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I.E.S. (Objective)
MECHANICAL ENGINEERING-1999
PAPER-II

Q.l. Consider the following statements:

The strength of the fibre reinforced plastic product
1. depends upon the strength of the fibre alone 2. depends upon the fibre and plastic
3. is isotropic 4. is anisotropic
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) I and 3 (b) I and 4 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4
Ans. (b) Fibre Reinforced plastics are composite materials possessing additional and/or superior properties
to individual components.

Q.2. Match List-I (Crystal structure) with List-II (Atomic packing factor) and select the correct answer
using the codes given below the Lists:
List-l List-II
A. Simple cubic 94%
B. Body-centered cubic 74%
C. Face-centered cubic 52%
D. Hexagonal close packed 68%

Codes:
A A
(a) 3 (b) 4
(c) 3 (d) 4
ADS. (a) Maximum packing of atoms is in hexagonal closed packed arrangement followed by face-centred
cubic, body-centered cubic, and least in simple cubic.
Q.3. Consider the following pairs of plastics and their distinct characteristics:
1. Acrylics ... Very good transparency to light 2. Polycarbonate Poor impact resistance
3. PTFE ... Low coefficient of friction. 4. Polypropylene Excellent fatigue strength
Which of these pairs are correctly matched?
(a) 2 and 3 (b) I and 3 (c) I and 4 (d) 2 and 4
Ans. (c) PTFE is used for high temperature applications. Polycarbon has good impact resistance ..

Q.4. Gibb's phase rule is given by

(F = number of degrees of freedom.
C = number of components.
= number of phases)
P
(a) F= C+ P (b) F=C+P-2
(c) F= C-P-2 (d) F= C-P+ 2
Ans. (d) F = C - P + 2

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Q.5. The set of Miller indices of the plane shown in the given figure is z

(a) (l 00)

(d) (1 1 0)
Ans. (d) Intercepts on x, y and z axes are - 1,00,00. Their reciprocals are
1,0,0. x
Q.6. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
LU~I L~~II
(Materials) (Applications)
A. Tungsten carbide 1. Abrasive wheels
B. Silicon nitride 2. Heating elements
C. Aluminium oxide 3. Pipes for conveying liquid metals
D. Silicon carbide 4. Drawing dies
Codes:
A BeD A BeD
(a) 3 4 1 2 (b) 4 3 2 I
(c) 3 4 2 1 (d) 4 3 1 2
Ans. (d) we is used for drawing dies, silicone nitride for pipes to carry liquid metal, AIP3 for abrasive
wheels, and silicon carbide for heating elements.
Q.7. Heating the hypoeutectoid steels to 300e above the upper critical temperature line, soaking at that
temperature and then cooling slowly to room temperature to form a pearlite and ferrite structure, is
known as
(a) hardening (b) normalising
Ans. (d) The process described is annealing.
Q.8. In a eutectic system, two elements are completely
(a) insoluble in solid and liquid states (b) soluble in liquid state
(c) soluble in solid state (d) insoluble in liquid state
Ans. (b) In eutectic system, two elements are completely soluble in liquid state.
Q.9. <X = 12.5 x ID-6/oe, E = 200 GPa
If the rod fitted snugly between the supports as
shown in the figure, is heated, the stress induced
in it due to 200e rise in temperature will be
(a) 0.07945 MPa
(b) -0.07945 MPa
(c) -0.03972 MPa
(d) 0.03972 MPa
Ans. (a) Expansion of rod
=
l <X /1t = 0.5 x 12.5 x 10-6 x 20 = 0.125 X 10-3 m
Force will be induced due to spring and same = 0.125 x 10-3 x 50 X 103 N = 6.25 N
F 6.25
Stress - -
- A
= (1t/ 4) xO.Ol 2 = 0.07945 MPa

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99-IT
1169

If permissible stress in plates of joint through a pin as shown in the given figure is 200 MPa, then the
width w will be
(a) 15 mm (b) 18 mm (c) 20 mm (d) 25 mm
6
Ans. (a) (w - 10) 2 X 10-6 X 200 X 10 = 2000 N ; w -10 = 5, and w = 15 mm.
Q.ll. Circumferential stress in a cylindrical steel boiler shell under internal pressure is 80 MPa. Young's
modulus of elasticity and Poisson's ratio are respectively 2 x 105 MPa and 0.28.
The magnitude of circumferential strain in the boiler shell will be
(a) 3.44 x 10-4 (b) 3.84 x 1Q-4 (c) 4 x 10-4 (d) 4.56 x 1Q-4

Ans. (a) Circumferential strain = ~(Sl- ~ s2 )

Since circumferential stress Sl = 80 MPa, longitudinal stress s2 = 40 MPa

4
:. Circumferential strain = ~ 6 [80-0.28x40] 106 = 68.8 x10-4 = 3.44 x10-
2x10 x10 20
Q.12. A thin cylinder with closed lids is subjected to internal pressure and supported at the ends as shown in
Figure I
I

-----~~-----------------~

(a) (b) (c) I (d)

/ t

1 T
~

Ans. (a) Point 'X' is subjected to circumferential and longitudinal stress, i.e. tension on all faces, but there
is no shear stress because vessel is supported freely outside.

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Q.13. The number of elastic constants for a completely anisotropic elastic material which follows Hooke's
law is
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 21 (d) 25
Ans. (a) The three elastic constants for anisotropic material following Hooke's law are
Young's modulus, elastic limit stress and yield stress.
Q.14. The bending moment equation, as a function of distance x measured from the left end, for a simply
supported beam of span L m carrying a uniformly distributed load of intensity w N/m will be given by
2
wL( W()2 wL wx
(a) M =-- L-x)-- L-x N-m (b) M =-x--~-N-m
2 2 2 2
2
wL 2 w .3 wx wLx
(c) M = -(L-x) --(L-x) N-m (d) M = ---N-m
2 2 2 2

wL wx2
Ans. (b) M =- x- --Nm
2 2
Q.15. The bending moment diagram shown in Figure-I corresponds to the shear force diagram in

Ans. (b) If shear force is zero, B.M. will also be zero. If shear force varies linearly with length, B.M.
diagram will be curved line.
Q.16. Two beams of equal cross-sectional area are subjected to equal bending moment. If one beam has
square cross-section and the other has circular section, then
(a) both beams will be equally strong (b) circular section beam will be stronger
(c) square section beam will be stronger
(d) the strength of the beam will depend on the nature of loading

2
Ans. (b) If D is diameter of circle and 'a' the side of square section, ~d2 =a or d = ~ a

2 3
. . rr.d3 rr. 4 2 a . a
Z for cIrcular sectIOn = 32 = 32 ~ a = 8 ;and Z for square sectIOn = 6

Q.17. A cantilever beam of rectangular cross-section is subjected to a load W at its free end. If the depth of
the beam is doubled and the load is halved, the deflection of the free end as compared to original
deflection will be
(a) half (b) one-eighth (c) one-sixteenth (d) double
Ans. (c) Since Z for square section is more, it is stronger.
3
W/3 W/3x12 4W/
Deflection in cantilever = 3EI = 3E a h3 - Eah3
4W/3 1 4W/3
If h is doubled, and W is halved, New deflection = 2Ea (2hi = 16 x Eah3

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Which one of the following portions of the loaded beam shown in the given figure is subjected to pure
bending?
(a) AB (b) DE (c) AE (d) BD
Ans. (d) Pure bending takes place in the section between two weights W.
Q.19. A solid circular shaft is subjected to pure torsion. The ratio of maximum shear to maximum normal
stress at any point would be
(a) I : 1 (b) 1: 2 (c) 2: 1 Cd) 2: 3
16T 32T
Ans. (b) Shear stress = 1td3 and normal stress = 1td3

:. Ratio of shear stress and normal stress = 1 : 2.

Q.20. A short column of external diameter D aud internal diameter d carries an eccentric load W. Toe great-
est eccentricity which the load can have without producing tension on the cross-section of the column
would be
D+d
(a) --
8
Ans. (b)
Q.21. A bar of length L and of uniform cross-sectional area A and second moment of area I is subjected to
a pull P. If Young's modulus of elasticity of the bar material is E, the expression for strain energy
stored in the bar will be
p2L
(a) 2AE

Ans. (a) Strain energy = "21 x stress . I

x stram x vo ume

1 P P L PL2
=-x-x-o-xAL=--
~ A A E 2AE
Q.22. If a thick cy Iindrical shell is subjected to internal pressure, then hoop stress, radial stress and longitu-
dinal stress at a point in the thickness will be
(a) tensile, compressive and compressive respectively
(b) all compressive (c) all tensile
(d) tensile, compressive and tensile respectively
Ans. (d) Hoop stress - tensile, radial stress - compressive, and longitudinal stress - tensile.
Q.23. A thin cylinder with both ends closed is subjected to internal pressure p. The longitudinal stress at the
surface has been calculated as 0'0' Maximum shear stress at the surface will be equal to
(a) 20'0 (b) 1.50'0 (c) 0'0 (d) 0.50'0
Ans. (d) Longitudinal stress = so' hoop stress = 2so
20'0 -0'0 0'0
Max. shear stress = ---2- = 2.
Q.24. The maximum shear stress occurs on the outermost fibers of a circular shaft under torsion. In a close
coiled helical spring, the maximum shear stress occurs on the

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OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

(a) outermost fibres (b) fibres at mean diameter

(c) innermost fibres (d) end coils
Ans. (c)
Q.25. A helical spring has N turns of coil of diameter D, and a second spring, made of same wire diameter
and of same material, has NI2 turns of coil of diameter 2D. If the stiffness of the first spring is k, then
the stiffness of the second spring will be
(a) k/4 (b) k/2 (c) 2k (d) 4k
4
Cd
Ans. (a) Stiffness = -- 3 =k
64R N

Cd4 k
For second spring, stiffness = N - 4"
64 (2R)3 x-
2
Q.26. Which one of the following figures represents the maximum shear stress theory or Tresea criterion?

Q.27. Which one of the following sets of forces are encountered by a lathe parting tool while groove
cutting?
(a) Tangential, radial and axial (b) Tangential and radial
(c) Tangential and axial (d) Radial and axial
Ans. (a)
Q.28. In a single-point turning operation of steel with a cemented carbide tool, Taylor's tool life exponent is
0.25. If the cutting speed is halved, the tool life will increase by
(a) two times (b) four times (c) eight times

T JO.25 T
~ \/Tn = C. _2 =2 ~ = 24 = 16
2 2 '~ ( , ~

Q.29. Consider the following approaches normally applied for the economic analysis of machining:
I. Maximum production rate 2. Maximum profit criterion 3. Minimum cost criterion
The correct sequence in ascending order of optimum cutting speed obtained by these approaches is
(a) 1,7 - (b) 1,3,2 (c) 3,2,1 (d) 3,1,2
Ans. (c)
Q.30. Match List-I (ISO classification of carbide tools) with List-II (Applications) and select the corree'
answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
A. P-IO Non-ferrous, roughing cut
B. P-50 Non-ferrous, finishing cut
C. K-IO Ferrous material, roughing cut
D. K-50 Ferrous material, finishing cut

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99-~
1173
Codes:
A B C D A
(a) 4 3 1 2 (b) 3
(c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 3
ADS. (d)

Q.31. Consider the following statements:

For precision machining of non-ferrous alloys, diamond is preferred because it has
1. low coefficient of thermal expansion 2. high wear resistance
3. high compression strength 4. low fracture toughness
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) I and 2 (b) I and 4 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4
ADS. (a)

Q.32. In turning operation, the feed could be doubled to increase the metal removal rate. To keep the same
level of surface finish, the nose radius of the tool should be
(a) halved (b) kept unchanged (c) doubled (d) made four times
ADS. (b)

Q.33. The radical force in single-point tool during turning operation varies between
(a) 0.2 to 0.4 times the main cutting force (b) 0.4 to 0.6 times the main cutting force
(c) 0.6 to 0.8 times the main cutting force (d) 0.5 to 0.6 times the main cutting force
Ans. (a)
Q.34. Match List-I (Drill bits) with List-II (Applications) and select the correct answer using the codes
given below the Lists:
List-[ List-II
A. Core drill To enlarge a hole to a certain depth so as to ac-
commodate the bolt head of a screw
To drill and enlarge an already existing hole in a
casting
C. Counterbore drill To drill a hole before making internal thread
D. Tap drill To improve the surface finish and dimensional ac-
curacy of the already drilled hole
Codes:
A A
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 2 (d) 3
ADS. (c)

Q.35. Consider the following reasons:

1. Grinding wheel is soft 2. RPM of grinding wheel is too low
3. Cut is very fine 4. An improper cutting fluid is used
A grinding wheel may become loaded due to reasons stated at
(a) I and 4 (b) I and 3 (c) 2 and 4 (d) 2 and 3
ADS. (b)
Q.36. Which one of the following processes results in the best accuracy of the hole made?
(a) Drilling (b) Reaming (c) Broaching (d) Boring
Ans. (b)
Q.37. A straight teeth slab milling cutter of 100 mm diameter and 10 teeth rotating at 200 Lp.m. is used to
remove a layer of 3 mm thickness from a steel bar. If the table feed is 400 mm/minute, the feed per
tooth in this operation will be
(a) 0.2 mm (b) 0.4 mm (c) 0.5 mm (d) 0.6 mm

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~~ 1174

Ans. (a) Table feed = feed/teeth x No. of teeth x rpm

400
10 x 200 = feed per teeth = 0.2 mm.
Q.38. Consider the following processes for the manufacture of gears:
1. Casting 2. Powder metallurgy
3. Machining from bar stock 4. Closed die forging
The correct sequence in increasing order of bending strength of gear teeth is
(a) 1,2,3,4 (b) 1,2,4,3 (c) 2,1,4,3 (d) 2,1,3,4
Ans. (d)
Q.39. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
A. Die sinking 1. Abrasive jet machining
B. Deburring 2. Laser beam machining
C. Fine hole drilling (thin materials) 3. EDM
D. Cutting/sharpening hard materials 4. Ultrasonic machining
5. Electrochemical grinding
Codes:
ABC DAB C D
(a) 3 5 4 1 (b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 3 1 2 5 (d) 4 5 1 3
Ans. (a)
QAO. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
A. Drawing 1. Soap solution
B. Rolling 2. Camber
C. Wire drawing 3. Pilots
D. Sheet metal operations using progressive dies 4. Crater
5. Ironing
Codes:
ABC DAB C D
(a) 2 5 1 4 (b) 4 1 5 3
(e) 5 2 3 4 (d) 5 2 I 3
Ans. (d)
QAl. In solidification of metal during casting, compensation for solid contraction is
(a) provided by the oversize pattern (b) achieved by properly placed risers
(e) obtained hy promoting directional solidification
(d) made by providing chills
Ans. (a)
QA2. The correct sequence of the given materials in ascending order of their weldability is
(a) MS, copper, cast iron, aluminium (b) cast iron, MS, aluminium copper
(e) copper, cast iron, MS, aluminium (d) aluminium, copper, cast iron, MS
Ans. (a)
Q.43. Consider the following statements:
Earing in a drawn cup can be due to non-uniform
1. speed of the press 2. clearance between tools
3. material properties 4. blank holding
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (e) 1,3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4
Ans. (d)

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Q.44. Consider the following operations involved in forging a hexagonal bolt from a round bar stock, whose
diameter is equal to the bolt diameter:
1. Flattening 2. Upsetting 3. Swaging 4. Cambering
The correct sequence of these operations is
(a) 1,2,3,4 (b) 2,3,4,1 (c) 2,1,3,4 (d) 3,2,1,4
ADS. (a)

Q.45. Which one of the followmg is the correct temperature range for hot extrusion of aluminium?
(a) 300-340°C (b) 350-400°C (c) 430-480°C (d) 550-650°C
ADS. (b)
Q.46. Consider the following statements regarding reaming process:
1. Reaming generally produces a hole larger than its own diameter
2. Generally rake angles are hot provided on reamers.
3. Even numbers of teeth are preferred in reamer design.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1,2 and 3
ADS. (b)
Q.47. A 60-teeth gear when hobbed on a differential hobber with a two-start hob, the index change gear
ratio is governed by which one of the following kinematic balance equations?
(a) 1 revolution of gear blank = 1/60 of hob revoLt;ons
(b) 1 revolution of gear blank = 2/60 of hob revolutions
(c) 1 revolution of hob = 2/60 of blank revolutions
(d) 1 revolution of hob = 1/60 of blank revolutions
ADS. (c)

Q.48. Consider the following components:

1. A dedicated computer 2. Bulk memory 3. Telecommunication lines
Which of these components are required for a DNC system?
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 1,2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3
Ans. (c)
Q.49. Transfer machines can be defined as
(a) material processing machines (b) materia! handling machines
(c) material processing and material handling machines
(d) component feeders for automatic assembly
ADS. (b)

Q.50. Consider the following statements regarding numerically controlled machine tools:
1. They reduce non-productive time. 2. They reduce fixturing.
3. They reduce maintenance cost.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1,2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3
ADS. (b)
Q.51. Diamond pin location is used in a fixture because
(a) it does not wear out
(b) it takes care of any variation in centre distance between two holes
(c) it is easy to clamp the part on diamond pins (d) it is easy to manufacture
ADS. (h)

Q.52. The correct sequence of the given processes in manufacturing by powder metallurgy is
(a) blending, compacting, sintering and sizing (h) blending, compacting, sizing and sintering
(c) compacting, sizing, blending and sintering (d) compacting, blending, sizing and sintering
ADS. (a)

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Q.S3. The standard time of an operation has been calculated as 10 min. The worker was rated at 80%. If the
relaxation and other allowances were 25%, then the observed time would be
(a) 12.5 min (b) 10 min (c) 8 min (d) 6.5 min
. . Allowances 10x1.25 .
Ans. (b) Observed time = Std. time x-------= ---=10 mm.
Rating of worker .8

Q.S4. MTM is a work measurement technique by

(a) stopwatch study (b) work sampling study
(c) pre-determined motion time systems (d) past data comparison
Ans. (c) MTM (Methods-time measurement) is based on use of standard time for work elements that have
been predetermiined from long periods of observation and analysis.

Q.SS. Given that

E = Earning in time Td Ta = Actual time of work
T, = Standard time set to complete the task, R = Rate per unit time
R
if E = RTa + 2" (Ts - Ta), then the graph between bonus earned and time saved is a
(a) straight line (b) convex curve (c) concave curve (d) parabola
Ans. (a)
Q.S6. A process of discovering and identifying the pertinent information relating to the nature of a specific
job is called
(a) job identification (b) job description (c) job analysis (d) job classification

Ans. (b)
Q.57. The type oflayout suitable for use of the concept, principles and approaches of 'group technology' is
(a) product layout (b) job-shop layout (c) fixed position layout (d) cellular layout

Ans. (a)
Q.58. A manufacturer's master product schedule of a product is given below:
Period Planned Week-l Week-2 Week-3
Planned Production: 50 100 100
Week-4 Week-5 Week-6
100 150 50
Each product requires a purchased component A in its sub-assembly. Before the start of week-I, there
are 400 components of type A in stock. The lead time to procure this component is 2 weeks and the
order quantity is 400. Number of components A per product is only one. The manufacturer should
place the order for
(a) 400 components in week-l (b) 400 components in week-3
(c) 200 components in week-l and 200 components in week-3
(d) 400 components in week-5
Ans. (b)
Q.S9. Consider the following costs:
1. Cost of inspection and return of goods 2. Cost of obsolescence
3. Cost of scrap 4. Cost of insurance
5. Cost of negotiation with suppliers
Which of these costs are related to inventory carrying cost?
(a) 1,2and3 (b) 1,3and4 (c) 2,3and4

Ans. (d)
Q.60. An operations consultant for an automatic car wash wishes to plan for enough capacity to handle 60
cars per hour. Each car will have a wash time of 2 minutes, but there is to be a 20 per cent allowance

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for setup time, delays and payment transactions. The installation capacity of car wash stalls should be
(a) 3 (h) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6
Ans. (a)
Q.61. A company intends to use exponential smoothing technique for making a forecast for one of its
products. The previous year's forecast has been 78 units and the actual demand for the corresponding
period turned out to be 73 units. If the value of the smoothening constant a. is 0.2, the. forecast for the
next period will be
(a) 73 units (h) 75 units (c) 77 units (d) 78 units
Ans. (c) New forecast = Old forecast + a. (actual- old forecast) = 78 + 0.2 (73 - 78) = 77
Q.62. Which one of the following statements is correct in relation to production, planning and control?
(a) Expediting initiates the execution of production plans, whereas dispatching maintains them and
sees them through to their successful completion
(h) Dispatching initiates the execution of production plans, whereas expediting maintains them and
sees them through to their successful completion
(c) Both dispatching and expediting initiate the execution of production plans
(d) Both dispatching and expediting maintain the production plans and see them through to their
successful completion
ADs. (h)
Q.63. In a transportation problem North-West corner rule would yield
(a) an optimum solution (h) an initial feasible solution
(c) a Vogel's approximate solution (d) a minimum cost solution
Ans. (h)
Q.64. In the solution of a linear programming problem by Simplex method, if during an iteration, all ratios
of right-hand side hi to the coefficients of entering variable a are found to be negative, it implies that
the problem has
(a) infinite number of solutions (h) infeasible solution
(c) degeneracy (d) unbound solution
Ans. (h)
Q.65. Consider the following statements regarding the characteristics of the standard form of a linear pro-
gramming problem:
1. All the constraints are expressed in the form of equations.
2. The right-hand side of each constraint equation is non-negative.
3. All the decision variables are non-negative.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1,2 and 3 (h) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3
ADS. (a)

Q.66. The average time between two arrivals of customers at a counter in.a {eadymade garment store is 4
min. The average time of the counter clerk to serve the customer is 3 min. The arrivals are distributed
as per Poisson distribution and the services are as per the exponential distribution. The probability that
a customer arriving at the counter will have to wait, is
(a) zero (h) 0.25 (c) 0.50 (d) 0.75

"- IS 3 "-
ADS. (d) Utilisation parameter = 11 = 20 = 4 ' Probability that system is idle = 1- ~ = 0.25
Probability that a customer has to wait = 0.75.
Q.67. Time estimates of an activity in a PERT network are:
Optimistic time tl) = 9 days; pessimistic time tp = 2 I days and most likely • time t , = 15 days. The

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/~
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1178 OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

approximates probability of completion of this activity in 13 days is

(a) 16% (b) 34% (c) 50%

. to+4t,+tp 9+4xI5+21 15 d
Expected time = 6 = 6 = ays

tp -to 21-9
(J = --=--=2
6 6

15
Days
Probability of completing in 13 days is shaded area = 50% - Area for 1(J = 50 - 34 = 16%.
Q.68. Which one of the following statements is not corrected in respect of dBase III plus?
(a) CREATE c0mmand is used for creating a new database file.
(b) The structure of the database file to be created, can be decided by the user.
(c) The structure of an existing datahase file, can be altered by 'CHANGE STRUCTURE' command.
(d) The package does not have facility for drawing graphs, curves, etc.
Ans. (c)
Q.69. Consider the following flow chart :

x=x
"2
z=z+x

If the values of inputs are X = 20, Y = 6 and Z = 0, then the value of output Z will be
(a) 35 (b) 25 (c) 15 (d) 5
Ans. (c)
Q.70. A dealer sells a radio set at Rs. 900 and makes 80% profit on his investment. Ifhe can sell it at Rs. 200
more, his profit as percentage of investment will be
(a) 160 (b) 180 (c) 100 (d) 120
Ans. (d)

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~<] -II:
1179

Directions :
The following 15 (fifteen) items consist of two statements, one labelled the 'Assertion A' and the other
labelled the 'Reason R '. You are to examine these two statements carefully and decide if the AssertiOn A and
the Reason R are individually true and if so, whether the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
Select your answers to these items using the codes given below and mark your answer sheet accordingly.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Q.71. Assertion (A) : It is possible to have more than one break-even point in break even charts.
Reason (R) : All variable costs are directly variable with production.
ADS. (d)

Q.72. Assertion (A) : In case of control charts for variables, if some points fall outside the control limits, it is
concluded that the process is not under control.
Reason (R) : It was experimentally proved by Shew hart that averages ot tour or more const;cutIve
readings from a universe (population) or from a process, when plotted, will form a normal distribution
curve.
ADS. (a)

Q.73. Assertion (A) : In atomization process of manufacture of metal powder, the molten metal IS forced
through a small orifice and broken up by a stream of compressed air.
Reason (R) : The metallic powder obtained by atomization process is quite resistant to oxidation.
ADS. (b)

Q.74. Assertion (A) : Spherical washers are used to locate the job in the fixtures.
Reason (R) : 3-2-1 principle should be adopted to locate the job.
ADS. (d)

Q.7S. Assertion (A) : In a two high rolling mill there is a limit to the possible reduction in thickness in one pass.
Reason (R) : The reduction possible in the second pass is less than that in the first pass.
ADS. (b)

Q.76. Assertion (A) : In sheet metal blanking operation, clearance must be given to the die.
Reason (R) : The blank should be of required dimensions.
ADS. (d)

Q.77. Assertion (A) : A long column of square cross section has greater buckling stability than a similar
column of circular cross-section of same length, same material and same area of cross-section with
same end conditions.
Reason (R) :A circular cross-section has a smaller second moment of area than a square cros~-section
of same area.
ADS. (a)

Q.78. Assertion (A) : In a composite shaft having two concentric shafts of different materials, the torque
shared by each shaft is directly proportional to its polar moment of inertia.
Reason (R) : In a composite shaft having concentric shafts of different materials, the angle of twist for
each shaft depends upon its polar moment of inertia.
ADS. (c)

Q.79. Assertion (A) : Specimens for impact testing are never notched.
Reason (R) :A notch introduces triaxial tensile stresses which cause brittle fracture.
ADS. (d)

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/~
~¢j 1180
Q.80. Assertion (A) : Carbon forms interstitial solid solution when added to iron.
Reason (R) : The atomic radius of carbon atom is much smaller than that of iron.
Ans. (a)
Q.81. Consider the given figure:

I
Th
______
~----1---
I
I
I

:w
Assertion (A) : In order to have the same equilibrium speed for the given values of w, Wand h, the
masses of balls used in the Proell governor are less than those of balls used in the Porter governor.
Reason (R) : The ball is fixed to an extension link in Proell governor.
Ans. (a)
QJi2. Assertion (A) : In locomotive engines, the reciprocating masses are only partially balanced.
Reason (R) : Full balancing might lead to lifting the locomotive engine off the rails.
Ans. (a)
Q.83. Assertion (A) : Shafts supporting helical gears must have only deep groove ball-bearings.
Reason (R) : Helical gears produce axial thrusts.
Ans. (a)
Q.84. Assertion (A) : In pulley design of flat belt drive, the cross-sections of arms are made elliptical with
major axis lying in the plane of rotation.
Reason (R) : Arms of a pulley in belt drive are subjected to torsional shear stresses and are designed
for torsion.
Ans. (c)
Q.85. Assertion (A) : In lifts, wire ropes are preferred over solid steel rods of same diameter.
Reason (R) : Wire ropes are more flexible than steel rods and also provide plenty of time for remedial
action before failure.
Ans. (a)
Q.86. The diameter of tommy bar for a screw jack is designed for
(a) bending moment due to effort applied
(b) torque on the tommy bar due to effort applied
(c) a percentage of axial loads
(d) some axial loads coupled with transverse loads
Ans. (a)

Q.87. Centrifugal tension in belts is

(a) useful because it maintains some tension even when no power is transmitted
(b) not harmful because it dQes not take part in power transmission
(c) harmful because it increases belt tension and reduces the power transmitted
(d) a hypothetical phenomenon and does not actually exist in belts
Ans. (c)
Q.88. In a single reduction, a large velocity ratio is required. The best transmission is
(a) spu~ gear drive (b) helical gear drive (c) bevel gear drive (d) worm gear drive

Ans. (a)

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99-It
1181

Q.89. Which one of the folIowing belts should not be used above 40°C?
(a) Balata belt (b) Rubber belt (c) Fabrrc belt (d) Synthetic belt
Ans. (b)
Q.90. For obtaining the maximum shear stress induced in the shaft shown in the given figure, the torque
should be equal to

(b) WI + T

(c) [(wI)' +("2L H r

(d) [{WI + w~' +T,]J
ADs. (d)
Q.91. A certain minimum number of teeth is to be kept for a gear wheel
(a) so that the gear is of a good size (b) for better durability
(c) to avoid interference and undercutting (d) for better strength
ADs. (c)
Q.92. In a single row deep groove balI-bearing, cages are needed to
(a) separate the two races
(b) separate the balIs from the inner race
(c) separate the outer race from the balls
(d) ensure that the balIs do not cluster at one point and maintain proper relative angular positions.
ADs. (d)
Q.93. Which one of the following types of bearings is employed in shafts of gearboxes of automobiles ,)
(a) Hydrodynamic journal bearings
(b) Multi-lobed journal bearings
(c) Antifriction bearings
(d) Hybrid journal bearings
Ans. (c)
Q.94. A hole is to be punched in a 15 mm thick plate having an ultimate shear strength of 3N-mm-2. If the
alIowable crushing stress in the punch is 6 N-mm-z, the diameter of the smallest hole which can be
punched is equal to
(a) 15 mm (b) 30 mm
(c) 60 mm (d) 120 mm

Ans. (b) Min. dia. = 41 ;~ = 4x20x ~ = 30

Q.95. A column of square section 40 mm x 40 mm, fixed to the ground carries an eccentric load P of
1600 N as shown in the figure.

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,..f-.
~ /'
-1' 1182

If the stress developed along the edge CD is -1.2 N/mm2, the stress along the edge AB will be
(a) -1.2 N/mm2 (b) +1 N/mm2 (c) +0.8 N/mm2 (d) -0.8 N/mm2

P( 6e ) 1600 ( 6e ) 6e
ADS. (d) Compressive stress at cn = 1.2 N/mm2 =A 1+ b = 1600 1+ 20 ' or 20 = 0.2

1600 () 2' 2
:. Stress at AB = 1600 1-0.2 = 0.8 N/mm (compressIve) =- 0.8 N/mm .

Q.96. Cast iron is used for machine beds because of its high
(a) tensile strength (b) endurance strength
(c) damping capacity (d) compressive strength
ADS. (d)
Q.97. If a compression coil spring is cut into two equal parts and the parts are then used in parallel, the ratio
of the spring rate to its initial value will be
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 4 (d) indeterminable for want of sufficient data
ADS. (c) When a spring is cut into two, no. of coils gets halved.
:. Stiffness of each half gets doubled.
When these are connected in parallel, stiffness = 25 + 25 = 45.
Q.98. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-J List-II
A. 4 links, 4 turning pairs I. Complete constraint
B. 3 links, 3 turning pairs 2. Successful constraint
C. 5 links, 5 turning pairs 3. Rigid frame
D. Footstep bearing 4. Incomplete constraint
Codes:
ABC DAB C D
(a) 3 I 4 2 (b) I 3 2 4
(c) 3 I 2 4 (d) I 3 4 2

ADs. (d) 4 links and 4 turning pairs satisfies the equation L = 3. (j + 2)

3
:. It is case of complete constraint.
3 links and 3 turning pairs form rigid frame. Foot step bearing results in successful constraint and
5 links and 5 turning pairs provides incomplete constraint.

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Q.99. The relative acceleration of two points which are at variable distance apart on a moving link can be
determined by using the
(a) three centres in line theorem (b) instantaneous centre of rotation method
(c) Coriolis component of acceleration method (d) Klein's construction
Ans. (b) The relative acceleration of two variable points on a moving link can be determined by using the
instantaneous centre of rotation method.
Q.I00. Consider a four-bar mechanism shown in the given figure.
The driving link DA is rotating uniformly at a speed of 100
r.p.m. clockwise.
The velocity of A will be
(a) 300 cm/s
(b) 314 cm/s
(c) 325 cm/s
(d) 400 cmls

Ans. (b) Velocity of A = OOr = 21txl00 x30 = 314 cm/s

60
Q.I01. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
(a) Governors ... Interference (b) Gears Hunting
(c) Klein's construction .... Acceleration ofpistvn (d) Cam Pinion
Ans. (c)
Q.I02. The primary disturbing force due to inertia of reciprocating parts of mass m at radius r moving with an
angular velocity oo is given by

(a) mar r sin 8 (c) mOO2 r .

SIn
(28)
~- (d) mOO2 r cos (28)
~n-

Ans. (b)
Q.I03. A linkAB is subjected to a force F (~) at a point P perpendicular to the link
at a distance a from the CG as shown in the figure.
This will result in
(a) an inertia force F (~) through the CG and no inertia torque

(b) all inertia force F'a C:» and no inertia force

(c) both inertia force F (~) through the CG and inertia torque Fa C:»
(d) both inertia force F (~) through the CG and inertia torque Fa (c:-)
Ans. (c) Apply two equal and opposite forces Fat CG. Thus inertia force F (~)
acts at CG and inertia torque Fa (:»
Q.I04. Consider the following statements:
1°
A pinion of 14 pressure angle and 48 involute teeth has a pitch circle diameter of28.8 cm. It has
2
1. module of 6 mm 2. cir~ular pitch of 18 mm
11
4. diametral pitch of 113
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3

d 288
Ans. (b) Module = - = - = 6mm
T 48

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~~
1184
1td
Circular pitch = - = 1t X 6 = 18.84 mm (Thus 2 is not correct)
T
addendum = 1 module = 6 mm (Thus 3 is correct)
T 1
diametral pitch = -d = -6
Q.I05. For a given lift of the follower in a given angular motion of the earn, the acceleration/retardation of the
follower will be the least when the profile of the earn during the rise portion is
(a) such that the follower motion is simple harmonic
(b) such that the follower motion has a constant velocity frvm start to end
(c) a straight line, it being a tangent earn
(d) such that the follower velocity increases linearly for half the rise portion and then decreases
linearly for the remaining half of the rise portion.
ADs. (b)
Q.I06. Consider the following statements regarding the choice of conjugate teeth for the profile of mating
gears:
I. They will transmit the desired motion. 2. They are difficult to manufacture.
3. Standardisation is not possible. 4. The cost of production is low.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1,2and3 (b) 1,2and4 (c) 2,3and4 (d) 1,3and4
ADs. (a) Cost of production of conjugate teeth, being difficult to manufacture is high.
Q.I07. The motion transmitted between the teeth of two spur gears in mesh is generally
(a) sliding (b) rolling
(c) rotary (d) party sliding and partly rolling
ADS. (a)
Q.I08. In a single slider four-bar linkage, when the slider is fixed, it forms a mechanism of
(a) hand pump (b) reciprocating engine
(c) quick return (d) oscil1ating cylinder
ADS. (a)
Q.I09. Consider the following parameters:
I. Limit of peripheral speed 2. Limit of centrifugal stress
3. Coefficient of fluctuation of speed 4. Weight of the rim
Which of these parameters are used in the calculation of the diameter of fly wheel rim?
(a) 1,3and4 (b) 2,3and4 (c) 1,2and3 (d) 1,2and4
ADS. (a) Limit of centrifugal stress is not considered.

Q.110. Consider the following speed governors:

1. Porter governor 2. Hartnell governor 3. Watt governor
The correct sequence of development of these governors is
(a) 1,3,2,4 (b) 3,1,4,2 (c) 3,1,2,4
ADS. (b) Watt, Porter, Proell, Hartnell.
Q.l1l. If a two-mass system is dynamically equivalent to a rigid body. then the system will not satisfy the
condition that the
(a) sum of the two masses must be equal to that of the rigid body
(b) polar moment of inertia of the system should be equal to that of the rigid body
(c) centre of gravity (e.g.) of the system should coincide with that of the rigid body
(d) total moment of inertia about the axis through e.g. must be equal to that of the rigid body
ADS. (d) First three conditions are essential.

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99-ff
ENGINEERING SERVICES EXAMINATION - SOLVED PAPERS 1185
Q.112. A rigid shaft when laid on horizontal parallel ways will not roll if the
(a) centre of gravity falls on parallels (b) centre of gravity lies on the shaft axis
(c) horizontal moments are large (d) vertical moments are Illrge
ADS. (b)

Q.113. If the ratio of the length of connecting rod to the crank radius increases, then
(a) primary unbalanced forces will increase (b) primary unbalanced forces will decrease
(c) secondary unbalanced forces will increase (d) secondary unbalanced forces will decrease
ADS. (d) Secondary force only involves ratio of length of connecting rod and crank radius and is equal to

2 cos 29
mffi r -- . If n increases, value of secondary force will decrease.
n
Q.114. If a spring-mass-dashpot system is subjected to excitation by a constant harmonic force, then at reso-
nance, its amplitude of vibration will be
(a) infinity (b) inversely proportional to damping
(c) directly proportional to damping (d) decreasing exponentially with time
ADS. (a)

Q.115. In a forced vibration with viscous damping, maximum amplitude occurs when forced frequency is
(a) equal to natural frequency (b) slightly less than natural frequency
(c) . slightly greater than natural frequency (d) zero
ADS. (a)

Q.116. The value of the natural frequency obtained by Rayleigh's method

(a) is always greater than the actual fundamental frequency
(b) is always less than the actual fundamental frequency
(c) depends upon the initial deflection curve chose and may be greater than or less than the actual
fundamental frequency
(d) is independent of the initial deflection curve chosen
ADS. (d)
Q.l17. In a multi-rotor system of torsional vibration maximum number of nodes that can occur is
(a) two (b) equal to the number of rotor plus one
(c) eq\lal to the number of rotors (d) equal to the number of rotors minus one
ADS. (d)
Q.118. A rOlating shaft carries a flywheel which overhangs on the bearing as a cantilever. If this flywheel
weight is reduced to half of its original weight, the whirling speed will
(a) be double (b) increase by times 12
(c) decrease by 12 times (d) be half

ADS. (b) Whirling speed oc Jf

Q.119. Consider the gear train shown in the given figure and table of gears and their number of teeth.
D B

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/<:)-
cf> 1186

Gear
No. of teeth

Gears Be and DE are moulded on parallel shaft rotating together.

If the speed of A is 975 r.p.m., the speed of F will be
(a) 39 r.p.m. (b) 52 r.p.m. (c) 75 r.p.m.

NF TA X TcxTE 20x25x26 4
Ans. (b) Speed ratio N =
A
T xT xT
B D F
50x75x65 = 75

4
NF= 975x-=52 rpm
75
Q.120. Consider the following statements in respect of introduction of feedback in a control system:
I. It enhances its gain. 2. It attenuates the unwanted noise.
3. It helps in improving the accuracy of the system.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 2and3 (b) 1,2and3
Ans. (c)

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