SIMCAT8

8/25/2019 SIMCAT 8.
html
The passage below is accompanied by questions. Choose the best answer for each
question.
Things are bad, and it feels like they are getting worse, right? War, violence, natural disasters,
corruption. The rich are getting richer and the poor are getting poorer; and we will soon run out of
resources unless something drastic is done. That’s the picture most people see in the media and
carry around in their heads.
I call it the overdramatic worldview. It’s stressful and misleading. In fact, the vast majority of the
world’s population live somewhere in the middle of the income scale. Their girls go to school, their
children get vaccinated. Perhaps not on every single measure, or every single year, but step by
step, year by year, the world is improving. In the past two centuries, life expectancy has more than
doubled. Although the world faces huge challenges, we have made tremendous progress.
The overdramatic worldview draws people to the most negative answers. It is not caused simply by
out-of-date knowledge. My experience, over decades of lecturing and testing, has finally brought
me to see that the overdramatic worldview comes from the very way our brains work. The brain is
a product of millions of years of evolution, and we are hard-wired with instincts that helped our
ancestors to survive in small groups of hunters and gatherers. We crave sugar and fat, which used
to be life-saving sources of energy when food was scarce. But today these cravings make obesity
one of the biggest global health problems. In the same way, we are interested in gossip and
dramatic stories, which used to be the only source of news and useful information. This craving for
drama causes misconceptions and helps create an overdramatic worldview.
We still need these dramatic instincts to give meaning to our world. If we sifted every input and
analysed every decision rationally, a normal life would be impossible. Just as we should not cut out
all sugar and fat, we should not ask a surgeon to remove the parts of our brain that deal with
emotions. But we need to learn to control our drama intake.
Over the past 20 years, the proportion of people living in extreme poverty has almost halved. But in
online polls, in most countries, fewer than 10% of people knew this. Our instinct to notice the bad
more than the good is related to three things: the misremembering of the past; selective reporting
by journalists and activists; and the feeling that as long as things are bad, it’s heartless to say they
are getting better. For centuries, older people have romanticised their youths and insisted that
things ain’t what they used to be. Well, that’s true. Most things used to be worse. This tendency to
misremember is compounded by the never-ending negative news from across the world.
Stories about gradual improvements rarely make the front page even when they occur on a
dramatic scale and affect millions of people. And thanks to increasing press freedom and
improving technology, we hear about more disasters than ever before. This improved reporting is
itself a sign of human progress, but it creates the impression of the exact opposite. Everything is
not fine. We should still be very concerned. But it is ridiculous to look away from the progress that
has been made. When people wrongly believe that nothing is improving, they may lose confidence
in measures that actually work.
How can we help our brains to realise that things are getting better? Think of the world as a very
sick premature baby in an incubator. After a week, she is improving, but she has to stay in the
incubator because her health is still critical. Does it make sense to say that the infant’s situation is
improving? Yes. Does it make sense to say it is bad? Yes, absolutely. Does saying “things are
improving” imply that everything is fine, and we should all not worry? Not at all: it’s both bad and
better. That is how we must think about the current state of the world.
file:///C:/Users/RAY/Downloads/SIMCAT - 18/SIMCAT 8.html 1/121

8/25/2019 SIMCAT 8.html
Remember that the media and activists rely on drama to grab your attention; that negative stories
are more dramatic than positive ones; and how simple it is to construct a story of crisis from a
temporary dip pulled out of its context of a long-term improvement. When you hear about
something terrible, calm yourself by asking: if there had been a positive improvement, would I have
heard about that? Even if there had been hundreds of larger improvements, would I have heard?
This is “factfulness”: understanding as a source of mental peace. Like a healthy diet and regular
exercise, it can and should become part of people’s daily lives. Start to practise it, and you will
make better decisions, stay alert to real dangers and possibilities, and avoid being constantly
stressed about the wrong things.
1)
Which one of the following best describes what the passage is trying to convey?
It describes the overdramatic world view and its consequences for those who have this
perspective.
It highlights the negative aspects of the overdramatic worldview by comparing it with one
based on factfulness.
It argues that the overdramatic world view should be replaced by a more realistic one that
reflects reality.
It shows that the overdramatic worldview will distort perspectives and prevent the
development of a realistic outlook.
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
This is a question of medium difficulty.

Option 1 is incorrect. The passage does not merely diagnose the fallouts of the overdramatic
worldview, but also offers a counter perspective to replace it with. Reject option 1.
Option 2 is incorrect. The passage does not offer a neutral ‘highlighting’ of the negative aspects of
the overdramatic worldview – nor does he ‘compare’ it with factfulness. Reject option 2.
Option 3 is correct. The passage is aptly characterized as an argument. The writer first explains
the problems with the overdramatic worldview and ends with an exhortation to have a fact-
oriented approach, in order to have mental peace. Refer the last paragraph - 'This is “factfulness”:
understanding as a source of mental peace. Like a healthy diet and regular exercise, it can and
should become part of people’s daily lives. He argues for a point of view’. Retain option 3.
Option 4 is incorrect. It is not the intention of the passage to merely point to the dangers of the
overdramatic worldview. Reject option 4.
Correct Answer:
It argues that the overdramatic world view should be replaced by a more realistic one that reflects
reality.
Time taken by you: 403 secs

Avg Time taken by all students: 134 secs
Your Attempt: Correct
% Students got it correct: 36 %
2)
According to the passage, the overdramatic worldview is a consequence of all of the following
EXCEPT:
A lack of knowledge of the positive changes that have happened and keep happening around
the world.
An instinctive bias for sensational news that at one point in the human evolutionary cycle
would have proved a practical virtue.
A glut of negative news from journalists who rarely make improvements the subject of front
page news.
A misremembering of the past encouraged by the fact that the present seems confusing and
problematic.
Video Explanation:
Explanation:

Option 1 is incorrect. In paragraph 3, the writer states that the negative worldview “is not caused
simply by out-of-date knowledge”. Thus, lack of updated knowledge about improvements in the
world is a cause for an overdramatic worldview. Reject option 1.
Option 2 is incorrect. In paragraph 3, a fascination for gossip is said to be the evolutionary instinct
that has today led to the overdramatic worldview. Reject option 2.
Option 3 is incorrect. Negative journalism is said to aggravate the human instinct to remember the
bad over the good. Reject option 3.
Option 4 is correct. While the passage mentions misremembering as a factor leading to the
overdramatic worldview in paragraph 5 – “For centuries, older people have romanticised their
youths and insisted that things ain’t what they used to be. Well, that’s true. Most things used to be
worse. This tendency to misremember is compounded by the never-ending negative news from
across the world.” – it does not state anywhere that misremembering is “encouraged by the fact
that the present seems confusing and problematic”.
Thus the correct answer is option 4.
Correct Answer:
A misremembering of the past encouraged by the fact that the present seems confusing and
problematic.

Your Attempt: Wrong
3)
The fact of increased press freedom and improved technology (paragraph 6) has been used to
argue that:
Journalists are likely to stress on the negative aspects of any news and to diminish the
positive aspects of any news.
The past was a much more difficult place than people tend to remember it as.
The positive changes themselves become tools of spreading dramatic perspectives.
The use of drama to grab the attention of readers is not a recent technique but has been
aggravated by technological improvements.
Video Explanation:

Explanation:
This is a difficult question.

Option 1 is incorrect. It is not press freedom or improved technology which is said to lead to the
sensationalizing of news by stressing on the negative aspects. Reject option 1.
Option 2 is incorrect. Improved technology and freedom in reporting is not said to lead to people
evaluating the past as a better place. Reject option 2.
Option 3 is correct. Refer paragraph 6 – “And thanks to increasing press freedom and improving
technology, we hear about more disasters than ever before. This improved reporting is itself a sign
of human progress, but it creates the impression of the exact opposite.” He later suggests that
one should ask – “Even if there had been hundreds of larger improvements, would I have heard?”
Thus, the improved reporting, a positive change, is said to become a tool for spreading further
dramatic perspectives. Retain option 3.
Option 4 is incorrect. The passage has not used the fact of improved reporting to argue that
drama has been aggravated by technological improvements. Reject option 4.
Correct Answer:
The positive changes themselves become tools of spreading dramatic perspectives.

Your Attempt: Wrong
4)
In paragraph 7, the author uses the example of the baby in the incubator to argue that:
Gradual changes are generally unnoticed by media and people; hence, the overdramatic
worldview that nothing is improving is incorrect.
Weaving a story around facts is not as attractive to people as is the dramatizing of situations
based on half-truths.
Just because a situation is mending, it does not mean it is not terrible.
The picture of reality that people carry around in their heads is derived from a bias for the
negative.
Video Explanation:
Explanation:

Option 1 is correct. Refer paragraph 7. The baby in the incubator is said to be recuperating but not
yet out of danger. “Does it make sense to say that the infant’s situation is improving? Yes. Does it
make sense tosay it is bad? Yes, absolutely. Does saying “things are improving” imply that
everything is fine, and we should all not worry? Not at all: it’s both bad and better. That is how we
must think about the current state of the world.” The writer uses the analogy to make the broader
point that media reports worsen the instinctive bias for negative news in people. Retain option 1.
Option 2 is incorrect. The analogy of the baby in the incubator is not related to the notion of facts
not being attractive enough to people. Reject option 2.
Option 3 is incorrect. The analogy states the reverse of this – that even if things are terrible they
are mending. Reject option 3.
Option 4 is incorrect. The example of the baby is not related to any image of reality derived from
the negative bias. Rather, it is about how the undeniable negativity of a situation can hide a trend

of improvement. Reject option 4.

Correct Answer:
Gradual changes are generally unnoticed by media and people; hence, the overdramatic
worldview that nothing is improving is incorrect.

5)
Why does the writer say in the last paragraph, “stay alert to real dangers and possibilities”?
Because the overdramatic worldview diminishes the risk perception of a person who suffers
from it.
Because being overwhelmed by negative news is a natural consequence of having the
overdramatic worldview.
Because, having seen the consequences of having a negative worldview, the writer is aware
of the ways in which it undermines mental health.
Because the writer feels that though the world may not be as bad as it is made out to be, it
may not also be so safe that one be unworried.
Video Explanation:
Explanation:

Option 1 is incorrect. The risk perception of the individual becomes biased even for dramatic news
that may not even affect the individual directly – i.e., the risk perception of a person is actually
exaggerated rather than diminished. Reject option 1.
Option 2 is incorrect. This option also does not provide a coherent reason behind the advice to
stay alert to real dangers. Reject option 2.
Option 3 is incorrect. A negative world view is not said to affect ‘mental health’. This is a dramatic
and unjustified leap to make for conclusion. Reject option 3.
Option 4 is correct. The writer suggests factfulness as a countermeasure to the exaggerated and
misleading negative worldview. Refer the last paragraph – “This is “factfulness”: understanding as
a source of mental peace. ….Start to practise it, and you will make better decisions, stay alert to
real dangers and possibilities, and avoid being constantly stressed about the wrong things.” Thus,
the writer believes that the overdramatic world view compromises or vitiates the ability to process
information correctly and leads to making one ‘constantly stressed about the wrong things’.
However, the opposite of that worldview is not the answer. The answer lies in factfulness or in not
being excessively negative about the world, but remaining alert to real dangers at the same time.
Retain option 4.
Correct Answer:
Because the writer feels that though the world may not be as bad as it is made out to be, it may
not also be so safe that one be unworried.


6)
Which of the following best sums up the author’s position on the place of emotions in human life?
Emotions are the product of millions of years of evolution and are hardwired as instincts in
humans.
Emotions are a necessary source of meaning in human life and need to be managed
intelligently.
A mind, used to an emotional understanding of situations will be less likely to grasp the
consequences of negative bias in perception.
Evolutionarily, there is a tendency to exaggerate the emotional aspects of any story in the
human mind and this leads to a negative bias.
Video Explanation:
Explanation:

Option 1 is incorrect. The passage does not state that emotions are the same as instincts, let
alone that they are ‘hardwired’ to be thus. Reject option 1.
Option 2 is correct. Refer paragraph 4 – “We still need these dramatic instincts to give meaning to
our world. If we sifted every input and analysed every decision rationally, a normal life would be
impossible. Just as we should not cut out all sugar and fat, we should not ask a surgeon to
remove the parts of our brain that deal with emotions. But we need to learn to control our drama
intake.” Thus emotions or dramatic instincts are said to give meaning and are, therefore, a
necessary aspect of life. Retain option 2.
Option 3 is incorrect. The passage does not relate the overdramatic worldview to an ‘emotional
understanding’, nor does he suggest that emotions lessen the ability to understand the
consequence of negative bias in perception. Reject option 3.
Option 4 is incorrect. That there exists a tendency to ‘exaggerate’ the emotional aspect of a story
is not suggested in the passage. The passage instead talks about a tendency to focus on the
negative aspects of a story, which then leads to the clouding of the perception of the positive
aspects of it. Reject option 4.
Correct Answer:
Emotions are a necessary source of meaning in human life and need to be managed intelligently.

undefined
undefined

question.
Neutrinos are among the most abundant particles in the universe. They are also incredibly difficult
to detect. In fact, they are so elusive that physicists all over the world can’t stop obsessing about
them. In the past year, two experiments have returned the first results that show the obsession is
far from over—and that the projects don’t need to be big to be scientifically mighty.
Neutrinos are subatomic particles that are very similar to electrons, but they don’t have an
electrical charge. Their mass is so small that scientists speculate it might even be zero. They also
don’t interact much with matter, which is what makes them so difficult to detect.
This all might make you wonder: Why are scientists looking for neutrinos, anyway? In short, it’s
because they hold clues about the events and processes that created them—events that
researchers are slowly trying to piece together.
“Neutrinos tell us a tremendous amount about how the universe is created and held together.
There’s no other way to answer a lot of the questions that we find ourselves having,” Nathaniel
Bowden, a scientist at the DOE’s Lawrence Livermore National Laboratory, told NewsWise.
Experts have compared the search for these particles to the work of archaeologists to reconstruct
prehistoric artifacts in order to understand what life was like then. Better understanding of neutrinos
could unlock secrets about other elements of astronomy and physics, from dark matter to the
expansion of the universe.
So scientists are convinced it’s worth studying neutrinos, and they’re willing to invest in large-scale
projects to better understand them. The COHERENT experiment at the Oak Ridge National
Laboratory, for example, contains five particle detectors, each about the size of a milk jug,
designed to directly observe the highly specific interaction between neutrinos and atomic nuclei. Its
sister experiment, PROSPECT, takes more precise measurements of the neutrinos COHERENT
detects.
Other, larger experiments in places like the South Pole use enormous machines and systems to
catch traces of these mysterious particles. And though these projects make up the world’s smallest
neutrino detector, they have already made some important discoveries. Last year, the researchers
behind the two projects published a study in Science about interactions between two neutrinos that
had been hypothesized decades before but never observed, according to a press release.
We don’t know how much these experiments cost, but you might be tempted to say that whatever
money was spent on them should be allocated towards something more directly relevant to human
lives, such advancing medicine or fighting climate change.
Neutrinos might not have the same headline potential of a new cancer treatment. But
understanding them is the key to our understanding of the universe. Neutrinos could help us
identify other forces in the universe that we have not yet been able to detect or understand. They
can teach us about the core of the densest stars, and could one day lead to the discovery of new
astrophysical objects. If we can understand neutrinos, maybe we could answer some of the most
essential questions in physics—at the heart of our very existence.
1)
All of the following statements about neutrinos can be inferred from the passage EXCEPT:
They are electrically neutral particles inside the atom.

They are massless particles that are incredibly difficult to detect.
They can be used to detect conditions at the core of the Sun.
They interact weakly with other particles and fields.
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
This is a question of medium difficulty level.
Option 1 is incorrect. The second paragraph states that“neutrinos are subatomic particles that are
very similar to electrons, but they don’t have an electrical charge.” Thus this option is inferable
and, therefore, not an exception. Eliminate option 1.
Option 3 is incorrect. The last paragraph states that “they can teach us about the core of the
densest stars ...” Now, since Sun is also a star, we can conclude that neutrinos can be used to
study and detect conditions at the core of the Sun. Eliminate option 3.
Option 4 is incorrect. Paragraph 2 states that “they also don’t interact much with matter ...” Thus,
we can conclude that neutrinos interact very weakly with matter, i.e. other particles and fields. We
can eliminate option 4.
Option 2 is correct. Paragraph 2 states that “their mass is so small that scientists speculate it
might even be zero. They also don’t interact much with matter, which is what makes them so
difficult to detect.” From these statements, we cannot deduce that neutrinos are massless.
Scientists only “speculate” that their mass may be zero. Though the second part of this option,
i.e. “[they] are difficult to detect” is correct, we cannot infer the first part.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.
Correct Answer:
They are massless particles that are incredibly difficult to detect.

2)
Which of the following best sums up the research done by the COHERENT and PROSPECT
experiments?
They proved the neutrino interaction process predicted by theorists.

They proved that projects don’t need to be big to be scientifically significant.
They proved that neutrinos can be used in a new cancer treatment.
They detected the existence of neutrinos with precise measurements.
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
This is a medium difficulty question.

Option 1 is correct. The 3rd last paragraph states that “and though these projects make up the
world’s smallest neutrino detector, they have already made some important discoveries. Last year,
the researchers behind the two projects published a study in Science about interactions between
two neutrinos that had been hypothesized decades before but never observed....” Thus, these
experiments proved the theory about the interaction between neutrinos, that was proposed by
scientists decades before though it was never observed before. Option 1 correctly sums up the
research done by the COHERENT and PROSPECT experiments. So, option 1 answers the
question.
Option 2 is incorrect. COHERENT and PROSPECT are projects that aimed to prove the theory
proposed by scientists, about the interaction between neutrinos, which, as the passage describes,
is an obsession in science. The size is irrelevant here. Eliminate option 2.
Option 3 is incorrect. The last paragraph states that “neutrinos might not have the same headline
potential of a new cancer treatment. But understanding them is the key to our understanding of
the universe.” The author does not make any suggestion about the use of neutrinos in cancer
treatment. Eliminate option 3.
Option 4 is incorrect. According to 3rd last paragraph, the experiments proved the theory about the
interaction between two neutrinos. They did not aim to detect the existence of neutrinos with
precise measurements. Eliminate option 4.
Correct Answer:
They proved the neutrino interaction process predicted by theorists.

Your Attempt: Wrong
3)
According to the passage, all of the following are potential benefits of the research conducted on
neutrinos EXCEPT:
The research could help identify new objects and phenomena in the universe.
The research could reveal why and how the universe expands.
The research could help scientists understand the creation of the universe and dark matter.
The research could eventually help more important issues such as the need for advancing
medicine.
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
This is an easy question.
Option 1 is incorrect. The last paragraph states that“They ... could one day lead to the discovery
of new astrophysical objects.” Thus, neutrinos could help us identify new objects and phenomena
in the universe. This is a benefit, which is stated in the passage, and is not an exception. So,
eliminate option 1.

Option 2 is incorrect. Paragraph 5 states how “neutrinos could unlock secrets about other
elements of astronomy and physics, from dark matter to the expansion of the universe.” Thus,
according to the passage, we can understand the expansion of the universe by studying
neutrinos. Eliminate option 2.
Option 3 is incorrect. Paragraph 4 states that “neutrinos tell us about [...] how the universe is
created...” Paragraph 5 talk about how “neutrinos could unlock secrets about [...] dark matter
...” Hence, this option states one of the benefits of neutrinos that is mentioned in the passage.
Eliminate option 3.
Option 4 is correct. The first paragraph states that the neutrinos “are so elusive that physicists all
over the world can’t stop obsessing about them.” In the last paragraph, the author states
that “neutrinos might not have the same headline potential of a new cancer treatment. But
understanding them is the key to our understanding of the universe.” The author does not
compare the importance of advancing medicine to that of researching neutrinos. Also, the author
uses a positive tone while listing the benefits of researching neutrinos. The author does not want
to get over with the research of neutrinos and then move on to more important issues, as
suggested by this option. Thus, option 4 is not listed as a potential benefit and is the correct
answer. Retain option 4.
Correct Answer:
The research could eventually help more important issues such as the need for advancing
medicine.

undefined
Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
Time taken by you: xx secs
Avg Time taken by all students: xx secs
Your Attempt: xx secs
% Students got it correct: xx secs
undefined
undefined
question.

The concept of phatic communication debuted in “The Problem of Meaning in Primitive

Languages,” an essay appended to C.K. Ogden and I.A. Richards’s classic semiotic studyThe
Meaning of Meaning(1923). Malinowski used the occasion to champion the ethnographic study of
indigenous languages, which he believed had been poorly served by philological methods.
Fieldwork among the population of the Trobriand Islands, in the South Pacific, had revealed to
Malinowski that indigenes relied on language as a “mode of action” rather than, as philology
assumed, an “instrument of reflection.” This claim was not intended as a slight. Ethnography, as
Malinowski envisaged it, would do justice to indigenous linguistic practices by moving the problem
of meaning out of the text and into the world. The method had obvious purchase in contexts where
verbal exchanges helped speakers to achieve readily apparent practical ends. In one of the
essay’s bravura passages, Malinowski recounts the stages of a group fishing expedition,
explaining how an array of utterances was instrumental to the fishermen’s success.
But Malinowski also perceived that something was afoot in the “free, aimless, social intercourse”
floating above daytime chores and swirling around the “village fire” at night. To the untrained ear,
this verbiage would seem altogether worthless. It didn’t “inform.” It didn’t “connect people in action.”
It certainly didn’t “express thought.” Malinowski’s breakthrough was to set aside not only the words’
referential meanings but also his own focus on how languagerespondsto situations. The sheer fact
of speaking, he realized, was what mattered. These frivolous utterancescreated a situation, a warm
atmosphere, whose purpose—whose meaning—was sociability itself. In the flow of words, bonds
were formed and solidified. Here was “a new type of linguistic use...in which ties of union are
created by a mere exchange of words.” Malinowski named it “phatic communion,” drawing on the
Greek work for speech,phatos.
Ever the ethnographer, Malinowski noticed when he turned his gaze back to Europe that “modern,
civilized” people traded their own stocks of thoughtless pleasantries when making “enquiries about
health, comments on the weather, or some supremely obvious state of things.” “Phatic
communion,” he reasoned, was a timeless pursuit. Our anthropologist had hit a “bedrock aspect of
man’s nature in society”: the fundamental human desire for the “mere presence of others.” In this
universalizing move, Malinowski would seem to have paved the way for his concept’s migration
into new media. The passage of words over WhatsApp, on this reading, simply extends the
purview of Malinowski’s findings.
1)
Which of the following best explains the meaning of “phatic communication” asused in the
passage?
meaningless speech that establishes a communion through the very act of speaking
speech that is made up purely of symbols rather than any actual meaning
utterances that create a communion by virtue of their frivolity
the act of speaking itself creating a bond, the content of the words notwithstanding
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
The term phatic communication occurs in the first sentence: “The concept of phatic
communication debuted in (the collection of essays called) ’The Problem of Meaning in Primitive
Languages’”. After that, the essay uses the term ‘phatic communion’ rather than phatic
communication, and equates both. In other words, the term “phatic communication” is used to
refer to “phatic communion”.
The word communion implies an act of sharing, or an intimate fellowship or rapport. “Communion
with nature” or “communion with wilderness” brings out the meaning of communion well.
Communion is a relationship, rather than verbal communication alone.
We can now see that option 1 is incorrect since the passage never says that phatic
communication is meaningless — it is called free, aimless, frivolous and worthless, but not
meaningless.
Option 2 is incorrect since the passage does not refer to symbols anywhere.
Option 3 is incorrect since it is incorrect to say that phatic communication creates communion
through its frivolity, when, in fact, the passage says that it creates communion despite its frivolity.
Option 4 best captures the meaning of the term phatic communication. It is not in the meaning or
content of specific words but in their outcome that the act of speaking itself creates a bond.
Hence the correct answer is option 4.
Correct Answer:
the act of speaking itself creating a bond, the content of the words notwithstanding

Your Attempt: Skipped
2)
In the context of thepassage, the word “purchase” as used in the first paragraph is the closest in
meaning to which of the following?
exchange value
usefulness
bargaining power
monetary value
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
This is an easy question
One of the meanings of the word ‘purchase’ when used as noun is “means of applying or
increasing power, influence, or advantage”.
The context in which it occurs in the essay makes the meaning amply clear as well. The sentence
reads: “The method had obvious purchase in contexts where verbal exchanges helped speakers
to achieve readily apparent practical ends. In one of the essay’s bravura passages, Malinowski
recounts the stages of a group fishing expedition, explaining how an array of utterances was
instrumental to the fishermen’s success.” The word “instrumental” in the next sentence explains
the meaning of purchase in the previous sentence.
Options 1, 3 and 4 are the meaning of purchase in its more common use. We can eliminate them
easily.
Correct Answer:
usefulness


3)
The passage suggests that Malinowski would agree with all of the following as the functions of
phatic communication EXCEPT:
completing a group activity

creating a feeling of fraternity
fostering shared beliefs
catering to the human need for company
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
This is an “EXCEPT” question of medium difficulty.
Option 1 is not an exception. At the end of the first paragraph, to demonstrate the functions of
phatic communication, the writer refers to how “Malinowski recounts the stages of a group fishing
expedition, explaining how an array of utterances was instrumental to the fishermen’s success.”
Option 1 is, thus, a function of phatic communication. Eliminate option 1.
Option 2 can be found in the second paragraph. The word fraternity means: friendship and mutual
support within a group. Verbiage, found “floating above daytime chores and swirling around the
“village fire” at night,” which might appears worthless to a modern day observer was said to
“create a situation… a warm atmosphere … was sociability itself.” Hence option 2 is not an
exception. Eliminate option 2.
The last paragraph helps to eliminate option 4. Malinowski observes that the “bedrock aspect of
man’s nature … is a desire for the mere presence of others” Option 4 states this idea as ‘catering
to the human need for company. So eliminate option 4.
Option 3 is the exception that we are looking for, because fostering shared beliefs involves the
communication of ideas and concepts – such a function of phatic communication runs counter to
the definition of phatic communication as outlined by Malinowski.
Correct Answer:
fostering shared beliefs

4)
It can be inferred from the passage that the author believes that communication over media, such
as WhatsApp,…
is in no way different from trivial indigenous utterances.

is analogous in their functions to those of phatic communication.
caters to the core human need to feel the presence of others.
is as frivolous as the pleasantries exchanged in modern civilized societies.
Video Explanation:
Explanation:

The concluding sentence of the passage explains that, seen from the point of view of phatic
communication, as outlined by Malinowski, the exchange of words over WhatsApp is a
manifestation of a fundamental human desire— the desire for the mere presence of others.
Option 1 is incorrect, since there is no ground to infer that the author thinks that communication
over WhatsApp is trivial. On the contrary, the author believes that WhatsApp messages fulfill the
fundamental human need for company. Eliminate option 1.
Option 2 is incorrect. The author does not go into the details of the functions of media, such as
WhatsApp, by comparing them with the functions of phatic communication. So, option 2 is beyond
the scope of the passage. Hence eliminate option 2.
Option 4 highlights the ‘frivolousness’ of WhatsApp messages and pleasantries exchanged in

civilized societies. The author compares the two only from the point of view of Malinowski’s
concept of phatic communication, not with respect to the latter’s frivolousness. It is also similar to
option 1. Hence option 4 is incorrect.
Option 3 is correct. The author invokes communication over media like WhatsApp to show how
Malinowski’s concept of phatic communication gets universalized through the working of modern
media like Whatsapp; they reflect the fundamental human desire for the mere presence of others.
It is the author’s belief that new media cater to this core human need.
Correct Answer:
caters to the core human need to feel the presence of others.

5)
Which of the following can be inferred as the main difference between ethnographic and
philological methods of studying languages?
the former is a tool to study action while the latter is a tool to study reflection.
the former does not involve the study of language while the latter focuses solely on language.
the former yields more concrete information while the latter yields more abstract information.
the former focuses on studying societies while the latter focuses on studying languages.
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
The first paragraph states that Malinowski found the ethnographic study of languages superior to
the philological studies because, through his field work, he found that indigenes – or people native
to a region – relied on language as a mode of action. On the other hand, philological studies
treated language as an instrument for reflection. He believed that to do justice to indigenous
linguistic practices one should move the problem of meaning out of text and into the world. So, the
difference between the two methods is that ethnographic studies examine language by observing
it in the world as a tool for action and philology treats it as a tool for reflection or thought.
The option that best brings out this difference is option 4.
Option 1 is incorrect because it refers to ethnography as tool to study action. Similarly, philology is
defined as a tool to study reflection. Factually and contextually, these are incorrect descriptions.
Option 1 is a mere distractor. So eliminate option 1.
Option 2 sidetracks the question and highlights the difference between ethnography and philology
instead of the difference between the two approaches in the study of language.
Option 3 is irrelevant as the passage has no information or comparison about what the studies
yield. Hence eliminate option 3.
Correct Answer:
the former focuses on studying societies while the latter focuses on studying languages.

6)
Based on the passage, it can be inferred that the modern view of language …
is one rooted in the communication of meaning or the calling to action

is one that prizes reflection over the meeting of practical ends
is not free and aimless like that of indigenous communities
is flawed in its understanding of the linguistic uses of phatic communication
Video Explanation:
Explanation:

In the second paragraph, it is mentioned that Malinowski perceived that ’to the untrained ear, this
verbiage would seem altogether worthless. It didn’t “inform.” It didn’t “connect people in action.” It
certainly didn’t “express thought.”’This “untrained ear” represents the modern view of language,
whichis clear about what the indigenous language is NOT – it didn’t inform, connect or express
thought … Therefore, we can infer that conversely, modern view is regards language as one that
informs and connects people in action.
Hence option 1 is correct.

Option 2 is incorrect. Option 2 states the philological approach to the study of language – not
necessarily the modern view. Eliminate option 2.
Option 3 is incorrect. The words free and aimless are used in reference to describing indigenous
utterances; however, even if it is taken to be indigenes’ view of language, the passage soon goes
on to attribute some deep-running purpose to those utterances, thus contradicting the apparent
aimlessness. Also, it cannot be inferred that the modern view does not incorporate freedom and
aimlessness. Eliminate option 3.
Option 4 is incorrect since Malinowski states that phatic communication was a new type of
linguistic use unfamiliar to the modern world; he does not say that modern view is flawed; this
option would have been correct if the word ‘limited’ was used instead of ‘flawed’.
Thus, the correct answer is option 1.
Correct Answer:
is one rooted in the communication of meaning or the calling to action

undefined
Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
undefined
undefined
question.
There was a time when I saw social media naysayers as the first reviewers of Technicolor movies,
who felt the colour distracted from the story, or were like the people who walked out on Bob Dylan
at Newport folk festival for playing an electric guitar, or like those who warned that radio or TV or
video games or miniskirts, or hip-hop or selfies or fidget spinners or whatever, would lead to the
end of civilisation. But now I believe that the evidence is growing that social media can be a health
risk, particularly for young people who now have all the normal pressures of youth (fitting in,

looking good, being popular) being exploited by the multibillion-dollar companies that own the
platforms they spend much of their lives on.
Kurt Vonnegut said: “We are what we pretend to be, so we must be careful who we pretend to be.”
This seems especially true now we have reached a new stage of marketing where we are not just
consumers, but also the thing consumed. If you have friends you only ever talk to on Facebook,
your entire relationship with them is framed by commerce. When we willingly choose to become
unpaid content providers, we commercialise ourselves. And we are encouraged to be obsessed
with numbers (of followers, messages, comments, retweets, favourites), as if operating in a kind of
friend economy, an emotional stock market where the stock is ourselves and where we are
encouraged to weigh our worth against others.
Of course, humans comparing themselves to others isn’t new. But when the others are every
human on the internet, people end up comparing themselves – their looks, their relationships, their
wealth, their lives – to the carefully filtered lives of people they would never meet in the real world –
and feeling inadequate. Abuse is another serious issue. In his devastating account of online
entrepreneurs and their values, in the book Move Fast and Break Things, Jonathan Taplin talks of
social media’s “Colosseum culture” of throwing people to the lions. “Punishing strangers ought to
be a risky endeavour,” he writes. “But the anonymity of the internet shields the person who
punishes the stranger.”
To let companies shape and exploit and steal our lives, would be the ultra-conservative option.
Reading first-hand accounts by people with bulimia and anorexia who are convinced that social
media exacerbated or even triggered their illnesses, I began to realise something: this situation is
not the equivalent of Bob Dylan’s electric guitar. It is closer to the tobacco or fast-food industries,
where vested interests deny the existence of blatant problems that were not there before. To ignore
it, to let companies shape and exploit and steal our lives, would be the ultra-conservative option.
The one that says free markets have their own morality. The one that is fine entrusting our future
collective health to tech billionaires. The one that believes, totally, in free will; and that mental
health problems are either not significant, or are entirely of the individual’s making.
We are traditionally far better at realising risks to physical health than to mental health, even when
they are interrelated. If we can accept that our physical health can be shaped by society – by
second-hand smoke or a bad diet – then we must accept that our mental health can be too. And as
our social spaces increasingly become digital spaces, we need to look seriously and urgently at
how these new, business-owned societies are affecting our minds. We must try to see how the
rising mental health crisis may be related to the way people are living and interacting. Facebook’s
Mark Zuckerberg says that “by giving people the power to share, we’re making the world more
transparent”. But what we really need to do is make social media transparent. Of course, we won’t
stop using it – I certainly won’t – but precisely for that reason we need to know more about what it
is doing to us. To our politics, to our health, to the future generation, and to the world around us.
We need to ensure we are still the ones using the technology – and that the technology isn’t using
us.
1)
The writer believes that all these complaints about innovations are unreasonable EXCEPT:
Radio signaled an end to a better way of life.

The use of modern musical instruments undermined the quality of music.
Social media make us feel inadequate.
The introduction of color on celluloid interfered with the appreciation of the story.

Video Explanation:
Explanation:

The writer opens the discussion by saying that he had disagreed with the initial negative reviews
that were given on social media because he thought they were similar to those on all things that
are new, like Technicolor movies or electric guitars. These negative reviews were based on
nostalgia and not on sensible evaluation. He finds these reviews flawed.
Options 1, 2, and 4 are implied in the first paragraph, which lists the complaints that the writer
finds to be unreasonable. For instance, people who claimed that radio signaled the end
of‘civilization’ are claimed to be unreasonable naysayers. Reject option 1.
The same paragraph also mentions option 2 – the writer does not approve of the people who
walked out on Bob Dylan at Newport folk festival for playing an electric guitar – Reject option 2.
Option 4 is incorrect. Refer paragraph 1 “…as the first reviewers of Technicolor movies, who felt
the colour distracted from the story.” Reject option 4.
Option 3 is correct. The third paragraph states that “of course, humans comparing themselves to
others isn’t new. But when the others are every human on the internet, people end up comparing
themselves – their looks, their relationships, their wealth, their lives – to the carefully filtered lives
of people they would never meet in the real world – and feeling inadequate.” So, the writer does
not consider this to be an unreasonable complaint. Retain option 3.
Correct Answer:
Social media make us feel inadequate.

2)
According to the writer, in order to continue using social media, it is important to:
Understand the importance of Free Will

Be careful as to who we pretend to be.
Be careful while participating in the ‘colosseum’ culture
Avoid filtering of communication
Video Explanation:
Explanation:

The writer concludes the passage by affirming that he will continue to use social media and that
others should as well, if only to know more about what social media is doing to us.
Option 1 is incorrect. In paragraphs 3 and 4 the writer criticizes the ‘ultra conservative option’
which is:”the one that believes, totally, in free will; and that mental health problems are either not
significant, or are entirely of the individual’s making.” He is critical of the belief in free will that is
said to be a shield against the danger inherent in social media. Therefore, reject option 1.
Option 3 is incorrect. The writer does not suggest participating in the ‘colosseum culture’, in which
people are punished in full view of others. Colosseum is the large amphitheatre in Rome-- the
forerunner to modern-day stadiums. In one such practice criminals, whose hands were tied, were
thrown to hungry lions as part of entertainment events. The writer’s intention, on the other hand, is
to make us aware that it is possible to inflict punishment on others on the internet. Reject option 3.
Option 4 is incorrect. In fact, the writer proposes caution and deliberation while communicating on
social media. He does not recommend that one should avoid filtering his/ her communication on
social media. Reject option 4.
Option 2 is correct. The writer quotes Kurt Vonnegut and states: “We are what we pretend to be,
so we must be careful who we pretend to be.” This seems especially true, now that we have
reached a new stage of marketing where we are not just consumers, but also the thing
consumed.” He ends the passage by stating: “we need to ensure we are still the ones using the
technology – and that the technology isn’t using us.”
Correct Answer:
Be careful as to who we pretend to be.

Your Attempt: Wrong
3)
Based on the passage, the author would find which of the following most useful?
Defining and exercising the limits of social media interaction for oneself, with special
reference to friends.
Evaluating the benefits of “being the thing consumed” for oneself and for the larger social
media economy.
Examining and understanding digital spaces and the new ways of interconnectedness,
especially how they are affecting our minds.
Exploiting the possibilities in the new digital spaces and to leverage the use of information
about oneself for one’s personal growth.
Video Explanation:
Explanation:

Option 1 is incorrect. The author believes in the continuation of using social media, but with a
deeper understanding of its impact. He does not recommend that one should define the limits to
the interactions on social media. Reject option 1.
Option 2 is incorrect. The writer does not refer to, or suggest or imply any benefits of being the
‘thing consumed’. Reject option 2.
Option 4 is incorrect. The writer does not mention that one should exploit the possibilities of new
social media and that one should use it for personal growth. Reject option 4.
Option 3 is correct. The penultimate paragraph states, “and as our social spaces increasingly
become digital spaces, we need to look seriously and urgently at how these new, business-owned
societies are affecting our minds.” The writer believes that social media can adversely affect our
mental health and that we need to become aware of what social media is doing to us, to our
politics, to our health, to the future generation, and to the world around us.”
Correct Answer:
Examining and understanding digital spaces and the new ways of interconnectedness, especially
how they are affecting our minds.

4)
Facebook’s CEO, Mark Zuckerberg claims that “by giving people the power to share, we’re making
the world more transparent.” The writer considers such claims….
Suspicious, because Facebook uses its data to manipulate people through customised
messages and advertisements.
Insincere, because Facebook and other social media companies are not transparent about
how they are exploiting and influencing their subscribers.
Hypocritical, because Facebook and other social networking sites surreptitiously collect data
about its subscribers for commercial purposes.
Realistic, because social media allows its subscribers to share knowledge that would be
genuinely empowering.
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
This question is of medium difficulty.

Option 2 is correct. The comment of Mark Zuckerberg is quoted in the last paragraph
as, “Facebook’s Mark Zuckerberg says that ’by giving people the power to share, we’re making
the world more transparent’”. The writer reacts by saying that “but what we really need to do is
make social media transparent. Of course, we won’t stop using it – Icertainly won’t – but
precisely for that reason we need to know more about what it is doing to us--to our politics, to our
health, to the future generation, and to the world around us.” The writer’s argument is that social
media should first make themselves transparent about how the companies commercialise their
subscribers and how they influence our politics, future generations, and the world around us. In
that respect, social media companies are opaque and their claim to making the world transparent
is dubious. Option 2 best captures this idea. Hence the correct answer is option 2.
Option 1 is incorrect because it talks about Facebook alone, whereas the writer’s concern is not
about Facebook alone, but all social media in general. Eliminate option 1.
Option 3 is limited to the commercialisation of data. Though it is factually correct, it fails to provide
the complete picture. Eliminate option 3.
Option 4 is incorrect because it does not capture the writer’s reaction to the claim made by
Zuckerberg. Eliminate option 4.
Correct Answer:
Insincere, because Facebook and other social media companies are not transparent about how
they are exploiting and influencing their subscribers.

5)
According to the passage, social media affects us in all the following ways EXCEPT:
Exposure to the filtered lives of people one would not meet in real life.
Being made vulnerable to personal attacks which are normalised as part of the culture.
Not being able to escape a system which is so widely prevalent as to be unavoidable.
Being vulnerable to exaggerated stories based on importance of appearance
Video Explanation:
Explanation:

Option 1 is true and so is incorrect. Refer paragraph 4– “Of course, humans comparing
themselves to others isn’t new. But when the others are every human on the internet, people end
up comparing themselves…… to the carefully filtered lives of people they would never meet in the
real world – and feeling inadequate.” Reject option 1.
Option 2 is incorrect. Paragraph 5 talks about abuse being a serious issue online and that the
apparent anonymity shields the offenders. Reject option 2.
Option 4 is incorrect. Paragraph 6 states, “Reading first-hand accounts by people with bulimia and
anorexia who are convinced that social media exacerbated or even triggered their illnesses.” Thus
option 4 is true and not an exception. Reject option 4.
Option 3 is an exception. While the passage refers to the wide prevalence of social media it does
not imply that it is a system that we cannot escape from.
Correct Answer:
Not being able to escape a system which is so widely prevalent as to be unavoidable.

Your Attempt: Wrong
6)
The social media has been likened to tobacco and fast food industries for which of the following
reasons?
It triggered or exacerbated illnesses like bulimia and anorexia.

It made people addicted to it and stole people’s lives.
It is controlled by vested interests that create new problems in society.
It believes that free markets have their own corrective mechanisms.
Video Explanation:
Explanation:

The comparison occurs in the fourth paragraph. “Reading first-hand accounts by people with
bulimia and anorexia who are convinced that social media exacerbated or even triggered their
illnesses, I began to realise something: this situation is not the equivalent of Bob Dylan’s electric
guitar. It is closer to the tobacco or fast-food industries, where vested interests deny the existence
of blatant problems that were not there before. To ignore it, to let companies shape and exploit
and steal our lives, would be the ultra-conservative option.” The one that says free markets have
their own morality.” Bulimia is constant craving for food. Anorexia means a prolonged loss of
appetite. Option 1 is incorrect because the bulimia and anorexia set the writer thinking and made
him realize that the situation was unlike Bob Dylan’s guitar. But reason for the comparison was
different. Hence eliminate option 1. Option 2 is incorrect – there may be an implied reference to
the addiction as tobacco and fast food are addictive. However, the reason for the comparison is
not directly the factor of addiction. Hence option 2 is a possible answer but not the answer. Option
4, similar to option 2 is an implication, which is a rationalisation indulged in by social media
companies by transferring the blame to the victims by invoking free will and free markets. So we
can eliminate option 4. Option 3 is correct. The comparison is directly attributed to the control
exercised by vested interests in both the industries – tobacco and fast food industries on the one
hand, and social media on the other – who would deliberately deny the existence of problems
which their products create in society. Hence option 3 is the correct answer.
Correct Answer:
It is controlled by vested interests that create new problems in society.

undefined
Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
undefined
undefined
question.
Sometimes it takes a while for the importance of a scientific discovery to become clear. When the
first perovskite, a compound of calcium, titanium and oxygen, was discovered in the Ural
mountains in 1839, and named after Count Lev Perovski, a Russian mineralogist, not much
happened. The name, however, has come to be used as a plural to describe a range of other
compounds that share the crystal structure of the original. In 2006 interest perked up when
Tsutomu Miyasaka of Toin University in Japan discovered that some perovskites are
semiconductors and showed particular promise as the basis of a new type of solar cell.
In 2012 Henry Snaith of the University of Oxford, in Britain, and his colleagues found a way to
make perovskitesolar cells with an efficiency - measured in terms of how well a cell converts light
into electric current - of just over 10%. This was such a good conversion rate that DrSnaith
immediately switched the direction of Oxford Photovoltaics, a firm he had co-founded to develop
new solar materials, into making perovskites—and perovskites alone. Progress has continued, and
now that firm, and also Saule Technologies, a Polish concern founded in 2014 to do similar things,
are close to bringing the first commercial perovskite solar cells to market.
Today 10% is quite a modest efficiency for a perovskite cell in the coddling conditions of a
laboratory. For lab cells values above 22% are now routine. That makes those cells comparable
with ones made from silicon, as most of the cells in solar panels are—albeit that such silicon cells
are commercial, not experimental. It did, however, take silicon cells more than 60 years to get as
far as they have, and the element is probably close to its maximum practical level of efficiency. So,
there may not be much more to squeeze from it, whereas perovskites could go much higher.
Perovskite cells can also be made cheaply from commonly available industrial chemicals and
metals, and they can be printed onto flexible films of plastic in roll-to-roll mass-production
processes. Silicon cells, by contrast, are rigid. They are made from thinly sliced wafers of
extremely pure silicon in a process that requires high temperature. That makes factories designed
to produce them an expensive proposition.
On the face of it, then, perovskites should already be transforming the business of solar power. But
things are never that simple. First, as with many new technologies, there is a difference between
what works at small scale in a laboratory and at an industrial scale in a factory. Learning how to
manufacture something takes a while. Also, perovskites as materials are not without their problems
—in particular, a tendency to be a bit unstable in high temperatures and susceptible to moisture,
both of which can cause the cells to decompose. Such traits are unconducive to the success of a
product that would be expected to last two or three decades in the open air. Researchers are
beginning to solve those shortcomings by making perovskites that are more robust and waterproof.
1)
Which of the following statements holds true for the compounds called perovskites?
Count Lev Perovski first discovered them in the Ural Mountains.

All perovskites have a structural arrangement comparable to the first perovskite that was
discovered.
It was discovered in 2006 that all perovskites could be used to create a new type of solar cell.
Perskovites are not affected by water.
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Option 1 is incorrect because it is uncertain. Paragraph 1 states that“perovskite … was discovered

in the Ural mountains in 1839, and named after Count Lev Perovski, a Russian mineralogist”. This
information is inadequate to infer that Perovski discovered the compound. Eliminate option 1.
Option 3 is incorrect. Paragraph 1 states that “some perovskites are semiconductors and showed
particular promise as the basis of a new type of solar cell.” However, the option says that all
perovskites could be used for the same. Hence, eliminate option 3.
Option 4 is incorrect. The last paragraph states that “perovskites as materials are … susceptible
to moisture.” Thus, we can conclude that perovskites become unstable when they absorb
moisture i.e. water. Eliminate option 4.

Option 2 is correct. Paragraph 1 states, “the name, however, has come to be used as a plural to
describe a range of other compounds that share the crystal structure of the original.” Thus, we can
conclude that the structural arrangement of all perovskites is similar to the original one.
Correct Answer:
All perovskites have a structural arrangement comparable to the first perovskite that was
discovered.

Your Attempt: Wrong
2)
All of the following are advantages of perovskite solar cells EXCEPT:
The raw materials required for perovskite cells are inexpensive and easily available.
Perovskite cells lend themselves to high-volume manufacturing methods.
Perovskite panels are more flexible than rigid silicon panels.
Printed perovskite solar cells can reach efficiency levels above 22% in labs.
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Option 1 is incorrect. The second last paragraph states that “Perovskite cells can also be made
cheaply from commonly available industrial chemicals and metals.” Thus, we can conclude that
the raw materials for perovskite cells are inexpensive and easily available. Therefore, this option
is not an exception. Eliminate option 1.
Option 2 is incorrect. The second last paragraph states that “they can be printed onto flexible films
of plastic in roll-to-roll mass-production processes.” Thus, this option can be concluded from the
passage. Eliminate option 2.
Option 3 is incorrect. The second last paragraph states that “they can be printed onto flexible films
of plastic ... Silicon cells by contrast are rigid.” Thus, this option is clearly stated in the passage.
Eliminate option 3.
Option 4 is an exception. Paragraph 3 states that “for lab cells values above 22% are now
routine.” Also, the second last paragraph states that “they can be printed onto flexible films of
plastic …” But we cannot connect these two sentences to decisively conclude that printed
perovskite cells will have the same efficiency as lab cells. Thus, option 4 cannot be concluded and
is an exception.
Correct Answer:
Printed perovskite solar cells can reach efficiency levels above 22% in labs.

3)
All of the following are factors that prevent the commercial use of perovskite solar cells EXCEPT:
Perovskite crystals are sensitive to high temperature and humidity.

Setting up mass production lines to scale up the manufacturing capacity of perovskite cells is
a challenge.
Industrial scale manufacturers of silicon solar cells will resist the advent of perovskite cells in
the market, since they have invested in silicon and are familiar with how to handle it.
In their current form, perovskite cells are not robust enough to endure the forces of nature.
Video Explanation:
Explanation:

Option 1 is incorrect. The last paragraph states that “perovskites as materials are not without their
problems—in particular, a tendency to be a bit unstable in high temperaturesand susceptible to
moisture, both of which can cause the cells to decompose.” Thus, we can conclude that crystal
structure of perovskites is disrupted at high temperatures and humidity. Thus, this option is not an
exception. Eliminate option 1.
Option 2 is incorrect. The last paragraph states that “first, as with many new technologies, there is
a difference between what works at small scale in a laboratory and at an industrial scale in a
factory. Learning how to manufacture something takes a while.” Thus, we can conclude that
scaling up manufacturing capacity at industrial levels is a challenge as of now. Eliminate option 2.
Option 4 is incorrect. The last paragraph states that “perovskites … are a bit unstable in high
temperatures and susceptible to moisture, … Such traits are unconducive to the success of a
product that would be expected to last two or three decades in the open air. Researchers are
beginning to solve those shortcomings …” Thus, we can conclude that as of now, perovskite cells
are not robust enough to sustain in open air, i.e. cannot endure the forces of nature. Eliminate
option 4.
Option 3 is an exception. The passage does not mention either manufacturers of silicon cells or
the resistance they might provide to the advent of perovskite cells. This option is neither stated
nor can be concluded from the passage. Hence, it is an exception.
Correct Answer:
Industrial scale manufacturers of silicon solar cells will resist the advent of perovskite cells in the
market, since they have invested in silicon and are familiar with how to handle it.

undefined
Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
undefined
A short paragraph is followed by four summaries. Choose the option that best captures the
author’s position.
The terms “objectivity” and “subjectivity,” in their modern usage, generally relate to a perceiving
subject (normally a person) and a perceived or unperceived object. The object is something that
presumably exists independent of the subject’s perception of it. In other words, the object would be
there, as it is, even if no subject perceived it. Hence, objectivity is typically associated with ideas
such as reality, truth and reliability. The perceiving subject can either perceive accurately or seem
to perceive features of the object that are not in the object. For example, a perceiving subject
suffering from jaundice could seem to perceive an object as yellow when the object is not actually
yellow. Hence, the term “subjective” typically indicates the possibility of error.
The terms “Objectivity” and “Subjectivity,” relate to a perceiving subject and a perceived or
unperceived object. While the former is associated with reality as it is, the latter refers to the
errors in perception.
“Objectivity” refers to the existence of an object independent of the perceiving subject and
“subjectivity” refers to the errors in the perception of an observer who is influenced by his
deficiencies.
The terms “Objectivity” and “Subjectivity” relate to the existence of an object independent of
the perceiving subject. The perceiving subject is susceptible to errors.
The terms “Objectivity” and “Subjectivity” relate to a perceiving subject and a perceived or
unperceived object. Objectivity is reality as it is, and subjectivity is someone’s perception
with its possibility of errors.
Section
Video Explanation:

Explanation:
Option 1 is incorrect. While option 1 repeats the term objectivity and subjectivity correctly, it
changes the idea of subjectivity when it says that the latter (or subjectivity) refers to the errors in
perception. The passage does not state that subjectivity refers to the errors – rather, it indicates the
perception of reality with a possibility of errors from the part of the perceiving subject. We can
eliminate option 1.
Option 2 contains the same distortion (option 1) about what subjectivity means. In addition, option
2 refers to the ‘deficiencies of the perceiving subject’ which is a misrepresentation - the perceiving
subject may be subject to influences, for example, jaundice. To refer to them as deficiencies is
incorrect. So we can eliminate option 2 as well.
Option 3 is incorrect as it relates both the terms “objectivity” and “subjectivity” to the existence of
objects as independent from the observer. Thus, it excludes what ‘subjectivity’ means, and gets
eliminated.
Option 4 captures all the main points in the paragraph briefly without any distortion or dilution.
Correct Answer:
The terms “Objectivity” and “Subjectivity” relate to a perceiving subject and a perceived or
unperceived object. Objectivity is reality as it is, and subjectivity is someone’s perception with its
possibility of errors.

undefined
There is a scientific temperament to genuine artistic expression. In what might be called the
science of art, the experience or the vision is the artist's counterpart to the scientific discovery of a
principle or law. There is a concordance of agendas in art and science. What the scientist does
when he discovers a new law is to give a new ordering to observed facts. The artist is engaged in a
similar task. He gives new meaning to our experience and organizes it in a different way due to his
perception of subtler qualities in reality.
While the scientists give a new ordering to observed facts, the artist gives a new meaning to
our experience; thus, there is a concordance of agendas in art and science.
Just like a scientist who discovers a new law by giving a new ordering to observed facts, an
artist gives a new meaning to our experience; thus, there is a scientific temperament behind
art.
The artist, similar to a scientist, is engaged in imparting a new meaning to our experience
organizing it in a new way, infusing it with subtler qualities.
In what might be called the science of art, an artist gives a new meaning, with subtler
qualities, to our experiences just like how a scientist discovers new laws.
Section

Video Explanation:
Explanation:

The author’s purpose is to drive home that there is scientific temperament behind genuine works of
art. He then explains how a scientific discovery happens – the scientists discover a new ordering of
observed or familiar facts or events. Similar intuitions exist behind a work of art – a familiar
experience is given a new ordering due to the insights that the artist has gained in to it. So, the gist
of the passage is to prove that “there is a scientific temperament to genuine artistic expression.”
The main points are:
? There is a scientific temperament to genuine artistic expression.
? The discovery of a new law in science happens when the scientist discovers a new ordering to
facts.
? Similarly, a work of art reorganizes an experience according to the perceptions of the artist.
Option 1 highlights a different aspect of the passage, that of the concordance of agendas (plan or
purpose) in art, rather than the similarity between scientific and artistic temperament (mental
character). Also, the concordance cannot be highlighted by explaining the contrast between art and
science using the conjunction “while”. So it is logically imperfect and excludes the temperament
aspect.
Option 3 is incorrect because it says, ‘the artist, similar to a scientist, is engaged in imparting a new
meaning to our experience etc.” A scientist, as the option suggests, is not engaged in imparting a
new meaning to our experience. His method of discovery is different. So eliminate option 3.
Option 4 is incorrect. The exact similarity between artistic expression and a scientific law is missing
in option 4. For a scientist the discovery of a new law means discovering a new ordering to facts.
Option 4 is too abrupt in the comparison in stating that “just like how a scientist discovers new
laws”, without specifying it.
Option 2, on the other hand, highlights the vital aspect of the paragraph – the scientific
temperament behind genuine artistic expressions. It then explains how they are similar. It captures
the essence of the paragraph clearly and precisely.
Correct Answer:
Just like a scientist who discovers a new law by giving a new ordering to observed facts, an artist
gives a new meaning to our experience; thus, there is a scientific temperament behind art.

Your Attempt: Wrong
undefined

The data will be duly mined, but in broad brushes they paint a disturbing profile of India’s political
economy. Due to the failure in bringing enough well-off Indians into the direct tax net, the country
has been mobilising revenue through indirect tax collection. In 2015-16, direct taxes contributed
only 51 per cent of the tax revenue, lower than in recent years (and even the government’s
expectations) and the lowest since 2007-08. An increasing share of indirect taxes in total revenue
collection is cause for alarm because indirect taxes affect all Indians alike, rich and poor. Indeed,
given that the poor generally spend a greater fraction of their income on essentials than the rich
do, with wider indirect taxation, they end up paying a higher individual tax rate than people
considerably wealthier.
The failure to bring well-off Indians into the direct tax net and the lowest direct tax revenue since
2007-08, the country has been mobilising revenue through indirect tax causing the poor to pay
higher individual tax than wealthier people.
The percentage of indirect taxes as a proportion of the revenue has been on the decline,
which has resulted in a disproportionate burden on the poor. One can deduce the sad state of
India’s political economy from these facts.
The broad picture that emerges from the data before mining is that indirect taxation has
brought more of the well-off into the direct tax net; direct taxes as a proportion of revenue
has been declining; and increasing indirect taxes affect the poor far more than the rich.
Failure to bring more well-off Indians into the direct tax net has meant a rise in the share of
indirect taxes. Wider indirect taxation burdens the poor disproportionately as they purchase
more of the essential items which are widely taxed.
Indirect taxes are being led to produce detrimental effects in the Indian economy. Inability to
increase the number of tax payers has led to a consistent rise in the proportion of indirect
taxes.
Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:

The main points in the passage are:
? Due to failure in bringing well-off Indians to the direct tax net, the country has been mobilising
revenue through indirect tax collection.
? The percentage contribution of direct taxes to the revenue has been declining.
? Increasing indirect taxes are a cause for alarm because the poor, who spend more of their
income on essentials, end up paying a higher individual tax rate than the wealthy.
Option 1 is incorrect. It states that revenue from indirect tax is on the decline. This is contrary to the

passage. It also mentions the ‘sad state of India’s political economy”. The passage does not make
any such judgments, though it states that the economy paints a disturbing profile. We can reject
option 1.
Option 2 is incorrect. The passage does not state that more of the well-off are brought into the tax
net. On the contrary, it talks about the failure in bringing more well-off people to the direct tax net.
Eliminate option 2.
Option 4 is incorrect. Option 4 does not specify the detrimental effect of indirect taxes. Also, the
option refers to the inability to increase the direct-tax base. However, the passage only mentions
the failure in bringing a greater number of wealthy people to the direct tax net. Hence we can
eliminate option 4.
Option 3 captures the essential points of the paragraph into the précis without any distortion.
Correct Answer:
Failure to bring more well-off Indians into the direct tax net has meant a rise in the share of indirect
taxes. Wider indirect taxation burdens the poor disproportionately as they purchase more of the
essential items which are widely taxed.

Your Attempt: Wrong
undefined
Five sentences related to a topic are given below. Four of them can be put together to form
a meaningful and coherent short paragraph. Identify the odd one out.
1. In other words, the world can be both bad and intimidating.
2. We’ve cut the number of people living in extreme poverty by half over the last twenty years.
3. With rare exceptions, most of the miracles of humankind are long-term, constructed things.
4. Yet, there was never a morning when “Poverty Rates Drop” dominated newspaper headlines.
5. Progress comes bit by bit.
Section
Video Explanation:

Explanation:

At first glance one can see that sentences 2 and 4 are a mandatory pair. Sentence 2 talks about
how poverty has been halved in a very short time period of 20 years. Sentence 4, beginning with
“yet”, in reference to the dramatic reduction in poverty (that is mentioned in sentence 2), complains
about how good news like a huge drop in poverty does not make it to the headlines. Sentence 5
states that progress occurs in small steps. So, sentence 5 can be placed before the 2-4 pair, being
a general statement on the theme of the paragraph. The overall idea conveyed in the sentences is
one of patient hopefulness. That the world is improving and getting better through human effort and
that this is often not acknowledged is what the overall impression is. And this is exactly what
sentence 3 states - that miracles have been ‘constructed’ by men over long terms. Thus, all
sentences are optimistic about improvements in human living conditions.
However, sentence 1 provides a very grim outlook by stating that the world is both bad and
intimidating.
So the correct answer is option 1.
Correct Answer:

undefined
a meaningful and coherent shrot paragraph. Identify the odd one out.
1. T’Challa follows this advice and, as a result, surrounds himself almost exclusively with women.
2. It is notable, too, that so many of the film’s central characters are female.
3. A later mission has a still-greater female/male ratio of three-to-one.
4. In a spirit journey, T’Challa speaks with his dead father, who counsels him to “surround yourself
with people you trust.”
5. On a brief, Bondian foray to a casino in Busan, South Korea, T’Challa brings along three robots
as teammates.

Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:

The first sentence that mentions “following this advice” can be linked to sentence 4 which states
that T’Challa receives counsel to surround himself with trustworthy people. Sentence 1 follows
sentence 4, as sentence 1 mentions T’Challa acting on the advice that is given to him in sentence
4.
Sentence 2, then, logically follows the 4-1 pair. With this sequence of sentences (4-1-2), we can
deduce what the narrative is about.
T’Challa is the name of a character in a film which has so many of female central characters.
Now, if we relate the remaining sentences, i.e. 3 and 5 to this narrative, we see that sentence 3 is
related to the theme, because it speaks of the “female/male ratio of three-to-one” in the mission, or
perhaps, the film itself. Sentence 5, however, is unrelated to this narrative as it talks about T’Challa
in a different context, with robots as team mates. So, 5 is the out-of-context sentence.
Correct Answer:

Your Attempt: Wrong
undefined
a meaningful and coherent short paragraph. Identify the odd one out.
1. He had a role, both speculatively and in actual development, in numerous innovations during the
first half of the twentieth century.
2. Low didn’t invent the lithium battery or wireless telephony, but he foresaw the concepts that
serve as the basis for a host of devices, from pocket telephones to television to drones.
3. The next time you look at your smartphone or watch your television, think of the “Professor”.
4. The uncredentialed Low, who adopted the moniker “Professor” much to the chagrin of his
academic peers, was also an ardent futurist with a social conscience.

5. Does the name Archibald M. Low who adopted the moniker “Professor” ring a bell?
Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:

It is easy to identify the starter sentence. Clearly, none of the sentences would make sense without
first mentioning Archibald M. Low who adopted the moniker “Professor.” So, sentence 5 starts the
paragraph. You can also identify the broad topic of the paragraph – it is Archibald M Low.
Sentences 5 and 4 introduce “Low, the Professor”. Then it comes to a dead end. It is not possible
to relate any other sentence to this theme as sentence 3 cannot appear after 5-4.
However, the question mentioned in sentence 5, “does the name ring a bell?” is answered in
sentence 3 – that even if the name doesn’t ring a bell, “the next time you look at your smartphone
or watch your television, think of the Professor.” The 5- 3 pair helps us identify the theme – it is not
about the fact that he adopted the moniker to the chagrin of his academic peers or that he was also
an ardent futurist with a social conscience (sentence 4), but about how “the concepts that serve as
the basis for a host of devices” (sentence 2) were formulated by Low. So, sentences 2 and 1 are
related to this theme. Thus, we can form the sequence, 5-3-2-1.
Sentence 4 is unrelated to this theme.
So the correct answer is sentence 4.
Correct Answer:

Your Attempt: Wrong
undefined
The five sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3, 4, 5) given in this question, when properly sequenced,
form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a number. Decide on the proper
order for the sentences and key in this sequence of five numbers as your answer.
1. Headaches are generally classified by cause.

2. Some people may even carry genes that make them more likely to develop primary headaches.
3. A secondary headache is a symptom of a disease that can activate the pain-sensitive nerves of
the head.
4. A primary headache is caused by overactivity of or problems with pain-sensitive structures in

your head.
5. Any number of conditions — varying greatly in severity — may cause secondary headaches.
Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:

The theme of the passage becomes quite evident on reading the statements. All sentences talk
about classifications of headache. Statement 1 introduces this theme by stating that “headaches
are generally classified by cause”. Statement 4 introduces us to primary headaches by stating that
it is caused by overactivity of or problems with pain sensitive structures. Statement 2 reveals
genes as another probable cause of primary headache. Hence, we get 4-2 as a mandatory pair.
Statement 3 introduces us to secondary headaches by stating that they are always symptoms to
some disease. Statement 5 elaborates this further by stating that any number of underlying
conditions may cause secondary headaches. Thus, we get 3-5 as a mandatory pair.
Hence, the correct sequence is 14235.
Correct Answer:
14235

undefined
1. The story is centered on Moni Mekhala, the Cambodian goddess of the seas, and Ream Eyso,
the storm demon.
2. It retells the mythological story of the same name, a tale in which rivalling students of a powerful
hermit bring life to lightning, thunder, and rain according to the Khmer people.
3. "Moni Mekhala Ream Eyso" is the most sacred dance drama in Cambodia.
4. The goddess, who uses her intelligence and skills to mount a nonviolent resistance, has
significant implications for gender roles in life and dance.
5. It is performed every year in the buongsuong ceremony.
Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
This is a medium difficulty question.
Sentences 1, 2, 4 and 5 are non-standalone sentences. They have elements which derive their
meaning from other sentences.
Sentence 3 is a standalone sentence that introduces the discussion on “MoniMekhala Ream
Eyso”. Now, either statement 2 or statement 5 could follow statement 3. Statement 2 elaborates on
the dance drama by stating that “it retells the mythological story of the same name …” Statement 5
clarifies that “it is performed every year in the buongsuong ceremony”. The pronoun “it” in both
these statements refers to the sacred dance drama. But, if we choose statement 2 then statement
5 cannot be accommodated anywhere else. Thus, we get the sequence, 3-5-2. Further, “the story
centered on MoniMekhala …” mentioned in statement 1 can be linked to “the mythological story” in
statement 2. Thus, 2-1 is a mandatory pair. So, we get the sequence, 3-5-2-1. Statement 4
explains the importance of the goddess by pointing at the significant implications for gender roles
that is represented by her. It can follow sentence 1.
Thus, the correct answer is 35214.
Correct Answer:
35214

Your Attempt: Wrong

undefined
1. Students need to try new strategies and seek input from others when they’re stuck.
2. Certainly, effort is key for students’ achievement, but it’s not the only thing.
3. They need this repertoire of approaches—not just sheer effort—to learn and improve.
4. A growth mindset isn’t just about effort.
5. Perhaps the most common misconception is simply equating the growth mindset with effort.
Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:

Statements 2 (adverb: certainly) and 3 (pronoun: they) are clearly danglers.
Statement 1 is a standalone sentence. The pronoun “they” in statement 3 refers to students
mentioned in statement 1. Also, “this” refers to “try new strategies and seek input”. Note that “they”
in statement 3 cannot refer to “students” in statement 2, the latter being a possessive noun and
part of the compound noun, “students’ achievement”. Thus, we get the mandatory pair 1-3.
If we start the passage with 1-3, we come to a dead-end after 3. No other statement logically
follows statement 3.
Statement 4 introduces the theme of the passage, i.e. relationship between growth mindset and
effort, by using the article “a” to refer to growth mindset. Thus, statement 4 is the starter sentence.
Statement 5 further elaborates on the theme by stating that equating “the growth mindset” with
“effort” is a common misconception. Clearly, this is not the starter sentence since it uses the article
“the” to refer to growth mindset.
Statement 2 emphasizes that effort is the key to students’ achievement, but that it’s not the only
thing. Either statement 5 or 2 can follow statement 4. Also note that there is a logical connection
between statements 2 and 1, both of which talk about students. Thus, we can conclude that
statement 2 will precede the 1-3 mandatory pair (2-1-3) and that statement 5 will follow statement 4
(4-5).
Thus, we get the correct sequence as 45213.
Correct Answer:
45213

Your Attempt: Wrong
undefined
1. Drinking can, thus, lead to severe illness or even eventual death.
2. One important effect is the damage you can do to your body.
3. Letting alcohol take control over your life has many negative effects on a person and the people
around them.
4. It could possibly cause a fatal car accident for either yourself and/or an innocent bystander.
5. Another detriment is that this addiction could lead to drinking and driving.
Section
Video Explanation:

Explanation:

Sentences 2 (one), 4 (it) and 5 (another) are danglers.
Sentence 3 introduces the theme of the passage by cautioning against the negative effects that
letting alcohol control your life can have. This is a general statement that can be used as a starter
sentence.
Statement 2 that begins with “one” implies that it will list the first negative effect of alcohol. It states
that alcohol can damage your body. When statements 2 and3 are paired we get the mandatory pair
3-2. Thus, we have the sequence 3-2.
Statement 5 that begins with the word “another” indicates that it will introduce another negative
effect of alcohol. The statement states that alcohol addiction could lead to drunk driving. Thus,
statement 5 follows statement 2.
The pronoun “it” in sentence 4 refers to “drinking and driving” in sentence 5. Thus, we have
another mandatory pair, 5-4. Thus, our sequence becomes 3-2-5-4.
Sentence 1 talks about how drinking leads to eventual death. Note that this is sentence can only
go at the end as it draws the discussion to a climactic end by mentioning that (apart from the many
negative effects) drinking can consequently lead to severe illnesses or even eventual death.
Hence, the correct answer is 32541.
Correct Answer:
32541

undefined
undefined
Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
National Institute of Management Bangalore (NIMB) conducted its entrance test called National
Admission Test (NAT) for the admission to its MBA course.
The test had three sections with five questions each. In each section, Q.1 to Q.4 were ‘Multiple
Choice Questions’ (MCQ) with four options each (options were a, b, c and d), out of which only one
was correct. In each section, Q.5 was ‘Type In - The Answer’ (TITA) question, for which no options
were given and students were expected to type in their answer in the textbox provided.
Each correct answer fetched three marks while there was a penalty of one mark for incorrect
answers on MCQ questions and there was no penalty for incorrect answers on TITA questions or
unattempted questions.
After the exam, three coaching institutes P, Q and R published their answer keys for the questions
in NAT. Later, NIMB also published the official answer keys for the questions in NAT. Following
were the answer keys of the three coaching institutes and the official answer keys.

Following were the answers of the four friends named Amit, Bela, Chitra and Dinu for the 15
questions in the test. (NA means ‘Not attempted’).
The score of the students in NAT was calculated according to the official answer key released by
NIMB and the results were declared accordingly.
1)
Coaching institutes P, Q and R predicted the following cut-offs (minimum marks required in each
section and overall for getting an interview call from NIMB):
Each of the four friends calculated their expected scores by independently using the answer keys
released by each of the three coaching institutes to check whether they met the cut-off criteria.
How many of the four friends meet the cut-off criteria, as expected by all the three institutes?
Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard.
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
We can use the expected answer keys released by the three institutes to calculate the expected
scores of the four students as per the three coaching institutes. Keeping in mind that each correct
answer fetches 3 marks, each incorrect MCQ answer fetches -1 mark and eachunattempted
question fetches 0 mark, we get the following:

Now all the questions can be answered.
It can be seen that the minimum sectional cut-off predicted by each of the three institutes is 4. If a
student gets less than 4 marks in a section, he/she will not clear the cut-offs. It can be seen that
each student scored less than 4 marks in at least one section as per the expected answer key
released by at least two institutes. Therefore no student meets the cut-off criteria as expected by
at least two institutes.

Therefore, the required answer is 0.
Correct Answer:

2)
After the result of NAT was declared, NIMB called students who scored minimum 5 marks in each
of the three sections and 15 marks overall for interviews. How many of the four students were
called for the interviews?
Video Explanation:
Explanation:

It can be seen that only Amit met the criteria for sectional as well as overall cut-offs.
Correct Answer:

3)
Who out of the four students was/were called for the interview by NIMB? (Use information given in
the previous question.)
Only Amit
Only Bela
Only Chitra
Both Amit and Bela
Video Explanation:
Explanation:

From the explanatory answer to the previous question. Amit was the only student who was called
for the interview. Hence, [1].
Correct Answer:
Only Amit

4)
Suppose we define reliability of a coaching institute as the number of questions in NAT (out of 15)
that had same answers in its answer key as the official answer key released by NIMB, which of the
following coaching institute had highest value of reliability?
Institute P
Institute Q
Institute R
Both institutes Q and R
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
It can be seen that institute P had answers to 10 questions out of 15 that matched with the
answers given in the official answer key released by NIMB. For other institute, the number is less
than 10.
Hence, [1].
Correct Answer:
Institute P

undefined
Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:

Correct Answer:
undefined
undefined
Bungaland, a country on the moon consist of states as well as union territories (UTs).
The table below gives details about the road accidents during 2015 in the seven union territories of
Bungaland.
Few more facts about the number of road accidents in Bungaland in 2015 are as below.
I. The number of road accidents in Q was four less than six times the number of road accidents
in S.
II. Among the seven union territories, U had least number of road accidents while T had maximum
number of road accidents.
III. The number of road accidents in W was more than that in P.
IV. Total 69 road accidents were recorded in R in 2015. Other union territories recorded 3, 70, 258,
416, 1530 and 8085 road accidents in 2015.
1)
Approximately, the number of road accidents in the states was how many times that in the union
territories?
37.5
47.5

57.5
97.5
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Let the number of accidents in P, Q, R, S, T, U and W be p, q, r, s, t, u and w respectively.

From (II) and (IV),u = 3, r = 69 and t = 8085
From (I), q = 6 × s – 4
Clearly, q is not divisible by 3.
So, from (IV), q = 416 or 70.
As (q + 4) is divisible by 6, q cannot be 70.
Therefore, q = 416 and s = 70
Now, from (III), it can be concluded that w = 1530 and p = 258
Share of union territories in total number of road accidents was between 2.069% and 2.089%.
? Share of states in the total number of road accidents was between 97.931% and 97.911%.
It can be seen that the % share and hence number of road accidents in the states was slightly
greater than 47 times that in the union territories.
Hence, [2].
Correct Answer:
47.5

2)
In 2015, the number of road accidents recorded in which of the following union territories was
closest to the average of the number of road accidents recorded in the seven union territories of
Bungaland?
T
W
Q
P
Video Explanation:
Explanation:

From (II) and (IV),u = 3, r = 69 and t = 8085
From (I), q = 6 × s – 4
So, from (IV), q = 416 or 70.

Average of road accidents ˜ 1490

1490 is closer to 1530 among the given numbers. 1530 is the number of road accident in W.
Hence, [2].
Correct Answer:

3)
Which union territory had maximum number of vehicles in 2015?
W
Q
T
P
Video Explanation:
Explanation:

From (II) and (IV), u = 3, r = 69 and t = 8085
From (I), q = 6 × s – 4
So, from (IV), q = 416 or 70.

Correct Answer:

4)
Which of the following options is closest to the number of vehicles in ‘W’ in 2015?
801047
292230
124836
743147
Video Explanation:
Explanation:

From (II) and (IV), u = 3, r = 69 and t = 8085
From (I), q = 6 × s – 4
So, from (IV), q = 416 or 70.
Now, from (III), it can be concluded that r = 69, w = 1530 and p = 258

Correct Answer:
801047

undefined
Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
undefined
undefined
In the Hindustan Premier League, total five teams- Jaipur Royals, Chandigarh Kings, Kolkata
Riders, Hyderabad Volcanoes and Bangalore Masters participated. Each team played one match
against every other team and no match ended in a draw.
Each match involved a number of gold coins (called ‘Award’ for the match) such that the team that
lost the match gave the number of gold coins equal to the award for that match to the team that
won the match. The sum of the gold coins received by a team at the end of the tournament is
called ‘Profit’ of the team, while the sum total of the gold coins gave by a team at the end of
tournament is called ‘Loss’ of the team.
Further, it is known that:

I. No two teams won the same number of matches and no two teams lost the same number of
matches.
II. For any team, the ‘Award’ for any two matches were different.
III. The ‘Award’ for any match is neither less than 4 nor more than 21.
IV. The sum of the ‘Profit’ and the ‘Loss’ of the team that won all the matches as well as the team
that lost all the matches was between 20 and 40 (including both 20 and 40).
V. The sum of the ‘Profit’ and the ‘Loss’ for the teams Jaipur Royals, Chandigarh Kings, Kolkata
Riders, Hyderabad Volcanoes and Bangalore Masters are 55, 37, 40, 55 and 53 respectively.
VI. The number of matches won by Hyderabad Volcanoes was equal to the number of matches lost
by Jaipur Royals. The number of matches lost by Kolkata Riders was more than the number of
matches lost by Hyderabad Volcanoes.
VII. Bangalore Masters won 17 gold coins against Jaipur Royals and the ‘Award’ involved in the
match between Kolkata Riders and Hyderabad Volcanoes was 4.
VIII. The ‘Profit’ of Jaipur Royals was equal to the ‘Loss’ of Hyderabad Volcanoes.
1)
How many matches did Jaipur Royals win? (Write 5 if your answer is ‘Cannot be determined’)
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
As each team won a different number of matches, the values can be 0, 1, 2, 3 and 4. Same is the
case with the number of matches lost.
And the team who has won all the four matches must be the team who lost none.
Similarly, the sum of the number of matches won and lost for any team will be 4. (This is since
both the number of matches won are distinct for teams and the number of matches lost are also
distinct and there is a total of 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 = 10 matches).
From (IV) and (V), only Chandigarh Kings and Kolkata Riders can be the teams who either won all
the four matches or lost all the four matches.
But given that Kolkata Riders has lost more matches than Hyderabad Volcanoes has. This implies
that Kolkata Riders has lost to the remaining four teams and won none. Their ‘Loss’ is 40.
This implies that Chandigarh Kings has won against the remaining four teams and lost to none.
Their ‘Profit’ is 37.
Given that the number of matches won by Hyderabad Volcanoes is equal to the number of
matches lost by Jaipur Royals. This implies 1 and 3 matches for each of them.
This also implies Bangalore Masters has won against two teams and lost to two teams. The team

won against Kolkata Riders and Jaipur Royals.
As Jaipur Royals lost to Bangalore Masters and Chandigarh Kings, the team must have lost three
matches and won one. The values of the same are just the opposite for Hyderabad Volcanoes.
Number of matches won by Jaipur Royals, Chandigarh Kings, Kolkata Riders, Hyderabad
Volcanoes and Bangalore Masters are 1, 4, 0, 3 and 2 respectively.
Number of matches lost by Jaipur Royals, Chandigarh Kings, Kolkata Riders, Hyderabad
Jaipur Royals won only one match. Therefore, the required answer is 1.
Correct Answer:

2)
How many matches did Chandigarh Kings lose? (Write 5 if your answer is ‘Cannot be determined’)
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
But given that Kolkata Riders has lost more matches than Hyderabad Volcanoes has.
This implies that Kolkata Riders has lost to the remaining four teams and won none. Their ‘Loss’ is
40.
Chandigarh Kings won all the matches. Therefore, the required answer is 0.
Correct Answer:

3)
What was the total ‘Profit’ for Bangalore Masters? (Write 56 if your answer is ‘Cannot be
determined’)
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
This implies that Kolkata Riders has lost to the remaining four teams and won none. Their‘Loss’ is
40.

Correct Answer:
28

4)
Which team won three matches?
Kolkata Riders
Chandigarh Kings
Hyderabad Volcanoes
Cannot be determined
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
This implies that Kolkata Riders has lost to the remaining four teams and won none. Their‘Loss’ is
40.
Hyderabad Volcanoes won three matches. Hence, [3].
Correct Answer:
Hyderabad Volcanoes

undefined
Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
undefined
undefined

A multinational company XYZ hired two vendors – P & Q for a certain project during the period July
to December 2017. Both the vendors provided temporary manpower to the company and charged
the company for the services. The vendors were paid for the services on a monthly basis as per
the formula given below.
Vendor Payment = A + B
The value of B in any month was given by the difference between two factors M and N [‘M’ and ‘N’
are positive rational numbers] in that particular month i.e., B = M – N
To evaluate the productivity, each vendor divided the payment received by the total number of
employees they provided to the company XYZ for the project.
It is known that PJ < PA < PS < PO < PN < PD and QJ > QA = QS > QO > QN > QD
It is known that P4 < P3 < P2 < P1 and Q1 < Q2 < Q3 < Q4
The bar graph provides information about the ratio of two factors M and N for both the vendors P &
Q.
1)
In how many of the given months, the number of employees provided by vendor P was definitely
less than that provided in October?
0
1
2
3
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
If ratio M : N > 1, then M – N > 0.

If ratio M : N < 1, then M – N < 0.
If ratio M : N = 1, then M – N = 0.
Given that PJ < PA< PS < PO < PN < PD and P4 < P3 < P2 < P1
For vendor P we can definitely conclude that:
I. The number of employees provided in October was more than that in September.
II. The number of employees provided in December was more than that in September.
III. The number of employees provided in August was less than that in October.
IV. The number of employees provided in August was less than that in December.
We cannot draw any other conclusion about the other pairs of months.
In August and September, the number of employees provided by vendor P was definitely less
than that provided in October.
Hence, [3].
Correct Answer:


Your Attempt: Wrong
2)
In which of the given months, the number of employees provided by vendor P was the maximum?
October
November
December
Video Explanation:
Explanation:

Given that PJ < PA< PS < PO < PN < PD and P4 < P3 < P2 < P1
For vendor P we can definitely conclude that:

I. The number of employees provided in October was more than that in September.
II. The number of employees provided in December was more than that in September.
III. The number of employees provided in August was less than that in October.
IV. The number of employees provided in August was less than that in December.
Correct Answer:

3)
For vendor Q, the number of months in which more employees were definitely provided as
compared to September and October is X and Y respectively. What is the value of (X – Y)?
0
–1
1
Video Explanation:
Explanation:


Given that QJ > QA= QS > QO > QN > QD and Q1 < Q2 < Q3 < Q4
For vendor Q we can definitely conclude that:
I. The number of employees provided in August was more than that in September.
II. The number of employees provided in August was more than that in October.
III. The number of employees provided in November was more than that in December.
We cannot draw any other conclusion about the other pairs of months.
It can be seen that X = 1 (August) and Y = 1 (August).
Therefore, the value of X – Y = 1 – 1 = 0.
Hence, [1].
Correct Answer:


Your Attempt: Wrong
4)
Given that the number of employees provided by vendor P in the month of September and
December were in the ratio 1 : 3 and the absolute value of B for these months was the same, and
was equal to X. Which of the following relations is correct?
3PD = PS + 2X
3PS = PD + 2X
3PD = PS + 4X
3PS = PD + 4X
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
If ratio M: N > 1, then M – N > 0

If ratio M: N < 1, then M – N < 0
If ratio M: N = 1, then M – N = 0

Correct Answer:
3PS = PD + 4X

undefined
Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
undefined
undefined
A survey was conducted in seven cities – New Delhi, Kolkata, Chennai, Mumbai, Bangalore,
Hyderabad and Pune. The people in these cities were asked to choose the person who is most
suitable and deserving to be the next Prime Minister of India. The choices were P, Q, R and S. No
person was allowed to make more than one choice. Each of P, Q, R and S was one of the
candidates selected by people of at least one city.
When the results of the survey were evaluated, it was observed that in each of the cities, the
number of distinct choices (for the Prime Minister) made by the people of that city was two or three.

Also, in every city, one or the other of the four given persons was chosen by more than fifty percent
of the people of that city.
Further, following points are known:
1. In no two cities, the combination of choices made by the people was the same.
2. The number of cities, where one or more of the persons chose R, P and Q, is same and is more
than or equal to 4. Also, each of these three persons was chosen by more than fifty percent of the
people from exactly two cities.
3. R was chosen by more than fifty percent people in only those cities where the number of distinct
choices made by the people was 2.
4. P, who was not chosen by any one from Mumbai, and was chosen by more than fifty percent
people from Pune.
5. Q, who was not chosen by any one from Pune, was chosen by more than fifty percent people
from Bangalore. Also, R was not chosen by any one from Bangalore.
6. The people of Hyderabad selected Q (chosen by more than fifty percent), P and R.
7. The number of cities where people made 3 distinct choices was one more than the cities where
people made 2 distinct choices.
8. In no two cities of New Delhi, Kolkata and Mumbai, the person chosen by more than fifty percent
of the people was the same. The number of distinct choices made by the people from cities of
Kolkata and Chennai was 2 and that from Bangalore was 3.
9. S was not chosen by the people from New Delhi.
1)
Which of the following statements can be true?
R was chosen by more than 50 percent of people from New Delhi.
R was chosen by more than 50 percent of people from Kolkata.
R was chosen by more than 50 percent of people from Mumbai.
More than one of the above.

Video Explanation:
Explanation:
From (7), it is clear that four cities made 3 distinct choices and three cities made 2 distinct
choices.
So, the total count of choices made by the people from seven cities put together
= 4 × 3 + 3 × 2 = 18
Let, the number of cities where one or more of the persons chose R, P and Q be X and the
number of cities where one or more of the persons chose S be Y. From (2), we get that Y + 3X =
18 and X is more than 4. X cannot be 6 as that would mean Y = 0 and it would violate the
condition that each of P, Q, R and S was one chosen in at least one city.
Therefore P, Q and R were chosen by people of 5 cities and S was chosen by people of 3 cities.
From conditions (4), (5), (6), (8) and (9) we get

From (7), the number of cities where people selected 3 candidates = 4 and the number of cities
where people selected 2 candidates = 3.
S was not selected by people of Hyderabad and New Delhi. People of Hyderabad selected 3
different candidates. If people of New Delhi have also selected 3 candidates, the combination of
candidates made by people of New Delhi and Hyderabad will be same, which will violate condition
(1). Therefore people of New Delhi selected 2 candidates. Therefore, the people of Chennai,
Kolkata and New Delhi selected 2 candidates while the people of other cities selected 3
candidates.
So far we have,
From condition (2), R was selected by more than 50% people in two of the three cities out of New
Delhi, Kolkata and Chennai. So far we have accounted for both the cities in which Q was selected
by more than 50% people. Therefore Q was not selected by more than 50% people in New Delhi,
Kolkata or Chennai. Therefore from condition (8), P and R were selected by more than 50%
people in one of New Delhi and Kolkata.
Therefore R was selected by more than 50% people in Chennai.
Now, we have yet to account for the city in which R was selected by more than 50% people.
Let’s evaluate the following two cases:
1. R was chosen by more than 50% people in Kolkata.

2. R was chosen by more than 50% people in New Delhi.
Case 1:
One of P and Q was chosen in Kolkata and the other was chosen in Chennai.
Case 2:
One of P and Q was chosen by people in New Delhi and the other was chosen by people in
Chennai.
It can be seen that R could have been chosen by more than 50% people of either New Delhi or
Kolkata. Hence, [4].
Correct Answer:
More than one of the above.

2)
For how many cities, all the persons chosen by the people of that city can be uniquely determined?
Video Explanation:
Explanation:

choices.
= 4 × 3 + 3 × 2 = 18
candidates.
So far we have,

Case 1:
Case 2:
Chennai.
It can be seen that the candidates selected by the people of Mumbai, Bangalore, Hyderabad and
Pune can be uniquely determined. However we cannot determine the candidates who are
selected by the people of New Delhi, Kolkata and Chennai.

Correct Answer:

3)
Which of the following persons was chosen by the people from Chennai, but by no more than 50
percent of the people?
P
Q
Either P or Q
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
choices.
= 4 × 3 + 3 × 2 = 18
candidates.
So far we have,
Case 1:
Case 2:

Chennai.
More than 50% people of Chennai selected R. But the other choice is either P or Q. Hence, [3].
Correct Answer:
Either P or Q

4)
In how many cities was S one of the chosen persons?
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
choices.
= 4 × 3 + 3 × 2 = 18

candidates.
So far we have,

Case 1:
Case 2:
Chennai.
One or more persons of Mumbai, Pune and Bangalore chose S. Therefore, the required answer
is 3.
Correct Answer:

undefined
Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
undefined
undefined
In the qualifiers for the 2019 ICC Cricket World Cup, cricket teams from European countries
Netherlands and Ireland, African countries Zimbabwe and Kenya, and Asian countries Afghanistan
and UAE were the only six participants.
The format of the Qualifiers is as follows –
The top two teams (in terms of number of matches won) qualified for the world cup. In case
of a tie for the top two teams, the two teams that qualify for the world cup was to be decided
in a tie-breaker round.
Two matches were played every day over six days (Monday to Saturday). One match each
was played in the morning slot and in the evening slot every day.
The teams playing the evening match did not play the next day.
Each team played four matches, one match against every team except the team from the
same continent.
Every team played two morning and two evening matches.
No team play two matches in a day.
The following information regarding the schedule for the tournament is known.
1. All teams except Ireland played their morning matches on consecutive days.
2. Afghanistan won all their matches while Kenya lost all their matches.
3. UAE won their match on Friday evening.
4. Ireland lost its match on Saturday morning.
5. Afghanistan defeated the teams from Europe on Tuesday evening and Thursday morning.
1)
Which team played against UAE on Friday evening?
Netherlands
Zimbabwe
Ireland
Cannot be Determined
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
From the first condition, we can deduce that Ireland played its morning matches on Monday and
Saturday. Therefore, Netherlands played against Afghanistan on Thursday morning and Ireland
played against them on Tuesday evening. Since, Afghanistan played on Tuesday evening; itdid
not play on Wednesday. So, Netherlands played on Wednesday morning and Afghanistan play on
Friday morning.
From condition 3, UAE won on Friday evening, which means they did not play on Saturday. Also,
Ireland lost on Saturday morning, it must be against Zimbabwe since Kenya lost all their matches.
Zimbabwe played Friday and Saturday morning. Zimbabwe and UAE played on Friday, so they
cannot play Thursday evening, hence, it must be Kenya and Ireland. UAE and Zimbabwe played
each other on Wednesday evening.
The remaining slots and the final schedule is as below.

Afghanistan won all their matches and Kenya loses all their matches. Zimbabwe won against
Ireland on Saturday morning and UAE won against Netherlands on Friday evening. Based on
these results, the table looks as follows:
The outcomes of Ireland vs. UAE, Zimbabwe vs. Netherlands and Zimbabwe vs. UAE is not
known to us.
From the table, we see that UAE won against Netherlands on Friday Evening.
Hence, [1].
Correct Answer:
Netherlands

Your Attempt: Wrong
2)
How many teams played their evening matches on alternate days?
1
2
3
4
Video Explanation:
Explanation:

Friday morning.
known to us.
Zimbabwe, Ireland, UAE and Kenya played their evening matches on alternate days. Hence, [4].
Correct Answer:

Your Attempt: Wrong
3)
If UAE lost both their remaining matches, then which team of qualified for the World Cup 2019, if it
is known that tie-breaker was not required? (Here remaining matches means the matches whose
outcomes are not known to us.)
Netherlands
Zimbabwe

Ireland
Cannot be Determined
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Friday morning.
known to us.
If UAE lost both their matches, the table will look as follows:
The result of Zimbabwe vs. Netherlands is not known to us.

If Zimbabwe beat, they directly qualify for the World Cup. If Zimbabwe lost to Netherlands, then
UAE, Ireland, Zimbabwe and Netherlands will win 2 matches each necessitating a tie-breaker. As
tie-breaker was not needed, Zimbabwe beat Netherlands, and qualified for the World
Cup. Hence, [2].
Correct Answer:
Zimbabwe

Your Attempt: Wrong
4)
If Zimbabwe lost both the remaining matches, then which team qualified for the World Cup 2019?
(Here remaining matches means the matches whose outcomes are not known to us.)
Netherlands
UAE
Ireland
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Friday morning.

known to us.
Afghanistan definitely qualified for the ICC Cricket Word Cup 2019.
If Zimbabwe lost both the matches the table is as follows:
In this case, Zimbabwe, Ireland, Netherlands and Kenya lost 3, 2, 2 and 4 matches. UAE lost 0
matches. Therefore, though the result of the match between UAE vs. Ireland is not known UAE
definitely qualified.
Hence, [2].
Correct Answer:
UAE

Your Attempt: Wrong
undefined
Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Correct Answer:

undefined
undefined
O, P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z are 12 persons, 3 each from four different families – the

Ahuja’s, the Sharma’s, the Malhotra’s and the Mishra’s.
Given below are five groups, each group consisting of four persons such that no group consists of
two persons from the same family.
Further it is given that:
I. R and Y are not from the same family.

II. T and Y are not from the same family.
III. O is from the Ahuja’s.
IV. Neither T nor Y are from the Sharma’s.
1)
X is from the same family as:
Q
W
Z
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Consider members of groups C and E.

From I and II, R and T are not Y’s family members. X and Y are members of group E so, X is not
from Y’s family. So, group C has member V from Y’s family.
Q and Y are members of group B. O and V are members of group D. So, O and Q are not
members of Y & Z’s family. So, S represents the family; to which Y and V belong; in group A.
Thus, from III and IV, Y, V and S belong to family 1 (i.e., either Mishra's or Malhotra's).
Now consider groups A and D. Neither Q nor Z are from same family as O. Among members of
group B, Q, Z and Y are not from Ahuja family. So, W has to be from Ahuja family. R and V are not
Ahuja family members. If T is from Ahuja family, then group E will not have a representation of
Ahuja family.
Thus, Ahuja family: O, W and X.
Consider remaining members of groups A, B and C. R and Z has to be from one family. And Q
and T from the other family. Now from members of groups D and E, it can be concluded that R, Z
and P are members of a same family, while Q, T and U are from one family.
So, from IV, Sharma family: R, Z and P

Q, T and U belong to family 2 (i.e., either Malhotra's or Mishra's).
X is from the same family as W. Hence, [2].
Correct Answer:

2)
Who among the following is definitely from the Sharma’s?
Z
P
Both Z and P
Either Z or P
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Consider members of groups C and E.

From I and II, R and T are not Y’s family members. X and Y are members of group E so, X is not
from Y’s family. So, group C has member V from Y’s family.
Q and Y are members of group B. O and V are members of group D. So, O and Q are not
members of Y & Z’s family. So, S represents the family; to which Y and V belong; in group A.
Thus, from III and IV, Y, V and S belong to family 1 (i.e., either Mishra's or Malhotra's).
Now consider groups A and D. Neither Q nor Z are from same family as O. Among members of
group B, Q, Z and Y are not from Ahuja family. So, W has to be from Ahuja family. R and V are not
Ahuja family members. If T is from Ahuja family, then group E will not have a representation of
Ahuja family.
Thus, Ahuja family: O, W and X.
Consider remaining members of groups A, B and C. R and Z has to be from one family. And Q
and T from the other family. Now from members of groups D and E, it can be concluded that R, Z
and P are members of a same family, while Q, T and U are from one family.
So, from IV, Sharma family: R, Z and P
Q, T and U belong to family 2 (i.e., either Malhotra's or Mishra's).

Both Z and P are from Sharma family. Hence, [3].
Correct Answer:
Both Z and P

3)
Which of the following statements is not correct?
If Q is from the Mishra’s, then S is from the Malhotra’s.
X is from the Ahuja’s and Z is from the Sharma’s.
If U is from the Malhotra’s, then S is from the Mishra’s.
None of these.
4)
For how many persons, the exact families they belong to can be uniquely determined
10
9
8
6
undefined
Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
undefined
undefined
Refer to the data given below and answer the questions that follow.
Eight persons – Aman, Anant, Andrew, Barry, Bob, Dave, Debby and Dev – are to be seated
around a round table facing inwards. The following information is provided regarding their seating
arrangement.
1. There is only one pair of persons whose names start with the same letter such that the two
persons in the pair sit diametrically opposite to each other.
2. The two persons who are seated at an angle of 135° (in clockwise as well as anti-clockwise
directions) with respect to Aman have their names starting with the same letter.
3. Dave sits diametrically opposite Aman. Anant sits diametrically opposite a person whose name
starts with the immediate next letter in the alphabet.
4. Both the immediate neighbours of Bob have their names starting with different letters.
1)
If position of Bob is fixed, the positions of how many people (including Bob) can be uniquely
determined?
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
From (1) and (3) the two people sitting diametrically opposite must be Dev and Debby. From (2),
either (Andrew and Anant) or (Barry and Bob) are seated on Dave’s sides. If Barry and Bob are on
Dave’s sides, it will violate condition (4).
Therefore, Anant and Andrew are on Dave’s sides in no specific order.
The seating arrangement is as follows:

If position of Bob is fixed, positions of Aman, Bob, Berry and Dave can be uniquely determined.
Correct Answer:

2)
Who sits at an angle 90° in anti-clockwise direction with respect to Dave?
Dev
Barry
Debby
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Therefore, Anant and Andrew are on Dave’s sides in no specific order.
Either Dev or Debby sits at an angle of 90° in the anti-clockwise direction with respect to Dave.
Hence, [4].
Correct Answer:


3)
If Anant sits to the immediate right of Dev, then who sits second to the left of Debby?
Aman
Bob
Dave
Barry
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Anant and Andrew are on Dave’s sides in no specific order.
If Anant sits to the immediate right of Dev, the seating arrangement is as follows,
From this arrangement, we see that the person sitting second to the left of Debby is Dave.
Hence, [3].
Correct Answer:
Dave

4)
If Andrew sits at an angle of 90° with respect to Barry, then what is the measure of the angle (in
degrees) between Bob and Andrew in the clockwise direction?
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Anant and Andrew are on Dave’s sides in no specific order.
If Andrew sits at an angle 90° with respect to Barry, the seating arrangement is,

OR
Bob and Andrew sit diametrically opposite to each other.
Correct Answer:
180

Your Attempt: Wrong
undefined
Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
undefined
undefined
undefined
How many different types of regular convex polygons having more than 12 sides have the
measures (in degrees) of both their interior angles and their central angle (i.e., the angle
subtended by one of the side at the centre of the polygon) as integer values (in degrees)?
Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
14



undefined
A bag contains three different types of marbles red, blue and green. The ratio of the number of red
marbles to the number of blue marbles is 1 : 2 and the total number of green marbles is 20. In all, 5
green marbles and 2 red marbles are replaced by equal number of blue marbles. Now, the ratio of
the number of red marbles and the number of blue marbles in the bag is 1 : 3. Find the total
number of marbles in the bag.
56
59
62
65
Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Let the initial number of red marbles and blue marbles be x and 2x respectively.
Total number of marbles = x + 2x + 20 = 3x + 20
If 2 red and 5 green marbles are replaced by blue marbles, the bag will have (x– 2) red marbles,
(2x + 7) blue marbles and 15 green marbles.
By the given conditions,
Correct Answer:
59


undefined
A bacterium gives birth to 2 bacteria in each hour. It is dies immediately after reproducing for the
second time. If a single bacterium is kept in a favourable medium, then what will be the bacteria
population at the end of 5 hours?
63
120
148
164
Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
At the end of 2 hours, 1 bacterium dies. At the end of 3 hours, those bacteria die who were born at
the end of 1 hour.
Total Living Bacteria at the end of n hours = New born in that hour + Total bacteria at the end of (n -
1) hour - Bacteria born in (n - 2) hour
Going ahead with this understanding, we can tabulate the data as follows:

Hence, [4].
Correct Answer:
164

Your Attempt: Wrong

undefined
The average of X numbers decreases by 1.5 when 75% of the X numbers are reduced by 5 each
and remaining numbers are increased by Y. The value of Y is:
Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Correct Answer:

undefined
The number of apples Manoj need for 12 days is two-fifth of the number of apples Vinod needs for
20 days. By what percentage is the number of apples needed by Vinod more than that by Manoj
for 180 days?
80%

50%
125%
75%
Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
50%

undefined
The number of zeroes at the end of 500C250 is:
Section
Video Explanation:

Explanation:
Correct Answer:

undefined
11
7
4
9
Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
11

undefined

Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Correct Answer:

undefined
Consider the following two equations
|2x – 3| – 2y = 0

|3x + 2y| = 1
If points (x1, y1) and (x2, y2) are the two values of (x, y) respectively that satisfy both the equations,
what is the value of |x1 × x2 × y1 × y2|?
0
77
154
105
Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:


Correct Answer:
154

undefined

In the adjoining diagram, ABCD is a parallelogram with m∠BCD = 135°. AB is diameter of the circle
and ℓ(AB) = 12 cm. What is the area common between the circle and the parallelogram (in cm2)?
Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:

Correct Answer:

Your Attempt: Wrong
undefined
1
2
0.5
Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Correct Answer:


undefined
How many combinations of the letters of the word ‘MAHARASHTRA’ are possible such that ‘R’ is
always immediately followed by ‘H’?
15120
7560
3360
1680
Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
7560

undefined
A shopkeeper uses false weights and thereby cheats customer by giving 750 gm instead of 1 kg.
He also claims that he sells rice at cost price. In order to increase his sales he offered 125 gm of

rice free with every 1 kg of rice. What is his overall percentage (approximate) profit if a customer
buys 1 kg of rice and if the shopkeeper uses false weight to measure 125 gm also?
14.28%
18.52%
21.42%
28.56%
Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
Correct Answer:
7560

undefined
The price of an article is first increased by 20%, then decreased by 10%, then increased by 30%
and finally decreased by 40%. Approximately, what was the price of the article, when expressed as
a percentage of its initial price?
68%
77%
85%
105%
Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
If the initial price is P, then the final price will be P × 1.2 × 0.9 × 1.3 × 0.6 = 0.8424 P.
Hence, [3].
Correct Answer:
85%

undefined
In a kilometer race, Prakash beats Qasim by 60 seconds, and gets beaten by Robin by 40
seconds. If Qasim ran at 2 m/s, at what speed did Robin run?
2.5 m/s
2.6 m/s
2.75 m/s
2.25 m/s
Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:

Correct Answer:
2.5 m/s

Your Attempt: Wrong
undefined
Two identical samples of 225 ml of a composite liquid M, which is a mixture of liquids A, B and
water, were sent to two testing labs P and Q to determine the ratio in which A, B and water is
present in M. While transporting the 225 ml sample to lab P, some water accidently seeped into the
sample and the lab gave the test results as 2 : 3 : 5. While transporting the other sample to lab Q,
some water got evaporated and the test results came out to be 6 : 9 : 10. If the amount of water
that got added in the first sample is four times the amount of water that got evaporated in the
second sample, find the ratio in which the three liquids A, B and water are present in M.
2 : 3 : 15
8 : 12 : 15
12 : 18 : 25
6 : 9 : 11
Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:

Suppose x = quantity of water evaporated from the sample sent to lab Q.

Therefore the quantity of water got added to the sample sent to lab P = 4x.
Volume of the sample tested by lab P: 225 + 4x
Volume of the sample tested by lab Q: 225 – x
Report given by lab P is 2 : 3 : 5 and the report given by lab Q is 6 : 9 : 10
Suppose volumes of liquid A, liquid B and water in the sample reached to lab P are 6a, 9a and
15a respectively. Sample sent to lab Q has same volume of liquid A and liquid B. Therefore
volume of liquid A and liquid B in the sample sent to lab Q is also 6a and 9a respectively. The
liquid A, liquid B and water in the sample sent to lab Q are in the ratio 6 : 9 : 10. Therefore volume
of water in the sample reached to lab Q = 10 a.
From the table, we can see that 5a = 5x or a = x.

In order to calculate the ratio of the three in original sample, we need to add water with volume ‘a’
to the sample sent to lab Q.
Therefore, the volume of liquid A, liquid B and water will become 6a, 9a and 11a or the required
ratio will be 6 : 9 : 11.
Hence, [4].
Correct Answer:
6 : 9 : 11

undefined
A function g(x) defined for all real values of x such that g(2x + 4) = 5g(x) + 2. If g(12) = 17, then
what is the value of 5g(0)?
0
3
2
1
Section
Video Explanation:

Explanation:
Correct Answer:

undefined
Ram has 20 pencils – some of type A and others of type B. The length of each pencil of type A is 5
cm while that of type B is 8 cm. Ram gave ‘a’ pencils of type A to Shyam. In return, Shyam gave ‘a’
pencils of type B to Ram. If the average length of pencils with Ram is increased by 1.5 cm, then
what is the value of ‘a’?
Section
Video Explanation:

Explanation:
The total number of pencils with Ram remained the same after the exchange.
Also, net increase in the sum of lengths of pencils with Ram = (8– 5)a = 3a
Increase in average length of pencils with Ram = 1.5 × 20 = 30
? 3a = 30 ? a = 10
Correct Answer:
10

undefined
2
9y
12y
6y
Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:

Correct Answer:
9y

undefined
Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:

Correct Answer:
15

Your Attempt: Wrong
undefined
The age of Virat ‘A’ years ago was two-fifths of what his age would be ‘A’ years from now. His age ‘B’
years from now would be four times of what his age was ‘B’ years ago. The ratio A : B is:
7:5
5:7
4:3
3:4
Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:

Correct Answer:
5:7

undefined
A group of men (all work with equal efficiency) working together can complete a job in M hours.
Instead of working together, after every 8 hours, half of the men of the group working at that point
of time leave the job. Continuing this way, the job is finished in 40 hours.
What is the value of M?
15
Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:

Correct Answer:

undefined
logx3 = 6
logx6 = 3
log36 = x
log63 = x
Section
Video Explanation:

Explanation:
Correct Answer:
logx3 = 6

undefined
If |x2 – 5x + 6| < |x2 – 9|, then which of the following is always true?
|2x2 + 3x + 1| < 2
Both the above

None of the above
Section
Video Explanation:

Explanation:
The questions that Ambar got wrong can be determined in10C2 ways and Pranav has got his 3
wrong from the remaining 8 in 8C3 ways.
So, total number of ways = 10C2 × 8C3 ways = 2520.
Hence, [3].
Correct Answer:
2520

undefined
If |x2 – 5x + 6| < |x2 – 9|, then which of the following is always true?
|2x2 + 3x + 1| < 2
Both the above

None of the above
Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:

Correct Answer:
None of the above

Your Attempt: Wrong
undefined
John, Tony and Roger are at points A, B and C respectively on a straight line. Initially, at time t = 0,
distance between John and Tony is same as the distance between Tony and Roger. At time t = 0,
John and Tony start running towards each other at speeds of 12 m/s and 9 m/s respectively. At t =
0, Roger starts running towards Tony with constant speed ‘s’ such at any instant, the distance
between John and Tony is same as the distance between Tony and Roger. What is the value of ‘s’?
12 m/s
21 m/s
30 m/s
39 m/s
Section
Video Explanation:

Explanation:
Correct Answer:
30 m/s

Your Attempt: Wrong
undefined
Which of the following discount scheme on the marked price is most favourable to the buyer?
Three successive discounts of 20% each.

Three successive discounts of 10%, 20% and 30% in any order.
The successive discounts of 5%, 20% and 35% in any order.
Buy 3 and get 2 free.
Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:

Correct Answer:
The successive discounts of 5%, 20% and 35% in any order.

undefined
If m and n are positive real number such that log16m4n6 = 5 and log32mn4 = 9, and mn2 = 2k, then
the value of k is:
Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:

Correct Answer:
13

Your Attempt: Wrong
undefined
If x – y2 = 4 and x2 + y4 = 26, where x and y are positive and real, then the value of x is:
Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:

Correct Answer:

undefined
In how many ways can 5 identical red balls, 6 identical green balls and 7 identical blue balls be
arranged in a row such that all the red balls are together and no two green balls are together?
Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:

Correct Answer:
672

Your Attempt: Wrong
undefined
Two identical rectangles having length = 24 units and breadth = 7 units are inscribed in a circle of
area ‘a’ as shown in the figure given below. The area of the shaded region is (a − b). The value of
'b' is:
Section
Video Explanation:

Explanation:
Area of the shaded region = (a – b), where ‘b’ is the area covered by the rectangles.
Area covered by the rectangles

= (24 × 7) + (24 – 7)(7) = 287
Correct Answer:
287

undefined
For what value of k, is the line (2x – y + 1) + k(x + 3y + 2) = 0 perpendicular to x = 4?
–2
2
Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:

Correct Answer:
–2

undefined
A farmer has 88 m of barbed wire fencing. With this he encloses a field of area X sq. m. What can
be said about the maximum possible value of X?
600 < X < 650

550 < X < 600
500 < X < 550
450 < X < 500
Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:
The maximum area that can be enclosed within a given perimeter is a circle.

Correct Answer:
600 < X < 650

Your Attempt: Wrong
undefined
Section
Video Explanation:
Explanation:

Correct Answer:
485


SIMCAT8

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

SIMCAT8

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Description:

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

SIMCAT8

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

8/25/2019 SIMCAT 8.

file:///C:/Users/RAY/Downloads/SIMCAT - 18/SIMCAT 8.html 1/121

This is a question of medium difficulty.

Time taken by you: 403 secs

This is a question of medium difficulty.

Time taken by you: 70 secs

file:///C:/Users/RAY/Downloads/SIMCAT - 18/SIMCAT 8.html 3/121

This is a difficult question.

The positive changes themselves become tools of spreading dramatic perspectives.

Time taken by you: 136 secs

This is a question of medium difficulty.

file:///C:/Users/RAY/Downloads/SIMCAT - 18/SIMCAT 8.html 4/121

of improvement. Reject option 4.

Time taken by you: 57 secs

This is a difficult question.

file:///C:/Users/RAY/Downloads/SIMCAT - 18/SIMCAT 8.html 5/121

Time taken by you: 65 secs

This is a question of medium difficulty.

Time taken by you: 92 secs

file:///C:/Users/RAY/Downloads/SIMCAT - 18/SIMCAT 8.html 6/121

They are electrically neutral particles inside the atom.

This is a question of medium difficulty level.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

They are massless particles that are incredibly difficult to detect.

Time taken by you: 125 secs

They proved the neutrino interaction process predicted by theorists.

This is a medium difficulty question.

file:///C:/Users/RAY/Downloads/SIMCAT - 18/SIMCAT 8.html 8/121

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

They proved the neutrino interaction process predicted by theorists.

Time taken by you: 269 secs

This is an easy question.

file:///C:/Users/RAY/Downloads/SIMCAT - 18/SIMCAT 8.html 9/121

Time taken by you: 133 secs

file:///C:/Users/RAY/Downloads/SIMCAT - 18/SIMCAT 8.html 10/121

The concept of phatic communication debuted in “The Problem of Meaning in Primitive

This is a question of medium difficulty.

Hence the correct answer is option 4.

Time taken by you: 0 secs

This is an easy question

file:///C:/Users/RAY/Downloads/SIMCAT - 18/SIMCAT 8.html 12/121

Time taken by you: 0 secs

completing a group activity

This is an “EXCEPT” question of medium difficulty.

Hence the correct answer is option 3.

fostering shared beliefs

Time taken by you: 0 secs

is in no way different from trivial indigenous utterances.

This is an easy question.

Option 4 highlights the ‘frivolousness’ of WhatsApp messages and pleasantries exchanged in

Hence the correct answer is option 3.

caters to the core human need to feel the presence of others.

Time taken by you: 0 secs

This is a question of medium difficulty.

The option that best brings out this difference is option 4.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

Time taken by you: 0 secs

is one rooted in the communication of meaning or the calling to action

This is a difficult question.