PATHOLOGY MCQs

1. An example of a tissue or organ composed of Permanent Parenchymal cells is:

a) Liver
b) Bone Marrow
c) Small Intestinal Mucosa
d) Heart
e) Renal Tubules
2. The type of necrosis that occurs in Peripancreatic tissue in Acute Pancreatitis is:
a) Liquefaction
b) Fat
c) Coagulation
d) Gummatous
e) Fibrinoid
3. Change of Columnar Epithelium of the Bronchi into Mature Squamous Epithelium is called:
a) Metaplasia
b) Dysplasia
c) Hyperplasia
d) Neoplasia
e) Hypertrophy
4. Metastatic Calcification:
a) Is due to hypercalcemia
b) Is due to hypocalcemia
c) Occurs in Necrotic Tissue
d) Occurs at sites of Chronic Inflammation
e) Is due to malignancy
5. Which of the following is a feature of Irreversible Cell Injury:
a) Glycogen stores are depleted
b) Cytoplasmic sodium increases
c) Nuclei undergo karyorrhexis
d) Intracellular pH diminishes
e) Blebs form on cell membranes
6. Which of the following processes that occur in the breast allows a mother to feed the infant:
a) Stromal hypertrophy
b) Epithelial dysplasia
c) Steatocyte atrophy
d) Ductul epithelial metaplasia
e) Lobular hyperplasia
7. An Amputated lower limb from a diabetic patient showing black discoloration of the skin and soft
tissues with areas of yellowish exudates is characterized as:
a) Neoplasia
b) Gangrenous Necrosis
c) Coagulopathy
d) Hemosiderosis
e) Gas gangrene

8. Focal fat necrosis, with flecks of chalky tan-white material seen in the omentum is most often
associated with the following:
 a) Gangrenous appendicitis
b) Chronic salpingitis
c) Acute pancreatitis
d) Hepatitis
e) Acute gastritis
9. In a 60 year old male, Gangrene of toes is most likely associated with:
a) Diabetes Mellitus
b) Heart Failure
c) Blunt force trauma
d) AIDS
e) Type III hypersensitivity reaction
10. The presence of Columnar Epithelium with Goblet cells in the Lower Oesophagus is most
consistent with:
a) Dysplasia
b) Hyperplasia
c) Carcinoma
d) Ischaemia
e) Metaplasia
11. Which of the following processes explain the appearance of Calcium deposition in Tuberculous
Lymph Nodes:
a) Dystrophic calcification
b) Apoptosis
c) Hypercalcaemia
d) Metastatic calcification
e) Neoplastic change
12. Lipofuscin deposition is most likely to result from:
a) Nuclear pyknosis
b) Myocardial fiber hypertrophy
c) Coagulative necrosis
d) Autophagocytosis
e) Anaerobic glycolysis
13. Which of the following cellular changes is most likely to present irreversible cellular injury:
a) Epithelial dysplasia
b) Cytoplasmic fatty metamorphosis
c) Nuclear pyknosis
d) Atrophy
e) Anaerobic Glycolysis
14. Which of the following is an Anti-Oxidant:
a) Glutathione Peroxidase
b) Catalase
c) Hydrogen peroxide
d) NADPH oxidase
e) Myeloperoxidase
15. Which of the following is the most likely pathologic alteration following occlusion of the left middle
cerebral artery by a sterile thrombus:
a) Cerebral softening from liquefactive necrosis
b) Pale infarction with coagulative necrosis
c) Predominantly the loss of glial cells
d) Recovery of damaged neurons if the vascular supply is re-established
e) Wet gangrene with secondary bacterial infection
16. The action of putrefactive bacteria on necrotic tissue results in:
 a) Coagulation
b) Infarction
c) Gangrene
d) Embolism
e) Caseation
17. Which of the following type of necrosis is most commonly associated with ischaemic injury:
a) Coagulation Necrosis
b) Liquefaction Necrosis
c) Caseous Necrosis
d) Fat Necrosis
e) Gangrenous Necrosis
18. Enzymes involved in the inactivation of free radicals include:
a) Superoxide dismutase
b) Vitamin E
c) Both A and B
d) Neither A nor B
e) a-antitrypsin
19. Hepatocytes are an example of:
a) Permenant cells
b) Stable cells
c) Labile cells
d) Metaplasia
e) Mesenchymal cells
20. Calcium may play a role in cell injury by:
a) Causing ATP depletion
b) Activating phospholipases
c) Inducing autophagocytosis
d) Regulating pyknosis
e) Reducing intracellular pH
21. A common manifestation of sublethal cell injury (reversible injury) in organs such as the heart and
liver is:
a) Glycogen accumulation
b) Fatty change
c) Calcium deposition
d) Apoptosis
e) Deposition of melanin
22. An area of keratinizing squamous epithelium lining a major bronchus is an example of:
a) Heterotopia
b) Metaplasia
c) Dysplasia
d) Atrophy
e) Neoplasia
23. The enzymes responsible for liquefaction in an abscess are derived mainly from:
a) Tissue
b) Serum
c) Lymph
d) Neutrophils
e) Lymphocytes

24. Each of the following is an example of hyperplasia except:

a) Enlargement of one kidney after surgical removal of the other kidney
 b) Changes in the thyroid gland in response to increased demand for thyroid
hormones
c) Changes in breast tissue during pregnancy
d) Enlargement of lymph nodes during a viral infection
e) Enlargement of skeletal muscles after weight training
25. Select the wrong statement. Apoptosis:
a) Occurs in singles cells or in small cluster of cells
b) Is programmed cell death
c) Is seen in toxic or viral hepatitis
d) Appears cheesy in appearance
e) Does not elicit an inflammatory reaction
26. Intracellular system(s) sensitive to cell injury is/are:
a) Aerobic respiration
b) Maintenance of the integrity of cell membrane
c) Synthesis of protein
d) Integrity of genetic apparatus
e) All of the above
27. Which of the following can undergo apoptosis:
a) Cells infected with virus
b) Cells with DNA damage
c) Increased oxidant within the cell
d) None of the above
e) All of the above
28. Apoptosis:
a) Massive necrosis
b) Foreign body phagocytosis
c) Lipoprotein synthesis
d) Programmed cell death
e) Wet gangrene
29. Enzymes involved in the inactivation of free radicals include:
a) Superoxide dismutase
b) Vitamin E
c) Both A an B
d) Neither A nor B
e) a-antitrypsin
30. The following is true about hyperplasia except:
a) Can be physiological
b) Is a precancerous condition
c) Is reversible
d) Is due to excess hormone stimulation
e) Can be associated with hypertrophy
31. Early clumping of nuclear chromatin is most closely associated with:
a) Reduced intracellular pH
b) Increased intracellular pH
c) Denatured proteins and RNA loss
d) Decreased DNA synthesis
e) Release of lysosomal enzymes

40. Digestion of tissue with soap formation and calcification is characteristic of:
a) Coagulation Necrosis
 b) Caseous Necrosis
c) Fibrinoid Necrosis
d) Liquefaction Necrosis
e) Enzymatic Fat Necrosis
41. All of the following findings represent changes seen within cells that represent reversible cellular
injury, except:
a) Fatty change in hepatocytes
b) Neuronal cell swelling
c) Skeletal muscle fiber anaerobic glycolysis
d) Renal tubular cell nuclear pyknosis
e) Kupffer cell iron deposition
42. Which is most likely to happen following a stroke with loss of blood supply to a lobe of the brain:
a) Cerebral softening from liquefactive necrosis
b) Pale infarction with coagulative necrosis
c) Predominantly the loss of glial cells
d) Recover of damaged neurons if the vascular supply is restablished
e) Wet gangrene with secondary bacterial infection
43. The best example of Dystrophic Calcification is seen in a:
a) 55 year old woman with metastases from breast carcinoma &
hypercalcemia
b) Healing granuloma in a 41 year old man with pulmonary tuberculosis
c) Gangrenous lower extremity in a 50 year old woman with diabetes mellitus
d) 62 year old woman with a recent cerebral infarction
e) Abscess of the left fallopian tube in a 19 year old woman with Neisseria
Gonnorrheae Infection
44. Which of the following cellular changes represents the best evidence for irreversible cellular
injury:
a) Epithelial dysplasia
b) Cytoplasmic fatty metamorphosis
c) Nuclear pyknosis
d) Atrophy
e) Anaerobic glycolysis
45. The presence of differentiated columnar epithelium with goblet cells in lower esophagus is
consistent with:
a) Dysplasia
b) Hyperplasia
c) Carcinoma
d) Ischemia
e) Metaplasia
46. Which of the following will show hypertrophy:
a) The uterine myometrium in pregnancy
b) The female breast at puberty
c) The liver following partial resection
d) The ovary following menopause
e) The cervix with chronic inflammation
47. Which of the following is most likely to give rise to Metaplasia:
a) Tanning of the skin following sunlight exposure
b) Lactation following pregnancy
c) Vitamin A deficiency
d) Acute Myocardial Infarction
e) Acute Tubular Necrosis
48. Which of the following is deposited in myocardium in advanced age:
a) Hemosidrin
b) Lipochrome
c) Glycogen
d) Cholesterol
e) Calcium Salts
49. Which of the following tissues is most likely to be least affected by Ischemia:
a) Skeletal muscle
b) Small intestinal epithelium
c) Retina
d) Myocardium
e) Hippocampus
50. An amputated foot of a diabetic will most likely show:
a) Neoplasia
b) Gangrenous Necrosis
c) Coagulopathy
d) Hemosiderosis
e) Caseation
51. Which of the following processes explains the appearance of calcium deposition in a tuberculous
lymph node:
a) Dystrophic calcification
b) Apoptosis
c) Hypercalcemia
d) Metastatic calcification
e) Neoplastic change
52. Which of the following types of necrosis is grossly opaque & "chalk" white:
a) Coagulation necrosis
b) Liquefaction
c) Caseous necrosis
d) Fat necrosis
e) Gangrenous necrosis
53. Dystrophic Calcification is most closely associated with:
a) Hypercalcemia
b) Necrosis
c) Chronic irritation
d) Diminished blood supply
e) Increased workload
54. Deposition of Calcium in dead or dying tissue is:
a) Dystrophic calcification
b) Metastatic calcification
c) Both A and B
d) Neither A nor B
55. Which of the following types of necrosis is characterized by amorphous granular debris:
a) Coagulation Necrosis
b) Liquifaction Necrosis
c) Caseous Necrosis
d) Fat Necrosis
e) Gangrenous Necrosis

56. Hypertrophy is most closely associated with:

a) Hypercalcemia
 b) Necrosis
c) Chronic Irritation
d) Diminished Blood Supply
e) Increased Work Load
57. Which of the following is most susceptible to liquefaction necrosis following ischemic injury:
a) Pancreas
b) Liver
c) Spleen
d) Brain
e) Intestine
58. Hypoplasia is due to:
a) Cell Loss
b) Atrophy
c) Inadequate development
d) Disuse
e) Ischemia
59. The loss of individual cell through fragmentation of individual cell nucleus is best described as:
a) Coagulative Necrosis
b) Mitochondrial Poisoning
c) Phagocytosis
d) Apoptosis
e) Liquefaction
60. The light brown perinucleur pigment seen in an old man muscle fiber is:
a) Hemosidrin
b) Lipofuscin
c) Glycogen
d) Melanin
e) Calcium
61. Hypertensive Enlargement of the heart is a form of:
a) Fatty infiltration
b) Hypoplasia
c) Glycogen storage
d) Hypertrophy
e) Hyperplasia
62. Gangrene of the big toe in a 60 year old female is most likely associated with:
a) Diabetes Mellitus
b) Temporal Arteritis
c) AIDS
d) Type III Hypersensitivity
e) Carcinoma of the Bronchus
63. Focal Fat Necrosis is associated with:
a) Fibrinous Pericarditis
b) Chronic Appendicitis
c) Acute Pancreatitis
d) Periportal Fibrosis
e) Gas Gangrene

64. Two days after myocardial infarction, histology of the heart will show:
a) Fibroblasts and Collagen
 b) Granulation Tissue
c) Necrotic Muscle & Neutrophils
d) Granulamatous Inflammation
e) Aneurysmal Dilation
65. Cigarette Smoking does not cause:
a) Squamous Metaplasia
b) Smooth Muscle Hyperplasia
c) Defective Ciliary Action
d) Damage of Airway
e) Inhibition of Alveolar Leukocytes & Macrophages
66. Which of the following is responsible for gangrene of lower extremeties:
a) Obesity
b) Hyperlipidemia
c) Cigarette Smoking
d) Diabetes Mellitus
e) Hypercalcemia
67. Which of the following is not a feature of reversible cell injury:
a) Swollen cell
b) Swollen mitochondria
c) Pyknotic Nucleus
d) Dilated Endoplasmic
e) Cell surface blebs
68. Changes of color in Gangrene is due to:
a) Deposition of amyloid
b) Breakdown of hemoglobin
c) Deposition of melanin
d) Deposition of lipofusin
e) Deposition of calcium salts
69. Which of the following is not a feature of reversible cell injury:
a) Increased DNA synthesis
b) Reduction of ATP
c) Failure of Sodium Pump
d) Influx of Calcium
e) Accumulation of Metabolites
70. Which of the following is a feature of Colliquative Necrosis:
a) Complete loss of architecture
b) Cyst formation
c) Occurs in tissues with high water content
d) A and C
e) All of the above
71. Which of the following is (are) true about apoptosis:
a) It is programmed cell death
b) It requires cell energy
c) Induces a severe inflammatory reaction
d) Both A and B
e) Both B and C
72. Calcium may play a role in cell injury by:
a) Causing ATP depletion
b) Activating Phospholipases
c) Inducing Autophagocytosis
d) Regulating Pyknosis
73. Irreversible cellular changes include all of the following except:
a) Hydropic Change
b) Pyknosis
c) Karyorrhexis
d) Karyolysis
74. Abnormal pigmentation is seen in the following except:
a) Conn's Syndrome
b) Pernicious Anemia
c) Tattooing
d) Addison's Disease
e) Pregnancy
75. The following are true about Apoptosis except:
a) It is programmed cell death
b) Affects a group of cells
c) Is energy dependent
d) There is chromatin condensation
e) Does not elicit an inflammatory reaction
76. Which of the following is not a feature of Necrosis:
a) Karyolysis
b) Karyorrhecsis
c) Cytoplasmic Basophilia
d) Pyknosis
e) Loss of RNA
77. Which of the following is not a feature of Coagulative Necrosis:
a) Deposition of Fibrinolysis
b) Tissues are firm and swollen
c) Ghost outline of cell are seen
d) Architecture is maintained
e) The tissue is deeply eosinophilic
78. Which of the following is most likely associated with Caseation Necrosis:
a) Diabetic Gangrene
b) Gas Gangrene
c) Myocardial Infarction
d) Inpissated Pus
e) Splenic Infarction
79. The following are known causes of Atrophy except:
a) Aging
b) Starvation
c) Increased trophic hormone secretion
d) Immobilization
e) Denervation
80. Dystrophic Calcification is:
a) Reversible
b) Due to reduction of pH in tissues
c) Causes renal failure
d) Associated with primary hyperparathyroidism
e) Occurs in dead parasites in the body

81. Which of the following pathologic changes would be considered irreversible?

a) Fatty change in liver cells
 b) Hydrophic vacuolization or renal tubular epithelial cells
c) Karyoloysis in myocardial cells
d) Glycogen deposition in hepatocyte nuclei
e) Hyperplasia of the breast during pregnancy
82. Squamous Metaplasia can occur in all of the following sites except:
a) Nose
b) Salivary Gland Ducts
c) Jejunum
d) Renal Pelvis
e) Gall Bladder
83. Colliquative Necrosis occurs in:
a) Spleen
b) Liver
c) Heart
d) Brain
e) Kidneys
84. The following are features of Colliquative Necrosis:
a) Complete loss of architecture
b) Cyst formation
c) Occurs in tissues with high water content
d) A & C
e) All of the above
85. Which of the following is significant in Reperfusion Injury:
a) Generation of Free Radicals
b) Decreased pH
c) Cytokines released by damaged hypoxic cells
d) Both A & B
e) Both A & C
86. Reperfusion Injury is due to:
a) Generation of Oxygen Free Radicals
b) Additional recruitment of polymorphs by cytokines from hepatic cells
c) Both A & B
d) None of the above
87. Which of the following is a feature of irreversible cell injury:
a) Swelling of Endoplasmic Reticulum
b) Formation of Blebs
c) Karyolysis of Nuclei
d) Fatty Change
e) Mitochondrial Swelling
88. A common manifestation of sublethal cell injury seen in organs such as the heart and liver is:
a) Glycogen accumulation
b) Fatty change
c) Calcium deposition
d) Apoptosis
e) Deposition of Amyloid
89. In the process of necrosis, a reduction in the size of the nucleus and a condensation of nuclear
material is known as:
a) Karyolysis
b) Pyknophrasia
c) Karyorrhexis
d) Pyknosis
 e) Metachromasia
90. A cardinal sign of Inflammation is:
a) Vasoconstriction
b) Redness
c) Leukocyte Margiation
d) Vasodilation
e) Slowing of the Circulation
91. After initiating an acute inflammatory event, the third in a sequence of changes in vascular flow is:
a) Vasoconstriction
b) Redness
c) Leukocyte Margiation
d) Vasodilation
e) Slowing of the Circulation
92. Leukcytes capable of significant Phagocytosis include:
a) Lymphocyte
b) Plasma Cell
c) Both A and B
d) Neither A nor B
93. Which of the following is most associated with Acute Inflammation:
a) Neutrophils
b) Connective Tissue
c) Macrophages
d) Granulation Tissue
e) Granuloma
94. Inflammatory conditions which have a large number of eosinophils in the exudates include:
a) Asthma
b) Parasitic disease
c) Both A and B
d) Neither A nor B
95. By definition, which cells are involved in organization:
a) Kidney tubular and Liver Parenchymal cells
b) Macrophages and Endothelial Cells
c) Endothelial Cells and Fibroblasts
d) Fibroblasts and Fat Cells
96. Phagocytosis is enhanced by:
a) C5a
b) Bradykinin
c) Lysozyme
d) C3b
e) Serotonin
97. The tumor of inflammation is due primarily to:
a) Arteriolar Dilation
b) Venous Dilation
c) Capillary Dilation
d) Increased Intracellular Fluid
e) Increased Extracellular Fluid
98. A mediator of acute inflammation that causes increased vascular permeability and pain is:
a) Endotoxin
b) Complement
c) Histamine
d) Bradykinin
 e) Endogenous Pyrogen
99. Multinucleated Giant Cells of the foreign body type origin from:
a) Nuclear Division of Granulocytes
b) Atypical Regeneration of Epithelium
c) Megakaryocytes
d) Fusion of Macrophages
e) Multiplication of Nuclei Surrounding Fibrocytes
100. Histamine is thought to be the direct cause of:
a) Leukocytosis
b) Emigration
c) Phagocytosis
d) Increased Vascular Permeability
e) All of the Above
101. An Abscess is best defined as:
a) A local defect in the surface of a tissue
b) An abnormal accumulation between two surface
c) Any area of tissue necrosis
d) A localized collection of pus
e) An epithelium-lined sac filled with viscous fluid
102. Mediators of fever in inflammation include:
a) Macrophage product similar to interleukin I
b) Prostaglandins
c) Both A and B
d) Neither A nor B
103. Phagocytes from an individual deficient in myeloperoxiase (MPO) will most likely be less effective
in:
a) Killing Bacteria
b) Recognizing Bacteria
c) Marginating in vessels
d) Undergoing Chemotaxis
e) Engulfing Bacteria
104. A purulent exudates is generally characterized by the presence of:
a) Mucous
b) Macrophages and connective tissue
c) Neutrophils and necrotic debris
d) Serous Fluid
e) Precipitated Protein
105. Granuloma formation is most frequently associated with:
a) Acute inflammation
b) The Healing Process
c) Wound Contraction
d) Fibroblasts and Neovasularization
e) A persistent irritant
106. Which of the following best describes a granuloma:
a) A small nodule of granulation tissue
b) A tumor composed of granulocytes
c) A small hard mass of fibroblasts and collagen
d) Inflammation primarily composed of lymphocytes
e) An aggregate of activated macrophages
107. The most characteristic feature of granulation tissue is the:
a) Resemblance to a Granuloma
 b) Growth of Fibroblasts and New Capillaries
c) Character of the Exudate
d) A form of Gangrenous Necrosis
e) Presence of Monocytes and Fibroblasts
108. Which of the following is the most efficient killer of bacteria in neutrophils:
a) Spontaneous dismutation of O2 to H2O
b) Conversion of H2O2 to HOCl by Myeloperoxiase
c) Oxidative metabolism giving rise to OH and O2
d) Hyrolyzing Bacterial Coated with Lysozyme
e) Action of Hydrolytic Enzymes
109. The emigration and accumulation of neutrophils in the acute inflammation reaction is primarily
the result of:
a) Active hyperemia
b) Hydrostatic Pressure
c) Increased Microvascular Permeability
d) Chemotaxis
e) None of the above
110. Which of the following is expressed on endothelial cells in acute inflammation for leukocyte
adhesion:
a) Interferon Gamma
b) Hageman Factor
c) Lysozyme
d) E-selectin
e) Prostacyclin
111. Fever and Leukocytes in which most leukocytes are neutrophils typical of:
a) Acute Bacterial Infection
b) Acute Viral Infection
c) Chronic Viral Infection
d) Parasitemia
e) Foreign Body Giant Cell Reaction
112. Epitheloid Cells and Langerhans Giant Cells in granulomas are derived from:
a) Neutrophils
b) Eosinophils
c) Mast Cells
d) Macrophage
e) Lymphocytes
113. Prostaglandins are formed from Arachidonic Acid through the action of which enzyme pathway?
a) Cyclooxygenase
b) Lipoxygenase
c) Myeloperoxidase
d) Phospholipase A
e) Glutathione Reductase
114. The cavity of an Abscess contains:
a) Caseous Necrosis
b) Hyalin
c) Giant Cells
d) Pus
e) Granulation Tissue

115. Transudate can be found in the following settings except:

a) Congestive Heart Failure
 b) Nephrotic Syndrome
c) Superior Venacaval Obstruction
d) Pericarditis
e) None of the Above
116. The diagnostic feature of granuloma is the presence of:
a) Giant cells
b) Epitheloid cells
c) Lymphocytes
d) Fibrosis
e) Caeseation
117. The following have a granuloma except:
a) T.B
b) Syphilis
c) Leprosy
d) Schistosomiasis
e) Staphylococcal Infection
118. Formation of the epitheloid cells is mediated by:
a) IL-1
b) IL-2
c) Histamine
d) Gamma Interferon
e) Serotonin
119. The first inflammatory cell to show at the site of acute inflammation is the:
a) Monocyte
b) B-lymphocyte
c) T-lymphocyte
d) Neutrophils
e) Mast cell
120. The following are true about an exudate except:
a) It can be present as edema
b) It has a high protein content
c) It has a specific gravity ³ 1.020
d) It may contain inflammatory cells
e) It can be due to congestive heart failure
121. Which of the following is the most powerful chemotactic agent:
a) Histamine
b) Prostaglandin
c) Hageman Factor
d) Bradykinin
e) Complement C5a
122. A biopsy of a region of acute inflammation would most likely reveal all of the following except:
a) Fibrinous exudate
b) Neutrophils
c) Edema
d) Necrosis
e) Fibrous connective tissue

123. Which of the following chemical mediators is most important in the development of
Granulomatous Inflammation:
a) Interferon gamma
 b) Bradykinin
c) Complement C5a
d) Histamine
e) Prostaglandin E2
124. Following an attack of chest infection for three days, a patient becomes very ill and his chest x-
rays shows a 3cm rounded density. He is most likely having:
a) Hypertrophic scar
b) Abscess formation
c) Regeneration
d) Bronchogenic carcinoma
e) Progression to chronic inflammation
125. Which of the following cells is the most important in the development of tuberculous granuloma:
a) Macrophages
b) Fibroblast
c) Neutrophil
d) Mast Cell
e) Platelet
126. Which of the following inflammatory processes would cause interstitial fibrosis and nodules in the
lungs of a person who inhaled silica dust:
a) Neutrophilic infiltration with release of leukotrienes
b) Foreign body giant cell formation
c) Plasma cell production of immunoglobin
d) Histamine release by mast cells
e) Release of growth factors by macrophages
127. Which of the following mediators are predominantly responsible for pain in acute inflammation:
a) Complement C3b and IgG
b) Interleukin-1 and tumour necrosis factor
c) Histamine and Serotonin
d) Prostaglandin and Bradykinin
e) Leukotriene and E-selectin
128. Which of the following cell types is most likely to be most characteristic of a foreign body
reaction:
a) Mast cell
b) Eosinophil
c) Giant cell
d) Neutrophils
e) Plasma cell
129. Which of the following is needed for anti-microbial killing during Phagocytosis:
a) Glutathione peroxidase
b) C3b
c) Interleukin 1
d) NADPH oxidase
e) Myeloperoxidase
130. Deficiency of which of the following will reduce phagocytosis by neutrophils:
a) C3a
b) Leukotriene A4
c) C3b
d) Leukotriene B4
e) C5a
131. All of the following are true of granulation tissue except:
a) Contains epitheloid cells
 b) Contains myofibroblast
c) Contains proliferating capillaries
d) Important in wound contraction
e) Contains fibronectin
132. Matrix components in early granulation tissue include:
a) Fibronectin
b) Type III collagen
c) Both A and B
d) Neither A nor B
e) Granuloma
133. Apoptosis does not induce inflammation because:
a) The injury is too mild to induce inflammation
b) Phagocytic cells secrete cytokines that inhibit inflammation
c) The process occurs only in avascular tissues
d) Apoptosis occurs only in immune deficient tissues
e) The patient is using antibiotics
134. Osponization is the:
a) Formation of free radicals
b) Degradation of bacteria by lysozymes
c) Engulfment of antigen by leukocytes
d) Coating of antigen by antibodies
e) Processing of antigens by antigen presenting cells
135. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a Granuloma:
a) Macrophages
b) Giant Cells
c) Polymorphonuclear Leukocytes
d) Lymphocytes
e) Epitheloid Cells
136. Which of the following has a large number of eosinophils in exudates:
a) Sarcoidosis
b) Bronchiectasis
c) Syphilis
d) Bronchial Asthma
e) Chronic Bronchitis
137. Which of the following are involved in organization:
a) Endothelial cells and osteocytes
b) Endothelial cells and chondroblasts
c) Endothelial cells and fibroblasts
d) Fibroblasts and fat cells
e) Fibroblasts and plasma cells
138. The tumour of inflammation is due primarily to:
a) Arteriolar dilation
b) Venous dilation
c) Capillary dilation
d) Increased intracellular fluid
e) Increased extracellular fluid

139. One of the following is a Chemotactic Factor:

a) Histamine
b) Bradykinin
 c) Interleukin 1
d) Leukotriene B4
e) Serotonin
140. Phagocytosis is enhanced by:
a) C1
b) Bradykinin
c) Lysozyme
d) Osponin
e) Serotonin
141. Which one of the following is a harmful effect of acute inflammation:
a) Dilution of toxins
b) Phagocytosis
c) Formation of fibrin
d) Swelling of tissue
e) Stimulation of immune response
142. The high protein content of the inflammatory exudates is mainly due to:
a) Protein released from dead tissue
b) Production of protein by inflammatory cells
c) Increased capillary permeability
d) Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure
e) Increased blood flow in the site of inflammation
143. Which of the following is expected to be found in sputum of an asthmatic child:
a) IgE antibodies
b) Activate macrophages
c) Eosinophils
d) Foreign body giant cell
e) Asbestos bodies
144. Phagocytosis is enhanced by:
a) Prostaglandin E2
b) Bradykinin
c) Lysozymes
d) Osponin
e) Serotonin
145. Which of the following are involved in organization:
a) Liver parenchymal cells
b) Macrophages and endothelial cells
c) Endothelial cells and fibroblasts
d) Fibroblasts and fat cells
e) Neurons and glial cells
146. Which part of the microcirculation is most consistently involved in the permeability changes and
exudation of acute inflammation:
a) Small arteries
b) Arterioles
c) Capillaries
d) Venules
e) Veins
147. Chronic Inflammation is characterized by the presence of:
a) Polymorphs, monocytes and exudate
b) Plasma cells, lymphocytes, fibroblasts and monocytes
c) Plasma cells, polymorphs, lymphocytes and monocytes
d) Plasma cells, basophils, eosinophils, fibroblasts and monocytes
148. The following are true of macrophages except:
a) They are phagocytic cells
b) They produce interleukins
c) Are antigen-presenting cells
d) They are derived from blood monocytes
e) They are the main cells in chronic inflammation
149. Which of the following is true about an Exudate:
a) Occurs in heart failure
b) Is due to low plasma oncotic pressure
c) Has a low specific gravity
d) Has a high protein content
e) Is due to lymphatic obstruction
150. The most important factor in the formation of acute inflammatory exudates is:
a) Increased Hydrostatic Pressure
b) Increased Blood Flow
c) Chemotaxis
d) Increased Vascular Permeability
e) Lymphatic Obstruction
151. Increased Vascular Permeability is due to:
a) Damage to endothelial cells
b) Widening of gaps between endothelial cells
c) Slowing of blood flow
d) Both A & B
e) Both A & C
152. Infertility and short stature in a woman with a 45x karyotype are typical of:
a) Rlinefelter Syndrome
b) Turner Syndrome
c) Down Syndrome
d) Achondroplasia Dwarfism
e) Cystic Fibrosis
153. Down Syndrome is:
a) Trisomy 21
b) Trisomy 18
c) Trisomy 13
d) Autosomal Dominant
e) Mothers are less than 30 years old
154. Mutations in mitochondrial genes are:
a) Inherited from the father
b) Common cause of disease
c) Inherited from the mother
d) Autosomal Recessive
e) Affects only males
155. There are no Y-linked disorders because:
a) There are no mutations occurring in the Y chromosome
b) The affected males die before adulthood
c) Affected males are infertile
d) Defects in the Y chromosome are autosomal dominant
e) None of the above
156. X-linked disorders:
a) Males are always carriers
b) Females are always diseased
 c) Are inherited from the father
d) Are inherited from the mother
e) Sickle cell anemia is an example
157. Autosomal recessive disorders:
a) Are inherited from the father only
b) Are inherited from the mother only
c) Are inherited commonly due to new mutations
d) Are usually more severe than autosomal dominant disorders
e) None of the above
158. All of the following are autosomal recessive except:
a) Cystic Fibrosis
b) Sickle Cell Anemia
c) Thalassemia
d) Hemochormatosis
e) Diabetes Mellitus
159. Mendelian disorders are due to:
a) Chromosomal abnormalities
b) Single gene defect
c) Environmental Factors
d) Mitochondrial gene mutations
e) X-linked mutations
160. Which of the following is inherited as autosomal recessive disorders:
a) Familial polyposis coli
b) Hemopilia A
c) Cystic Fibrosis
d) Neurofibromatosis
e) Rheumatic Heart Disease
161. Which of the following is inherited as autosomal dominant disorders:
a) Familial polyposis coli
b) Hemopilia A
c) Cystic Fibrosis
d) Diabetes
e) Rheumatic Heart Disease
162. Which of the following is inherited as an X-linked recessive trait:
a) Familial polyposis coli
b) Hemopilia A
c) Cystic Fibrosis
d) Neurofibromatosis
e) Rheumatic Heart Disease
163. The primary role of which of the following in the closure of wounds healing by second intention:
a) Neutrophils
b) Connective Tissue
c) Macrophages
d) Granulation Tissue
e) Granuloma
164. The process of regeneration:
a) Does not restore prior function
b) Invariability leads to scar formation
c) Refers to healing by proliferation of stromal elements
d) Occurs in tissues composed of labile and stable cells
e) Is synonymous with repair
165. The following factors delay healing of damaged tissue:
a) Scurvy
b) Ionizing Radiation
c) Immobilization
d) Infections
e) Glucocorticoids
166. Repair of which of the following involves regeneration and connective tissue repair:
a) Bone fracture
b) Renal tubular necrosis
c) Both A and B
d) Neither A nor B
167. Which of the following does not promote fracture healing:
a) Steroid therapy
b) Adequate blood supply
c) Immobilization
d) Adequate Vitamin C supply
168. Neurogenic, Septic and Cardiogenic shock are all characterized by:
a) Equal prognosis if untreated
b) Need for blood transfusion
c) Peripheral vasodilation at onset
d) Normal blood volume at early stage
e) Progression to irreversible shock
169. The causes of Hypovolemic shock do not include:
a) Severe vomiting
b) Severe diarrhea
c) Extensive burning
d) Myocardial Infarction
e) Severe Trauma
170. Following a hypotensive shock which lasted for hours, which of the following tissues is most likely
to withstand the ischemia:
a) Skeletal muscle
b) Small Intestinal Epithelium
c) Retina
d) Myocardium
e) Hippocampus
171. What type of shock is most associated with severe burns:
a) Cardiogenic shock
b) Hypovolemic shock
c) Septic shock
d) Neurogenic shock
172. The causes of Hypovolemic shock do not include:
a) Severe vomiting
b) Severe diarrhea
c) Blood Loss
d) Acute hemorrhagic pancreatitis
e) Extensive Burning
173. The following are true about arterial thrombi except:
a) Are usually due to endothelial injury
b) Can be precipitated by atherosclerosis
c) Grow in the direction of blood flow
d) Lead to ischemia and infarction
 e) Commonly cause systemic emboli
174. The following are true regarding venous thrombi except:
a) Commonly are due to stasis
b) Always cause infarction
c) Grow in the direction of blood flow
d) Can cause pulmonary emboli
e) Commonly occur in the deep leg veins
175. Thrombosis can be caused by all of the following except:
a) Endothelial injury
b) Turbulent blood flow
c) Leiden mutation
d) Factor VIII deficiency
e) Atrial Fibrillation
176. Which of the following are sequelae to thrombosis:
a) Embolization
b) Organization and Recanalization
c) Propagation
d) Both A and B
e) All of the above
177. Which one of the following does not predispose to thrombosis:
a) Endothelial damage
b) Vascular Stasis
c) Thrombocytopenia
d) Formation of aggregates
e) Activation of the coagulation mechanism
178. Which one of the following is not a cause of thrombosis:
a) Damage of endothelial lining
b) Aneurysms
c) Polycythenia
d) Dissiminated Carcinomatosis
e) High level of antithrombin III
179. The following are associated with DIC except:
a) Wide spread deposition of fibrin with microcirculation
b) Consumption of coagulation factors
c) Haemorrhagic diathesis (Bleeding Tendency)
d) Thrombocytosis (Increased Platelet Count)
e) Activation of Plasminogen
180. Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation is associated with the following except:
a) Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia
b) Thrombocytosis
c) Low fibrinogen level
d) Disseminated malignancy
e) Crush injuries
181. The following predispose to deep vein thrombosis except:
a) Malnutrition
b) Cancer
c) Factor VIII deficiency
d) Abdominal Surgery
e) Immobilization
182. The following are true of Thrombi except:
a) Are formed from blood consitituents
 b) Always cause complete vascular occlusion and infarction
c) Are complicated by embolization
d) May undergo dystrophic calcification
183. Which of the following is not associated with Thrombosis:
a) Cancer
b) Prolonged bed rest
c) Sickle cell anemia
d) Hemophilia
e) Tissue damage
184. Fat emboli can be precipitated by:
a) Excessive fats intake
b) Rupture of an atheromatous plaque
c) Rupture of the uterus
d) Fracture of the femur
e) Changes in atmospheric pressure
185. Paradoxial emboli are:
a) Commonly pulmonary emboli
b) Are caused by myocardial infarction
c) Due to the presence of an interventricular on inter atrial defect
d) Due to sudden changes in the atmospheric pressure
e) Caused by trauma
186. Pulmonary emboli have each of the following characteristics except:
a) Commonly arise in leg veins
b) Pass through the right heart before reaching the lung
c) Consistently cause infarction in the lung
d) Are usually thrombotic emboli
187. A detached intravascular solid, liquid or gas carried to a site distant from its point of origin is
most associated with:
a) Ascites
b) Petechiae
c) Infarction
d) Emboli
e) Hematoma
188. Infarction of the spleen is usually due to:
a) Hypersplenism
b) Congestion
c) Arterial Embolism
d) Deposition of connective tissue and pigment
e) Venous Thrombosis
189. In an area of myocardial infarction, which of the following will be most effective in promoting
healing:
a) Histamine
b) Immunoglobulin G
c) Complement C3b
d) Leukotriene B4
e) VEGF (vascular endothelial growth factor)
190. Red Infarcts develop in:
a) Spleen
b) Liver
c) Kidney
d) Adrenal Glands
 e) Intestine
191. Which of the following is most significant in the diagnosis of early acute myocardial infarction:
a) ESR
b) ASO titre
c) Troponin
d) LDH lactet dehydrogenase
e) Total CK
192. Which of the following is not a major risk factor for atherosclerosis:
a) Family history
b) Hyperlipidemia
c) Physical inactivity
d) Diabetes
e) Hypertension
193. Organs which are less susceptible than others to infarction because of a dual blood supply
include:
a) Liver and Lungs
b) Liver and Kidney
c) Lung and Spleen
d) Spleen and Kidney
e) Pancreas and Lung
194. Which cells are targeted by HIV:
a) CD4 + cells
b) Plasma cells
c) Macrophages
d) Both A & B
e) Both A & C
195. Asthma is an example of:
a) Type I hypersensitivity reaction
b) Type II hypersensitivity reaction
c) Type III hypersensitivity reaction
d) Type IV hypersensitivity reaction
e) Type V hypersensitivity reaction
196. IgE plays a major role in:
1 a) Type I hypersensitivity reaction
b) Type II hypersensitivity reaction
c) Type III hypersensitivity reaction
d) Type IV hypersensitivity reaction
e) Type V hypersensitivity reaction
197. Acute graft rejection is caused by:
a) Type I hypersensitivity reaction
b) Type II hypersensitivity reaction
c) Type III hypersensitivity reaction
d) Type IV hypersensitivity reaction
e) Type V hypersensitivity reaction
198. The following are true about SLE except:
a) It is commoner in females
b) Anti nuclear antibodies are diagnostic
c) It can affect the joints
d) It is associated with a butterfly rash
e) It can cause anemia
199. HIV primarily affects:
 a) CD8 lymphocytes
b) Cells expressing CD4 molecules
c) Neutrophils
d) Basophils
e) Eosinophils
200. The following are true about Type I hypersensitivity except:
a) It can be localized or systemic
b) Extrinsic asthma is an example
c) The predominant antibody involved is IgG
d) Degranulation of mast cells is the pathogenesis pathway
e) Can be diagnosed by skin test
201. Of the following histopathologic finding, the one best indicates that a neoplasm is malignant is:
a) Pleomorphism
b) Atypia
c) Invasion
d) Increased Nuclear/Cytoplasmic Ratio
e) Necrosis
202. Which of the following infectious agents is associated with transformation of tissue macrophages
to epitheloid cells:
a) Mycobacterium leprae
b) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
c) Cytomegalovirus
d) Giardia Lamblia
e) Staphylococcus aureus
203. Which of the following complications is most likely to occur in a 76 year old woman who has a
swollen leg followed by fracture of femoral trochanter and who has been immobilized:
a) Gangrenous Necrosis of the Foot
b) Haematoma of the Thigh
c) Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIV)
d) Pulmonary Thromboembolism
e) Soft Tissue Sarcoma
204. Generation of which of the following substances by the major inflammatory cell type would be
responsible for clearing microorganism in an inflammatory focus:
a) Platelet Activated Factor
b) Prostaglandins
c) Kallikrein
d) Leukotriene
e) Hydrogen Peroxide
205. Which of the following cell types releases chemical mediators responsible for allergic rhinitis:
a) Neutrophils
b) Mast Cells
c) CD4+ Cells
d) NK Cells
e) Macrophages
206. Which of the following chemical mediators is most likely to be involved in anaphylaxis following
intravenous penicillin treatment:
a) Interleukin I
b) Bradykinin
c) Complement C5a
d) Histamine
e) Thromboxane
207. Which of the following cellular process is most likely to occur in the myocardium of a patient with
myocardial infarction who is being treated with fibrinolytic agents:
a) Apoptosis
b) Free Radical Injury
c) Fatty Changes
d) Accumulation of Lipofuscin
e) Accumulation of Amyloid
208. Which of the following will predict a better prognosis for breast cancer:
a) The tumor is small in size
b) No metastasis are found in sampled lymph node
c) Numerous mitosis are seen
d) Tumor shows mild hyperchromatism
e) Tumor cells show marked pleomorphism
209. Which of the following is characteristic of neoplasm:
a) Recurrence following excision
b) Rapid increase in size
c) Sensitivity to radiation therapy
d) Uncontrolled (autonomous growth)
e) Necrosis
210. Widespread Oedema is likely in:
a) Lymphatic Obstruction
b) Capillary Damage
c) Inflammations
d) Hypoalbuminemia
e) Cancer of the Stomach
211. Acute Pulmonary Oedema of the heart failure results from:
a) Increased Plasma Colloid Osmotic Pressure
b) Decreased Plasma Colloid Osmotic Pressure oncotic pressure.
c) Increased Vascular Permeability
d) Increased Vascular Hydrostatic Pressure
e) Increased Blood Viscosity
212. DIC following extensive surgery is due to:
a) Entrance of tissue thromboplastin into circulation
b) Hypoxia, acidosis and shock coexisting with extensive surgery
c) Protein C Deficiency
d) Both A and B
e) Both B and C
213. Which of the following is not a feature of stem cells:
a) Capable of self renewal
b) Capable of linkage generation
c) They are the predominant population in a tissue
d) They belong to the terminal differentiation compartment
e) Both A and B
214. Which of the following is not a feature of benign tumors:
a) Grow Slowly
b) Well Demonstrated
c) Infiltrate Adjacent Cells
d) Can Secrete Hormones
e) Named by adding suffix 'oma' to type of cell
215. Which of the following malignant tumors has the best prognosis:
a) Hepatocellular Carcinoma
 b) Renal Cell Carcinoma
c) Basal Cell Carcinoma
d) Squamous Cell Carcinoma of Cervix
e) Squamous Cell Carcinoma of Skin
216. The contents of a blister is an example of which type of exudate:
a) Serous
b) Fibrinous
c) Purulent
d) Cellular
e) Haemaorrhagic
217. Reduced Plasma Oncotic Pressure is the most important cause of generalized edema in:
a) Congestive Heart Failure
b) Lung Cancer
c) Constrictive Pericarditis
d) Head Trauma
e) Nephrotic Syndrome
218. Which of the following diseases is characterized by noncaseating granulomas?
a) Sarcoidosis
b) Tuberculosis
c) Histoplasmosis
d) Diptheria
e) Measles
219. Nutmeg Liver is caused by:
a) Viral Hepatitis
b) Acute Hepatic Congestion
c) Chronic Hepatic Congestion
d) Fibrosis of the Liver
e) None of the Above
220. Which of the following is not a predisposing factor for pyelonephritis:
a) Pregnancy
b) Diabetes Mellitus
c) Renal Artery Stenosis
d) Prostatic Hypertrophy
e) Renal Calculi
232. One of the following is not a Tumor Marker:
a) Thromboxan A2
b) Alpha Fetoprotein
c) Carcinoembryonic Antigen
d) Prostate Specific Antigen
e) Chorionic Gonadotrophin
233. Which of the following is a Tumor Marker?
a) Thromboxane A2
b) Acetylcholine
c) Prostaglandin
d) ACTH
e) Ferritin
234. Which of the following causes Lymphatic Oedema?
a) Sarcoidosis
b) Schistosomiasis
c) Filariasis
d) Syphilis
 e) Leishmaniasis

235. Which of the following does NOT cause Hypokalaemia?

a) Diueretics
b) Vomiting
c) Diarrhoea
d) Addison's Disease
e) Metabolic Alkalosis
236. The following are associated with Cachexia except:
a) Malignancy
b) Anemia
c) Wasting
d) Hypoplasia
e) Tumour Necrosis Factor
237. Acute effects of Ionizing Radiation do not include:
a) Leukemia
b) Anemia
c) Skin Desquamation
d) Pulmonary Oedema
e) Vomitting
238. Primary stage of Syphilis is best diagnosed by:
a) VDRL Test
b) RPR Test
c) Widal Test
d) Smear seen under dark ground illumination
e) TPHA
239. Granuloma Formation is not a feature of:
a) Tuberculoid Leprosy
b) Sarcoidosis
c) Schistosoma manson infection
d) Tuberculosis
e) Cerebral Malaria
240. Pathological effects of Shock do not include:
a) Gastric Ulceration
b) D.I.C.
c) Acute Renal Tubular Necrosis
d) Metabolic Alkalosis
e) Adult Respiratory Distress Syndrome
241. Peg-Shaped (Hutchinson's Teeth) are characteristically seen in babies born to mothers suffering
from:
a) Mucosal Leishmaniasis
b) Syphilis
c) Sarcoidosis
d) Intestinal Tuberculosis
e) AIDS
242. In Amoebiasis:
a) Condylomata Lata is a feature
b) Granuloma Formulation is characteristic
c) The small intestine is always involved
d) The perianal skin may be affected
 e) There is an intense infiltration in the lesions by polymorphs
243. Consequences of Necrosis do not include:
a) Dystrophic Calcification
b) Resolution
c) Inflammatory Reaction
d) Fibrosis
e) Increased Cellular Enzymes in the Blood
248. Metaplasia is most closely associated with:
a) Hypercalcemia
b) Necrosis
c) Chronic Irritation
d) Diminished Blood Supply
e) Increased Workload
249. Chest X-Ray of the Lung from a patient suffering of sarcoidosis characteristically shows:
a) Apical Cavitation
b) Lobar Consolidation
c) Dilated Bronchi
d) Bilateral Enlarged Hilar Lymph Nodes
e) Pleural Thickening
250. Primary sites of Tuberculosis include all of the following except:
a) Skin
b) Lungs
c) Bones
d) Tonsils
e) Intestine
251. The histology of a sarcoid lesion characteristically shows the following except:
a) Epitheloid cells and Langhans's Giant Cells
b) Asteroid Bodies
c) Shauman Bodies
d) Caseous Necrosis
e) A Cuff of Lymphocytes
254. The following are not features of the primary focus in pulmonary tuberculosis except:
a) Usually undergoes cavitation
b) Commonly occurs in the apex of the lung
c) May give rise to miliary tuberculosis
d) Is known as Assman's Focus
e) Is a common cause of haemoptysis
255. During the early bacteraemic phase of Typhoid Fever, diagnosis is established by:
a) Blood Culture
b) Widal Test
c) Stool Culture
d) Urine Culture
e) Peritoneal Fluid Culture
256. Pulmonary Oedema does not occur in:
a) Severe Pneumonia
b) Uraemia
c) Lung Fibrosis
d) Inhalation of Toxic Fumes
e) Mitral Stenosis
259. The following are true of Amyloidosis except:
a) It is lipid in nature
 b) Causes Splenomegaly
c) Is a common cause of Hepatic Failure
d) Deposited Extracellularly
e) Is a known cause of Nephrotic Syndrome
260. In Amoebic Liver Abscess:
a) There is marked neutrophilia
b) The liver in not enlarged
c) Jaundice is a constant feature
d) The left lobe is commonly affected
e) The patient is afebrile
262. Benign Tumours:
a) Commonly Metastasize
b) Are Encapsulated
c) Have hyperchromatic nuclei
d) Infiltrate surrounding tissue
e) Commonly recur after removal
264. The following cells are capable of regeneration except:
a) Neurons
b) Hepatocytes
c) Renal Tubular Cells
d) Colonic Mucosal Cells
267. The sites of Primary Tuberculosis include:
a) Oesophagus
b) Stomach
c) Oropharynx
d) Ileocecal
e) Both C and D
268. Oedema of Congestive Heart Failure is due to:
a) Generalized increase in venous pressure
b) Triggered rennin-angiotensin-aldosterone axis
c) Increased salt intake
d) Both A and B
e) Both B and C
270. The activation of chemical procarcinogen requires activation by:
a) Neuropeptidases
b) Dismutases
c) Collagenase
d) P450 dependent Oxygenase
e) Alkaline Phosphotase
272. Exposure to UV light will give rise to which of the following tumours:
a) Hepatocellular Carcinoma
b) Basal Cell Carcinoma
c) Squamous Cell Carcinoma
d) Both A and C
e) Both B and C
273. Who of the following is more likely to develop Squamous Cell Carcinoma of the Skin:
a) Sudanese
b) Nigerians
c) Kenyans
d) Scandinavian living in Zimbabwe
e) Bantu South African
274. In Acute Hemopoetic Syndrome following Ionizing Radiation there is:
a) Anemia
b) Lymphopenia
c) Thrombocytopenia
d) Both B and C
e) All of the Above
276. Which of the following is most likely to develop skin cancer:
a) Clerk Typist
b) Laboratory Technologist
c) Heavy Truck Driver
d) Radiology Technologist
e) Supermarket Supervisor
277. Which of the following is associated with Leukemia's and Lymphomas:
a) Cyclophosphamide
b) Chloramephenicol
c) Chloroquine
d) Cigarette Smoking
e) Heavy Alchohol Consumption
279. Hepatomegaly and very high leukocytes are features of:
a) Visceral Leishmaniasis
b) Schistosomal Hepatosplenomegaly
c) Typhoid Fever
d) Extra Intestinal Amoebiasis
e) Food Poisoning
280. Which of the following is a feature of Chemical Carcinogens:
a) They are Hetrophilic
b) Amphophilic
c) Neutrophilic
d) Nucleophilic
e) Inactive Cytochrome Oxidase
281. Sarcoidosis is characterized by the following EXCEPT:
a) Asteroid Bodies
b) Schuman Bodies
c) Caseating Granuloma
d) Langhans Giant Cells
e) Foreign Body Giant Cell
283. Individuals with Sickle Cell Trait are resistant to Malaria because:
a) They have low hemoglobin
b) Anopheles mosquito does not bite them
c) Their red blood cells sickle when parasitized and are removed by spleen
d) Their red blood cells contain antiparasite antibodies
e) None of the Above
289. Snail Track Ulcers are a feature of:
a) Cutaneous Leishmaniasis
b) Typhoid Fever
c) Extra Intestinal Amoebiasis
d) Secondary Syphilis
e) Schistosomal Dermatitis
291. Which of the following is not true about Syphilitic Primary Chancre:
a) Occurs commonly on external genitalia
b) Contains treponema pallidum spiroecele
 c) Has a dense plasma cell infiltrate
d) Does not heal spontaneously
e) Occurs 3 weeks after contact with an infected individual
297. Which of the following is most affected by Ionizing Radiation:
a) Kidney
b) Liver
c) Bone
d) Bone Marrow
e) Striated Muscle
298. Which of the following tissues is most affected by Sarcoidosis:
a) The Liver
b) The Kidneys
c) The Lungs
d) Skin
e) Bone
301. Ionizing Radiation has a maximum effect at:
a) High Oxygen Tension
b) Low Oxygen Tension
c) High CO2 Tension
d) Low CO2 Tension
e) High Nitrogen Tension
303. Which of the following is an Immune-Complex Disease:
a) Rheumatoid Arthritis
b) Bronchial Asthma
c) Chronic Osteomyelitis
d) Acute Glomerulonephritis
e) Secondary Tuberculosis
304. Fibrosis following Ionizing Radiation is due to:
a) Direct Damage and Necrosis to Tissue
b) Stimulation of Fibroblast Proliferation by Cytokines
c) Ischaemia due to injury of Endothelial Cells
d) Replacement of Atrophic Parenchymal Cells
e) All of the Above
305. The killing of Parasites in Leishmaniasis is mediated by:
a) g-Interferon
b) TNF-a
c) IL-4
d) Both A and B
e) Both A and C
306. Which of the following involved in pathogenesis of septic shock:
a) Bacterial Wall Lipopolysaccharides
b) IL-1
c) IL-8
d) All of the Above
e) None of the Above
309. Which of the following is associated with deposition of Amyloid AL:
a) Osteoarthritis
b) Intestinal Schistosomiasis
c) Multiple Myeloma
d) Systemic Lupus Erythematous
e) Crohn's Disease
310. Which of the following statements is not true about Unconjugated Bilirubin:
a) It is Protein Bound
b) It is Water Insoluble
c) It is Excreted in Urine
d) Can cross the Blood-Brain Barrier
e) It is increased in Hemolytic Anemia

311. Post Hepatic Jaundice is characterized by:

a) Pale Stools
b) Absence of Bilirubinuria
c) Unconjugated Hyperbilirubinemia
d) Hematuria
e) Elevated Serum Transaminases
312. Primary Tuberculosis is Characterized by:
a) Cavitation and Fibrosis
b) Majority of patients are Asymptomatic
c) Hilar Lymph Nodes are not affected
d) It is mainly disease of adults
e) Mainly affects the apex of the lung
315. Condyloma Latum is seen in:
a) Secondary Syphilis
b) Extra Intestinal Amoebiasis
c) Intestinal Schistosomiasis
d) Sarcoidosis
e) Secondary TB
316. Gummas are seen in:
a) Tertiary Syphilis
b) Intestinal Amoebiasis
c) Leishmaniasis
d) Sarcoidosis
e) Secondary TB
318. Select the incorrect statement. In the etiology of human carcinogenesis:
a) Food components may play a role
b) Dietary Fat is known to initiate colon cancer
c) Certain occupational exposures are known risk factors
d) Consumption of moldy food is a risk factor
319. All of the following are thought to be related to the capacity for tumor cells to invade except:
a) Elaboration of Type IV Collagenase
b) Expression of Laminin Receptors
c) Mitotic Rate
d) Production of Proteases
320. Which of the following are characteristics of Malignant Neoplasms:
a) Encapsulation
b) Expansile Growth
c) Both A and B
d) Neither A nor B
321. Which of the following is the best candidate as the origin of a Metastatic Neoplasm in the Liver:
a) Carcinoma in situ of the uterine cervix
b) Adenocarcinoma of the cecum
c) Renal Cell Carcinoma, right kidney
d) Germ Cell Neoplasm of the testis
 e) Transitional Cell Carcinoma of the bladder
322. The most important enzyme system for the Metabolic Activation of Chemical Carcinogens is:
a) Glutathione Reductase
b) Cytochrome-P450-dependednt Monooxygenases
c) Epoxide Hydrolase
d) UDP-Glucuronic Acid Transferase
323. The ability of a Chemical Carcinogen to induce cancer in an animal is influence by:
a) DNA Repair Capacity of the Animal
b) Ability of the Animal to Detoxify the Carcinogen
c) Ability of the Animal to Activate the Carcinogen
d) Presence of the Tumor Promoter
e) All of the Abov
324. Which factor(s) contribute(s) to selection of a favored site of Metastatic Deposits for a Tumor:
a) The Ploidy of Tumor Cells
b) Compatibility of Cell Surface Characteristics of Tumor and the Receptor Tissue Site
c) Both A and B
d) Neither A nor B
325. Which of the following is not a Tumor Marker:
a) AFP (Alfa-Feto Protein)
b) CEA (Carcino Embryonic Antigen)
c) PSA (Prostale Specific Antigen)
d) Aflatoxin
e) ACTH
327. Snail Track Ulcers are a feature of:
a) Intestinal Amoebiasis
b) Muco-cutaneous Leishmaniasis
c) Dermal Sarcoidosis
d) Secondary Syphilis
e) Post-Kale Agar Dermal Leishmaniasis
328. Which of the following is not a feature of Secondary Syphilis:
a) Widespread Skin Rash
b) Generalized Lymphadenopathy
c) Condyloma Lata
d) Hepar Lobatum
e) Abundant Spirochaete
329. Which of the following is a Non-Specific Test for Syphilis:
a) VDRL (test)
b) Widal Test
c) Kvein Test
d) Mantoux Test
e) Lepromin Test
331. Syphilis Transmission is:
a) Venereal
b) Through Placenta
c) Accidental Inoculation
d) Both A and B
e) All of the Above
333. Which of the following is not a feature of Primary Chanre of Syphilis:
a) It is a hard very painful nodule
b) Develops at a site of infection
c) Persists for weeks and heals spontaneously
 d) Leaves minimal scarring
e) Contains many spirochaetes
334. Which of the following is not a Malignant Tumor:
a) Lung Hamartoma
b) Liver Hepatoma
c) Brain Glioma
d) Skin Melanoma
e) Lymphoma
335. Peg-Shaped (Hutchinson's Teeth) are seen:
a) Mucutaneous Leishmaniasis
b) Secondary Syphilis
c) Oral Candida (fungal) infection
d) Congenital Syphilis
e) Gumma of Gingiva

336. Formation of Epitheloid Cells from Macrophages is induced by:

a) IL-10
b) IL-4
c) C3b
d) g-Interferon
e) IgM
339. Which of the following Tumors does not Metastasize:
a) Skin Squamous Cell Carcinoma
b) Male Breast Carcinoma
c) Gastric Carcinoma
d) Skin Basal Cell Carcinoma
e) Melano Carcinoma
341. Which of the following is a Specific Test for Syphilis:
a) VDRL (test)
b) Widal Test
c) Kvein Test
d) Mantoux Test
e) TPI Test
343. The hallmarks of Syphilis is (are):
a) Endarteritis Obliteraus
b) Heavy Plasma Cell Infiltrate
c) Epitheloid Granuloma
d) Both A and B
e) All of the Above
346. Which of the following is (are) features of Post Primary (Secondary Tuberculosis):
a) Can be due to Re-Infection
b) Can be due to Re-Activation
c) Commonly affects the Upper Lobe
d) Both B and C
e) All of the Above
348. Immuno Deficient Patients are prone to the following except:
a) Bacterial Infections
b) Viral Infections
c) Autoimmune Diseases
d) Tumors
e) None of the Above
349. The type of Amyloid associated with Chronic Inflammation is:
a) AA
b) AL
c) B2 Amyloid
d) Transthyrefin
e) B2 Microglobulin
350. Amyloid Material is deposited:
a) Intracellularly
b) Extracellularly
c) In the Kidney only
d) Both A and B
e) Both A and C
355. Unconjugated Hyperbilirubinemia can be found in all of the following except:
a) Sickle Cell Anemia
b) Viral Hepatitis
c) Stone in the Common Bile Duct
d) Malaria
e) Gilbert's Syndrome
356. In Rotor Syndrome:
a) There is decreased excretion of bilirubin by the hepatocytes
b) Defective Conjugation of Bilirubin
c) The liver is pigmented
d) There is increased urobilinogen in urine
e) None of the Above
357. The following are causes of Secondary Immunodeficiency except:
a) Infection
b) Malnutrition
c) Aging
d) DiGeorge's Syndrome
e) Radiotherapy
358. Cellular Immunodeficiceny predisposes to all of the following except:
a) Viral Infections
b) Pyogenic Infections
c) Fungal Infections
d) TB
e) Malignancy
360. Plasma Bilirubin is:
a) 5% Unconjugated
b) 95% Conjugated
c) 95% Unconjugated
d) Crosses the Blood Brain Barrier in Adults
e) Is normally filtered by kidneys
362. Sickle Cell Anemia mode of inheritance is:
a) Autosomal Dominant
b) Autosomal Recessive
c) Sex-Linked Recessive
d) Random Mutation
e) None of the Above
363. Sickle Cell Anemia first presents as:
a) Adult Life
b) Birth
 c) Few Months after Birth
d) Pre Notaily
e) All of the Above
364. Morphologic changes in Hemolytic Anemia includes:
a) Reticulocytosis
b) Increased Namboblasts in the Bone Marrow
c) Increased Lymphoblasts in the Bone Marrow
d) A and B
e) B and C
365. Causes of Megaloblastic Anemia:
a) B12 Deficiency
b) B6 Deficiency
c) Folate Deficiency
d) A and B
e) B and C
366. Causes of Iron Deficiency Anemia include all of the following except:
a) Peptic Ulcers
b) Hemorrhoids
c) Low Dietary Iron
d) Intra-Vascular Hemolysis
e) Menorrhagia
367. The causes of Aplastic crisis in Sickle Cell Anemia is usually:
a) Infection by Coxakie Virus
b) Infection by Mumps Virus
c) Infection by Molania
d) Infection of Paro Virus
e) Exhaustion of Erythropoiesis

368. The Causative Agent of Osteomyelitis in Sickle Cell Anemia is:

a) Shigelle
b) Salmonella
c) Stapli aurevs
d) Streptococci
e) E-coli
369. In Cold Agglutinin Hemolytic Anemia the Antibodies are:
a) Ig G
b) Ig M
c) Ig A
d) Ig E
e) Ig D
370. Hypochromic Microcytic RBCs are found in:
a) Iron Deficiency Anemia
b) B12 Deficiency
c) Folate Deficiency
d) Anemia of Chronic Disease
e) Sickle Cell Anemia
371. Lactating Mothers will most likely develop:
a) Iron Deficiency Anemia
b) B12 Deficiency
c) Folate Deficiency
d) Hemolytic Anemia
 e) None of the Above
376. Somatostatin is:
a) Growth Hormone Releasing Hormone
b) Growth Hormone Inhibiting Hormone
c) Insulin Like Growth Factor-1
d) Growth Hormone
e) Corticotrophic Releasing Hormone
377. The following stimulate Growth Hormone Release except:
a) Sleep
b) Exercise
c) Hyperglycemia
d) Ingestion of certain Amino Acids
e) None of the Above
378. Prolactin Release is stimulated by the following except:
a) Sleep
b) TSH
c) TRH
d) Stress
e) Pregnancy
379. FSH in Males:
a) Stimulates Testosterone Secretion
b) Inhibits LH Secretion
c) Stimulates Spermotogenesis
d) Inhibits Testosterone Secretion
e) Is activated by Inhibin
380. LH is released by:
a) Anterior Pituitary
b) Posterior Pituitary
c) Hypothalamus
d) Corpus Luteum
e) Graffion Follicles
381. Early Features of Pituitary Failure include:
a) TSH Deficiency
b) Growth Hormone Deficiency
c) Thyroxine Deficiency
d) Cortisol Deficiency
e) ACTH Deficiency
382. Excess Growth Hormone in Adults causes:
a) Giantisim
b) Acromegally
c) Dwarfism
d) Hypoglycemia
e) Has No Effects
383. Excessive Growth Hormone leads to the following except:
a) Excessive Sweating
b) Greasy Skin
c) Acne
d) Decreased Head Circumference
e) Diabetes Mellitus
384. Physiological Hyperprolactinemia can be caused by the following except:
a) Stress
 b) Sleep
c) Suckling
d) Prolactinoma
e) Pregnancy
385. Diabetes Insipidus is:
a) Excessive ADH
b) Deficient ADH
c) Excessive Insulin
d) Deficient Insulin
e) None of the Above
386. The following cause Polyuria and Polydypsia except:
a) Head Injury
b) Head Surgery
c) Hypocalcemia
d) Hypokalemia
e) Chronic Renal Failure
387. The main source of Androgens in males is:
a) Adrenal Cortex
b) Adrenal Medulla
c) Testis
d) Anterior Pituitary
e) Supra Renal Gland
388. The test for investigation of Adrenal Hypofunction is:
a) Low Dose Dexo Methasone Test
b) Synacthen Test
c) Insulin Test
d) Glucose Tolerance Test
e) None of the Above
389. In Addison's Disease:
a) Hypertension
b) Gain of Weight
c) Bruises
d) Hyperpigmentation
e) Hyperglycemia
390. Causes of Secondary Adrenal Hypofunction:
a) Autociuvene Adrenalitis
b) T.B of Adrenals
c) Adrenal Ectomy
d) Pituitary Tumors
e) Meningo-Coccal Septicemia
391. Concerning Addison's Disease:
a) There may be Hypotension
b) Plasma Renin is low
c) There is Hyponatremia
d) A and B
e) A and C
393. Active Hyperaemia of acute inflammation occurs in response of:
a) Histamine
b) Interleukin I
c) Prostacyclin
d) Leukotriene B4
 e) Selectins
394. Which of the following is a Hormone Secreting Tumor?
a) Breast Carcinoma
b) Carcinoma of the Pancreas
c) Fibroadenoma of the Breast
d) Bronchogenic Carcinoma
e) Carcinoma of the Cervix Uteri
396. Which of the following is a complication of Cardiogenic Shock:
a) Chronic Pyelonephritis
b) Acute Tubular Necrosis
c) Nodular Glomerulosclerosis
d) Renal Vein Thrombosis
e) Rapidly Progressive Glomerulonephritis
398. Which of the following is most likely to be found in a 30 year old female who has SLE:
a) Severe Atherosclerosis
b) Glomerular Immune Deposits
c) Amyloid Deposition
d) Vascular Chronic Inflammation
e) Anti-Glomerular Basement Membrane Antibody
399. Which of the following is a cause of Lymphopenia:
a) Iron Deficiency
b) HIV Infection
c) Splenectomy
d) Rubella Infection
e) Tissue Necrosis
401. The secretion of Parathyroid Hormone is controlled by the concentration of:
a) Extracellular Ionized Calcium
b) Calcium bound to Citrate
c) Calcium bound to Plasma Proteins
d) Calcium inside the Bone Matrix
e) None of the Above
403. Which of the following is not true about Post-Primary Pulmonary TB:
a) Patient has Hypersensitivity to Bacterial Antigen
b) Infection may be Endogenous of Exogenous
c) Hilar Lymph Nodes are significantly enlarged
d) Usually located in Upper Lobe
e) Usually Cavitating
405. The following are common features of Anemia due to Vitamin B12 and Folic Acid Deficiency
except:
a) Oval Macrocytosis in the Peripheral Blood
b) Erytheroid Hyperplasia in the Bone Marrow
c) Hypochromia
d) Hypersegmented Neutrophils in the Peripheral Blood
e) Masking of the Macrocytic Blood Appearance if concomitant iron
deficiency exists
406. Deposition of Amyloid causes tissue injury by:
a) Releasing a Vasoactive Substance
b) Inducing a Cell-Mediated Response
c) Releasing Toxic Substance
d) Causes Pressure Atrophy on Adjacent Tissues
e) Stimulating an Acute Inflammatory Response
407. Type AA Amyloid is seen in the following conditions except:
a) Bronchiectasis
b) Renal Cell Carcinoma
c) Hodgkins Disease
d) Multiple Myeloma
e) Rheumatoid Arthritis
409. Which of the following is not true about Secondary Syphilis:
a) Occurs a few years after Primary Infection
b) Generalized Lymphadenopathy
c) Snail Track Ulcers
d) Conylomata Lata
e) Generalized Skin Rash
410. The following statements are features of Hereditary Spherocytosis except:
a) Hemolytic Crisis may be precipitated by Intercurrent Infection
b) The Osmotic Fragility of the Red Cells is usually abnormal
c) Spherocytes are usually detectable in the peripheral blood at birth
d) Clinical Remission following Splenectomy is due to a marked reduction in
the number of circulating spherocytes
e) Splenectomy in children is accompanied by an increased risk of severe
infection
411. Almost all the Thyroid Hormone entering the circulation is in the form of:
a) Triiodothyronine
b) Thyroxine
c) Thyroglobulin
d) Thyrotropin
e) None of the Above
414. In Analgesic Abuse Nephropathy, Papillary Damage is due to:
a) Direct Toxic effects of Metabolites
b) Formation of Metabolite deposits in Tubules
c) Ischemic Effect of Aspirin
d) Both A & B
e) Both A & C
415. The following are features of Sickle Cell Disease except:
a) The abnormal Hemoglobin is HbS
b) The Spleen is usually enlarged in adults
c) The painful crisis is due to Ischemia
d) Pigment Gall Stone Formation is a Complication
e) Avascular Necrosis of the Head of the Femur occurs
416. Which of the following properties of Sickle Cells protect Sicklers against Malaria:
a) Decreased available Oxygen
b) Faster clearance of cells by Spleen
c) Low Intracellular pH
d) All of the Above
e) None of the Above
417. Which cell in the Central Nervous System is predominantly infected in HIV:
a) Astrocyte
b) Oligodendrocytes
c) Neurons
d) Ependymal Cells
e) Microglia
423. Amyloid deposits in the kidney is a cause of:
 a) Nephritic Syndrome
b) Interstitial Nephritis
c) Pyonephrosis
d) Nephrotic Syndrome
e) Acute Tubular Necrosis
424. Which of the following findings is most likely in Acromegally:
a) High Plasma Levels of Somatomedins
b) Decreased Blood Glucose
c) Decreased Protein Synthesis
d) Decreased Growth of the Bones in the Feet
e) Small Jaw
426. Hypochromic Microcytic RBCs are seen in:
a) Chronic Blood Loss
b) Liver Disease
c) Folic Acid Deficiency
d) Aplastic Anemia
e) Pernicious Anemia
429. The basic effects of Growth Hormone on Body Metabolism include:
a) Decreasing the rate of Protein Synthesis
b) Increasing the rate of use of CHO
c) Increasing the use of fats for energy
d) Decreasing the mobilization of fats
e) None of the Above
431. The following are features of G-6-P-D Deficiency except:
a) Females commonly have clinical symptoms
b) Hemolysis precipitated by Oxidant Drug
c) Neonatal Jaundice is common
d) Favism may produce Profound Anemia
e) Infection can precipitate Hemolysis
431. Which of the following is a Specific Test for Diagnosis of Syphilis:
a) Rapid Plasma Reagim (RPR)
b) VDRL (Venereal Disease Research Laboratory)
c) Widal Test
d) Mantoux Test
e) TPHA (Treponema Pallidum Hemagglutination Assay)
435. Which of the following stimulates Milk Production from the Breast:
a) Oxytocin
b) Prolactin
c) Oestrogen
d) Dopamine
e) Growth Hormone
440. The active form of Vitamin D is:
a) Calcitonin
b) 1,25- Dihydroxycholecalciferol
c) 25- Hydroxycholecalciferol
d) Parathyroid Hormone
e) None of the Above
445. Glucagon:
a) Is secreted by the Beta Cells of Langerhans
b) Is secreted by the Gamma Cells of Islets of Langerhans
c) Helps correcting Hyperglycemia
 d) Promotes Glycogen Storage
e) Decreases Gluconeogenesis
448. Blockage of the Hypothalamic-Hypophyseal Venous Portal Circulation would be expected to
cause increased secretion of:
a) Growth Hormone
b) Thyroid Stimulating Hormone
c) ACTH
d) Prolactin
e) FSH
449. Which of the following is the most significant indicator of Malignancy:
a) Hyperchromatism
b) Pleomorphism
c) Increased Mitotic Activity
d) Metastasis
e) Loss of Polarity
451. Which of the following is not a Tumor Marker:
a) ACTH
b) CEA (Carcino Embryonic Antigen)
c) AFP (Alfa Fetoprotein)
d) Alfatoxin
e) Chorionic Gonadotrophin
452. Iron Deficiency Anemia is associated with the following except:
a) Raised Total Iron Capacity
b) A Positive Perl's Reaction in the Bone Marrow
c) Hypochromic Microcytic RBCs
d) Hook-Worm Infestation
e) Increased Percentage Saturation Ratio
453. Which of the following is not a feature of Sickle Cell Anemia:
a) Autosplenectomy occur
b) Inheritance is Sex-Linked
c) Pigmented Gall Stone Formation is a Complication
d) Presentation at 6 months of age
e) A Vascular Necrosis of the Head of the Femur occur
454. The following are causes of Red Blood Macrocytosis except:
a) Liver Disease
b) Vitamin B12 Disease
c) Sideroblastic Anemia
d) Renal Failure
e) Hemolysis
455. Pancytopenia occurs in the following except:
a) Severe Megaloblastic Anemia
b) Visceral Leishmaniasis
c) Hypersplenism
d) Aplastic Anemia
e) Severe Hemolysis
456. In Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia the following are true except:
a) Lymphocytosis is a feature
b) There is Lymphadenopathy
c) Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia in a Complication
d) Anemia is a late presenting feature
e) pH-Chromosomal Abnormality is Diagnostic
457. The following are true in Hemophilia except:
a) There is a prolong aPTT
b) Skin Hemorrhage is the commonest presentation
c) Cyroprecipitate is used for treatment
d) Autobodies to Factor VIII form in some patients
e) The severity of the disease correlates with the factor level
458. Which of the following is not true about Beta Thalessemia Major:
a) Causes high level of Hb F
b) Causes Red Cell Hypochromic
c) Rarely required Blood Transfusion
d) Is associated with Extramedullary Hemopoiesis
e) Causes Splenomegaly
459. Which of the following is true about Stem Cells:
a) They are capable of Self-Renewal
b) They are found in the Basal Layer of the Skin
c) Their Proliferation of Self-Initation
d) They produce a Single Cell
e) They are resistant to Ionizing Radiation
460. Complication of Blood Transfusion include all of the following except:
a) Septicemia
b) Fat Embolism
c) Hepatitis C Infection
d) Circulatory Over Load
e) Urticaria
461. Which of the following is a feature of Chronic Myeloid Leukemia:
a) Thrombocytopenia is a common feature
b) Basophilia is a feature
c) Lymphadenopathy is commonly seen
d) There is Thrombocytosis
e) Bone Marrow Examination is essential for diagnosis
462. Which of the following are characteristics of Megaloblastic Anemia:
a) Pancytopenias
b) Giant Metamyelocytes in the Bone Marrow
c) High MCV and MCH
d) High Level of Bilirubin
e) Microcytic Hypochromic RBC
463. The following features are true in Von Wilbrand Disease except:
a) Inheritance is Sex-Linked
b) The Bleeding Time is prolonged
c) There is Defective Platelets Adhesion
d) The PTT is prolonged
e) The Patient is Normal
464. The following are features of Hemolytic Anemia except:
a) Serum Bilirubin is High
b) Reticulocyte Count is High
c) Neocleated RBC in Peripheral Blood Film
d) Polychromasia is common
e) Urine Bilirubin is detected
465. The following are Hyperglycemic except:
a) Cortisol
b) GH
 c) Adrenaline
d) Insulin
e) Glucagon
466. In Diabetic Ketoacidosis:
a) Blood Glucose is High
b) Blood Glucose is Low
c) Ketone Bodies are High
d) A and C
e) B and C
467. GTT is for the diagnosis of:
a) Every case of Diabetes
b) Follow Up of Diabetes
c) Type I Diabetes
d) Type II Diabetes
e) None of the Above
468. In Excess Body Water there is:
a) Hypertension
b) Edema
c) Confusion
d) Hypotension
e) None of the Above
469. Glycoseloted Hb gives an idea about Glycemic Control in the last:
a) 1 Month
b) 2 Months
c) 3 Months
d) 1 Year
e) All of the Above
470. Type I Diabetes Mellitus is characterized by the following except:
a) Absolute Insulin Deficiency
b) Auto Antibodies
c) DKA
d) Hyperosmolar Coma
e) None of the Above
475. Hypokalemia may be caused by each of the following except:
a) Acidosis
b) Prolonged Vomiting
c) Diarrhea
d) Hyperaldosteronism
e) Decreased Intake
476. Hyperkalemia may be caused by each of the following except:
a) Renal Failure
b) Hypoaldosteroinism
c) Alkalosis
d) Sample Hemolysis
e) None of the Above
477. In Primary Hyperparathyroidism:
a) Ca2+ is increased, PO42- increased
b) Ca2+ is decreased, PO42- decreased
c) Ca2+ is increased, PO42- decreased
d) Ca2+ is decreased, PO42- increased
e) Ca2+ is normal, PO42- normal
478. Diabetic Nephropathy is detected by:
a) High Blood Sugar
b) Micro Albuminemia
c) Glycosuria
d) Renal Failure
e) Hemoturie