PACKAGE QUESTION LIST

UPT PUKP 03 - AKMI, Cirebon

Periode 141217AKMI (14 Dec 2017 - 16 Dec 2017)
ANT III -
Exam Code N-02-01-01 (Pra) Level Function
1
Package Code A

Competency Plan and conduct a passage and determine position

Package Code N3.1.01-A

1. How can an ARPA assist the ship to steer a suitable course to make good the entrance to a channel?

a. Select ground stabilised true motion display and alter course so that own ships true vector
passes through the middle of the entrance to the channel
b. Acquire the buoy at the entrance to the channel and on relative vector display alter course to
make the vector of the buoy pass directly through the centre of the screen
c. Select True ground stabilised vectors and make the vectors from both buoys at the entrance to
the channel pass either side of the centre of the screen
d. Select Relative motion display and make Own Ship vector pass through the middle of the
entrance to the channel

2. If the radar is set onto the Relative Motion Display, what would an echo of a target with no trail indicate? Note this the trail of
the echo and not a vector

a. The target is on the same course and speed as own ship

b. The target is stopped and making no way through the water
c. The target is on a collision course with own ship
d. The target is on a constant bearing and getting closer to own ship

3. The position of the ship is found by taking a series of bearings using a magnetic compass. How should an error of 5 degrees
WEST be applied to the compass bearings?

a. Subtract 5 degrees to the bearings

b. Add the 5 degrees to the bearings
c. The same error applies to all bearings and therefore it can be ignored
d. The error should be "High" or "Low" and therefore more information is required

4. The positions of the ship provided by the GPS should always be confirmed by other means, when possible. Which of the
following suggested methods would be the most accurate?

a. The ranges of three distinctive shore objects on the radar

b. Compass bearings of three shore objects
c. Bearing and distance from a navigational Buoy
d. Bearing using the Radio Direction Finding of three radio beacons

5. The ship is navigating in dense fog where the visibility is less than one mile. The Arpa radar is set on a range 12 miles on a
course of 314 degrees and own ship has a vector as shown. What is the vector mode selected on the Arpa?
 a. True vectors
b. Relative vectors, sea stabilized
c. Relative vectors, ground stabilized
d. Relative vectors

6. What action should the Officer of the Watch (OOW) take if he is forced to make a major deviation from the voyage plan?

a. Inform the Master

b. Make an appropriate entry in the Log Book
c. There is no special action necessary
d. Check that the deviation will not lead into danger

7. What are the limits of a passage or voyage plan?

a. From berth to berth

b. From pilot to pilot
c. From Full Away On Passage (FAOP) to End Of Passage (EOP)
d. It is dependant on the voyage and if there are any river or canal transits

8. What corrections must be applied to the echo sounder reading to compare the depth of water with the depth printed on the
chart?

a. Draught of the ship

b. Allowance for the ships speed
c. Shallow water effects
d. The distance between the pulse Transmitter and Receiver

9. What could be the reason for the magnetic compass to swing through large angles when the ship is rolling in a seaway?

a. The heeling error magnets are upside down and/or not in the correct position
b. The error due to deviation is large for that ships heading
c. The induced magnetism from the earth's magnetic field is very strong in that area
d. The Coefficient B determined by the Compass Corrector at the last dry-dock was not correctly
calculated

10. What is important to check when transferring a position from the GPS output to a paper chart?

a. Any necessary corrections are applied to convert between the GPS datum and the chart datum
b. It is important to ensure that the GPS is setup on 2 dimensional and not 3 dimensional position
fixes
c. Ensure that the GPS is setup on the same datum as the chart
d. Ensure that the chart has been corrected up to date

11. What is the advantages of a GPS satellite system compared to other navigational aids?

a. The GPS system gives information about position, speed and time continuously world wide
b. The GPS system is based on hyperbola navigation
c. The GPS system has a built-in group of six radio-beacons called a Decca chain
d. The GPS system gives information about weather and waveconditions in the area
12. What is the correct setting of the "Anti sea clutter" control on the radar?

a. A few sea returns remaining on the screen

b. No sea returns left on the screen which may confuse with small target echoes near the ship
c. A removal of all the sea returns down to about a mile from own ship
d. All of the suggested answers

13. What is the probable cause of an error in position of the ship obtained from the GPS system?

a. Incorrect height of the antenna

b. A three dimensional instead of a two dimensional position output
c. All of the suggested answers
d. Abnormal sun spot activity causing unusual radiation effects

14. What is the shortest distance between two points on the surface of the earth?

a. Great Circle
b. Composite great circle
c. Rhumb line
d. Small circle

15. What methods could be introduced into a passage plan for continuous monitoring of the ships position when navigating along
a coastline?

a. Parallel Index lines

b. Conspicuous headlands and navigational marks for taking positions
c. The radar ranges of the coastline at all course alteration points
d. All of the suggested answers

16. What possible reason could there be for the identification mark associated with a Racon not being visible on the radar screen?

a. All of the suggested answers

b. The racon may not be transmitting a pulse
c. The transmitted radar frequency may not trigger the Racon transmitter
d. The radar may be suppressing the mark with application of the Interference Rejection control

17. When a ship is steaming along a course line, what is the importance of determining the set and rate of drift due to wind and
current?

a. All of the suggested answers

b. To determine the time required to reach the next alteration of course point
c. To determine the correction required to the course steered to maintain the planned passage.
d. To appreciate the possible extent of drift and dangers in the event of engine failure

18. When navigating using the GPS, how does the GPS display indicate when the accuracy of the displayed position is reduced?
 a. A large HDOP value is displayed on the screen
b. A large "Correction Factor" number is displayed on the screen
c. The GPS display flashes and sounds an alarm
d. The GPS display is always very accurate and does not give any indication of lack of accuracy

19. When should voyage planning be done?

a. During the pilotage when leaving the berth

b. Prior to leaving the berth
c. Before the vessel completes the previous passage
d. Before the pilot is leaves the vessel at the departure port.

20. When using the echo sounder in a river the soundings indicated may be incorrect, what would be the most probable cause of
the error?

a. The density of the water

b. The strength of the tide and current in the river
c. Shallow water effects
d. There should be no error with a properly working echo sounder

21. Where can a ship expect an act of piracy to take place?

a. All over the world

b. In Far East waters
c. At the south end of the Red Sea
d. In American waters

22. Where can the size of the Magnetic Compass Error be found?

a. By taking a transit bearing of two fixed geographical positions and comparing it with the
bearing of the same points on the chart
b. On the chart in the centre of the compass rose or by reference to the Variation chart, taking
into account the annual changes
c. By reference to the last entry in the Compass Error Log Book
d. By taking the error from the Deviation Table on the bridge

23. Which of the answers best summarises the information which should be provided for the bridge Officers of the Watch within
an effective Voyage plan

a. All of the suggested answers

b. Courses to steer; distance off dangers; parallel index lines; expected currents; prevailing winds;
distance between alteration points
c. Contingency arrangements in case of problems
d. Expected prevailing wind and weather

24. Which of the following figures drawn on the plane of the Meridian is correct for an observer in position Latitude 30°00' North;
Longitude 15°00' West, when observing the sun on the meridian, if the sun's Declination is 15°00' South?
 a. Figure 4 is correct
b. Figure 1 is correct
c. Figure 2 is correct
d. Figure 3 is correct

25. Which of the four calculations illustrated is the correct one to determine the latitude of the observer when the sun is on the
meridian?

a. Calculation 3 is correct
b. Calculation 1 is correct
c. Calculation 2 is correct
d. Calculation 4 is correct

26. Which of the four figures illustrated shows the correct position line for the following situation: Latitude 50°00'N, Longitude
30°00'W, Time 1200 GMT. Course steered: 090° True, Speed: 12 knots, bearing of the sun: 200°, Intercept correction: 00°02'
Towards (observed altitude - computed altitude)

a. Figure 2 is correct
b. Figure 1 is correct
c. Figure 3 is correct
d. Figure 4 is correct

27. Which of the suggested navigational systems is a "Hyperbolic" navigational system and has hyperbolae as position lines?

a. Loran C
b. GPS
c. Radio Direction Finder
d. All of the suggested systems

28. Which part of the magnetic compass error changes with a change in the course steered?

a. Deviation
b. Variation
c. Induced magnetism
d. All of the suggested answers

29. Who is ultimately responsible for the voyage plan?

a. The Master
b. The Second Officer as the official Navigation officer
c. The Officer of the Watch (OOW) on duty
d. The ship owner will provide overall parameters within which the ship must follow

30. Why should Ground Stabilised True Motion display mode be avoided when using the Arpa for anti-collision purposes
 a. The collision regulations are based on ship courses through the water
b. True motion does not provide the collision risk of other ships
c. The Relative Motion display and relative vectors is the only display to use for anti-collision
purposes
d. The true vector can never give an indication of collision risk with another ship

Competency Maintain a safe navigational watch

Package Code N3.1.02-A

1. A 20-meter power-driven vessel pushing ahead or towing alongside will display __________.

a. a single white light forward

b. two masthead lights in a vertical line
c. two towing lights in a vertical line
d. two all-round red lights where they can best be seen

2. A sailing vessel is overtaking a power-driven vessel in a narrow channel, so as to pass on the power-driven vessel's port side.
The overtaken vessel will have to move to facilitate passage. The sailing vessel is the __________.

a. stand-on vessel and would sound two short blasts

b. give-way vessel and would sound no whistle signal
c. stand-on vessel and would sound no whistle signal
d. give-way vessel and would sound two prolonged blasts followed by two short blasts

3. A vessel constrained by her draft may display __________.

a. three all-round red lights

b. two 225° red lights
c. three all-round blue lights
d. two 225° blue lights

4. A vessel not under command sounds the same fog signal as a vessel __________.

a. engaged in towing
b. constrained by her draft
c. under sail
d. All of the above

5. A vessel sounds two short blasts. This signal indicates the vessel __________.

a. intends to alter course to port

b. intends to pass starboard to starboard
c. is altering course to port
d. will alter course to port

6. In a crossing situation on international waters, a short blast by the give-way vessel indicates that the vessel __________.

a. is holding course and speed

b. is turning to starboard
c. intends to pass port to port
d. will keep out of the way of the stand-on vessel

7. In which case would an overtaking vessel sound a whistle signal of two prolonged followed by one short blast?
 a. When overtaking in restricted visibility
b. When overtaking in a narrow channel
c. When overtaking on open waters
d. When no other vessels are in the immediate area

8. Of the vessels listed, which must keep out of the way of all the others?

a. A vessel constrained by her draft

b. A vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver
c. A vessel on pilotage duty
d. A vessel engaged in fishing

9. The vessel is steaming off the coast when the engine room informs the bridge it must stop engines immediately. Shortly
afterwards they informed the bridge they would need a least three hours to fix it. Which of the following actions would be the
most suitable taken by the bridge?

a. Display the NUC signal, maintain the watch and determine how the ship is drifting and the
probable position after three hours.
b. Display the NUC signal, maintain the watch and ask the Engine room to be a quick as possible
c. Display the NUC signal, maintain the watch and wait for further developments.
d. Display the NUC signal and keep a good lookout

10. The vessel is to anchor with Pilot onboard. Which of the suggested answers most accurately define the main duties of the
Officer of the Watch on bridge?

a. Assist the Master and pilot and monitor the ships position.
b. Follow Pilots orders and ensure the anchorage is carried out successfully
c. Monitor the bridge equipment and keep the Master informed of all outputs
d. Follow the Master's orders at all times.

11. Two power-driven vessels are meeting. A two blast whistle signal by either vessel means __________.

a. "I intend to alter course to port"

b. "I desire to pass starboard to starboard"
c. "I desire to pass port to port"
d. "I am altering course to port"

12. Two prolonged blasts followed by one short blast on the whistle is a signal which could be sounded by a __________.

a. fishing vessel
b. vessel anchored
c. mineclearing vessel
d. mineclearing vessel
e. vessel overtaking another in a narrow channel

13. Under what circumstances would an overtaking vessel sound a whistle signal of two prolonged followed by one short blast?

a. When overtaking in restricted visibility

b. When overtaking in a narrow channel
c. When overtaking on open waters
d. When no other vessels are in the immediate area

14. Vessel "A" is overtaking vessel "B" on open waters and will pass without changing course. Vessel "A" __________.

a. should sound two short blasts

b. should sound the danger signal
c. should sound one long blast
d. will not sound any whistle signals
15. What are the additional duties required by the Officer of the Watch when navigating in fog?

a. Sound fog signal, effective radar watch reporting ship movements to Master and keep a good
lookout for ships and fog signals.
b. All of the suggested answers
c. Sound fog signal, plot positions and keep a good lookout
d. When navigating in fog the Master will take over the watch and the Officer of the Watch should
follow all of his instructions.

16. What are the immediate duties of the bridge Officer of the Watch when the ship suddenly runs into a fog bank?

a. Commence sounding the fog signal, engines on standby, call the Master and lookout, if not
already on duty
b. Commence sounding the fog signal and call the Master and wait for him to arrive before taking
any further actions
c. Commence sounding the fog signal and if the radar indicates no echoes in the vicinity, proceed
at the normal speed until ships are detected on the radar or until the fog lifts
d. Commence sounding the fog signal and reduce speed to Slow Ahead

17. What day-shape is prescribed for a vessel constrained by her draft?

a. A black cone, apex upward

b. A cylinder
c. A black cone, apex downward
d. Two vertical black balls

18. What is correct UTC in this example? Approx. Pos: N49°51' W35°23', zone +2, Local Time 0900.

a. 11 00
b. 07 00
c. 23 00
d. 19 00

19. What sound signal shall be used on ship's whistle when there is a man overboard?

a. 3 long blasts repeatedly

b. 6 short blasts repeatedly
c. 5 short blasts repeatedly
d. 4 long blasts repeatedly

20. What would the Second Officer report to the Master when entering an area where the visibility is reduced to 2 n.miles?

a. The Second Officer would report to the Master that the visibility is reduced to probable range of
2 n.miles and the engines are on standby.
b. The Second Officer would report to the Master that he is having difficulty seeing other ships.
c. The Second Officer would call the Master to the bridge because he is needed there.
d. The Second Officer would tell the Master he is calling him in compliance with the instructions in
the Night Order Book.

21. When is the Officer of the Watch officially relieved of his responsibilities of being in charge of the watch?

a. When the Master informs the Officer of the Watch that he is taking over the "con" (watch
responsibilities)
b. When the Master enters the bridge
c. The Officer of the Watch remains in charge of the watch for the full watch, when the vessel is
deep sea
d. The Master and the Officer of the Watch share the responsibility when they are both on the
bridge together.
22. When should operational checks on navigation equipment be done?

a. When preparing for sea and entering port and at regular intervals during the voyage
b. As often as possible
c. When there is any suspicion of a fault with the equipment
d. When there is an opportunity and time allows

23. When steering by autopilot, how often should manual steering be checked?

a. At least once a watch

b. When there is an indication there may be problem
c. At least once a day during the morning 8 to 12 watch
d. No checking is necessary

24. When vessels are in sight of one another, two short blasts from one of the vessels means __________.

a. "I am altering my course to starboard"

b. "I am altering my course to port"
c. "I intend to change course to starboard"
d. "I intend to change course to port"

25. Which statement applies to a vessel "constrained by her draft"?

a. She is severely restricted in her ability to change her course because of her draft in relation to
the available depth of water.
b. The term applies only to vessels in marked channels.
c. She is designated as a "vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver".
d. The vessel must be over 100 meters in length.

26. Which statement(s) is(are) TRUE concerning light signals?

a. The time between flashes shall be about five seconds.

b. The time between successive signals shall be not less than ten seconds.
c. The light signals are to be used when not using sound signals.
d. All of the above

27. Which vessel may NOT exhibit two red lights in a vertical line?

a. A vessel constrained by her draft

b. A trawler fishing in close proximity to other trawlers
c. A vessel aground
d. A dredge

28. Which vessel would NOT sound a fog signal of one prolonged and two short blasts?

a. A vessel not under command

b. A vessel constrained by her draft
c. A vessel being towed
d. A vessel sailing

29. You are underway in a narrow channel, and you are being overtaken by a vessel astern. After the overtaking vessel sounds
the proper signal indicating his intention to pass your vessel on your starboard side, you signal your agreement by sounding
__________.

a. one short blast

b. two prolonged blasts
c. two prolonged followed by two short blasts
d. one prolonged, one short, one prolonged, and one short blast in that order
30. You intend to overtake a vessel in a narrow channel, and you intend to pass along the vessel's port side. How should you
signal your intention?

a. No signal is necessary.
b. Two prolonged blasts
c. Two short blasts
d. Two prolonged followed by two short blasts

Competency Respond to emergencies

Package Code N3.1.05-A

1. What is a contingency plan for ships?

a. Plan for safety preparedness

b. Plan for next voyage
c. Loading plan for general cargo
d. Plan for maintenance and repair

2. A vessel may exhibit lights other than those prescribed by the Rules as long as the additional lights __________.

a. do not interfere with the keeping of a proper look-out

b. are not the color of either sidelight
c. have a lesser range than the prescribed lights
d. All of the above

3. An alarm signal consisting of seven short blast followed by one prolonged blast is sounded by the ship's whistle and alarm
bells. What are you to do?

a. Go to your lifeboat station

b. Go to your fire station
c. Report on the bridge (deck crew) or engine room (engine crew) for further orders
d. Go to (or remain in) your cabin and await further orders

4. An alarm signal consisting of seven short blasts followed by one long blast is sounded by the ship's whistle and the alarm
bells. What are you to do?

a. Go to your lifeboat station (muster station).

b. Go to your fire station.
c. Report on the bridge (deck crew) or engine control room (engine crew) for further orders.
d. Go to (or remain in) your cabin and wait for further orders.

5. Give the meaning of the following symbol:

a. muster station
b. muster station for families only
c. muster station for unaccompanied minors (UM)
d. gathering place for embarkation formalities

6. Identify this symbol:

 a. Emergency generator?
b. Fire glass door?
c. Inertgas installation?
d. Escape gate?

7. If you detect a fire on board the ship, dependent on the situation, which of the following actions is the first to be taken?

a. Raise the fire alarm.

b. Try to kill the fire immediately by use of fire-extinguishers or other adequate appliances.
c. Check all nearby compartments for survivors.
d. Call the officer on duty

8. The term "power-driven vessel" refers to any vessel __________.

a. with propelling machinery onboard whether in use or not

b. making way against the current
c. with propelling machinery in use
d. traveling at a speed greater than that of the current

9. What alarm signal must be sounded by the alarm bells in case of fire?

a. The signal which is stated in the muster list

b. Series of short blasts
c. One long blast followed by seven short blasts
d. A continuous signal

10. What is the general emergency alarm signal as specified in SOLAS ?

a. seven or more short blasts followed by one long blast

b. three short blasts followed by three long blasts then three short ones
c. one long blast followed by seven short blasts or more
d. one long blast

11. What is the meaning of this symbol ?

a. Lifeboat
b. Rescue boat
c. Liferaft
d. Davit-launched liferaft

12. What is the meaning of this symbol ?

a. Embarkation ladder
b. Lower lifeboat to water
c. Evacuation slide
d. Davit-launched liferaft

13. What is the meaning of this symbol ?

 a. Line-throwing appliance
b. Rocket parachute flares
c. Radar transponder
d. Survival craft pyrotecnic distress signals

14. What is the meaning of this symbol ?

a. Fasten seat belts

b. Secure hatches
c. Release falls
d. Start air supply

15. What is the meaning of this symbol ?

a. Lifebuoy with light and smoke

b. Lifebuoy with line
c. Lifebuoy with light
d. Lifejacket

16. What is the meaning of this symbol ?

a. Lifejacket
b. Child`s lifejacket
c. Immersion suit
d. Lifebuoy

17. What shall you do if you see a person falling into the sea?

a. Throw a lifebuoy over board and report to the bridge immediately.

b. Launch a lifeboat.
c. Put on a lifejacket.
d. Run aft.

18. What signal, if any, is specified in SOLAS as the "Abandon ship" signal ?

a. the "Abandon ship" signal is not specified, only the general emergency alarm signal is stated
b. six short blasts followed by one long blast
c. seven short blasts followed by one long blast
d. four long blasts

19. When a fire breaks out in the engine room, who is in charge of the fire fighting operations?

a. The Chief Engineer

b. The Captain
c. The engineer on duty
d. The first person to arrive at the scene

20. When having a fire alarm during normal working hours, what immediate actions should be taken?

a. Act according to instruction given in the fire plan.

b. Start the fire pump, the sooner the better.
c. Start searching for the fire to determine if it is in the engine room.
d. Everybody gather in the safety centre.
21. When mustered to an abandon ship drill, what is the first thing you do when entering the muster station?

a. Put on a life jacket

b. Report your presence
c. Wait for orders
d. Wait for the order to put on your life jacket

22. When the fire alarm signal is sounded every member of the ship's crew shall immediately proceed to their assigned fire
station. Which one of the following signals is used as fire alarm signal on board cargo ships?

a. Intermittent signals on the ship's alarm bells

b. One long blast on the ship's whistle and alarm bells followed by seven short blasts
c. Seven short blasts followed by one long blast on the ship's whistle and alarm bells
d. Three short blasts followed by three long blasts, then followed by three short blasts on the
ship's whistle and alarm bells

23. When you join a new ship, how are you informed about safety rules, alarm instructions and your own duties in case of an
emergency?

a. By muster lists exhibited in conspicuous places

b. By oral instructions by the Captain
c. By folder distributed to each crewmember
d. By alarm instructions in all crew cabins

24. Where can you find what your duties are during a life boat drill?

a. Muster List
b. Stated at the embarkation station.
c. Safety plan.
d. From the drill leader.

25. Where do you find instructions for tasks and duties in case of an emergency?

a. In the muster list.

b. On posters at the lifeboat station.
c. In instruction notices posted in the crew's cabins.
d. In instruction notices posted in messrooms, recreation rooms etc.

26. Which statement is TRUE concerning risk of collision?

a. Risk of collision never exists if the compass bearing of the other vessel is changing.
b. Proper use shall be made of radar equipment to determine risk of collision.
c. Risk of collision must be determined before any action can be taken by a vessel.
d. Risk of collision exists if the vessels will pass within half a mile of each other.

27. Which statement is TRUE concerning a partly submerged vessel being towed?

a. It must show a yellow light at each end.

b. It will show red lights along its length.
c. A diamond shape will be carried at the aftermost extremity of the tow.
d. All of the above

28. Which vessel is to sound a fog signal of one prolonged followed by two short blasts?

a. A vessel not under command

b. A sailing vessel, underway
c. A vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver when carrying out her work at anchor
d. All of the above
29. You are fishing at night, and you sight a vessel showing three lights in a vertical line. The upper and lower lights are red and
the middle light is white. Which statement is TRUE?

a. You must keep out of the way of the other vessel.

b. The other vessel is responsible to keep out of your way.
c. The other vessel is at anchor.
d. The rule of special circumstances applies.

30. Your vessel enters fog. You stop your engines, and the vessel is dead in the water. Which fog signal should you sound?

a. One prolonged blast every two minutes

b. Two prolonged blasts every two minutes
c. Three short blasts every two minutes
d. One prolonged and two short blasts every two minutes

Competency Respond to a distress signal at sea

Package Code N3.1.06-A

1. On the figure there are four (4) possible definitions of the term "CENTRE LINE" given. Which one is the correct one?

a. Centre line is given by A on the figure

b. Centre line is given by B on the figure
c. Centre line is given by C on the figure
d. Centre line is given by D on the figure

2. On the figure there are four (4) possible directions shown by the arrowed lines. Which one would correctly shows the direction
understood by the term "AFTER SPRING"?

a. After spring is defined as A on the figure

b. After spring is defined as B on the figure
c. After spring is defined as C on the figure
d. After spring is defined as D on the figure

3. On the figure there are four (4) possible definitions of the term "QUAY" given. Which one is the correct one?

a. Quay is given by A on the figure

b. Quay is given by B on the figure
c. Quay is given by C on the figure
d. Quay is given by D on the figure

4. On the figure there are four (4) possible definitions of the term "STARBOARD QUARTER" given. Which one is the correct one?

a. Starboard quarter is given by C on the figure

b. Starboard quarter is given by B on the figure
c. Starboard quarter is given by A on the figure
d. Starboard quarter is given by D on the figure

5. On the figure there are four (4) possible definitions of the term "WINDLASS" given. Which one is the correct one?
 a. Windlass is given by B on the figure
b. Windlass is given by A on the figure
c. Windlass is given by C on the figure
d. Windlass is given by D on the figure

6. On the figure there are four (4) possible directions, shown by the arrowed lines, which could be the correct direction
associated with the term "HEAD LINE". Which one is the correct one?

a. Head line is given by B on the figure

b. Head line is given by A on the figure
c. Head line is given by C on the figure
d. Head line is given by D on the figure

7. On the figure there are four (4) possible definitions of the term "BREADTH" given. Which one is the correct one?

a. Breadth is given by B on the figure

b. Breadth is given by A on the figure
c. Breadth is given by C on the figure
d. Breadth is given by D on the figure

8. On the figure there are four (4) possible definitions of the term "MIDSHIPS" given. Which one is the correct one?

a. Midships is given by B on the figure

b. Midships is given by A on the figure
c. Midships is given by C on the figure
d. Midships is given by D on the figure

9. On the figure there are four possible definitions of the term "STARBOARD BOW" given. Which one is the correct one?

a. Starboard bow is given by A on the figure

b. Starboard bow is given by B on the figure
c. Starboard bow is given by C on the figure
d. Starboard bow is given by D on the figure

10. The diagram shows the direction that a rope runs during a mooring operation and a possible place where it may break.
Where would be considered the safest position to stand?

a. Outside the blue coloured zone.

b. Inside the blue coloured zone.
c. Between the "point of break" and the "fairlead".
d. Behind the point of restraint, but inside the blue coloured zone.

11. The diagram shows the lead of a rope during mooring operations and the possible point where it may break. Where would be
considered the safest place to be standing?
 a. Outside the coloured zone.
b. Inside the coloured zone and behind the "point of restraint".
c. Between the "point of break" and the "point of restraint".
d. It is impossible to stand clear of any possible danger areas surrounding wires or ropes and
therefore there are not any safe areas.

12. The figure shows a cross section through a ship floating in water, with the hull in red and the seabed below the ship shaded.
On the figure there are four (4) possible definitions of the term "FREEBOARD" given. Which one is the correct one?

a. Freeboard is given by D on the figure

b. Freeboard is given by A on the figure
c. Freeboard is given by C on the figure
d. Freeboard is given by B on the figure

13. The figure shows the cross section of a ship floating in water with the hull coloured in red and the seabed below the vessel
shaded. On this figure there are four (4) possible definitions of the term "UNDERKEEL CLEARANCE" given. Which one is the
correct one?

a. Underkeel clearance is given by A on the figure

b. Underkeel clearance is given by B on the figure
c. Underkeel clearance is given by C on the figure
d. Underkeel clearance is given by D on the figure

14. What is the correct understanding of the term "boat deck"?

a. The deck where the lifeboats davits are positioned.

b. The deck where the top of the lifeboats can be viewed
c. The deck of a ship at the base of the accommodation
d. The deck which is at the top of the double bottom tank on a cargo ship.

15. What is the correct understanding of the term "boat drill"?

a. Practical exercise for the people on board to practice their duties and be prepared in the case
of an emergency abandon ship.
b. A demonstration for the people on board to understand how a lifeboat can be used to abandon
ship
c. A presentation by the Master on what he would expect from all on board in the case of an
emergency.
d. The opportunity for all on board to launch the boats and abandon ship.

16. What is the correct understanding of the term "Bottlescrew"?

a. A bottlescrew is a metal threaded sleeve which adjusts the length and tension on rigging or
stays
b. A bottlescrew is the threaded screw used to open large bottles
c. A bottlescrew is the connection ring on the ships deck used to connect lashings and rigging
d. A bottlescrew is the special wire rope used to lash containers

17. What is the correct understanding of the term "FAIRLEAD"?

a. The access point where mooring lines are lead when making fast to the shore.
b. A fairlead is the direction that a mooring rope makes from the ship when made fast to the shore.
c. A fairlead is the hole through the deck where the anchor chain passes into the chain locker.
d. A fairlead is the hole through the ships side through which the anchor chain passes.
18. What is the correct understanding of the term "gangway"?

a. Portable bridge arrangement between ship and shore, when alongside.

b. The access arrangements between the decks on the ship.
c. The access arrangements on an oil tanker between the foc'sle and the after accommodation
d. The ladder arrangement to allow walking access down the ship's side into a boat alongside the
vessel

19. What is the correct understanding of the term "LEE SIDE"?

a. The lee side is the side of the ship which is facing away from the wind.
b. The leeside is the starboard side of the vessel
c. The leeside is the side of the ship alongside the quay or jetty.
d. The lee side is the side of the ship which is facing into the wind.

20. What is the necessary protection when you are rust chipping with air tools?

a. Protective clothing, safety shoes, gloves, goggles, earmuffs.

b. Gloggles and ear protectors
c. Protective clothing, safety shoes, earmuffs
d. Gloves, goggles, earmuffs

21. What items of clothing should be avoided during mooring operations?

a. All of the items specified in the alternative answers.

b. Loose Necklaces and chains round the neck
c. Rings on the fingers or thumbs.
d. Boiler suits with wide loose sleeves.

22. What kind of safety clothing should be worn during a mooring operation?

a. Helmet, safety shoes, gloves and protective clothes.

b. Safety shoes and boiler suit.
c. Gloves and helmet.
d. No particular safety clothes are required.

23. What kind of safety equipment must be worn during anchoring?

a. All of the mentioned equipment.

b. Boiler suit, working gloves.
c. Safety goggles.
d. Safety helmet, safety shoes.

24. What safety clothing should be worn during an anchoring operation?

a. All of the equipment mentioned in the alternative answers.

b. Boiler suit, working gloves.
c. Safety goggles.
d. Safety helmet, safety shoes.

25. What special safety measures are required by a seaman when working aloft on a stage?

a. Safety harness with a rope secured to a safe point above.

b. Helmet, safety shoes and gloves.
c. A safety harness secured to the stage.
d. No special safety measures required.

26. When a vessel arrives at a port to pick up a pilot and enter harbour, there should be someone required to stand by the anchor
 forward. How should the anchor be prepared and ready?

a. The brake securely applied, all cement/covering into the chain locker and securing
arrangements from windlass removed. The guillotine can remain for removal when ready
b. The brake may be insufficient to hold the anchor, so leave everything in place except the
cement/covering of the chain locker
c. Leave the brake on securely.
d. The use of the anchor will not normally be required when going straight into port, so the anchor
does not need to be prepared, but left ready for going back out to sea.

27. When could there be a demonstration of how to start a lifeboat engine?

a. A demonstration could be arranged during a lifeboat drill

b. A demonstration is not necessary, because there are a limited number of persons who given
the responsibility for starting the lifeboat engine
c. Starting the lifeboat engine is very easy and there does not need to be any demonstration
d. There is an instruction card inside the lifeboat showing how to start the engine.

28. When reeving a new wire onto a self-stowing winch drum you should, after looking at brake arrangement, reeve it to pay out
as follows:

a. Direction B
b. Direction A
c. Either direction is acceptable.
d. Depends on the direction of the lay of the wire strands in the new wire

29. When two ships are lying alongside each other in a ship to ship operation and one ship is lying at anchor, anchor watch duties
must be carried out as follows:

a. Both ships have normal anchor watch responsibility in addition to watching ship to ship
fendering, mooring etc.
b. Anchor watch responsibility rests with the vessel which has its anchor down and the ship to ship
connections is the responsibility of the other vessel
c. Anchor watch responsibility rests with the discharging vessel which would be the vessel which
is anchored
d. Anchor watches are not kept as the duty officers will be on deck conducting the cargo
operations

30. Which one of the following types of rope is the most dangerous to work with?

a. Nylon
b. Steel wire.
c. Manila.
d. Polypropylene.

Competency Manoeuvre The Ship

Package Code N3.1.09-A

1. What is the correct understanding of the term "a ship with good Directional Stability"?

a. A ship which when the rudder is left amidships, it will continue on approximately a straight
course
b. A ship which will maintain its course unless large rudder angles are applied
c. A ship which when a rudder angle is applied and the ship starts to swing, will continue to swing
even after the rudder is returned to amidships
d. A ship where the amount of positive transverse stability (GM) will vary with the direction of the
ship's head
2. Which of the following hull shapes would normally provide a directionally stable ship?

a. A long ship with a narrow beam

b. A short ship with a narrow beam
c. A short ship with a wide beam
d. A long ship with a wide beam

3. On the figure there are four (4) possible definitions of the term "AIR DRAUGHT" given. Which one is the correct one?

a. Air draught is given by C on the figure

b. Air draught is given by B on the figure
c. Air draught is given by A on the figure
d. Air draught is given by D on the figure

4. Ships vary considerably in design and underwater shape, but does the ship's trim ever have any influence on its steering
abilities?

a. Yes, the ship often steers better if trimmed by the stern

b. No, the ship will have the same steering ability and is unaffected by trim
c. Yes, a ship often steers better if trimmed by the bow
d. Yes, it is usually best to be on an even keel and have no trim at all

5. The engines are going astern and the ship is making sternway of about 1.5 knots with the rudder hard to starboard. What
effect will this have on the ship's progress?

a. This will give the stern a lift force to starboard

b. The rudder will have no effect when the ship is making sternway, it should be in the amidships
position when going astern
c. This will give the stern a lift force to port
d. There will be no lift force and the ship will go straight astern

6. The maximum rudder angle on your ship is 35 degrees. Do you think this is the angle that the rudder is most effective?

a. No, the most effective rudder angle is about 25 to 30 degrees, this is because the rudder is
"stalling" at 35 degrees angle
b. No, the rudder is most effective at angles between 10 and 20 degrees
c. Yes, the rudder is most effective at max angle
d. No, the rudder is most effective at small rudder angles

7. The rudder is in the hard over position with the propeller stopped and the ship turning slowly. On a ship with a single fixed
pitch right handed propeller and no thrusters, what can be done to make the ship increase the speed of turn without
significantly increasing the forward speed of the ship?

a. Give the engines a short kick ahead

b. Give full astern on the engines until ship has stopped and then full ahead on the engines with
rudder hard over
c. Give dead slow ahead on the engines and leave the rudder in the hard over position.
d. Give half astern on the engines as this will increase the rate of turn

8. The ship has a right-handed propeller and is swinging to starboard when the engines are slow ahead and the rudder is to
starboard. The engines are stopped and the rate of swing rapidly slows down. How could the swing to starboard be
maintained without the ship making much headway.
 a. Astern on the engines will allow Transverse Thrust to continue the swing
b. By applying the rudder hard over to starboard and going ahead on the engines.
c. Transverse Thrust will reduce the swing and therefore a kick ahead is necessary with full
starboard helm applied.
d. The only effective method is by using the bow thruster to push the bow to starboard.

9. The ship has completed a 360 degree turn at full speed in deep water. The ship is now to repeat the turn at full speed in
shallow water. What will be the difference in the turning circle diameter?

a. The turning diameter will be increased in shallow water

b. The turning diameter will be smaller in shallow water
c. The turning diameter will be the same for all depths
d. It will be the same provided the UKC is 25%-50%

10. The ship is required to be stopped in the water as quickly as possible, but without major changes to the ship's heading. What
is the most effective method to achieve this?

a. The use of the rudder hard over both sides combined with reducing engine power, a method
known as "high frequency rudder cycling"
b. Put the engine full astern and keep the rudder amidships
c. Make a complete turn while reducing the engine power.
d. Make a zig zag manoeuvre while reducing the engine power.

11. The ship is sailing in shallow water with reduced Under Keel Clearance. If the ship is steaming with the engines at full RPM,
what would be the speed in comparison to the speed achieved in deep water?

a. Slower than deep water

b. Faster than deep water
c. The same as deep water
d. It would be very difficult to maintain full deep sea RPM on the engines and therefore difficult to
assess the speed.

12. The ship is starting to slow down after steaming at full ahead speed. What will happen to the position of the "pivot point"?

a. It will move aft as the ship slows down

b. Same position as when the ship is steaming at full speed ahead
c. The "pivot point" will move towards the bow of the ship
d. It will move to the side of the centre line

13. The ship is steaming at Full Ahead when the engines are reversed to "Full Astern" to stop the ship. The ship has a single,
right-handed fixed pitch propeller. What would be the anticipated reaction of the ship, if there is no wind or current?

a. The ship will probably sheer to starboard and gradually lose headway
b. The ship will probably continue on a straight course, but lose forward speed.
c. It is unpredictable and could be any of the other alternative answers.
d. The ship will probably sheer to port and gradually lose headway.

14. The ship is to berth alongside a quay in calm conditions of no wind or current. The ship has a single fixed pitch right handed
propeller. Which angle of approach would be considered the most favourable?
 a. No. 2
b. No. 1
c. No. 3
d. The decision should be left to the pilot who is in charge of the manoeuvre.

15. The ship's rudder is full over when the ship's engines are full ahead. Will the turning effect (lift force) of the rudder be
changed when the engine is stopped?

a. Yes, the lift force will be dramatically reduced when the engines are stopped
b. Yes, the Lift or turning force will be reduced to about 50% of the original lift force when the
engines are stopped
c. No, the turning force applied by the rudder will be maintained within about 90% of the lift force
when going full ahead
d. No, the lift force is unaffected by the speed of the propeller

16. The ship's engine is going astern and the ship is picking up sternway. The rudder is amidships and the ship has a single, right-
handed, fixed pitch propeller. What would be expected to happen?

a. The ship will probably start to change heading to starboard and stern speed will increase
b. The ship will probably start to change heading to port and stern speed will increase
c. The ship will probably go straight astern without a change in heading and the stern speed will
increase
d. The ship will move astern at an increasing speed and the stern start to swing off to starboard

17. The vessel is in a 360 degrees turn with engine full ahead. If the engine speed is reduced during the turn, will there be any
change in the turning diameter

a. Yes, the turning diameter will increase if the speed is reduced

b. Yes, the turning diameter will be smaller if the speed is reduced
c. No, the turning diameter will not change if the speed is reduced
d. No, the turning diameter will only change if the rudder angle is reduced

18. Two ships are meeting in a restricted channel as illustrated. Which of the following actions would be the most suitable to take
on both vessels as they approach and pass each other?

a. Slow down if possible without losing steerage and be prepared for prompt application of rudder
to counteract any swing as they approach and pass each other
b. Maintain speed and a straight course on the starboard side of the channel
c. Keep as far as possible on the starboard side of the channel and maintain speed to retain
effective steerage
d. Increase speed slightly to pass each other as quickly as possible and thereby reduce the effects
of "ship to ship" interaction

19. Two ships travelling in opposite directions are to pass each other in a narrow river, as illustrated. Explain what is likely to
happen as they pass each other?

a. Due to interaction, the bows will repel each other, and then when alongside each other the two
ships will be sucked together and finally the sterns will be repelled as they start to pass clear
b. Due to interaction, the bows will attract each other as they approach, then they will repel each
other alongside and as they pass clear, the sterns will be attracted.
c. As they approach, rudder should be applied quickly to avoid sheering into the path of each
other. Then as they are alongside they will be attracted and finally repel each other as they
pass clear
d. There will be very little effect between the two ships as they pass.

20. Two vessels are meeting each other in confined waters. What would be the effects of interaction between the two vessels as
 they approach each other?

a. The bows of the ships will be pushed away from each other
b. The bows of the ships will be sucked together
c. Each vessel will experience an increase in speed
d. There will be no effects in these circumstances

21. What depth of water would be considered as "Shallow Water" in relationship to a change of the ships manoeuvring
characteristics?

a. When the "Under Keel Clearance" is less than 50% of the draught of the ship
b. When the "Under Keel Clearance" is equal to the draught of the ship
c. When the "Under Keel Clearance" is less than 15% of the draught of the ship. When the "Under
Keel Clearance" is less than a quarter of the draught of the ship

22. What is the correct understanding of the term "bank effect"? If a ship was approaching the bank at an angle, what would be
the effect on the ship?

a. The vessel's bow is pushed away from the bank

b. The vessel's stern is pushed away from the bank
c. The vessel’s bow is attracted by the bank
d. The whole vessel would continue straight towards the bank and would require a large helm
order to avoid going aground

23. What would be the correct definition of the term "Squat"?

a. Squat is the reduction of underkeel clearance and the possible change of trim of a ship when it
moves through shallow water due to a reduction in water pressure
b. Squat is the reduction of underkeel clearance of a ship when it moves through shallow water
due to a reduction in water pressure
c. Squat is the loss of effectiveness of the rudder and propeller as a ship moves through shallow
water due to the reduction of water pressure
d. Squat is the reduction of underkeel clearance due to increase of water flow under the keel and
an increase in the water pressure

24. What would be the effects of a ship passing into shallow water?

a. The ship is less responsive to both rudder and propeller

b. There is no noticeable difference in performance of the ship
c. The speed is not affected, but more rudder is required to steer the ship
d. The vessel has a tendency to swing to port with a single fixed-pitch right-hand turning propeller

25. When a ship is lying at anchor in a tidal area using both forward anchors, to what particular aspect should the officer of the
watch be paying special attention?

a. When the ship swings to the tide the direction of swing should be controlled to avoid the anchor
cables becoming wrapped round each other
b. The tension on both cables should be similar, to avoid one dragging and all the weight of the
ship remaining on the other anchor only
c. The two anchors will restrict the ships swing with the tide and the ship may not lie to the
prevailing current and wind
d. The ship will become controlled by the tide and the wind will not be allowed to have any effect
on the direction the ship lies at anchor

26. Where would the "pivot point" be considered to be located when the ship is proceeding at full speed ahead and there is no
wind or current?
 a. At about 1/6 of the ship's length from the bow
b. At amidships
c. At a position near the stern of the ship
d. At about 1/6 of the ship's length from the stern

27. Which of the following answers correctly specify the following most common rudders? a) UNBALANCED, b) BALANCED, c)
SEMI-BALANCED and d) UNDERHUNG BALANCED. i.e. The number in the picture is related to the letter adjacent to the name
of the rudder

a. 1 = a, 2 = b, 3 = c and 4 = d
b. 1 = b, 2 = c, 3 = d and 4 = a
c. 1 = c, 2 = d, 3 = a and 4 = b
d. 1 = d, 2 = a, 3 = b and 4 = c

28. Which type of vessel suffers from the greatest squat effects?

a. Vessel with a high Block Coefficient

b. Vessel with a low Block Coefficient
c. Vessel with a large length to beam ratio
d. Vessel with a small length to beam ratio

29. Who is responsible for the number and the position of any tugs to be used during a mooring operation?

a. The Master, with consideration of the advice of the pilot

b. The Pilot is fully responsible for the number and use of tugs within the port area
c. It will be only the wind speed that will determine the required number of tugs and how they are
used
d. The Port Authority will dictate the tug requirements and their use within the port limits

30. You are sailing in shallow water with a 15% Under Keel Clearance. Turning the ship around, what space do you need
compared to deep water?

a. Need more space than normal

b. Need less space than normal
c. The turning diameter of your ship is the same for all water depths
d. To port less, to starboard more space