Chapter 5: Training Design

TRUE/FALSE

1. A training objective is a statement of what trainees are expected to be able to

do after a training program.

ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 137

2. Training objectives serve a number of purposes including allowing trainers to

develop meaningful means of evaluating training programs.

ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 138

3. A training objective has five key elements of the desired outcome, including
who is to perform, what is the behaviour, when and where the behaviour is displayed, and
why the behaviour is important.

ANS: F

Why should not be here – should be replaced with “what is the standard?”

PTS: 1 REF: 138|137

4. Training objectives should closely resemble the needs analysis.

ANS: F

task analysis not needs analysis

PTS: 1 REF: 139

5. The final written person analysis should contain three key components
including performance, condition, and criterion.

ANS: F

Should be training objective

PTS: 1 REF: 139

6. ABC Ltd. has made a strategic decision to expand into China. As such, it made
the decision to provide six managers training in basic Mandarin. Given this training decision,
ABC Ltd. will most likely purchase the program from an outside supplier.

ANS: T

Small number of trainees and non-specific in nature

PTS: 1 REF: 139|140

 7. The advantages of packaged training programs are high quality, immediate
delivery, ancillary services, the potential to customize the package to the organization, and
extensive testing, yet they are often more expensive than internally developed programs.

ANS: F

less expensive

PTS: 1 REF: 140

8. Internally developed training programs have many advantages over packaged

programs including security and confidentiality. Furthermore, internally developed programs
tend to be made available to trainers and trainees faster.

ANS: F

Packaged programs are available much faster

PTS: 1 REF: 140

9. A cost–benefit analysis is necessary to determine the best option for a training

program.

ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 140

10. A request for proposal is a document that outlines to potential trainers and
consultants an organization’s training and project needs.

ANS: F

potential vendors not trainers

PTS: 1 REF: 142

11. Issuing an RFP may require that an organization spend resources determining
its actual training needs and identifying training solutions required from vendors and
consultants.

ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 142

 12. A productive response is where the trainee passively uses the training content
rather than watching, listening, or imitating the trainer.

ANS: F

actively uses not passively uses

PTS: 1 REF: 145

13. Blended training refers to the use of a combination of approaches to training

such as classroom training, off-the-job training, and computer technology.

ANS: F

On-the-job not off-the job

PTS: 1 REF: 145

14. The notion of metacognitive strategies includes two primary functions, control
and monitoring.

ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 147

15. Attentional advice has been found to have a negative effect on skill-based
learning.

ANS: F

Positive effect not negative

PTS: 1 REF: 146

16. Overlearning is an appropriate practice condition to use in helping a lifeguard

master lifesaving interventions.

ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 150

 17. Feedback or knowledge of results provides trainers with feedback and
information about their performance on the training program.

ANS: F

provides trainees with feedback

PTS: 1 REF: 151

18. Proceduralized instruction is an approach to training that gives trainees control

over their own learning.

ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 153

19. Error-management training occurs when training programs are designed so as

to minimize the likelihood of trainees committing errors during the training process.

ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 153

20. Analogical tasks are tasks that are performed by employees that resemble tasks
performed in training.

ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 154

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. What is typically the emphasis of training programs?

a.

skills, knowledge, and abilities

b.

learning, behaviour, and performance

c.

development, rewards, and practice

d.

expertise, evaluation, and mastery

ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 137 BLM: Remember

2. Which of the following is NOT a training design activity?

a.

Determine what content should be provided to allow training objectives to be met

b.

Determine how to calculate cost vs. benefits associated with the training program
c.

Decide how training should be provided: on-the job, off-the-job, or e-learning

d.

Create a statement describing what trainees should be able to do after training

ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 137 BLM: Higher order

3. How many elements are given in a training objective that states “The call
centre operator will be able to handle 20 inbound calls per day during his/her regular shift,
using customer information software, and will be able to generate $850 in incremental
revenue from new customers”?
a.
2
b.

3
c.

4
d.

ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 139 BLM: Higher order

4. What key component for a final written training objective would be related to
the statement “Joe will be able write a short two-page story without making grammatical or
spelling errors”?
a.

criterion
b.

performance
c.

evaluation
d.

condition

ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 139 BLM: Higher order

5. Which university did Enbridge partner with to deliver an in-house leadership

program?
a.

Richard Ivey School of Business at the University of Western Ontario

b.

Rotman School of Management at the University of Toronto

c.

Queen’s University School of Business

d.

School of Management at Dalhousie University

ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 136 BLM: Remember

 6. A Canadian chartered bank decides to develop and deliver a training program
internally. What potential reasons justify this decision?
a.

better security and the need to train a large pool of employees

b.

higher quality and availability of trainers

c.

lower cost and higher quality

d.

extensive testing coupled with ancillary services

ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 140 BLM: Higher order

7. What are the two most important factors to consider when making a purchase
decision for a training program?
a.

cost of the program and number of potential trainees

b.

time required to deliver the program and current knowledge of employees

c.

expertise of the external service provider and senior management preference

d.

urgency of delivery and level of front-line management support

ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 140|141 BLM: Higher order

8. What did Vecima use the funding for when it received a $50,000 government
grant?
a.

Developing a course for communication, time management, business etiquette, decision

making, and team building.
b.

Developing a training platform that would enable new employees to learn about the hardware
and software that the company manufactures.
c.

Developing the capabilities of six full-time hires with 40 hours of training per person to cover
soldering and circuit board inspection.
d.

Developing a buddy system to enable new hires to go online to bring up their training to a
minimum of 60 hours.

ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 141 BLM: Remember

9. What is the main reason for misalignment between a request for proposal and
the actual training program delivered to an organization?
a.

The organization extended its search to a limited number of trainers.

b.

The organization overstated the positives of the requested training.

c.

The organization was not honest about the resources it had available.
d.

The organization did not describe its most critical training needs.

ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 142 BLM: Remember

 10. The human resources department (HR) of an organization is about to create a
request for proposal. What are the most critical elements that should be considered by the HR
department?
a.

determining the number of trainers required to deliver the training program

b.

creating the proper scope for the project including a budget and specific training methods to
be used
c.

describing in detail the training needs required, and how those needs fit the overall training
strategy
d.

creating a vendor scorecard to grade vendors so as to provide a level of transparency in the

selection process

ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 143 BLM: Higher order

11. According to the textbook, what should training content be anchored on?
a.

the employee who is to perform the desired behaviour

b.

the needs and objectives of the training

c.

the standard that will evaluate the behaviour

d.

the time when the new content will be needed

ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 143 BLM: Remember

12. Which two sources might trainers consider to determine the training content?
a.
managers and subject-matter experts
b.

employees and consultants

c.

legislation and subject-matter experts

d.

salespersons and stakeholders

ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 144 BLM: Remember

13. An instructor spends one hour lecturing students on the merits and processes
required to produce a written training objective. She then requests that students apply the
lecture material by producing a written training objective for a specific role. What training
method is being used by this instructor?
a.

blended method
b.

active practice method

c.

condition of practice method

d.

goal orientation method

ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 145 BLM: Higher order

14. Which of the following is NOT a pre-practice condition?

a.

offering a reward to trainees for attending training

b.

having a session before training to help members determine specific roles

c.

sending an e-mail to trainees before training with basic training objectives

d.

providing trainees with support by helping them set up individual training goals

ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 146 BLM: Higher order

 15. When considering conditions during training, what would typically be
associated with overlearning?
a.

refers to whether the training material is learned and practised

b.

continued practice so that behaviour becomes automatic

c.

refers to the time horizons for the segments of a training program

d.

continued division of materials into organized and logical sequences

ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 146 BLM: Remember

16. An instructor provides students with a diagram of the needs analysis process.
Which type of pre-practice intervention does this represent?
a.

metacognitive strategy
b.

attentional advice
c.

advance organizer
d.

psychomotor condition

ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 147 BLM: Higher order

17. What is the term for a session in which team members establish their roles and
responsibilities and performance expectations prior to a team practice session?
a.

preparatory information
b.

pre-practice brief
c.

conditions of practice
d.

goal orientation

ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 149 BLM: Remember

18. Which statement is congruent with the notion of distributed practice?

a.

learning is enhanced when cramming is used by trainees

b.

learning is enhanced when material is provided in a single session

c.

distributed training sessions tend to result in lower learning levels over time
d.

distributed training sessions tend to result in higher learning levels over time

ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 150 BLM: Higher order

19. Under what condition(s) would overlearning be an appropriate approach?

a.

performing complex tasks under significant pressure

b.

performing simple task that are routine in nature

c.

performing tasks that are done daily

d.

performing tasks that do not have pre-established procedures

ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 150 BLM: Higher order

20. According to the textbook, which of the following is NOT a characteristic of

effective training feedback?
a.

when a response is provided correctly, provide positive feedback

b.

demonstrate to the trainee how to respond correctly

c.

when a response is provided incorrectly, provide some element of punishment

d.

provide feedback immediately after the response is provided

ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 151 BLM: Higher order

21. What type of expertise refers to the ability to use knowledge and skills across a
range of tasks, settings, and situations?
a.

subject-matter expertise
b.

routine expertise
c.

adaptive expertise
d.

active expertise

ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 152 BLM: Remember

22. What is a key factor in training design for adaptive expertise?

a.

active practicing
b.

active training
c.

active learning
d.

active knowing

ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 152 BLM: Remember

23. Which of the following design elements should NOT be used in designing a
training program for active learning?
a.

exploratory learning
b.

error framing
c.

emotion control
d.

proceduralized instruction

ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 153|154 BLM: Remember

24. What has research concluded about active learning?

a.

effective for developing adaptive expertise

b.

effective for learning rigid policies and procedures

c.
provides the trainer with much more control over trainees’ learning processes
d.

gives trainees much less control over their learning experience

ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 153 BLM: Remember

25. Which statement is supported by the notion of error management as a learning

design method?
a.

Error management and error avoidance are synonymous.

b.

The instructor should provide vague and misleading instructions.

c.

The instructor should provide detailed instructions and rubrics so as to minimize errors.
d.

It would be a mistake to explicitly encourage trainees to make mistakes during the learning
process.

ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 153 BLM: Higher order

 26. What is a typical statement a trainer would make to a senior executive to
justify using error management as a training design method?
a.

The more errors trainees make the worse trainers look.

b.

The fewer errors trainees make, the more successful the learning outcomes.
c.

The more errors trainees make, the more successful the learning outcomes.
d.

The fewer errors trainees make the better.

ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 154 BLM: Higher order

27. How can error training improve learning and performance?

a.

Errors force trainees to learn error-recovery strategies.

b.

Errors allow trainees to learn to avoid certain activities.

c.

Errors enable trainees to learn how to sequence activities.

d.

Errors permit trainees to view themselves as human.

ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 154 BLM: Remember

28. In the model of training effectiveness, which stage includes elements of

monitoring and control?
a.

trainee characteristics
b.
training design
c.

individual behaviour and performance

d.

organizational effectiveness

ANS: B

Under the umbrella of “conditions of practice”

PTS: 1 REF: 155 BLM: Higher order

29. Which tasks are similar to those worked on during training?

a.

adaptive
b.

active
c.

analogical
d.

attentional

ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 154 BLM: Remember

30. Which of the following scenarios is an example of distributed practice?

a.

learning a complex task one step at a time during the same session
b.

learning to perform a task over a number of sessions with breaks in between sessions
c.

continuing to practise even when the trainee has mastered the task to a high level
d.

having several trainees learn to perform a task together, also described as group learning

ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 146 BLM: Higher order

SHORT ANSWER

1. Explain the purposes of training objectives in terms of their importance to

trainers, trainees, and managers, providing at least one example for each.

ANS:

Training objectives are important to trainers for three reasons: to assess trainees prior to
instruction to see if they have mastered any of the objectives; to aid in the selection of training
content and methods; and to help develop evaluation methods. Training objectives are
important to trainees because they: inform trainees of the goals of a training program; allow
trainees to focus their energies on achieving specific goals; and communicate the importance
of training and to promote accountability. Training objectives are important to managers
because they communicate what the trainees should be able to do as a result of the training;
and they let managers and supervisors know what is expected of the trainees so they can
reinforce and support newly trained knowledge and skills on-the-job.

PTS: 1

2. Compare and contrast the advantages and disadvantages of developing training

programs internally versus purchasing packaged programs.

ANS:

Internally developed programs have advantages in terms of security and confidentiality, the
use of the organization’s language and the incorporation of their values. In addition, internally
developed programs can take advantage of internal content expertise, the understanding of the
specific target audience of the training, as well as having pride and credibility as a result of
having a customized program. Purchased or externally developed training programs may have
quality advantages, are usually available immediately (or at least more quickly), may include
ancillary features such as videos and tests, and may be less expensive than internally
developed programs. In addition, purchased programs may also be able to be customized to
provide some of the advantages of internally developed programs.

PTS: 1

3. Define and briefly describe the term active practice.

ANS:
Active practice refers to providing trainees with opportunities to practise performing a
training task or to use their new knowledge during the training session. Active practice can
result in a better understanding and retention of new knowledge and skills.

PTS: 1
 4. Describe the differences between massed and distributed practice, and explain
the benefits of each.

ANS:

Massed practice is sometimes referred to as “cramming” – such as compressing practice into

one long, continuous session with few or no rest or breaks. By contrast distributed practice
involves dividing the practice into several smaller training sessions or “chunks,” with rest
intervals in between. While massed practice has some practical advantages in terms of
scheduling, travel, use of facilities, etc., distributed practice generally results in better learning
and retention, and ultimately leads to higher performance.

PTS: 1

5. Distinguish between error training and error-avoidant training.

ANS:

Error training – Errors are a source of negative feedback that can have a positive influence on
learning. Errors should be incorporated into the training process. Allows trainees to make
errors while learning how to perform a task. Can be done by providing only basic information
about tasks. Trainees try out different approaches, possibly making more errors.

Error avoidant training – Trainees given detailed instructions on how to do tasks so that they
are less likely to make mistakes. Trainer intervenes when errors are made. Negative feedback
reduced by greater and more explicit instructions.

PTS: 1