1. The wavelike, rhythmic, contractions that a.

antiperitoneal
move food through the digestive tract are b. mediastinal
called c. retroperitoneal
a. deglutition d. peritoneal
b. peristalsis
c. mucosal contractions 7. The esophageal hiatus is in the
d. absorption
a. esophagus
2. Which peritoneal modication supports the b. cardiac portion of the stomach
large intestine? c. mesentery
d. diaphragm
a. dorsal mesentery
b. falciform ligament 8. The myenteric plexus is located in which
c. lesser omentum layer of the alimentary canal?
d. mesocolon
a. mucosa
3. The pyloric sphincter is found between b. serosa
the c. lamina propria
d. muscularis
a. duodenum and jejunum
b. ileum and cecum 9. The nerve plexus that controls secretions
c. stomach and esophagus by the gastrointestinal tract is located in the
d. stomach and duodenum
a. mucosa
4. The pancreas is stimulated to release its b. submucosa
secretions by c. muscularis
d. serosa
a. gastrin
b. HCl in chime 10. The inner surface of each lip is attached
c. secretin to the gum by a midline fold of mucous
d. trypsinogen membrane called the

5. Which of the following are part of the a. labia

digestive system, but are not part of the b. fauces
alimentary canal? c. vermillion
d. labial frenulum
a. duodenum, jejunum and ileum
b. stomach, esophagus and pharynx 11. The duct of the parotid gland enters the
c. liver, pancreas and gallbladder mouth cavity near the
d. mouth, pharynx and rectum
a. second maxillary molar
6. The space between the parietal and b. lingual frenulum
visceral peritoneum is the __ cavity c. base of the tongue
d. floor of the mouth
 c. only water
12. The ducts of the pancreas and liver d. only water and proteins
connect to the digestive tract at the
18. The kidneys help control blood pressure
a. pylorus of the stomach by the secretion of a
b. duodenum
c. jejunum a. erythropoietin
d. ileum b. angiotensin
c. aldosterone
13. Which two regions of the large intestine d. renin
are retroperitoneal?
19. The outer region of the three-layered
a. ascending colon and sigmoid colon sheet which surrounds the kidney is the
b. descending colon and sigmoid colon
c. ascending colon and descending colon a. renal fascia
d. transverse colon and sigmoid colon b. adipose capsule
c. renal capsule
14. Gallstones are formed from the fusion of d. peritoneum
crystallized
20. Filtration of blood
a. cholesterol
b. bile salts a. occurs in the glomerulus
c. bilirubin b. occurs in the renal tubules
d. sodium chloride c. increase systemic blood pressure
d. causes H+ and K+ to concentrate in blood
15. Which of the following is NOT a
function of hepatocytes? 21. The loop of Henle is associated with

a. secretion of digestive enzymes a. filtration

b. secretion of bile b. reabsorption
c. detoxifying alcohol c. secretion
d. synthesizing cholesterol d. assimilation

16. Which of the following structures are 22. A function of the kidney is to
found in the renal cortex?
a. remove nutrients from the blood
a. distal convoluted tubules b. remove microorganisms from the blood
b. renal columns c. remove metabolic wastes from the blood
c. collecting ducts d. add vitamins and rare ions to the blood
d. minor calices
23. Which __ of the following molecules
17. Urine contains cannot pass the filtration membranes in the
a, waste products of digestion kidneys?
b. waste products of metabolism
a. sodium ions even though the patient consumed a fairly
b. glucose large quantity of water during the day. The
c. amino acids patient is experiencing
d. large proteins
a. pyelitis
24. The external opening of the urinary b. urinary tract infection
system is the c. renal failure
d. horseshoe kidney
a. anus
b. urethra 29. Normally, net filtration pressure in the
c. external urethral orifice kidney is about
d. vaginal orifice
a. 5 mm Hg
25. The kidneys secrete the hormone b. 10 mm Hg
erythropoietin which functions to c. 50 mm Hg, the same as in capillaries
d. 80 mm Hg, the same as diastolic blood
a. regulate blood pressure pressure
b. activate vitamin D
c. concentrate salt in the nephron 30. Which of the following chemicals is an
d. control the rate of red blood cell enzyme secreted by the juxtaglomerulal
production apparatus?

26. The nephron has two parts. They are the a. aldosterone
b. antidiuretic hormone
a. glomerulus and renal tubule c. atrial naturetic peptide
b. capsule and loop of Henle d. renin
c. glomerulus and peritubular capillaries
d. renal corpuscle and renal tubule 31. Creatinine is produced by the breakdown
of creative phosphate in the skeletal
27. A patient has symptoms that include muscles. It is useful for determining
painful, frequent urination, and low back glomerular filtration rate (GFR) because it is
pain. Further examination reveals
inflammation of the mucosa and submucosa a. filtered and reabsorbed but not secreted
of the urinary bladder. The patient has b. filtered and extensively secreted but not
reabsorbed
a. polycystic disease c. filtered and secreted to a very small extent
b. cystitis d. secreted but not filtered or reabsorbed
c. bilirubinuria
d. gall stones 32. The urinary bladder in the female lies
inferior to the
28. A patient is brought to the emergency
room. Blood evaluation reveals high levels a. small intestines
of creatinine, urea, uric acid, and potassium. b. uterus
Family members report failure to urinate, c. rectum
d. vagina c. Sertoli cells
d. urethra
33. The color of urine is due to the presence
of a chemical called 38. The portion of the penis which
surrounds the urethra is the
a. urochrome
b. urea a. tunica albuginea
c. creatinine b. corpus spongiosum
d. insulin c. corpus cavernosum
d. prepuce
34. The normal kidneys are only about __
as effective at the age of 70 as they are at the 39. The fructose in semen is secreted by the
age of 40
a. epididymis
a. 10 percent b. vas deferens
b. 25 percent c. seminal vesicle
c. 50 percent d. seminiferous tubules
d. 75 percent
40. The corpus luteum secretes
35. Lower than normal blood concentration
of sodium is a. human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
b. estrogen and progesterone
a. called hypernatremia c. hCG and progesterone
b. characterized by muscular weakness, d. estrogen and hCG
tachycardia, and dizziness
c. characterized by thirst, restlessness, 41. Sperm move by means of a
agitation, and coma
d. due to the fact that most people do not a. cilia
consume enough sodium b. tiny little feet
c. flagella
36. A weakening in the abdominal wall in d. enzymes
the inguinal region may result in
42. Which female reproductive structure is
a. cryptorchidism located between the urinary bladder and the
b. hemorrhoids rectum?
c. a hernia
d. infertility a. ovary
b. uterus
37. Which of the following function in both c. vagina
urinary and reproductive systems in the d. prostate
male?
43. A structure present in males but not in
a. prostate females is the
b. Bowman's capsule
a. vesicorectal pouch d. urinary bladder
b. rectouterine pouch
c. vesicouterme pouch 49. A male is likely to be fertile if his sperm
d. urethra count is above __ per mL of semen

44. The cells in the testis responsible for a. one thousand

producing testosterone are the b. ten thousand
c. one million
a. spermatogenic cells d. twenty million
b. spermatogonia
c. Sertoli cells 50. The bulb of the penis is located at the
d. Leydig cells base of the

45. The testes are covered by a dense white a. corpus cavernosum

fibrous capsule called the b. corpus spongiosum
c. glans penis
a. scrotum d. prepuce
b. tunica vaginalis
c. tunica albuginea 51. The open, funnel-shaped portion of an
d. visceral peritoneum uterine tube is called the

46. The daily production of sperm in the a. fimbria

testes is about b. ampulla
c. infundibulum
a. 30 thousand d. isthmus
b. 300 thousand
c. 30 million 52. Fertilization of the oocyte by a sperm
d. 300 million usually occurs in the

47. The longest duct of the male a. vagina

reproductive tract, passing from the scrotum b. cervix of the uterus
into the pelvic cavity is the c. isthmus of the oviduct
d. ampulla of the oviduct
a. ductus deferens
b. epididymis 53. The uterus is attached to both sides of
c. ejaculatory duct the Pelvic cavity by the
d. urethra
a. round ligaments
48. The ejaculatory duct attaches to the b. broad ligaments
urethra in a region surrounded by the c. oviducts
d. cardinal ligaments
a. seminal vesicles
b. prostate gland 54. A Pap smear is a test performed to detect
c. urogenital diaphragm
a. cancer of the cervix baseline mammogram taken, to serve as a
b. pregnancy comparison, between the ages of
c. infections of the ovary
d. vaginitis a. 20 and 24
b. 25 and 29
55. The normal flexure of the uterus, c. 30 and 34
projecting it anteriorly and superiorly over d. 35 and 39
the vagina, is called
60. Amniocentesis can produce results that
a. uterine prolapse indicate
b. dorsiflexion
c. anteflexion a. successful implantation
d. retroflexion b. the beginning of a normal pregnancy
c. the presence of certain genetic disorders
56. A hysterectomy is the such as Down syndrome
d. the onset of labor
a. downward displacement of the uterus into
the vagina 61. Implantation occurs __ after fertilization
b. most common sterilization procedure used
in women a. immediately
c. surgical procedure sometimes used during b. a few hours
childbirth to open the vaginal canal c. a day
d. surgical removal of the uterus d. about 6 days

57. The structures lateral to the vaginal 62. The developing embryo is surrounded by
opening are the and bathed in

a. hymen a. amniotic fluid

b. clitoris b. chorionic fluid
c. labia minora c. fluid in the yolk sac
d. mons pubis d. plasma from the mother

58. The last tubes through which milk flows 63. In the umbilical cord, there are
before it reaches the outside through the
nipple are the a. two arteries that carry oxygenated blood
and one vein that carries deoxygenated
a. lactiferous ducts blood
b. lactiferous sinuses b. one artery that carries oxygenates blood
c. mammary ducts and one vein that carries deoxygenated
d. secondary tubules blood
c. one artery that carries deoxygenated blood
59. The American Cancer Society and two veins that carries deoxygenated
recommends that a woman should have a blood
d. two arteries that carry deoxygenated a. a change in size of the bone due to lack of
blood and one vein that carries oxygenated exercise
blood b. removal of excess bone fragments after a
severe bone break
64. In normal development of the male c. closure of the epiphyseal plate at the end
fetus, it assumes its upside-down position of puberty
and the testes start to descend into the d. setting a fractured bone by manipulation
scrotal sac during without surgery

a. third month 69. Abnormal growth in height of an

b. fifth month individual is caused by excess
c. seventh month
d. ninth month a. production of vitamin D
b. secretion of human growth hormone
65. At the end of a full-term of pregnancy, c. production of insulin
the top of the uterus reaches d. cancerous growth in the epiphyseal plates

a. the top of the pelvic rim 70. A callus is

b. the level of the umbilicus (navel)
c. the lower surface of the stomach a. formed when cancerous tissue invade
d. nearly to the xyphoid process of the bone
sternum b. produced when bone forms a bulge at the
surface of the skin
66. Which of the following describes the c. the result of damaged blood vessels at a
metaphysis? bone break
d. a mass of repair tissue that bridges the
a. An area where the epiphysis joins the ends of a broken bone
diaphysis
b. It consists of two layers, essential for 71. If you saw an older person who could
bone growth and repair not walk, with a severely laterally bent ankle
c. It lines the medullary cavity, contains you might suspect a
osteoprogenitor cells
d. It is formed by lacunae and canaliculi a. Colles' fracture
b. Pott's fracture
67. If epiphyseal plates are visible in an X- c. spiral fracture
ray the bone is d. greenstick fracture

a. dead 72. Which suture is found between the

b. diseased parietal bones?
c. still growing in length
d. weak due to lack of calcium a. lambdoidal
b. squamosal
68. A closed reduction is c. parietal
d. sagittal
 78. The squamous suture lies between the __
73. In an infant, which curve of the vertebral and __ bones
column develops when the baby starts
holding its head erect? a. frontal and sphenoid
b. parietal and frontal
a. thoracic c. temporal and occipital
b. cervical d. parietal and temporal
c. lumbar
d. sacral 79. In a newborn infant the __ is located
between the angles of the two parietal bones
74. Which structure on a rib articulates with and the two segments of the frontal bone
the transverse process of a vertebra?
a. coronal suture
a. head b. vertical plate
b. costal cartilage c. anterior fontanel
c. neck d. temporal foramen
d. tubercle
80. Which of the following is associated
75. Posterior projections from the body with the ethmoid bone?
(centrum) of a vertebra help to form the
vertebral foramen. These projections are the a. superior orbital fissure
b. perpendicular plate
a. pedicles c. sella turcica
b. laminae d. foramen ovale
c. transverse processes
d. occipital condyles 81. Thoracic vertebrae may be distinguished
from other vertebrae by the
76. Which bone contains the mastoid
foramen, stylomastoid foramen, and carotid a. characteristic short, stubby spines and
foramen? thick bodies
b. transverse foramina in the transverse
a. frontal bone processes
b. temporal bone c. presence of articulating facets on the
c. occipital bone transverse processes
d. sphenoid bone d. bifid spines and triangular shaped
vertebral foramen
77. An example of a tubelike passageway
through a bone is the 82. Paranasal sinuses are located in which
bone?
a. external auditory meatus
b. superior orbital fissure a. temporal
c. intertubercular sulcus of the humerus b. mandible
d. mandibular fossa of the temporal bone c. zygomatic
d. frontal
83. The narrow, ridgelike projection of the a. triquetrum
hip bone is the b. scaphoid
c. pisiform
a. medial epicondyle d. hamate
b. iliac crest
c. radial tuberosity 89. The broad, concave surface on the
d. greater trochanter anterior surface of the scapula is called the

84. The acetabulum a. subscapular fossa

b. supraspinous fossa
a. is formed by the ischium, ilium and pubis c. infraspinous fossa
b. Is inferior to the obturator foramen d. glenoid cavity
c. contains the fovea capitis
d. is lined with fibrocartlilage 90. The bony prominence on the posterior
surface of the elbow is the
85. The glenoid cavity is
a. lateral epicondyle of the Humerus
a. a depression that accommodates a b. olecranon process of the ulna
ligament c. medial condyle of the humerus
b. the area around the spine of the scapula d. radial tuberosity
c. a hole in tooth enamel
d. a depression for articulation with the head 91. When you sit, the part of the hip that
of the humerus touches the seat of the chair is the

86. There is no styloid process on the a. pubic symphysis

b. posterior iliac spine
a. radius c. acetabulum
b. temporal bone d. ischial tuberosity
c. ulna
d. scapula 92. The obturator foramen of the female
pelvis is
87. The female pelvis differs from that of
the male in that the pelvis of the female has a. oval
b. larger than the male
a. a heart-shaped pelvic brim and deep false c. smaller than the male
pelvis d. not present
b. a large acetabulum and rounded obturator
foramen 93. Which of the following is stretched or
c. a more vertical ilium torn in about 70% of all serious knee
d. larger pelvic inlet and shallow iliac crest injuries?

88. The carpal most likely to be broken a. articular discs

during an injury is the b. anterior cruciate ligament
c. medial meniscus c. lumbar enlargement
d. lateral bursae d. femoral nerve

94. The temporomandibular joint (TMJ) 99. If a victim of spinal cord damage
exhibited signs of respiratory arrest, you
a. is the only moveable joint between skull might suspect damage to which region of the
bones spinal cord?
b. is classified as an ellipsoidal joint
c. involves two movable bones, the a. cervical
mandible and maxilla b. thoracic
d. articulating surfaces are connected by a c. lumbar
synostosis d. sacral

95. The largest joint of the body is the __ 100. The muscles that move the eye
joint (extrinsic muscles) are innervated by which
cranial nerves?
a. radiocarpal
b. lumbosacral a. I, II, III
c. tibiofemoral b. IV, V, VI
d. coxal c. III, IV, VI
d. VIII, IX, X
96. Which of the following nerves arises
from the cervical plexus?

a. radial
b. sciatic
c. phrenic
d. femoral

97. In a diagnostic lumbar puncture of an

adult, a sample of cerebrospinal fluid is
removed from the

a. lateral ventricles
b. central canal
c. subarachnoid space
d. subdural space

98. If you inserted a needle between the 3rd

and 4th lumbar vertebra, you would
probably hit the

a. cauda equine
b. filum terminale