1 A MMA Electrode that is classified as a E6013 (according to AWS 5.

1) is a

a) Basic Type
b) Cellulosic Type
c) Rutile Type
d) Thick coated iron powder type

2. A Typical temperature for stress relieving carbon-manganese steel

elements is?

a) 200°C
b) 600°C
c) 800°C
d) 1000°C

3. Arc strikes may cause

a) Cracking
b) Hard spots
c) Material thickness to be less than the minimum allowed
d) All of the above

4. A fusible insert (of consumable insert) is:

a) A type or backing bar

b) Metal powder
c) Pre placed filler material
d) A ceramic weld backing

5. What is the main objective of nick break test?

a) To examine the root

b) To assess the fraction toughness
c) To assess the inter run fusion
d) To look for the face of sidewall fusion

6. Which of the following is a typical heat input value for a MMA weld run?

a) 58KJ/mm
b) 1.5J/mm
c) 5.8 KJ/mm
d) 1.5 KJ/mm

7. Which of the following welding processes would not be suitable for

welding carbon steels?

a) MMA
b) MIG
 c) TIG
d) SAW

8. The access to the WPQR’S should be restricted to only?

a) NDT Technicians
b) Welding inspectors
c) Welders
d) Welding Engineer

9. Who has the responsibility of ensuring the welder is using the correct
polarity during welding?
a) The welder and the welding inspector
b) Store man and the welder
c) Welding engineer
d) The Q/A department

10. Who has the final responsibility of sentencing and accepting weld on
completion?
a) The contractor’s inspector
b) Site manager
c) The welder
d) The client’s inspector or certifying authority

11. What is a typical ARC voltage setting when welding with the TIG (GTAW)
process?

a) 18 – 20V
b) 24 – 26 V
c) 10 – 12 V
d) 70 – 90 V

12. What is the greatest disadvantage of radiographic inspection?

a) Its inability to size defects accurately

b) The physical size of the equipment
c) The skill level of the operators
d) The harmful effects of ionizing radiation

13. The main problem with such a heat treatment on stainless steel pipe
spools and the reason is not regularly employed is :

a) Controlling the rate of the temperature rise

b) Controlling the cooling rate
c) The length of the “soak” period
d) High risk of distortion
14. Charpy impact tests showing a flat but rough surface after completed test,
this would indicate which type of failure?

a) Fatigue
b) Ductile
c) Fatigue to ductile
d) Brittle

15. A mitre fillet weld has a design throat thickness of 14mm. What is its leg
length?

a) 19.6 mm
b) 14 mm
c) 10.8 mm
d) 9.8 mm

16. A specification states that NDT is carried out not ledd than 48 hours
after completion of welding. This is to ensure the detection of which of
the following type of defect

a) Hydrogen cracking
b) Solidification cracking
c) Lamellar tears
d) Weld decay

17. Welding processes that use flux are sometimes considered to better
than non-fluxed processes because

a) Flux may be dried to give lower hydrogen levels

b) Fluxes have greater tolerance of surface contaminations
c) They are good for very reactive metals
d) All of the above

18. Which polarity is normally used for TIG welding of aluminium?

a) AC
b) DC Electrode Positive
c) DC Electrode Negative
d) It would make little difference with were used

19. Large diameter pipe with a wall thickness of 10 mm is to be used for a

cross-country pipeline. Which electrode type could be used to combine
high welding speed and deep penetration?

a) Basic covered
b) Cellulosic covered
 c) Rutile covered
d) Iron powder loaded

20. For a multi run weld the inter pass temperature is the temperature in the
region of the weld?

a) Immediately after any run is completed

b) Immediately after root bead is completed
c) Just before welding restarts & at the point of restart
d) Between run and the first pass to a weld

21. Which of the following statements about lamellar tearing is correct?

a) They are caused by the removal of strong-backs

b) They are located in the centre of the weld metal
c) They are formed during steel manufacture
d) They are formed during or immediately after welding

22. When all weld imperfections have been located, it mandatory that:

a) They are repaired

b) The weld is rejected
c) The welders qualification certificates are reviewed
d) Imperfections are assessed against code requirements

23. What does the term WPQR mean?

a) Weld productivity quality review
b) Weld production quality requirements
c) Welding Procedure Qualification Record
d) Work production quantity review

24. The welder have increased the voltage on the SAW welding set, what
would be the effect on the weld appearance?

a) No effect
b) The weld width would be narrower
c) The penetration will be increased
d) The weld width would be wider

25. When examining a completed bend test, the angle of the bend was found
to be 185°. The testing specification calls for the sample to have been
formed through 180°.

a) They should be acceptable as the standard refer to minimum forming

angle
b) The bends should be considered as failed
c) New bends should be produced and bent to 180° then re-examined.
d) They should be rejected as the angle is not close enough to be
 acceptable

26. A 300mm diameter pipe, 8mm wall thickness is to be radio graphed using
the double wall single image technique. The source to be used is iridium.
Which of the following statements is true?

a) It should not be done as the thickness is below that recommended

b) It would be better to use a cobalt 60 source in this instance
c) There is no problem with the technique
d) Only the double wall, double image techniques should be used with
iridium

27. The temperature at which Weld Decay formed is in the range:

a) 350 – 550 C
b) 550 – 800 C
c) 800 – 1050 C
d) 1050 – 1500 C

28. When examining a completed bend test the angle of the bend was found
to be 175°. The testing specification calls for the sample to have been
formed through 180°.

a) The bends should be considered as failed

b) They should be bent to 180° then re-examined
c) They should be acceptable as the reduction in angle is due to material
spring back
d) They should be rejected as the angle is not close enough to be
acceptable

29. In MIG/MAG welding wire feed speed is proportional to :

a) Travel Speed
b) Polarity
c) Arc Length
d) Welding Current

30. Why is the OCV capped at this voltage setting?

a) To save electricity
b) To prevent exploding of the consumable
c) Allow smooth transition into welding voltage range
d) To reduce the risk of fatality

31. What is the recommended minimum range of illumination required by BS

EN 970 for inspection of a welded surface?

a) 90 to 125 lux
 b) 150 to 250 lux
c) 350 to 500 lux
d) 35 to 50 lux

32. When doing visual inspection which of the following is not required?

a) Access to welder procedure qualification records

b) Access to all relevant WPS’s
c) Access to all relevant standard
d) Adequate lighting

33. Which of the following materials is most susceptible to h2 cracking

a) Low carbon steel

b) HSLA
c) Aluminium
d) Austenitic stainless steel

34. A code gives the acceptance standard for excess weld metal “h” as: h ≤
1mm + 0.1b max 5 mm where “b” is the width of the weld cap. For which of
the following situation is the excess weld metal acceptance?

a) b = 15 h = 3.0
b) b = 22 h = 3.2
c) b = 28 h = 4.0
d) b = 40 h = 5.4

35. A fillet weld has a design throat thickness of 8 mm. What is the minimum
leg length that is required?

a) 5.6 mm
b) 11.2 mm
c) 11.8 mm
d) It cannot be determined from the information given

36. The number 111 is shown at the tail-end of a weld symbol reference line.
according to BS EN 22553, what dos this number indicate?

a) The welding process

b) The type of welding electrode
c) The welding position
d) The total weld length
37. Which of the following processes will give the lowest level of hydrogen?

a) SAW
b) FCAW
c) GTAW
d) SMAW

38. Which of the following could be used for detecting laps in carbon steel
plate?

a) Dye penetrant
b) Magnetic particle
c) Visual examination
d) Any of the above

39. The term autogenous welding means?

a) An automatic welding process

b) A mechanised welding process
c) A manual welding process
d) Welding without filler wire

40. What information would be recorded as a minimum on a completed

production weld?
a) Size and type of electrode and
b) Welding supervisor’s name
c) Welder’s identification, date and weld number
d) Welding inspectors name

41. Why would visual inspection of the excess weld material at the bottom of a
cross country pipeline be important?
a) It is the most difficult area to weld
b) It is the dirtiest part of the pipe as it is near the ground
c) Welders always forget to weld the bottom
d) It is the most difficult area to radiograph

42. In a transverse weld tensile test, if the break was in the parent material,
the sample would be?

a) Rejected
b) Retested
c) Acceptable if the UTS is equal to or greater than the specified UTS of
the plate
d) No of the above
43. Which of the following defects are unlikely to be detected by normal
radiographic techniques?

a) Intergranular corrosion cracking

b) Porosity
c) Slag
d) Lack of penetration

44. For ultrasonic testing, which of the following statements is true?

a) It is easy to identify all defects

b) The equipment should be calibrated before use
c) The equipment cannot be automated
d) Sound waves will not travel through copper

45. Weld decay occurs in which of the following steel types:

a) Carbon/Manganese
b) Low Alloy
c) Any stainless steels
d) Austenitic stainless steels

46. Which welding parameter has the greatest influence on heat inut?

a) Travel speed
b) Current
c) Polarity
d) Voltage

47. An electrode is classified to BS EN 499 as E 35 3 B. What does B mean?

a) Manufactured to a British Standard

b) To be used in PB position
c) The covering is a basic type
d) To be used only for lower grade work

48. A pipeline is to be laid across country. Which of the following methods

would normally to based to detect root defects?

a) Eddy current testing

b) Radiography
c) Hydrostatic testing
d) Liquid penetrate inspection
49. Why would visual inspection of the excess weld metal at the bottom of a
cross county pipeline be important?

a) It is the most difficult area to weld

b) It is the dirtiest part of the pipe as it is near the ground
c) Welders always forget to weld the bottom
d) It is the most difficult area to radiograph

50. Who has the final responsibility of sentencing and accepting a weld on
completion?

a) The contractor’s inspector

b) Site manager
c) The welder
d) The client’s inspector or certifying authority

51. Why is it essential to clean the excess weld metal on completion of the
production weld?

a) So it can be ready for painting

b) To remove any rust
c) To ensure it is suitably clean for visual inspection and NDT
d) To remove slag from the undercut

52. The main objective of the fillet fracture test is to:

a) Estimate the fracture toughness

b) Estimate resistance to fatigue failure
c) Access the root penetration/fusion
d) All of the above

53 A MMA electrode with part of the covering missing will:

a) Have a lower arc voltage

b) Have an unstable arc
c) Give more undercut
d) Increase depth of the penetration

54. Which of the following units is used for impact toughness?

a) Newton
b) Kj/mm
c) Psi
d) Joule
55. Which of the following alloying elements is used to improve the toughness
of steel?

a) Chromium
b) Manganese
c) Sulphur
d) Carbon

56. For MIG/MAG welding, wire feed speed is proportional to:

a) Travel Speed
b) Welding Current
c) Arc Length
d) Inductance

57. A brittle fracture can be identified (from examination of the fracture faces)
by

a) The presence of beach marks

b) The presence of plastic deformation
c) Being rough and torn
d) Being flat and rough

58. For SAW which of the following has most effect on the finished profile?

a) Arc voltage
b) Open circuit voltage
c) Polarity
d) The included angle

59. The strength of a fillet weld is controlled by

a) Leg length
b) Weld face width
c) Convexity of weld deposit
d) Throat thickness

60. Steels with good toughness at very low temperature are alloyed with

a) Chromium
b) Nickel
c) Carbon
d) Molybdenum
61. A lot of spatter during MMA welding is most likely to be caused by

a) The welding using excessive current

b) The use of damp electrodes
c) Incorrect preheat temperature
d) Both b & c above

62. The back step method of welding is used to control

a) The weld profile shape

b) Penetration
c) Undercut
d) Distortion

63. When monitoring production welding which of the following is the most
important reference document for a welding inspector?

a) The WPS
b) The WPQR
c) The base material test certificate
d) The PWPS

64. According to BS EN 22553 what would an elongated Z through the dual

reference line to the right of the weld symbol indicate?
a) Throat thickness
b) Nominal penetration
c) Leg length
d) Intermittent welds that are staggered

65. Which welding position would normally give the highest heat input during
MMA welding?

a) PA (1G)
b) All position would be the same
c) PC (2G)
d) PF (3G)

66. What does the term back-step refer to during welding?

a) A QA term referring to inspection point

b) Use of step wedges to open up the joint root faces
c) Use of step wedges for radiography
d) A weld run sequence
67. Which of the following heating methods would not be allowed for PWHT?

a) Electrical resistance mats

b) Hand-held gas torch
c) Gas fired heating
d) Induction furnace

68. Which BS EN standard is used for welding symbols on drawing?

a) BS EN 970
b) BS EN 287
c) BS EN 22553
d) BS EN 4515

69. Is it permissible to allow trainee welder to carryout production welding?

a) Never
b) Yes as long as the supervisor is happy with his workmanship standard
c) Yes as long as he has the approved qualification to cover the intended
scope of work
d) Yes as long as no NDT is required on the finished weld.

70. When would you measure the minimum preheat temperature?

a) On completion of each pass

b) Immediately prior to commencing the first pass and subsequent
passes.
c) When the welding is complete
d) Minimum preheat temperature measurement is only required if the heat
input is lower than that specified WPS

71. During root welding, which of the following would be the main cause of
excess penetration?

a) The root gap is too small in accordance with WPS

b) Preheat not sued
c) The current is too high
d) Root face is too large

72. What course of action should be taken upon finding a welder using
incorrect shielding gas?
a) Allow welding to proceed if the workmanship is good
b) Report the incident and record all relevant information.
c) None if the electrode for the correct type and continue welding
d) Change the electrode for the correct type and continue welding
73. In welder qualification testing of 45mm plates, why are side bends used
instead of root and face bends ?

a) They are easier to produce

b) The testing equipment cannot handle thick root/face bends
c) Root defects are not important for welder qualification
d) They give more accurate indications.

74. Which of the following is NOT a quantative test?

a) Root bend
b) Hardness
c) Charpy
d) Tensile

75. In a welding procedure transverse joint tensile test the following

observations were made. The specimen CSA was recorded as 25mm x
12mm and the maximum load applied was recorded as 150 kN. What is
the UTS?

a) 50 kN/mm2
b) 5500 N/mm2
c) 500 N/mm2
d) 50N/mm2

76. In welder qualification testing of 20 mm plates, why are side bends used
instead of root and face bends?

a) They are easier to produce

b) The testing equipment cannot handle thick root/face bends
c) Root defects are not important for welder qualification
d) They give more accurate indications

77. Mechanical tests are divided in to two areas, identify these from the list
below:

a) Destructive and not destructive tests

b) Qualitative and quantitative
c) Visual and mechanical
d) Qualitative and visual

78. Charpy testing is carried out on a welding procedure test plate because?

a) It gives an indication of the through thickness ductility (in the Z

direction)
b) The impact test results can be used to verify that the material has not
been adversely affected by the heat of the welding
 c) It gives an indication of the materials elongation properties
d) It gives a quick indication of the weld quality for welder qualification
tests

79. When using DC +ve polarity, what is the typical OCV?

a) 20 V
b) 50 V
c) 90 V
d) 240 V

80. When MMA welding what will be the effect on the weld if the power source
was changed from DC+ve to AC?

a) None
b) It would have been easier for the welder to strike the arc
c) It would slightly increase the depth of penetration
d) It would slightly decrease the depth of penetration

81. What would the effect be if the polarity were changed from DC+ve to DC-

a) None
b) Greater deposition rate
c) Greater penetration
d) Less deposition rate

82. Which type of MMA electrode gives deepest penetration?

a) Rutile
b) Basic
c) Iron powder
d) Cellulosic

83. A drawing with weld symbol to BS EN 22553 will show a 7mm

leg length fillet weld by:

a) Z7
b) S7
c) a7
d) 7Z

84. Which of the following types destructive test is sometimes used for
weld qualification testing ?

a) A hardness test
b) A CTOD test
c) A Charpy V-notch test
d) A fracture test
85. What does the term high frequency mean when referring to TIG
welding

a) The power source gives a high duty cycle

b) Increase the welding speed
c) A high integrity weld is easily achievable
d) Cause skin burns

86. As the output energy of an X-ray set is increased

a) The higher the image quality

b) The greater the penetration power
c) The higher the curies minutes
d) The longer the wave length

87. Which of the statement is correct?

a) AC and DC can be used for MMA welding

b) AC and DC can be used for TIG welding
c) AC and DC can be used for SAW
d) All of the above

88. The recommended position for checking preheat temperature, and

preheat maintenance temperature, on a butt weld is

a) 75mm from the bevel edge

b) Within groove midway between root & surface
c) As close as practical to the heaters
d) 150mm from the centre of the joint – on both sides

89. The most common type of service failure caused by cyclic loading is

a) Ductile tearing
b) Brittle fracture
c) Fatigue
d) Stress corrosion cracking

90. The main purpose of a slope in control in TIG welding is to

a) Avoid the risk of start porosity

b) Stabilize the arc
c) Reduce the risk of tungsten inclusion
d) Allow more time for filler wire to melt
91. CEV are used to

a) Estimate HAZ toughness

b) Assess the risk of lamellar tearing
c) Determine the pre heat to be used
d) Determine the need for PWHT

92. Hard stamping of some pressure vessels materials may give cause

a) Corrosion Intiation
b) Work hardening
c) Stress concentrations
d) All of the above

93. Which of the following cannot be detected by Penetrating testing?

a) Surface breaking planar flaws

b) Undercut
c) Non planar surface flaws
d) Buried planar flaws

94. Tungsten electrodes used for TIG welding of Carbon steels may contain
small percentage of:

a) Silica
b) Thoria
c) India
d) Titania

95. What element may cause a carbon steel weld to suffer from hot
shortness

a) Silican
b) Marten site
c) Manganese
d) Sulphur

96. According to AWS 2.4 a weld symbol “below the refernce line” refer to:

a) a weld on “the other side”

b) a weld on “the root of the joint”
c) a weld on “the arrow side”
d) None of the above

97. The use of a degreasing solvent for cleaning the joint to welding may be
unsafe practice because
 a) Harmful may be given off
b) The welds may contain porosity
c) Traces of the solvent will cause irregular arcing
d) It may cause HAZ cracking

98. Side bend tests for butt weld joints are

a) Generally used for butt welds less than 12mm thickness

b) Tested with the weld face on the outside of bend
c) Effective of revealing any lack sidewall fusion
d) Have all the above characteristics

99. Which of the following is an inert gas can be used GMAW?

a) 100% CO2
b) 70% Ar+30%Hl
c) Ar+20%CO2
d) All of the above

100. For TIG welding Austenitic stainless there is requirement for a high
standard of cleanliness. What is main reason for this?

a) To avoid risk of H2 cracking

b) To prevent weld decay
c) To reduce risk of contamination
d) To reduce the amount of polishing required

101. Which type off submerged arc flux can be described as flaky or sharp?

a) Agglomerated
b) Fused
c) Basic
d) Neutral

102. An electrode is classified to BS EN 499 as E 35 3 B. What does 35 mean?

a) 350 N/mm2 yield strength

b) 35 Joules @ - 30°C
c) 35 N/mm2 tensile strength
d) 35 ksi tensile strength

103. Which of the following elements is added to steel for de-oxidation?

a) Phosphorous
b) Silicon
c) Carbon
d) Sulphur
104. Overlap at the toe in a butt weld, mad by MAG welding may be caused by

a) The shielding gas flow rate being too low

b) The torch angle being incorrect
c) The root gap being too small
d) Use of DC +ve polarity

105. For arc welding processes which welding position enables the highest
weld metal deposition rate be archived

a) Horizontal vertical (PC or 2G)

b) Over head (PE or 4G)
c) Flat (PA or 1G)
d) Vertical up (PF or 3G)

106. Electrodes designated E46 4 B (to BS EN 499) have been left but over
height on the work length in a fabrication workshop. What is the best
source of action?

a) Return them to the stores for re-backing

b) Return them to the holding oven
c) Put them in a portable oven (a heated quiver)
d) Tell the welder that they can any the used to welding

107. For cross-country pipelines, which type of MMA electrode requires the use
of a hot pass technique to reduce the risk of cracking?

a) Iron powder
b) Basic
c) Cellulosic
d) Rutile

108. A weld joint, that is to be subjected to ultrasonic testing usually requires

a) Removal of all excess weld metal

b) Penetrant test first
c) Densitometer calibration
d) Some surface preparation

109. Which of the following imperfection types is NOT normally associated with
the TIG welding?

a) Tungsten inclusions
b) Crater pipe
c) Spatter
d) Porosity
110. With which of the following NDE processes is it possible to detect both
surface and slight sub-surface defects up to 2mm below the surface.

a) Visual
b) Dye Penetrate
c) Magnetic particle using DC
d) Magnetic Particle using AC

111. Which of the following commonly used radioactive isotopes has the
longest half life?

a) Iridium 192
b) Cobalt 60
c) Thulium 170
d) Ytterbium 169

112. Half life is a term used to describe

a) The penetrating ability a gamma source

b) Half the total time a gamma source will be useful
c) The time taken for the gamma source to reduce its strength by half
d) The rate of decay of an X-ray tube

113. Weld decay is caused by the formation of a compound with carbon. The
other element in this compound is:

a) Manganese
b) Sulphur
c) Chromium
d) Nickel

114. Weld decay will cause which of the following problems:

a) A reduced resistance to corrosion

b) A lower tensile strength
c) The toughness is reduced
d) The hardness will increase

115. Weld decay can be minimised by specifying steel with:

a) Higher carbon level

b) Higher chromium level
c) Lower carbon level
d) Lower chromium level
116. A post weld heat –treatment may also be of benefit in minimizing the risk
of weld decay, this treatment could be called:

a) Stress relief
b) Normalizing
c) Quench and Tempering
d) Solution treatment over 1000 C

117. In an all weld tensile test, the original specimen gauge length was 50 mm,
and after the test the increased gauge length was 60 mm, what is the
elongation percentage?

a) %A is 50
b) %A is 20
c) %A is 29
d) %A is 36

118. Would you consider using a 5mm electrode for vertical up root runs in a
6G (HL045) fixed position pipe?

a) Yes, it is compatible
b) Yes but this would depend upon the welder skill
c) No, it is not the most suitable electrode coating type
d) No, the electrode should have been smaller in diameter

119. Which of the following processes uses a flat characteristic?

a) MAG (GMAW)
b) MMA (SMAW)
c) TIG (GTAW)
d) SAW using greater than 1000 amps

120. Which of the following MMA electrode type is generally only suitable for
welding in the PA & PB

a) Basic
b) Cellulosic
c) Rutile
d) High-iron powder

121. A typical temperature for normalizing carbon-manganese steel is:

a) 200°C
b) 600°C
c) 900°C
d) 1200°C
122. From examination of the fractures faces, a brittle failure can be identified
by:

a) The presence of beach marks

b) Plastic deformation
c) Being rough and torn
d) Being flat and rough

123. Which of the following is non magnetic?

a) 5% chromium 1% molybdenum steel

b) 12% chromium steel
c) Austenitic stainless steel
d) 9% Nickel steel

124. The determination of correct weld preparation (root gap, root face,
included angle) is done by?
a) The welding engineer
b) The welding inspector or supervisor
c) The welder will only decide
d) The inspector will recommend what is suitable

125. How is preheat for tack welds during assembly and fit up determined?

a) By the welders as they have extensive knowledge

b) The fabrications specification / WPS will give the requirements
c) The fabrication drawing will give all the information
d) Any temperature will do as it is only a tack weld.

126. Why is it sometimes necessary to preheat the base material before

welding?

a) To removed oil and grease

b) To remove moister from inside the material
c) To prevent the possible risk of cracking
d) Not required if using cellulose electrodes, as these will provide enough
heat

127. Which of the following would not be required to be checked before

welding?

a) The welding consumables

b) The welder qualification
c) Calibration of the welding equipment
d) The workshop humidity
128. In a transverse weld tensile test, if the break was in the weld metal, the
sample would be:

a) Rejected
b) Retested
c) Acceptable if the UTS is equal to or greater than the specified UTS of
the plate
d) None of the above

129. In a cross joint tensile test the following observations were made:
Specimen width: 20 mm, material thickness: 20 mm, Max Load: 180 KN,
Break position: Parent Plate, What is the UTS?

a) 45 KN/mm2
b) 450 N/mm2
c) 39 KN/ mm2
d) 39 N/ mm2

130. Charpy impact tests showing a rough torn surface after the completed
test, this would indicate which type of failure?

a) Fatigue
b) Ductile
c) Fatigue to ductile
D) Brittle

131. A butt weld has been made by MMA in a 50mm thick impact tested steel
plate. The welding electrode used was a basic type, 5mm diameter. The
Measured welding parameters for one of the runs was 250 amps, 24
volts, using DC+ve polarity, and a ROL of 180mm per min: What would
be the Arc energy?

a) Insufficient information given to calculate the Arc energy

b) 1.9 KJ/mm
c) 1.87 KJ/mm
d) 2.0 kJ/mm

132. When MMA welding what will be he effect on the weld if the power source
was changed from AC to DC-ve?

a) None
b) Higher deposition rates
c) It would slightly increase the depth of penetration
d) The arc would become unstable
133. When using multiple SAW arc systems (twin wires etc), the arcs often
have different polarities or use all AC rather than DC polarity, this is to?

a) Prevent arc blow between the arcs

b) To maximize productivity
c) To even out the power-factor on the mains supply
d) Make it easier to initiate the arc

134. Which of the following processes uses a flat characteristic?

a) MAG (GMAW)
b) To maximize productivity
c) Resistance spot welding
d) SAW using more than 1000 amps

135. Which of the following defects is usually associated with the MAG
(GMAW) welding process when using Dip Transfer?

a) Centreline cracking
b) Lack of side wall fusion
c) Undercut
d) Tungsten inclusions

136. What would be the most likely SAW flux type for welding medium carbon
steel which r requires impact testing:

a) Cellulosic
b) Rutile
c) Fused
d) Agglomerated

137. The main reason for preheating steels is to:

a) Reduce the risk of hydrogen cracking

b) Reduce residual stresses in the joint
c) Reduce distortion
d) Drive the moisture out of the plate

138. A short transverse test (as STRA Test) will give:

a) The tensile strength of the weld

b) Indication of susceptibility of the lamellar tearing
c) The stress / stain characteristics of the weld
d) The stress / strain susceptibility to hydrogen cracking
139. Why is the maximum OCV allowable to initiate and are when using A.C.
current?

a) 1000 V
b) 10 V
c) 90 V
d) 900 V

140. What information should be recorded as a minimum, on a completed

production weld?

a) Size and type of electrode used

b) Welding supervisor’s name
c) Welder’s identification, date and weld number
d) Welding inspectors name

141. Who should select the specific welds for NDT, to cover the 10%
contractual percentage required by the specification/Code?

a) Anyone can select the welds as its just a random choice

b) The welder as he knows which welds are likely to produce the least
defects
c) This will be referenced in the inspection and test plan
d) Nobody, as welding is always carried out to a high standard the use of
percentage NDT is no real value

142. An incompletely filled groove is also known as

a) Root concavity
b) Lack of penetration
c) Incomplete Root penetration
d) Under fill

143. For MMA welding arc voltage is controlled by

a) OCV
b) The power source giving constant voltage
c) Arc Length
d) The electrode porosity

144. Which of the following may increase the risk of HAZ cracking when
welding thick section C-Mn steels?

a) Slow cooling after welding

b) Use of low heat input
c) Use of steel grade with low CEV
d) Low moisture content in the electrode covering
145. According to AWS A5.1 what type of covering does on E6013
electrode have?

a. Rutile
b. Basic
c. Cellulosic
d. Fused

146. The main reason for qualifying welding procedure is

a) Show the joint properties satisfy the specification

b) Show that the fabricator has good control of welding
c) Check whether the NDT acceptance standard can be met
d) Allow welder to participate before production welding starts

147. During PWHT it is important to control the rate of heating & cooling in
order to

a) Control the grain structure

b) To minimize the risk of distortion
c) Allow time for the hydrogen to escape
d) Ensure the surface layers do not over heat

148. Plasma cutting is applied to

a) Al alloys
b) Carbon steels
c) Austenitic Stainless steels
d) All of the above

149. Which shielding gas is commonly used for GMAW of a 20 mm thick low
carbon steel?

a) Argon + 1% Oxygen
b) Argon + 30% Helium
c) 100% Carbon dioxide
d) 100% Argon

150. Which of the following statements is not correct when referring to fully
Austenitic Stainless Steels?

a) It can be susceptibility to solidification cracking

b) Stainless steel tooling should be used where possible
c) It has a low coefficient of thermal expansion
d) It has non magnetic
151. What is abbreviation for welding procedure qualification specification
that has been written for the purpose of qualifying weld procedure test
weld?

a) WPS
b) Pwps
c) uWPS
d) WPStbt

152. What is meant by the term PWHT?

a) Pipe weld heat treatment

b) Pre weld heat treatment
c) Post weld hydrogen tearing
d) Post weld heat treatment

153. To assess the surface of a weld for direct inspection, the distance from the
surface to the eye should be a maximum of?

a) 200mm
b) 600mm
c) 60mm
d) 6000mm
 1 C 41 A 81 B 121 C
2 B 42 C 82 D 122 D
3 D 43 A 83 A 123 C
4 C 44 B 84 D 124 B
5 D 45 D 85 C 125 B
6 D 46 A 86 B 126 C
7 B 47 C 87 D 127 D
8 D 48 B 88 A 128 C
9 A 49 A 89 C 129 B
10 D 50 D 90 C 130 B
11 C 51 C 91 C 131 D
12 D 52 C 92 D 132 B
13 D 53 B 93 D 133 A
14 D 54 D 94 B 134 A
15 A 55 B 95 D 135 B
16 A 56 B 96 C 136 D
17 B 57 D 97 A 137 A
18 A 58 A 98 C 138 B
19 B 59 D 99 B 139 C
20 A 60 B 100 B 140 C
21 D 61 A 101 B 141 C
22 D 62 D 102 A 142 D
23 C 63 A 103 B 143 C
24 D 64 D 104 B 144 B
25 A 65 D 105 C 145 A
26 C 66 D 106 A 146 A
27 B 67 B 107 B 147 B
28 C 68 C 108 D 148 D
29 D 69 A 109 C 149 C
30 D 70 D 110 C 150 C
31 C 71 C 111 B 151 B
32 A 72 B 112 C 152 D
33 B 73 B 113 C 153 B
34 B 74 A 114 A
35 B 75 C 115 C
36 A 76 D 116 D
37 C 77 B 117 B
38 C 78 B 118 C
39 D 79 C 119 A
40 C 80 D 120 C