and IV only
E. I, II, III and IV
271. An ancient Chinese healing art that employs art that employs fine needles inserted at various locations in
the body to restore the smooth flow of energy
A. Hypnosis
B. Allopathy
C. Acupuncture
D. Acupressure
E. Homeopathy

272. A therapeutic method that clinically applies the law of similar (like cures like) and uses medically active,
potentized substances at weak or infinitesimal doses
A. Aryuvedic medicine
B. Chiropractic
C. Hypnosis
D. Homeopathy
E. Allopathy

273. A state of altered consciousness, sleep or trance induced artificially in a subject by means of verbal
suggestion or by the subject concentrating upon some subject
A. Hypnosis
B. Chiropractic
C. Allopathy
D. Homeopathy
E. Iridology

274. A diagnostic tool that purports to correlate changes in the color and texture of the iris with mental and
physical disorders
A. Hypnosis
B. Chiropractic
C. Allopathy
D. Homoepathy
E. Iridology

275. Referred to a specialty practice of pharmacy that focuses upon the safe and efficacious use of radioactive
drugs
I. Nuclear pharmacy
II. Radiopharmacy
III. Institutional pharmacy
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. I, II and III
E. I and III only

276. A drug that exhibits spontaneous disintegration of unstable nuclei with the emission of nuclear particles or
photons
A. Designer drug
B. Prohibited drug
C. Dangerous
D. Over-the-counter drug
E. Radioactive drug

277. Which of the following is/are true regarding radiopharmaceuticals?

I. Lack of pharmaceutical effects
II. Employed as tracers of physiological functions
III. Small amounts produce negligible effects on biological processes
A. II only
B. I and II only
C. II and III only
D. I, II and III
E. III only

278. A diagnostic radiopharmaceutical used for bone scans

A. Tc-99m diphosphonates
B. Tc-99m macroaggregated albumin
C. Tl-201 thalous chloride
D. Sr-89 strontium chloride
E. I-131 sodium iodide

279. A diagnostic radiopharmaceutical used for myocardial perfusion scans

 A. Tc-99m diphosphonates
B. Tc-99m macroaggregated albumin
C. Tl-201 thalous chloride
D. Sr-89 strontium chloride
E. I-131 sodium iodide

280. A diagnostic radiopharmaceutical used for lung scans

A. Tc-99m diphosphonates
B. Tc-99m macroaggregated albumin
C. Tl-201 thalous chloride
D. Sr-89 strontium chloride
E. I-131 sodium iodide

281. Which of the following is/are true regarding the functions of Vitamin A?
I. Act as antirachitic vitamin
II. Maintains the integrity of epithelial membranes
III. Essential in the formation of rhodopsin and the normal functioning of the retina
A. I only
B. II and III only
C. I, II and III
D. I and III only
E. II only

282. Which of the following is/are true regarding the functions of Vitamin C?
I. Formation of intercellular collagen
II. Healing of bone fractures
III. Metabolism of tyrosine
A. I only
B. II and III only
C. I, II and III
D. I and III only
E. II only

283. Hospitals may be classified in different ways according to

I. Type of service
II. Length of stay
III. Ownership
IV. Bed capacity
A. I, II, III and IV
B. I, II and III only
C. I and III only
D. I and IV only
E. I, III and IV

284. Which of the following are fundamental functions of a hospital?

I. Patient care
II. Wellness
III. Research
IV. Education
A. I and II only
B. I and III only
C. I, II and III only
D. I and III only
E. I, II, III and IV

285. Which of the following is/are true regarding open questions?

I. Allow the patient sufficient latitude in interpreting and responding to requests for
information
II. Cannot be answered in one phrase or with a “yes” or a “no”
III. Its limited use will result in an overly long unfocused and inefficient interview
A. I only
B. II and III only
C. I, II and III
D. I and II only
E. II only

286. The provision of integrated, accessible health-care services by clinicians who are accountable for
addressing a large majority of personal health-care needs developing a sustained partnership with the
patient, and practicing in the context of family and community
 A. Disease management
B. Acute care
C. Primary care
D. Institutional care
E. Long-term care

287. An evaluative approach to health-care delivery system that attempts to improve outcomes for patients with
a specific disease while optimizing the overall use of the health-care resources
A. Patient focused care
B. Benefit management
C. Disease management
D. Case management
E. Primary care

288. A process by which an experienced professional works with patients, providers, and insurers to coordinate
all services deemed necessary to provide the patient with medically appropriate health care
A. Patient focused care
B. Benefit management
C. Disease management
D. Case management
E. Primary care

289. Categories listed by application of the US Food and Drug Administration definitions to available clinical
data in order to define a drug’s potential to cause birth defects or fetal death
A. Phenol coefficient
B. Relative risk ratio
C. Bioequivalence requirement
D. Pregnancy risk
E. Therapeutic index

290. A pregnancy risk category that indicates an adequate studies in pregnant women have failed to show a
risk to the fetus in the first trimester of pregnancy and no evidence of risk in later trimester
A. Category B
B. Category D
C. Category A
D. Category C
E. Category S

291. A pregnancy risk category that indicates that studies in animals or humans show fetal abnormalities, or
adverse reaction reports indicate evidence of fetal risk
A. Category B
B. Category A
C. Category O
D. Category X
E. Category Y

292. A pregnancy risk category that indicates that animal studies have shown an adverse effect on the fetus, but
there are no adequate studies in humans
A. Category C
B. Category B
C. Category D
D. Category E
E. Category O

293. A pregnancy risk category that indicates that there is evidence of risk to the human fetus, but the potential
benefits of use in pregnant women may be acceptable despite potential risks
A. Category E
B. Category B
C. Category D
D. Category A
E. Category X

294. A pregnancy category that indicates that animal studies have not shown an adverse effect on fetus, but
there are no adequate clinical studies in regnant women
A. Category D
B. Category B
C. Category X
D. Category A
 E. Category C

295. Which of the following is/are forms of non verbal communication?

I. Clothing and hairstyle
II. Posture
III. Eye contact
IV. Proximity to other person
A. II and III only
B. III only
C. I, II and III only
D. I, II and IV only
E. I, II, III and IV

296. Which of the following is/are examples of mechanical barriers to effective listening and communication?
I. Noise
II. Harsh light
III. Impaired eyesight
IV. Uncomfortable chairs
A. I, II, III and IV
B. I, II and IV only
C. II and III only
D. I, II and IV only
E. I and II only

297. A skilled and principled use of relationships to facilitate-self knowledge, emotional acceptance and growth,
and the optimal development of personal resources
A. Communication
B. Counseling
C. Listening
D. Health promotion
E. Problem solving

298. The ability to see the world from the point of view of another person, through their frame of reference,
through their conceptual and emotional spectacles
A. Sympathy
B. Genuineness
C. Listening
D. Empathy
E. Involvement

299. According to the preventive model, which of the following is/are function/s of tertiary level of prevention
I. Prevention of deterioration, relapse and complications
II. Promotion of rehabilitation
III. Prevention of onset disease
A. I, II and III
B. I and II only
C. II and III only
D. II and III only
E. I only

300. According to the preventive model, which of the following is/are function/s of secondary level of
prevention?
I. Help adjustment to terminal conditions
II. Minimization of the severity of an existing disease
III. Reversal of progress of an existing disease

A. I, II and III
B. I and II only
C. I and III only
D. II and III only
E. I only