Pathology Revision 1

Inflammation & Healing

1. What are the characteristic cells of acute inflammation?
A. Neutrophils C. Lymphocytes
B. Macrophage D. eosinophils

2. What are the characteristic cells of chronic inflammation?

A. Neutrophils C. Lymphocytes
B. Macrophage D. Plasma cells

3. What is the first vascular change occurring at onset of inflammation?

A. Vasodilatation C. Congestion
B. Vasoconstriction D. Rupture

4. Which of the following cells involved in process of chemotaxis?

A. Histiocytes C. Neutrophils
B. Red blood cells D. Lymphocytes

5. Margination, pavementing & emigration of leucocytes occur in which

of the following types of inflammation?
A. Acute inflammation
B. Chronic inflammation
C. subacute inflammation

6. Which one of the following cells are present in inflammatory fluid

exudate?
A. Lymphocytes C. Plasma cells
B. Neutrophils D. Giant cells

7. Which one of the following cells are present in large numbers in

allergic inflammation?
A. Neutrophils B. Lymphocytes C. eosinophils D. Plasma cells
8. Which one of the following cells are present in large numbers in
parasitic infestations?
A. Neutrophils C. eosinophils
2
B. Lymphocytes D. Plasma cells

9. Which of the following is not a character of inflammatory fluid

exudate?
A. High Prt content C. absence of inflammatory cells
B. High specific gravity D. clots on standing

10. Why does the inflammatory fluid exudate clot on standing?

A. Presence of inflammatory cells C. high Albumin content
B. high specific gravity D. high fibrinogen content

11. Which of the following cells is not involved in the process of

phagocytosis?
A. Neutrophils C. Macrophages
B. Monocytes D. Lymphocytes

12. Which of the following are not living inflammatory cells?

A. Neutrophils C. Pus cells
B. Plasma cells D. Lymphocytes

13. In which of the following sites does persistent progressive

vasodilatation begins in acute inflammation?
A. Arterioles B. Capillaries C. Venules D. affects all at the same time

14. In which of the following types of inflammation do bacteria secrete

hyaluronidase enzyme and fibrinolysin?
A. Abscess C. Cellulitis
B. Carbuncle D. furuncle
15. What is carbuncle?
A. Diffuse non-suppurative inflammation
3
B. Diffuse suppurative inflammation
C. Localized non suppurative inflammation
D. Localized suppurative inflammation

16. Which of the following is not true about cellulitis?

A. Caused by streptococcal infection
B. Diffuse suppurative inflammation
C. more common in diabetics
D. causative bacteria secrete coagulase

17. What is the cause of increased vascular permeability in acute

inflammation?
A. Chemical mediators C. Endocrinal effect
B. Direct toxic effect D. Neurogenic effect

18. Which type of healing occurs after severe severe liver injury?
A. Fibrosis C. Gliosis
B. Regeneration D. A & C

19. Which of the following refers to replacement of damaged tissue by

the cells of the same type?
A. Degeneration C. Regeneration
B. Fibrosis D. Gliosis
20. Which of the following are not labile cells?
A. haemopoietic cells C. Lymphoid cells
4
B. Liver cells D. Surface epithelial cells

21. Which of the following are not permanent cells?

A. Cardiac muscle cells
B. Liver cells
C. Nerve cells
D. Skeletal muscle cells

22. Which of the following tissues show complete restoration of the

damaged cells by the same type whatever the magnitude of injury?
A. Liver
B. Nervous tissue
C. Skin
D. Smooth muscle

23. What is the name of healing by connective tissue occurring after

myocardial injury?
A. Amyloidosis C. Hyalinosis
B. Fibrosis D. Gliosis

24. What is the process by which a surgical wound heals?

A. Granulation tissue C. Regeneration
B. First intention D. Second intention
25. What is a scar:
A. Avascular fibrous tissue band
5
B. Excessive collagen deposition
C. Granulation tissue
D. Proliferated epidermal cells

26. What is a keloid?

A. Avascular fibrous tissue band
B. Excessive collagen deposition
C. Granulation tissue
D. Proliferated epidermal cells

27. Which of the following is not a local factor affecting wound healing?
A. Blood supply C. Presence of infection or foreign body
B. Nutritional status D. Type of the damaged issue

28. Which of the following is not a general factor affecting wound

healing?
A. Age of the patient C. General condition of the patient
B. Blood supply D. Nutritional status

29. Which of the following conditions may complicate cellulitis in a

diabetic patient?
A. Bacteremia C. septicaemia
B. Pyaemia D. toxaemia

1A 2D 3B 4C 5A 6B 7C 8C 9C 10 D
11 D 12 C 13A 14 B 15 D 16 D 17 A 18 D 19 D 20 B
21 B 22C 23 B 24 B 25 A 26 B 27 B 28 B 29 C
 Cell injury and cell death
1. What is the is the mildest form of cell injury?
6
A. Amyloidosis C. fatty change
B. Cloudy swelling D. hyaline degeneration

2. which of the following responses can occur on exposure to a lethal

injurious agent?
A. Degeneration C. Necrosis
B. Inflammation D. Regeneration

3. What is the material accumulated intracellularly in cloudy swelling,

vacuolar degeneration & hydropic degeneration?
A. Amyloidosis C. Fibrin
B. Fat D. Water

4. Which of the following types of degeneration shows tabby cat

appearance"!
A. Amyloidosis C. hyalinosis
B. fatty change D. Mucinous degeneration

5. In which of the following conditions does primary amyloidosis occur?

A. Multiple myeloma C. Supperative lung diseases
B. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Ulcerative colitis

6. In amyloid degeneration, what is the site of amyloid deposition?

A. Inside the cells
B. Outside the cells
C. Both inside and outside the cells
7. What are the cells the abnormalities of which are involved in primary
amyloidosis?
A. Lymphocytes C. Reticuloendothelial cells
7
B. Natural killer cells D. T-lymphocytes

8. Which of the following organs is not affected in primary amyloidosis?

A. Brain C. Heart
B. GIT D. Kidney

9. What is the most probable cause of death in a patient with long standing
rheumatoid arthritis?
A. Cerebral infarction C. Renal failure
B. Heart failure D. Liver failure

10. In which of the following secondary amyloidosis doses not occur?

A. Heart C. Kidney
B. Liver D. Spleen

11. In which of the following the accumulated material can't be

intracellular?
A. Amyloidosis C. Hyalinosis
B. Fatty change D. Mucinous degeneration

12. What is the cause of death in a patient with secondary amyloidosis?

A. Cerebral infarction C. Renal failure
B. heart failure D. Liver failure

13. In which of the following dystrophic calcification does not occur?

A. Dead parasites and ova C. Fat necrosis
B. Dense old scars D. Healthy lung alveoli
14. Which of the following is not an exogenous pigment?
A. Acid haematin
B. Anthracosis
C. Argyria
D. Tattooing
8
15. In anthracosis, what is the site of deposition of carbon particles?
A. heart C. Lung
B. liver D. Spleen

16. Which of the following has a disturbed metabolism in gout?

A. Bilirubin C. lipochrome
B. Haemosiderin D. Purine

17. Which of the following is not true about brown atrophy of the
heart?
A. The heart is reduced in size.
B. the myocardium is dark brown
C. It occurs due to disturbances in carotene pigment metabolism
D. It occurs in old age

18. Which of the following is not haemioglobin-derived pigment?

A. Acid haematin C. Haemosiderin
B. Bilirubin D. Lipochrome

19. Which of the following is not true about brown atrophy of the
heart?
A. The size of the great vessels is proportionate to the size of the heart
B. There is loss or pericardial fat
C. the size of the heart is reduced
D. The coronaries are tortuous
20. Which type of necrosis necrosis is liable to occur when the brain is
subjected to ischemia?
A. Caseous C. Fibrinoid
9
B. Coagulative D. Liquefaction

21. Which type of necrosis is characterized by presence of

tombstones?
A. Caseous
B. Coagulative
C. Fibrinoid
D. Liquefaction

22. What is "Karyorrhexis"?

A. Nuclear chromatin condensation
B. Nuclear dissolution
C. Nuclear enlargement
D. Nuclear fragmentation

23. Nuclear fragmentation is a feature of which of the following?

A. Amyloidosis C. Apoptosis
B. Anthracosis D. Hyalinosis

24. Which of the following events does not occur in necrosis?

A. Formation of membrane blebs C. Karyolysis
B. Karyorhexis D. Pyknosis

25. Which of the following is not true about fat necrosis?

A. Occurs in cases of chronic pancreatitis
B. Occurs in the breast following trauma
C. Occurs due to action of digestive enzymes
D. Calcium soaps are formed
26.
A. Amoebic liver abscess
B. Brain infarction
C. Pyogenic abscess
D. Renal infarction
10
In which of the following conditions necrosis is not liquefactive?

27. What is the term defined as programmed cell death"?

A. Necrosis C. Degeneration
B. Gangrene D. Apoptosis

28. Which of the following is not true about dry gangrene?

A. Occurs due to arterial and venous occlusion
B. There is mild toxaemia
C. Well-formed line of demarcation and separation
D. The affected limb is black and mummified

29. Which is the most common type of gangrene during wars and in
rural areas?
A. Dry gangrene
B. Gas gangrene
C. Wet gangrene

30. What is the cause of black colour of the gangrenous tissue?

A. Calcium sulphide C. Magnesium sulphide
B. Iron sulphide D. Potassium sulphide

31. What is the cause of bad odour of the gangrenous tissue?

A. Hydrogen sulphide C. Magnesium sulphide
B. iron sulphide D. Potassium sulphide

32. Diabetic foot is an example of which of the following?

A. Dry gangrene C. Wet gangrene
B. Gas gangrene D. Fat necrosis
33. Which of the following has a disturbed metabolism in bronzed
diabetes?
A. Bilirubin C. Haemozoin
11
B. Haemosiderin D. Melanin

34. What is “Sago spleen"?

A. Deposition of hyaline material in the splenic follicles
B. Deposition of hyaline material in the splenic red bulb
C. Deposition of amyloid material in the splenic follicles and sinusoids
D. Deposition of amyloid material in the splenic follicles

35. What is the lardaceous spleen?

A. Deposition of hyaline material in the splenic follicles
B. Deposition of hyaline material in the splenic red bulb
C. Deposition of amyloid material in the splenic follicles
D. Deposition of amyloid material in the splenic red bulb

36. What is the appearance of the cytoplasm in cloudy swelling?

A. Finely granular C. reticulated
B. Foamy D. Vacuolated

37. Which of the following he not a cause of metastatic calcification?

A. Atherosclerosis
B. hyperparathyroidism
C. Hypervitaminosis D
D. Metastatic carcinoma

38. Which of the following characterized by the presence of

tombstones"?
A. Caseous necrosis C. Fat necrosis
B. Coagulative necrosis D. Liquefactive necrosis
39.
A.
B.
What is the cause of dry gangrene?
Arterial occlusion
Infection by clostridia
12
C. Venous occlusion
D. A&C

40. Which of the following types of degeneration can be seen in the

hepatocytes in viral hepatitis?
A. Hyalinosis
B. Amyloidosis
C. Hydropic degeneration
D. Mucinous degeneration

41. A female patient aged 42 years was diagnosed as systemic lupus

erythematosus. Which of the following types of necrosis can be seen
in the systemic lesions present in her organs?
A. Coagulative
B. Liquefaction
C. Fibrinoid
D. Caseous

42. 65 years’ male with uncontrolled diabetes has noticed black

discoloration of his left toes with bad odour. What is the possible
cause of this picture?
A. Occlusion of arteries C. Occlusion of veins
B. Occlusion of capillaries D. Infection by gas forming bacteria
1. B 2. C 3. D 4. B 5. A 6. B 7. A 8. A 9. C 10. A
11. A 12. C 13. D 14. A 15. C 16. D 17. C 18. D 19. A 20. D
21. B 22. D 23. C 24. A 25. A 26. D 27. D 28. A 29. B 30. B
31. A 32. C 33. B 34. D 35. D 36. A 37. A 38. B 39. A 40. C
41. C 42. C
 Circulatory disturbances
1. Which of the following conditions does not predispose to
13
thrombosis?
A. Aneurysms
B. Arteritis
C. Increased antithrombin III level
D. Increased fibrinogen

2. Which of the following is not a predisposing factor for thrombosis?

A. Cigarette smoking
B. Immobilization
C. Prolonged bed-rest
D. Young age

3. What are the components of pale thrombus?

A. Fibrin
B. Platelets
C. Red blood cells
D. White blood cells
E. A&B
F. AXD

4. What are the components of mired thrombus?

A. Fibrin
B. Platelets
C. Red blood cells
D. White blood cells FAH&C
E. A, C & D
5. Which of the following mechanisms causes thrombosis in a patient
with myocardial aneurysm?
A. Hypercoagulability of blood
14
B. Injury of the endothelium
C. Slowing of the circulation

6. Which of the following has the highest frequency of thrombosis?

A. Arteries C. capillaries
B. Cardiac chambers D. Veins

7. Which of the following is not true about thrombus?

A. A. Adherent to the vessel wall C. Occurs in flowing blood
B. Fibrin is a main constituent D. Soft and jelly like

8. Which of the following condition is not a predisposing factor of

thrombosis?
A. Damage to the endothelium C. Stasis
B. Increased fibrinogen D. Thrombocytopenia

9. Which of the following condition is not a predisposing factor of

thrombosis?
A. Anaemia C. Increased fibrinogen
B. Haemoconcentration D. Stasis

10. What is the name of a thrombus formed on top of ventricular

Myocardial infarction?
B. Ball thrombus
A. Agonal thrombus
C. Mural thrombus
D. Vegetation
11. In which of the following conditions thrombosis is not due to
slowing of circulation?
A. Aneurysms
15
B. Dehydration
C. Prolonged recumbency
D. Varicose veins
12. What is the name of a mass of coagulated blood formed invitro
(e.g.in test tube)?
B. Embolus
A Clot
D. Thrombus
C. Infarct

13. Which of the following does not cause hypercoagulability of

blood?
A. Decreased coagulation inhibitors
B. Increased platelet count
C. Severe anaemia
D. Severe dehydration
14. Which of the following does not predispose to formation of mural
thrombi?
A. Aortic aneurysm
B. Cardiac aneurysm
C. Myocarditis
D. Myocardial infarction
15. In which of the following organs des pale infarction occur?
A. Kidney
B Liver
C Spleen
D. A&B
E A&C
16. What is "Nut meg liver"?
A. Chronic venous congestion of the liver
B. Fatty change of the liver
16
C. Liver amyloidosis
D. Liver fibrosis

17. What is the shape of the area of infarction?

A. Circular
B. Linear
C. Quadrangular
D. Wedge

18. What is "Brown induration of the lung?

A. Chronic venous congestion of the lung
B. Lung infarction
C. Primary pulmonary tuberculosis
D. Secondary pulmonary tuberculosis

19. Which of the following is not a form of haemorrhage?

A. Haemarthrosis
B. Haematuria
C. Haematochezia
D. Haemochromatosis

20. Which of the following is not a type of internal hemorrhage?

A. Hematemesis C. Haemoperitoneum
B. Haemothorax D. Haemopericardium

21. What is "Epistaxis"?

A. Bleeding from the nose C. Presence of blood in urine
B. Coughing of blood D. Vomiting of blood
22. Which of the following is not a type of external hemorrhage?
A.
B.
Ecchymosis
Haematemesis
17
C. Haemoptysis
D. Melena

23. Which of the following is not a type of external haemorrhage?

A. Haematemesis
B. Haemoptysis
C. Haemothorax
D. Metrorrhagia

24. What is the cause of secondary haemorrhage?

A. Displaced clot
B. Lack of preoperative preparation
C. Slipped ligature
D. Wound sepsis

25. Which of the following is not a sign of shock?

A. A Weak irregular pulse
B. Subnormal temperature
C. High blood pressure
D. Shallow and sighing respiration

26. Administration of penicillin without sensitivity test may cause which

of the following?
A. Anaphylactic shock C. Hypovolemic shock
B. Cardiogenic shock D. Neurogenic shock
 B.
Cardiac oedema
Inflammatory oedema
18
27. Which of the following is not an example of generalized oedema?
A.

C. Nutritional oedema
D. Renal oedema

28. Which of the following is not a pitting oedema?

A. Cardiac oedema
B. Lymphoedema
C. Nutritional oedema
D. Renal oedema

29. Which of the following is not a character of exudate?

A. High specific gravity (101)
B. Low protein content (< 3 gm%)
C. Presence of fibrinogen
D. Presence of inflammatory cells

30. Which of the following organs is less affected by ischemia?

A. Brain
B. Heart
C. Lung
D. Kidney

31. gamma-gandy bodies present in chronic venous congestion of which

organ?
A. Liver
B. Lung
C. Kidney
D. Spleen
 32. in bone fracture, which type of embolus is likely to occur?
A. air
19
B. fat
C. foreign body
D. tumour

33. Which of the following occur in a patient with hemorrhagic

lesion in stomach?
A. hemoptysis
B. Hematochezia
C. hematuria
D. melena

1. C 2. D 3. E 4. E 5. C 6. D 7. D 8. D 9. A 10.C
11.B 12.A 13.C 14.A 15.E 16.A 17.D 18.A 19.D 20.A
21.A 22.A 23.C 24.D 25. C 26.A 27. B 28.B 29. B 30. C
31. D 32. B 33. D
 Granulomas and infectious diseases
20
1. Which of the following is not a site of the primary complex?!
A. Intestine
B Kidney
C. Lung
D. Skin

2. What is the commonest site of Ghon's focus?

A. Apex of the lung
B. Lower part of lower lobe
C. Lower part of upper lobe
D. Upper part of middle lobe

3. Which of the following cells are not seen in a well-formed tubercle?

A. Epithelioid cells
B. Fibroblasts
C. Lymphocytes
D. Neutrophils

4. What is the commonest organ affected by bilharziasis in the urinary

tract?
A. Kidney B. Ureters
C. Urethra D. Urinary bladder
5. What is the site of the lung commonly affected by secondary
Pulmonary tuberculosis?
21
A. Apex
B. Base
C. Hilum
D. Lateral surface

6. In which of the following conditions does the "dry type of tuberculous

peritonitis occurs?
A. The body resistance of the patient is high and the virulence of the organism
is low
B. The body resistance of the patient is low and the virulence of the organism
is low
C. The body resistance of the patient is low and the virulence of the organism
is high
D. The body resistance of the patient is high and the virulence of the organism
is high

7. Which of the following types of tuberculous peritonitis has the best

prognosis?
A. Caseous type
B. Dry type
C. Encysted type
D. Wet type

8. Where does tuberculosis of the female genital begin?

A. Cervix
B. Fallopian tube
C. Ovary
D. Uterine body
9. Where does tuberculosis of the male genital system begin?
A. Epididymis
22
B. Prostate
C. Seminal vesicles
D. Testis

10.Which of the following types of tuberculous peritonitis has worst

prognosis?
A. Caseous type
B. Dry type
C. Encysted type
D. Wet type

11. Which of the following is not a mode of infection by tuberculosis?

A. Inhalation
B. Ingestion
C. Injection
D. Inoculation

12. What is the commonest site of affection in Pott's disease?

A. Lower lumbar
B. Lower sacral
C. C Lower thoracic
D. Upper thoracic

13. What is the disease characterized by "Langhans giant cells"?

A. Actinomycosis
B. Leprosy
C. Syphilis
D. Tuberculosis
14. Which of the following is characterized by caseation necrosis?
23
A. Leprosy
B. Rhinoscleroma
C. Syphilis
D. Tuberculosis

15. Which of the following is a complication of cavitary secondary

tuberculosis?
A. Bleeding per rectum
B. Haematemesis
C. Haemoptysis
D. Melena

16. What is the region commonly affected by tuberculous enteritis?

A. Duodenum
B. ileocecal
C. Jejunum
D. Rectosigmoid

17. In bilharziasis, which of the following doesn't cause lesions in

humans?
A. Cercariae
B. Miracidium
C. Ova
D. Worms

18. What is the commonest site of affection in bilharziasis of the large

intestine?
A. Ascending colon C. Rectosigmoid
B. Descending colon D. Transverse colon
bladder?
A. Anterior wall
24
19. What is the comimonest site of affection in bilharziasis of the urinary

B. Lateral wall
C. Superior wall
D. Trigone

20. In bilharziasis, which of the following causes reaction?

A. Calcified ova
B. Dead ova
C. Dead worms
D. Living worms

21. The term Egyptian splenomegaly" refers to enlargement of the

spleen in which of the following granulomatous diseases?
A. Actinomycosis
B. Schistosomiasis
C. Syphilis
D. Tuberculosis

22. When infection by schistosomiasis occurs, which of the following

is recognized by the immune system?
A. Calcified ova
B. Dead ova
C. Dead worms
D. Living worms

23. Which of the following pathological changes may impair the

diagnosis of intestinal schistosomiasis?
A. Fibrosis
B. Polyps
C. Sandy patches
D. Ulcers
24. Which of the following produce bilharzial pigment?
A. Calcified ova
25
B. Dead ova
C. Dead worms
D. Living worms

25. Which of the following infections is not a cause of dysentery?

A. Amoebic
B. Bacterial
C. Bilharzial
D. Viral

26. Which of the following infective agents may cause urinary bladder
carcinoma?
A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. Schistosoma haematobium
C. Schistosoma mansoni
D. Treponema pallidum

27. The lesion called "Caput Medusa" is seen in which of the following?
A. Leprosy
B. Schistosomiasis
C. Syphilis
D. Tuberculosis
28. 1n which of the following the lesion termed "chancre" is seen?
26
A. Early congenital syphilis
B. Primary acquired syphilis
C. Secondary acquired syphilis
D. Tertiary acquired syphilis

29. Which of the following lesions does not occur in secondary acquired

syphilis?
A. Alopecia
B. Condyloma lata
C. Generalized painful lymphadenopathy
D. Mucous patches

30. Which of the following is manifested by corneal opacity?

A. Early congenital syphilis
3. Late congenital syphilis
C. Secondary acquired syphilis
D. Tertiary acquired syphilis

31. Which of the following lesion does not occur in early congenital
syphilis?
A. Epiphysitis C. Pneumonia alba
B. liver cirrhosis D. Saddle-shaped nose
32. In which of the following the lesion termed "gumma" is seen?
A. Sarly congenital syphilis
27
B. l'rimary acquired syphilis
C. Secondary acquired syphilis
D Tertiary acquired syphilis

33. To which category of the following does leprosy belong?

A. Bacterial disease
B. Fungal disease
C. Parasitic disease
D. Viral disease

34. Which of the following lesions does not occur in secondary acquired

syphilis?
A. Alopecia
B. Condyloma lata
C. Epiphysitis
D. Mucous patches
35. A male patient 30 years was presented to the hospital by
28
dysentery, stool examination did not show any parasites. What is the
most probable cause of dysentery in this case?
A. Bacterial infection
B. Fungal infection
C. Intestinal amoebiasis
D. Viral infection

36. What is the mildest form of leprosy?

A. Borderline leprosy
B. Indeterminate leprosy
C. Lepromatous leprosy
D. Tuberculoid leprosy

37. Which of the following types of leprosy is characterized by visceral

lesions?
A. Borderline leprosy
B. Indeterminate leprosy
C. Lepromatous leprosy
D. Tuberculoid leprosy

38. What is the source of infection in actinomycosis?

A. Endogenous
B. Exogenous by inoculation
C. Exogenous by ingestion
D. Exogenous by injection
39. What is the character of the edge of the amoebic ulcers?
A.
B.
Punched out
Sloping
29
C. Undermined
D. Terraced

40. A 5 years old male child suffered from chickenpox,10 years later, he
noticed painful vesicles at the lateral side of the arm, forearm and hand.
What is the disease manifested by these vesicles?
A. Hurpes simplex
B. Herpes zoster
C. German meascls
D. Meascls

41. After 6 months of treatment by tetracycline, a female aged 35 years

complained from severe itching at the vulvovaginal region accompanied

by yellowish discharge, what is the diagnosis of this condition?
A. Amoebiasis
B. Herpes zoster
C. Moniliasis
D. Toxoplasmosis

42. Which of the following diseases is manifested by hydrophobia?

A. Acute post infectious encephalomyelitis
B. AIDS
C. Poliomyelitis
D. Rabies
43. which of the following diseases are caused by the same virus?
A. Chickenpox and herpes simplex
B. Chickenpox and herpes Zoster
30
C. Smallpox and herpes simplex
D. Smallpox and herpes Zoster

44. A 23-year male patient suffered from influenza -like symptom

vomiting and diarrhea, which of the following in influenza viral
subtype is responsible?
A. H1N1
B. H4N1
C. H5NI
D. D H1N2

45.Which of the following is primarily affected in mumps?

A. The nervous system
B. The parotid gland
C. The respiratory system
D. The skin

46. Anchovy sauce is a chocolate coloured material that characterize

which of the following?
A. Amoebic colitis
B. Amoebic liver abscess
C. Bilharzial colitis
D. Tuberculous enteritis
47. What is the type of tuberculosis that occurs in patient with open
pulmonary tuberculosis due to swallowing of his own sputum?
A. primary intestinal
31
B. Primary pulmonary
C. Secondary intestinal
D. Secondary pulmonary

48. Which type of the following bilharzial granulomas denotes the

beginning of healing?
A. Cellular
B. Fibrous
C. Fibrocellular

49. Which of the following lesions is seen both in congenital and

acquired syphilis?
A. Alopecia
B. Condyloma lata
C. Clifton’s joint
D. Pneumonia alba

1. B 2. C 3. D 4. D 5. A 6. A 7.B 8.B 9.A 10. D

11. C 12. C 13. D 14. D 15. C 16. B 17.B 18. C 19.D 20. C
21. B 22. C 23. A 24. D 25. D 26.B 27. B 28.B 29.C 30. B
31. D 32 D 33. A 34.C 35. A 36.D 37. C 38.A 39.D 40. B
41. C 42. D 43.B 44.A 45.B 46.B 47.C 48.C 49.B
 Immunity & hypersensitivity & genetic
&radiation
32
1. Incompatible blood transfusion is an example for?
A. Type 1 hypersensitivity
B. Type 2 hypersensitivity
C. Type 3 hypersensitivity
D. Type 4 hypersensitivity

2. Anaphylactic shock is an example for?

A. Type 1 hypersensitivity
B. Type 2 hypersensitivity
C. Type 3 hypersensitivity
D. Type 4 hypersensitivity

3. Which of the following cells are the main target of HIV?

A. B-lymphocytes
B. CD-4+
C. CD-8+
D. Macrophage

4. Which of the following chromosomal aberration causes change to

chromosomal number?
A. Insertion
B. Deletion
C. Non-dysfunction
D. Translocation

5. Which type of chromosomal aberrations occur in Down syndrome?

A. Insertion
B. Non-dysfunction
C. Translocation
6. Which chromosome is involved in Down syndrome chromosome?
A.
B.
12
15
33
C. 18
D. 21

7. A 29 years male person shows long lawer body segment,

arachnodactaly, and polydactayly. Which mode of inheritance caused
these body character?
A. Autosomal dominant
B. Autosomal recessive
C. X-linked dominant
D. X-linked recessive

8. Which of the following diseases is characterized by Malar flush?

A. Dermatomycosis
B. Rheumatic fever
C. scleroderma
D. SLE

9. Which of the following modes of inheritance are present in familial

hypercholesterolemia?
A. autosomal dominant disorder
B. Autosomal recessive disorder
C. X-linked dominant disorder
D. X-linked recessive disorder

10. osteomalacia is n disease resulting from deficiency of which of the

Following?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin BI
C. Vitamin C
 D. Vitamin D

11. Which of the following is nor a character of pellagra?

34
A. Dementia
B. Dermatitis
C. Diarrhea
D. Dysphagia
12.Scurvy is disease resulting from deficiency of which of the following?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B3
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin D

13. Night blindness is a disease resulting from deficiency of which of

the following?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B3
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin D

14. Beri beri is a disease resulting from deficiency of which of the

following?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B1
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin D
15. Pellagra a disease resulting from deficiency of which of the
following?
35
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B2
C. Vitamin B3
D. Vitamin C

16. Which of the following is not a skeletal manifestation of rickets?

A. Craniotabes
B. Harrison's sulcus
C. Pot-belly abdomen
D. Rosary chest

17. Kwashiorkor is a disease resulting from deficiency of which of the

following?
A. Carbohydrates
B. Lipids
C. Proteins
D. Vitamins

18. Which of the following is not a radiosensitive tissue?

A. Endothelium
B. Haemopoietic tissue
C. Germ cells
D. Lymphoid tissue
36
19. Which of the following is a radio resistant tissue?
A. Endothelium
B. Brain
C. Germ cells
D. Lymphoid tissue

20. Which of the following tissues can give rise to a malignant tumour
that can be treated effectively by radiotherapy?
A. Blood vessels
B. Brain
C. Skin
D. Testis

21. Which of the following is not an effect of ionizing radiation on cells?

A. Degeneration
B. Inflammation
C. Neoplasia
D. Stimulation of cell division

24.B 25.A 26.B 27.C 28.B 29.D 30.A 31.D 32.A 33. D
34. D 35. C 36. A 37. B 38. C 39. C 40. C 41. A 42. B 43. D
44. D
 Disorder of growth & neoplasia
1.What does the term “hypertrophy” mean?
37
A. Disordered cellular development
B. Decrease in the size of a tissue or organ resulting from a decrease in the size of
its constituent cell
C. Increase in the size of a tissue or organ resulting from increase in the number of
its constituent cell
D. Increase in the size of a tissue or organ resulting from increase in the size of its
constituent cell

2.What is the scientific term defined as “Increase in the size of a tissue or

organ resulting from increase in the number of its constituent cell” ?
A. Atrophy B. Hyperplasia
c. Hypertrophy D. Metaplasia

3. Which of the following types of atrophy occurs in the brain in cerebral

atherosclerosis?
A. Disuse B. Ischemic
C. Neuropathic D. Starvation

4. Which of the following types of hypertrophy occurs in the muscular

wall of hollow organs to overcome a distant resistance?
A. Adaptive B. Compensatory
C. Disuse D. Physiologic
5. After several weeks of immobilization, which of the following change
can occur in the calf muscle?
A. Atrophy B. Dysplasia
38
C. Hyperplasia D. Hypertrophy

6.What is the scientific term defined as “Reversible change of one type of

differentiated cells to another mature differentiated cell type of the same
category?
A. Dysplasia B. Hyperplasia
C. Metaplasia D. Neoplasia

7.Which of the following is not locally malignant tumor?

A. Ameloblastoma B. Basal cell carcinoma
C. Osteoclastoma D. Squamous cell carcinoma

8. Which of the following is not a main site of metastases in malignant

tumors?
A. Brain B. Liver
C. Lung D. Spleen

9. Which of the following is a malignant tumour of epithelial origin?

A. Bilharzioma B. Carcinoma
C. Sarcoma D. Tuberculoma
10. Which of the following is a malignant tumour of mesenchymal origin?
A. Bilharzioma B. Carcinoma
39
C. Sarcoma D.Tuberculoma

11. Which of the following is not a cellular criterion of malignant

tumours ?
A. Abundant mitoses B. Anisonucleosis
C. Decreased nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio D. Loss of polarity

12. What is the prognostic significance of stromal fiberosis in malignant

tumours?
A. Indicates bad prognosis B. Indicates good prognosis
C. No effect on prognosis

13. Which of the following is a tumour that spreads only by the direct
method?
A. Craniopharyngioma B. Osteosarcoma
C. Squamous cell carcinoma D. Transitional cell carcinoma

14. What is the character of the edge of the malignant alcers ?

A. Punched out B. Raised everted
C. Sloping D. Undermined

15. Which of the following is a tumours is characterized by Palisading “?

A. Adenocarcinoma B. Basal cell carcinoma
C. Squamous cell carcinoma D. Transitional cell carcinoma
16. Which of the following is not a hamartoma?
A. Haemangioma B. Lymphangioma
40
C. Myxoma D. Naevus

17. What is the term that describes a carcinoma that manifest itself for
the first time as metastasis?
A. Carcinoma insitu B. Choriostoma
C. Latent carcinoma D. Occult carcinoma

18. What is the term that describes a carcinoma that remains dormant
for many years before giving rise to manifestations?
A. Carcinoma insitu B. Choriostoma
C. Latent carcinoma D. Occult carcinoma

19. Which of the following tumours has the worst prognosis?

A. T1N1M0 B. T2N0M0
C. T41N3M1 D. T3N1M1

20. Which of the following originates from totipotent cells ?

A. Choriostomas B. Hamartomas
C. Neuroblastoma D. Teratomas

21. What is the term that describes cancer causing genes?

A. Anti-oncogenes B. Oncogenes
C. Proto- oncogenes D. Tumour suppressor
genes

22. Which of the following carcinomas may be presented as “Iatent

carcinoma “?
A. Breast B. Colon
C. Lung D. Thyroid
 23. Which of the following carcinomas doesn’t show early
41
haematogenous spread?
A. Breast B. Colon
C. Lung D. Thyroid

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
D B B A A C 45. D B C
D
11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
C B A B B C D C C D
21. 22. 23.
B D B
 Systemic Pathology 42
Diseases of the cardiovascular system
1. Which of the following diseases is characterized by "Antisckow cells”?
A. Acute bacterial endocarditis B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis
C. Rheumatic fever D. Viral myocarditis

2. Which of the following is sufficient for diagnosis of rheumatic fever?

A. One major criterion B. One major and one minor criterion
C. Two major criteria D. Two minor criteria

3. Which of the following is not a component of Fallot's tetralogy?

A. ASD B. Pulmonary stenosis
C. Right ventricular hypertrophy D. VSD

4. What is the most common cause of death in malignant essential

hypertension?
A. Cerebral hemorrhage B. Chronic renal failure
C. Heart failure D. Acute renal failure

5. Which of the following diseases is characterized by "Rosary sign"?

A. Buerger's disease B. Polyarteritis nodosa
C. Temporal arteritis D. Wagner's granulomatosis

6. Which of the following is not a risk factor for hypertension?

A. Genetics B. Obesity
C. Shinking D. Young age
7. Which of the following criteria are sufficient for the diagnosis of
rheumatic fever in a 12 years’ child with a history of tonsillitis?
A. Arthralgia and carditis B. Arthralgia and fever
43
C. Chorea nod fever D. Polyarthritis and carditis

8. Which of the following valvular disorder is not presented by cyanosis?

A Coarcitation of aorta B. Eisenmengar's syndrome
C. Fallot's tetralogy D. Fallot's triology

9. Which of the following aneurysms may cause myocardial ischemia?

A. Atherosclerotic B. Berry
C. Dissecting D. Mycotic

10. A 20 years old male went to a dentist for extraction of a carious

tooth. Suddenly after 3 weeks, he lost his consciousness and was
hospitalized. Echocardiography showed vegetation on the mitral valve,
and brain imaging revealed brain infarction. What is the nature of the
cardiac lesion?
A. Acute bacterial endocarditis
B. Atypical verrucous endocarditis
C. Rheumatic endocarditis
D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
C C A D B D D A C D