Solutions To Jee - 2008 Papers Paper Maths: - Ii (Code 0)
Solutions To Jee - 2008 Papers Paper Maths: - Ii (Code 0)
Solutions To Jee - 2008 Papers Paper Maths: - Ii (Code 0)
PAPER – II (CODE 0)
MATHS
Section I (Straight Objective Type)
This section contains 9 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A) , (B) , (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. A particle P starts from the point z0 = 1 + 2 i , where i = 1 . It moves first horizontally away from
origin by 5 units and then vertically away from origin by 3 units to reach a point z1 . From z1 the
particle moves 2 units in the direction of the vector î ĵ and then it moves through an angle in
2
anticlockwise direction on a circle with centre at origin , to reach a point z2 . The point z2 is given by
(A) 6 + 7 i (B) – 7 + 6 i (C) 7 + 6 i (D) – 6 + 7 i
Sol. (D)
z0 (1 + 2 i)
z1 (6 + 5 i)
z2 (– 6 + 7 i)
2. Let the function , g : (– , ) , be given by g (u) = 2 tan–1 (eu) – . Then ‘g’ is :
2 2 2
(A) even and is strictly increasing in (0 , )
(B) odd and is strictly decreasing in (– , )
(C) odd and is strictly increasing in (– , )
(D) neither even nor odd , but is strictly increasing in (– , )
Sol. (C) g(u) = 2tan–1(eu) –
2
g(u) = tan–1(eu) + tan–1 (eu) –
2
g(u) = tan–1(eu) – cot–1(eu)
g(–u) = cot–1(eu) – tan–1(eu)
g(u) = – g(–u)
odd function
2
g’(u) = > 0 (strictly increasing)
1 e 2u
1
3. Consider a branch of the hyperbola , x 2 – 2 y2 – 2 2 x – 4 2 y – 6 = 0 with vertex at the point A ..
Let B be one of the end points of its latus rectum . If C is the focus of the hyperbola nearest to the
point A , then the area of the triangle ABC is :
2 3 2 3
(A) 1 – (B) –1 (C) 1 + (D) +1
3 2 3 2
Sol. (B)
Hyperbola is
x 2 2 – y 2 2 =1
4 2
3
a=2,e=
2
b= 2
1 b2
Area = a (e –1)
2 a
3
–1
2
1 sin x 1 sin x
4. The area of the region between the curves y = cos x and y = cos x bounded by the lines
is :
x = 0 and x = 4
2 1 2 1
t 4t
(A) dt (B) dt
0 (1 t ) 2
1 t 2
0 (1 t )
2
1 t2
2 1 2 1
4t t
(C) dt (D) dt
0 (1 t 2 ) 1 t2 0 (1 t 2 ) 1 t2
Sol. (B)
/4
1 sin x 1 sin x
dx
cos x cos x
0
x x x x
/ 4 1 tan 1 tan 1 tan 1 tan
2 2 dx = 2 2 dx
=
x x 2 x
0 1 tan 1 tan 1 tan
2 2 2
x
/ 4 2 tan 2 1
2 4t x
= dx = dt as tan = t.
x 2 2 2
0 1 tan 2 0 (1 t ) 1 t
2
2
5. Consider three points P = (– sin ( – ) , – cos ) , Q = (cos ( – ) , sin ) and
R = (cos ( – +) , sin ()) , where 0 < , , < . Then :
4
(A) P lies on the line segment RQ (B) Q lies on the line segment PR
(C) R lies on the line segment QP (D) P , Q , R are non-collinear
Sol. (D)
P (–sin( – ), – cos) (x 1, y1)
Q (cos( – ), sin) (x 2, y2)
and R (x 2cos + x 1sin, y2cos + y1sin)
x 2 cos x1 sin y 2 cos y1 sin
we see that T = ,
cos sin cos sin
and P, Q, T are collinear
P , Q , R are non-collinear
6. An experiment has 10 equally likely outcomes . Let A and B be two non-empty events of the
experiment . If A consists of 4 outcomes , the number of outcomes that B must have so that A and B
are independent is :
(A) 2 , 4 or 8 (B) 3 , 6 or 9 (C) 4 or 8 (D) 5 or 10
Sol. (D)
4 p 2p / 5
P( A B)
10 10 10
2p
is an integer p = 5 or 10.
5
7. Let two non-collinear unit vectors â and b̂ form an acute angle . A point P moves so that at any
time ‘ t ‘ the position vector OP (where O is the origin) is given by , â cos t b̂ sin t . When P is
farthest from origin O , let M be the length of OP and û be the unit vector along OP . Then :
â b̂ â b̂
(A) û =
and M = 1 â . b̂ 1/ 2 (B) û =
and M = 1 â . b̂ 1/ 2
â b̂ â b̂
â b̂ â b̂
(C) û =
â b̂
and M = 1 2 â . b̂ 1/ 2 (D) û =
and M = 1 2 â . b̂ 1/ 2
â b̂
Sol. (A)
P
b̂ sin t
‘R’ = 1 sin 2t cos
u
sin 2t = 1
t = 45º
O â cos t
1 cos 1 a b
â b̂ â b̂
and t = 45º so the unit vector along OP is angle bisector of and is û =
2 2 â b̂
3
ex e x
8. Let I = dx , J = dx
e4 x e2 x 1 e 4 x e 2 x 1
Then , for an arbitrary constant C , the value of J – I equals :
1 e 4 x e2 x 1 1 e2 x e x 1
(A) log 4 x 2x
+C (B) log 2 x x
+C
2 e e 1
2 e e 1
1 e2 x ex 1 1 e4 x e2 x 1
(C) log 2 x x
+C (D) log 4 x 2x
+C
2 e e 1
2 e e 1
Sol. (C)
e x ( e 2 x 1) ( z 2 1)
J–I= dx = dz where z = ex
e 4 x e 2x 1 z4 z2 1
1
1 d z
z2 1 e x ex 1
ln
e x ex 1 + C
2 2
1
z 1
z
1 e x e x 1 1 e2 x ex 1
J–I= ln log 2 x +C
2 e x ex 1 + C
2 e e x
1
9. Let g (x) = log f (x) , where f (x) is a twice differentiable positive function on (0 , ) such that
1 1
f (x + 1) = x f (x) . Then for N = 1 , 2 , 3 , ... , g N – g =
2 2
1 1 1 1 1 1
(A) – 4 1 ... (B) 4 1 ...
9 25 (2 N 1)2 9 25 (2 N 1)2
1 1 1 1 1 1
(C) – 4 1 ...
2 (D) 4 1 ...
9 25 (2 N 1) 9 25 (2 N 1)2
Sol. (A)
g(x + 1) = log (f(x + 1) = log x + log(f(x))
= log x + g(x)
g (x + 1) – g (x) = log x
1
g”(x + 1) – g”(x) = –
x2
1 1
g” 1 – g” = – 4
2 2
1 1 4
g” 2 – g” 1 = –
2 2 9
......
.......
1 1 4
g” N – g” N = –
2 2 (2 N 1)2
1 1 1 1 1
Summing upto all term g” N – g” = – 4 1 ...
2 2 9 25 (2 N 1)2
4
Section II (Reasoning Type)
This section contains 4 reasoning type questions . Each question has 4 choices (A) , (B) , (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
10. Suppose four distinct positive numbers a1 , a2 , a3 , a4 are in G.P.
Let b1 = a1 , b2 = b1 + a2 , b3 = b2 + a2 and b4 = b3 + a4 .
Statement - 1 : The numbers b1 , b2 , b3 , b4 are neither in A.P. nor in G.P.
Statement - 2 : The numbers b1 , b2 , b3 , b4 are in H.P.
(A) Statement - 1 is True , Statement - 2 is True ; Statement - 2 is a CORRECT explanation for
Statement - 1
(B) Statement - 1 is True , Statement - 2 is True ; Statement - 2 is a NOT CORRECT explanation
for Statement - 1
(C) Statement - 1 is True , Statement - 2 is False
(D) Statement - 1 is False , Statement - 2 is True
Sol. (C)
b1 = a1 , b2 = a1 + a2 , b3 = a1 + a2 + a3 , b4 = a1 + a2 + a3 + a4
Hence b1 , b2 , b3 , b4 are neither in A.P. nor in G.P. nor in H.P.
11. Let a , b , c , p , q be real numbers . Suppose , are the roots of the equation ,
1
x 2 + 2 p x + q = 0 and , are the roots of the equation a x 2 + 2 b x + c = 0 , where 2 {– 1 , 0 , 1}
Statement - 1 : (p2 – q) (b2 – a c ) 0
Statement - 2 : b p a or c q a
(A) Statement - 1 is True , Statement - 2 is True ; Statement - 2 is a CORRECT explanation for
Statement - 1
(B) Statement - 1 is True , Statement - 2 is True ; Statement - 2 is a NOT CORRECT explanation
for Statement - 1
(C) Statement - 1 is True , Statement - 2 is False
(D) Statement - 1 is False , Statement - 2 is True
Sol. (A)
Suppose roots are imaginary then =
1 1
and = = not possible
roots are real (p2 – q) (b2 – a c) 0
Statement - 1 is correct
2b u c
= u and = , + = – 2p , u = q
a a
If = 1 , then = q c = q a (not possible)
2b
Also u + 1 = – 2p b = a p (not possible)
a
12. Consider L1 : 2x + 3y + p – 3 = 0
L2 : 2x + 3y + p + 3 = 0
where ‘p’ is a real number and C : x 2 + y2 + 6 x – 10 y + 30 = 0
Statement - 1 : If line L1 is a chord of circle C , then L2 is not always a diameter of circle C
Statement - 2 : If line L1 is a diameter of circle C , then line L2 is not a chord of circle C
(A) Statement - 1 is True , Statement - 2 is True ; Statement - 2 is a CORRECT explanation for
Statement - 1
(B) Statement - 1 is True , Statement - 2 is True ; Statement - 2 is a NOT CORRECT explanation
for Statement - 1
(C) Statement - 1 is True , Statement - 2 is False
(D) Statement - 1 is False , Statement - 2 is True
5
Sol. (C)
Circle = (x + 3)2 + (y – 5)2 = 4
6
Distance between L1 and L2 < radius
13
Statement - 2 is false , but Statement - 1 is correct
2
13. Let a solution y = y (x) of the differential equation , x x 1 d y – y y2 1 d x = 0
2
satisfy y (2) =
3
1
Statement - 1 : y (x) = sec sec x
6
1 2 3 1
Statement - 2 : y (x) is given by , = – 1
y x x2
(A) Statement - 1 is True , Statement - 2 is True ; Statement - 2 is a CORRECT explanation for
Statement - 1
(B) Statement - 1 is True , Statement - 2 is True ; Statement - 2 is a NOT CORRECT explanation
for Statement - 1
(C) Statement - 1 is True , Statement - 2 is False
(D) Statement - 1 is False , Statement - 2 is True
Sol. (C)
dx dy
=
x x2 1 y y2 1
sec –1 x = sec –1 y + C
2
sec –1 2 = sec –1 +C
3
C=
6
y = sec sec –1 x
6
1 1 3
cos –1 = cos –1 – cos –1
y x 2
2 3 1
= – 1
y x x2
6
Section III (Linked Comprehension Type)
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have
to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A) , (B) , (C) and (D) , out of whoch ONLY ONE is
correct.
Paragraph - I (Questions numbers 14 to 16)
x2 a x 1
Consider the function , f : (– , ) (– , ) defined by f (x) = , 0<a<2.
x2 a x 1
14. Which of the following is true ?
(A) (2 + a)2 f (1) + (2 – a)2 f (– 1) = 0 (B) (2 – a)2 f (1) – (2 + a)2 f (– 1) = 0
(C) f (1) f (– 1) = (2 – a)2 (D) f (1) f (– 1) = – (2 + a)2
Sol. (A)
2a(x 2 1)
F’(x) =
(x 2 ax 1)2
–4a(x3 3x a)
F’’ (x) =
(x 2 ax 1)3
–4a( 2 a) 4a
F’’ (1) =
3
(2 a) (a 2)2
4a
F’’’ (–1) = (2 + a)2 f (1) + (2 – a)2 f (– 1) = 0
(2 a)2
2a(x 2 1)
0
(x 2 ax 1)2
(x 2 1) 0 option (A)
f (x) is decreasing on (– 1 , 1) and has a local minimum at x = 1
ex
f (t)
16. Let g (x) = d t . Which of the following is true ?
0
1 t2
2a(e2x 1)
g’ (x) = ex
(e2x ae x 1)2 (1 e2x )
e2x – 1 > 0 g (x) is negative on (– , 0) and positive on (0 , )
7
Paragraph - II (Questions numbers 17 to 19)
î 7 ĵ 7 k̂ î 7 ĵ 5 k̂ î 7 ĵ 5 k̂ 7 î 7 ĵ k̂
(A) (B) (C) (D)
99 5 3 5 3 99
Sol. (B)
i j k
3 1 2 = î 7 ĵ 5 k̂
1 2 3
î 7 ĵ 5 k̂
Hence unit vector will be
5 3
19. The distance of the point (1 , 1 , 1) from the plane passing through the point (– 1 , – 2 , – 1) and whose
normal is perpendicular to both the lines L1 and L2 is :
2 7 13 23
(A) (B) (C) (D)
75 75 75 75
Sol. (C)
Plane is given by – (x + 1) – 7 (y + 2) + 5 (z + 1) = 0
x + 7 y – 5 x + 10 = 0
1 7 5 10 13
Distance = =
75 75
If the correct matches are A-p, B-q, B-r, C-p, C-q and D-s, then the correctly
bubbled 4 × 4 matrix should be as follows.
[ For every correct answer + 6 marks will be awarded (if all options are marked correctly)
and no negative marking for wrong answer ]
Match the statements/expression in Column I with the statements/expressions in column II .
8
20. Consider the lines given by : L1 : x + 3 y – 5 = 0
L2 : 3 x – k y – 1 = 0
L3 : 5 x + 2 y – 12 = 0
Column I Column II
(A) L1 , L2 , L3 are concurrent , if (p) k=–9
(B) One of L1 , L2 , L3 is parallel to atleast
one of the other two , if (q) k = – 6/5
(C) L1 , L2 , L3 form a triangle , if (r) k = 5/6
(D) L1 , L2 , L3 do not form a triangle , if (s) k=5
Sol. A-s B - p, q C-r D - p, q, s
x + 3 y – 5 = 0 and 5 x + 2 y – 12 = 0 intersect at (2 , 1)
Hence 6 – k – 1 = 0 , k = 5
for L1 , L2 to be parallel
1 3
= k=–9
3 k
For L1 , L2 to be parallel
3 k 6
= k=
5 5 5
6
for k = 5 , – 9 , they will form triangle
5
6
for k = 5 , k = – 9 , they will not form triangle.
5
x2 2 x 4
(A) The minimum value of is (p) 0
x2
(B) Let A and B be 3 3 matrices of real numbers, where
A is symmetric , B is skew-symmetric and
(A + B) (A – B) = (A – B) (A + B) . If (AB)t = (– 1)k AB ,
where (AB)t is the transpose of the matrix AB, then the
possible values of k are (q) 1
(C) Let a = log3 log3 2 . An integer k satisfying
a
1 < 2 k 3 < 2 , must be less than (r) 2
(D) If sin = cos , then the possible values of
1
are (s) 3
2
Sol. A-r B - q, s C - r, s D - p, r
9
x2 2 x 4
(A) y=
x2
dy ( x 2) ( 2 x 2 ) x 2 2 x 4
=
dx ( x 2) 2
at x = 0 the minimum value is 2 r
(B) (A + B) (A – B) = (A – B) (A + D)
(AB)t = (–1)k AB q, s
a
(C) (1) < 2 –K
, 23 <2
k
1 1 2
3 2 3 r, s
(D) sin = sin
2
= n+ (–1)n
2
1
In both the cases for n the value of are even p,r
2
22. Consider all possible permutations of the letters of the word ENDEANOEL .
Column I Column II
(A) The number of permutations containing the word ENDEA is (p) 5!
(B) The number of permutations in which the letter E occurs in
the first and the last positions is (q) 25!
(C) The number of permutations in which none of the letters
D , L , N occurs in the last five positions is (r) 75!
(D) The number of permutations in which the letters A , E , O
occur only in odd positions is (s) 21 5 !
Sol. A-p B-s C-q D-q
Total number of words are 9.
(A) The number of permutaiotn containing (ENDEA) is 5 ! p
!7
(B) If E occurs in the Ist and last position = 21 . 5 ! s
!2
!4 !5
(C) D, L, N will not occur in last five position × =2.5! q
!2 !3
!5 !4
(D) A, E, O occur only in odd position by × q
!3 !2
10
JEE - 2008 PAPER PHYSICS
PAPER – II (CODE 0)
Section I (Straight Objective Type)
This section contains 9 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A) , (B) , (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
q q 2q y
23. Consider a system of three charges , and placed at points
3 3 3 B
A, B and C, respectively, as shown in the figure. Take O to be the
centre of the circle of radius R and angle CAB = 60º
C x
Figure.
O
60º
q
(A) The electric field at point O is directed along A
80R2
the negative x-axis
(B) The potential energy of the system is zero
q2
(C) The magnitude of the force between the charges at C and B is
540R2
q2
(D) The potential at point O is
120R
Sol. (C)
q2
=
540R2
correct option is (C)
11
24. A radioactive sample S1 having activity of 5Ci has twice the number of nuclei as another sample S2
which has an activity of 10Ci. The half lives of S1 and S2 can be
(A) 20 years and 5 years, respectively (B) 20 years and 10 years, respectively
(C) 10 years each (D) 5 years each
Sol. (A)
0.693
A1 = 5 = t 1/ 2 2 N
0.693
A2 = 10 = t1 / 2 N
5 t1 / 2
= 2
10 t 1/ 2
t 1/ 2 4
t1 / 2 = 1
Correct option is (A)
y
25. A transverse sinusoidal wave moves along a string in the positive
x-direction at a speed of 10cm/s. The wavelength of the waves
is 0.5 m and its amplitude is 10cm. At a particle time t, the P
snap-shot of the wave is shown in figure. The velocity of point P x
when its displacement is 5cm is
Figure
3 3 3 3
(A) ĵ m / s (B) ĵ m / s (C) î m / s (D) î m / s
50 50 50 50
Sol. (A)
dy dy
For wave going in positive x-direction, particle velocity c
dt dx
dy dy
Here ve , ve
dx dt
Velocity is in positive y-direction.
Correct answer is (A)
26. A block (B) is attached to two unstretched springs S1 and S2 with spring constants k and 4k
respectively (see figure I). The other ends are attached to identical supports M1 and M2 not attached
to the walls. The springs and supports have negligible mass. There is no friction anywhere. The
block displaced towards wall 1 by a small distance x (figure II) and released. The block returns and
moves a maximum distance y towards wall 2. Displacements x and y are measured with respect to
y
the equilibrium position of the block B. The ratio is
x
2 1
S2 S1
M2 M1
VVVVVVVVVV B VVVVVVVVVV I
2 1
M2 S2 S1 M1
VVVVVVVVVV B VVVVVVVV II
1 1
(A) 4 (B) 2 (C) (D)
2 4
12
Sol. (C)
1 2 1 2
kx = 4k y
2 2
x 2 = 4y2
x = 2y
y 1
x 2
Correct option is (C)
B
27. A bob of mass M is suspended by a massless string of length L.
The horizontal velocity V at position A is just sufficient to make it
reach the point B. The angle at which the speed of the bob is half
of that at A, satisfies
L
(A) (B)
4 4 2
A V
3 3
(C) (D)
2 4 4
Sol. (D)
1 1 5gL
M(5gL)= M MgL(1 cos )
2 2 4
1 15
mgL mgL(1 cos )
2 4
15
1 – cos =
8
7
cos = –
8
= 151º
Correct option is
28. A glass tube of uniform internal radius (r) has a valve separating
the two identical ends. Initially, the valve is in a tightly closed x
position. End 1 has a hemispherical soap bubble of radius r.
End 2 has sub-hemispherical soap bubble as shown in figure.
Just after opening the valve,
2 1
(A) air from end 1 flows towards end 2. No change in the volume of the soap bubbles
(B) air from end 1 flows towards end 2. Volume of the soap bubble at end 1 decreases
(C) no change occurs
(D) air from end 2 flows towards end 1. Volume of the soap bubble at end 1 increases
Sol. (B)
R2 > R1
P2 < P1
Air flows from end 1 to end 2
correct option is (B)
13
29. A vibrating string of certain length under a tension T resonates with a mode corresponding to the
first overtone (third harmonic) of an air column of length 75 cm inside a tube closed at one end. The
string also generates 4 beats per second when excited along with a tuning fork of frequency n. Now
when the tension of the string is slightly increased the number of beats reduces to 2 per second .
Assuming the velocity of sound in air to be 340 m/s, the frequency n of the tuning fork in Hz is
(A) 344 (B) 336 (C) 117.3 (D) 109.3
Sol. (A)
c
Frequency of air column/string , f = 3
4L
340
= 3×
4 0.75
= 340 Hz
frequency of tuning fork = 336 Hz or 344 Hz
As increase in tension in string decreases the beat frequency, the unknown frequency, n = 344 Hz
Correct option is (A)
30. A parallel plate capacitor C with plates of unit area and separation d is
d C
filled with a liquid of dielectric constant K = 2. The level of liquid is
3
d d R
initially. Suppose the liquid level decreases at a constant speed V, the 3
time constant as a function of time t is
2d d
1 1 1 vt vt ( 2d+vt)
= 3 3 3
C C1 C2 0 1 0 1 2
( d -vt )
3
1 2d d vt
= vt
0 3 6 2
1
= 4d 6vt d 3vt
6 0
1
= 5d 3vt
6 0
6 0
c=
5d 3vt
6 0R
Time constant = RC =
5d 3vt
correct option is (A)
14
31. A light beam is traveling from Region I to Region IV (Refer
figure). The refractive index in Regions I, II, III and IV are Region I Region II Region III Region IV
n0 n0 n0 n0 n0 n0
n 0, , and , respectively. The angle of incidence
2 6 8 n0 2 6 8
for which the beam just misses entering Region IV is
0 0.2m 0.6m
1 3 1 1 1 1 1
(A) sin (B) sin (C) sin1 (D) sin
4 8 4 3
Sol. (B)
n0
n0sin = sin 90º
8
1
sin=
8
1
= sin–1
8
correct option is (B)
33. Statement - 1 : It is easier to pull a heavy object than to push it on a level ground.
Statement - 2 : The magnitude of frictional force depends on the nature of the two surfaces in contact.
(A) Statement - 1 is True , Statement - 2 is True ; Statement - 2 is a CORRECT explanation for
Statement - 1
(B) Statement - 1 is True , Statement - 2 is True ; Statement - 2 is a NOT CORRECT explanation
for Statement - 1
(C) Statement - 1 is True , Statement - 2 is False
(D) Statement - 1 is False , Statement - 2 is True
Sol. (B)
15
34. Statement - 1 : For practical purposes, the earth is used as a reference at zero potential in electrical
circuits.
Statement - 2 : The electrical potential of a sphere of radius R with charge Q uniformly distributed
Q
on the surface is given by
40R
(A) Statement - 1 is True , Statement - 2 is True ; Statement - 2 is a CORRECT explanation for
Statement - 1
(B) Statement - 1 is True , Statement - 2 is True ; Statement - 2 is a NOT CORRECT explanation
for Statement - 1
(C) Statement - 1 is True , Statement - 2 is False
(D) Statement - 1 is False , Statement - 2 is True
Sol. (B)
35. Statement - 1 : The sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer is increased by placing a suitable
magnetic material as a core inside the coil.
Statement - 2 : Soft iron has a high magnetic permeability and cannot be easily magnetized or
demagnetized.
(A) Statement - 1 is True , Statement - 2 is True ; Statement - 2 is a CORRECT explanation for
Statement - 1
(B) Statement - 1 is True , Statement - 2 is True ; Statement - 2 is a NOT CORRECT explanation
for Statement - 1
(C) Statement - 1 is True , Statement - 2 is False
(D) Statement - 1 is False , Statement - 2 is True
Sol. (C)
Paragraph - I (Questions numbers 36 to 38)
(r)
The nuclear charge (Ze) is non-uniformly distributed within a nucleus of
radius R. The charge density (r) [charge per unit volume] is dependent d
only on the radial distance r from the centre of the nucleus as shown in
figure. The electric field is only along the radial direction.
Figure.
r
a R
36. The electric field at r = R is
(A) independent of a (B) directly proportional to a
(C) directly proportional to a2 (D) inversely proportional to a
Sol. (A)
Electric field at r = R,
1 Ze
E=
40 R2
correct option is (A)
37. For a = 0, the value of d (maximum value of as shown in the figure) is
3Ze 3Ze 4Ze Ze
(A) 3
(B) 3
(C) 3
(D)
4R R 3R 3R3
16
Sol. (B)
d
rd d
R
R 2 d
ze = 0 4r dr r d
R r
R
d R4 R3
= 4 R 4 d 3
dR3 dR3
= 4 4 3
dR3
4
12
3Ze
d=
R3
correct option is (B)
38. The electric field within the nucleus is generally observed to be linearly dependent on r. This implies
R 2R
(A) a = 0 (B) a = (C) a = R (D) a
2 3
Sol. (C)
Electric field is linearly dependent on r when density is uniform inside nucleus.
d
r
R
correct option is (C)
17
Paragraph - II (Questions numbers 39 to 41)
A uniform thin cylindrical disk of mass M and radius R is
attached to two identical massless springs of spring
constant k which are fixed to the wall as shown in the
figure. The springs are attached to the axle of the disk
symmetrically on either side at a distance d from its centre.
The axle is massless and both the springs and the axle
are in a horizontal plane. The unstretched length of each
spring is L. The disk is initially at its equilibrium position
with its centre of mass (CM) at a distance L from the wall.
The disk rolls without slipping with velocity V0 V0 ˆi . The
coefficient of friction is .
39. The net external force acting on the disk when its centre of mass is at
displacement x with respect to its equilibrium position is
2kx 4k x
(A) –kx (B) – 2kx (C) – (D) –
3 3
Sol. (D)
a
3 2 a
2kx × R = MR
2 R 2kx
4 kx
a= f
3 M
4
Net force = Ma = Kx leftside
3
correct option is (D)
40. The centre of mass of the disk undergoes simple harmonic motion with angular frequency equal to
k 2k 2k 4k
(A) (B) (C) (D)
M M 3M 3M
Sol. (D)
I M
M M
2 2
T 2 R = 2
2K 2K
3M
= 2
4K
2K 4K
I 3M
M
R2
correct option is (D)
18
41. The maximum value of V0 for which the disk will roll without slipping is
M M 3M 5M
(A) g (B) g (C) g (D) g
k 2k k 2k
Sol. (C)
1 3 V2 1
MR2 0 Kx 2 2 ...(1)
2 2 R2 2
4 kx
2Kx – mg = m ×
3 m
4
mg = kx × 2
3
2
= kx ×
3
3mg
x= .....(2)
2K
From (1) & (2)
3M
V0 = g correct option is (C)
K
19
Section IV (Matrix Match Type)
If the correct matches are A-p, B-q, B-r, C-p, C-q and D-s, then the correctly
bubbled 4 × 4 matrix should be as follows.
[ For every correct answer + 6 marks will be awarded (if all options are marked correctly)
and no negative marking for wrong answer ]
42. Column I gives a list of possible set of parameters measured in some experiments. The variations
of the parameters in the form of graphs are shown in column II. Match the set of parameters given in
Column I with the graphs given in Column II . Indicate your answer by darkening the appropriate
bubbles of the 4 × 4 matrix given in the ORS.
Column I Column II
(A) Potential energy of a simple pendulum (y axis)
y
O x
O x
O x
O x
20
43. An optical component and an object S placed along its optic axis are given in Column I . The
distance between the object and the component can be varied. The properties of images are given in
Column II. Match all the properties of images from Column II with the appropriate components
given in Column I. Indicate your answer by darkening the appropriate bubbles of the 4 × 4 matrix
given in the ORS.
Column I Column II
S
(A) (p) Real image
S
(B) (q) Virtual image
S
(C) (r) Magnified image
S
(D) (s) Image at infinity
Sol. A - p, q, r, s B-q C - p, q, r, s D - p, q, r, s
21
44. Column I contains a list of processes involving expansion of an ideal gas. Match this with column
II describing the thermodynamic change during this process. Indicate your answer by darkening the
appropriate bubbles of the 4 × 4 matrix given in the ORS.
Column I Column II
(A) An insulated container has two chambers (p) The temperature of the
separated by a valve. Chamber I contains an gas decreases
ideal gas and the chamber. II has vacuum .
The valve is opened.
I II
vacuum
ideal gas
(B) An ideal monatomic gas expands to twice its (q) The temperature of the gas
1
original volume such that its pressure P , increases or remains
V2
where V is the volume of the gas constant
(C) An ideal monoatomic gas expands to twice its (r) The gas loses heat
1
original volume such that its pressure P 4/3 ,
V
where V is its volume
(D) An ideal monoatomic gas expands such that its (s) The gas gains heat
pressure P and volume V follows the behavior
shown in the graph
V1 2V1 V
Sol. A-q B - p, r C - p, s D - q, s
22
JEE - 2008 PAPER CHEMISTRY
PAPER – II (CODE 0)
Section I (Straight Objective Type)
This section contains 9 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A) , (B) , (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
45. The correct stability order for the following species is
23
46. Cellulose upon acetylation with excess acetic anhydride/H2SO4 (catalytic) gives cellulose triacetate whose
structure is:
AcO
AcO
O
O
AcO H H
O
H O OAc H
O H
H H
O OAc H
H H
(A) H OAc
OAc H
H
O OAc
H
H OAc
AcO
AcO
O
O
AcO H H
O
H O OH H
O H
H H
O OH H
H H
(B) H OH
OH H
H
O OH
H
H OH
O H O O
H H H H O
H H H
(C) OAc H O OAc H
O OAc H
O H
O H O O
H H H H O
H H H
H O H H H
(D) H O H
O H
Sol. (A)
As in cellulose 1-4 glycosidic linkage is present
47. In the following reaction sequence, the correct structure of E, F and G are:
O O
Heat 2 I
[E] [F] + [G]
Ph OH NaOH
*
(* implies 13C labelled carbon)
O O
(A) E = F= G = CHI3
Ph * CH3 Ph * O Na
O O
(B) E = F= G = CHI3
Ph * 3
CH Ph O Na
O O
(C) E = F= * HI3
G= C
Ph * 3
CH Ph O Na
O O
(D) E = F= * H3I
G= C
Ph * 3
CH Ph O Na
24
Sol. (C)
O O O
* 2—C—OH
Ph—C—CH Ph—C—CH* 3+CO2
(E)
O O
I2
* 3
Ph—C—CH * 3
Ph—C—COONa + CHI
NaOH (F) (G)
52. Among the following, the surfactant that will form micelles in aqueous solution at the lowest molar con-
centration at ambient condition is
(A) CH3(CH2)15N+ (CH3)3 Br – (B) CH3(CH2)11OSO3–Na+
(C) CH3CH2)6COO Na – + (D) CH3(CH2)11N+(CH3)3Br –
Sol. (B)
53. Solubility product constants (Ksp) of salts of types MX, MX2 and M3X at temperature ‘T’ are 4.0 × 10–8,
3.2 × 10–14 and 2.7 × 10–15, respectively. Solubilities (mol dm–3) of the salts at temperature ‘T’ are in the
order
(A) MX > MX2 > M3X (B) M3X > MX2 > MX (C) MX2 > M3X > MX (D) MX > M3X > MX2
Sol. (D)
For MX, S = K sp = 4 10 8 = 2 × 10
–4
K sp 3.2 10 14
MX2 = S = 3 = 3 = 2 × 10–5
4 4
K sp 2.7 10 15
M3XTS = 4 = 4 = 10–4
27 27
MX > M3X > MX2
25
Section II (Reasoning Type)
This section contains 4 reasoning type questions . Each question has 4 choices (A) , (B) , (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
54. Statement - 1 : Aniline on reaction with NaNO2/HCl at 0ºC followed by coupling with b-naphthaol gives a
dark blue coloured precipitate.
Statement - 2 : The colour of the compound formed in the reaction of aniline with NaNO2/HCl at 0ºC
followed by coupling with b-naphthol is due to the extended conjugation.
(A) Statement - 1 is True , Statement - 2 is True ; Statement - 2 is a CORRECT explanation for
Statement - 1
(B) Statement - 1 is True , Statement - 2 is True ; Statement - 2 is a NOT CORRECT explanation
for Statement - 1
(C) Statement - 1 is True , Statement - 2 is False
(D) Statement - 1 is False , Statement - 2 is True
Sol. (D)
Cl NH3
NH3 NH3 NH3 Cl
M M
57. STATEMENT-1 : There is a natural asymmetry between converting work to heat and converting heat to
work.
Statement - 2 : No process is possible in which the sole result is the absorption of heat from a reservior
and its complete conversion into work.
(A) Statement - 1 is True , Statement - 2 is True ; Statement - 2 is a CORRECT explanation for
Statement - 1
(B) Statement - 1 is True , Statement - 2 is True ; Statement - 2 is a NOT CORRECT explanation
for Statement - 1
(C) Statement - 1 is True , Statement - 2 is False
(D) Statement - 1 is False , Statement - 2 is True
26
Sol. (A)
Statement 2 is IInd law of thermodynamics which concludes that total heat can never be converted into
equivalent amount of work.
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have
to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A) , (B) , (C) and (D) , out of whoch ONLY ONE is
correct.
Paragraph for Question Nos. 58 to 60.
A tertiary alcohol H upon acid catalysed dehydration gives a product I. Ozonolysis of I leads to compounds
J and K Compound J upon reaction with KOH gives benzyl alcohol and a compound L, whereas K on
reaction with KOH gives only M.
O
H3C Ph
M=
Ph H
58. Compound H is formed by the reaction of
O
(C) Ph H + PhCH2MgBr
O Me
(D) Ph H + Ph MgBr
Sol. (B)
O OH
Ph–C–CH3 + PhCH2MgBr Ph–C–CH3
H2C–Ph
59. The structure of compound I is
Ph CH3 H3C Ph Ph CH3 H3C CH3
(A) (B) (C) (D)
H Ph H Ph H CH2Ph Ph H
Sol. (A)
OH CH3
H+/
Ph–C–CH3 Ph–C=CH–Ph
– H2O
(I)
H2C–Ph
27
60. The structures of compound J, K and L, respectively, are
(A) PhCOCH3, PhCH2COCH3 and PHCH2COO–K+ (B) PhCHO, PhCH2CHO and PhCOO–K+
(C) PhCOCH3, PhCH2CHO and CH3COO K – + (D) PhCHO, PhCOCH3 and PhCOO–K+
Sol. (D)
CH3 CH3
O3
Ph–C=CH Ph–C=O + Ph–CHO
H2O/Zn
(K) (J)
Ph
Hence (D) is correct
3
Base area = 6 × (2r)2
4
Volume = height × base area
= 24 2r 3
28
Section IV (Matrix Match Type)
If the correct matches are A-p, B-q, B-r, C-p, C-q and D-s, then the correctly
bubbled 4 × 4 matrix should be as follows.
[ For every correct answer + 6 marks will be awarded (if all options are marked correctly)
and no negative marking for wrong answer ]
64. Match the compounds in Column I with their characteristic test(s)/reaction(s) given in Column II. Indicate
your answer by darkening the appropriate bubbles of the 4 × 4 matrix given in the ORS.
Column I Column II
(A) H 2N – NH 3Cl (p) sodium fusion extract of the compound
gives Prussian blue colour with FeSO4
NH3I
(B) HO (q) gives positive FeCl3 test
COOH
65. Match the conversions in Column I with the type(s) of reaction(s) give in Column II. Indicate your
answer by darkening the appropriate bubbles of the 4 × 4 matrix given in the ORS
Column I Column II
(A) PbS PbO (p) roasting
(B) CaCO3 CaO (q) Calcination
(C) ZnS Zn (r) carbon reduction
(D) Cu2S Cu (s) self reduction
[A–p B–q C – p, r D – p, s ]
66. Match the entries in Column I with the correctly related quantum number(s) in Column II. Indicate your
answer by darkening the appropriate bubbles of the 4 × 4 matrix given in the ORS
Column I Column II
(A) Orbital angular momentum of the (p) Principal quantum number
electron in a hydrogen-like atomic orbital
(B) A hydrogen-like one-electron wave (q) Azimuthal quantum number
function obeying Pauli principle
(C) Shape, size and orientation of hydrogen (r) Magnetic quantum number
like atomic orbitals
(D) Probability density of electron at the (s) Electron spin quantum number
nucleus in hydrogen-like atom
[A–q B–s C – p, q, r D – p, q, r ]
29