PLT College Inc

Bayombong, Nueva Vizcaya

Name: ____________________________________________ Score: __________________________

Date_______________________________ Section ______________________ Year _______________

Multiple Choice: Read each question carefully and write your answer on the space provided beside each
item.

Orthopedic Nursing
_____1. All of the following are management in fracture EXCEPT:
a) Recognition c) Reconstruction
b) Reduction d) Rehabilitation
_____2. Mardy, a patient with a hip and knee replacement begin ambulation with a walker for how long
after surgery?
a) 24 hours c) 1 week
b) 72 hours d) 2-3 weeks
_____3. Canes are used as mechanical aid for ambulation of patients with orthopaedic cases. There are
two types of cane, the standard straight cane and the quad cane which has four feet and provides the
most support. To further promote safety of the patient by promoting traction and preventing slipping,
what should be meticulously seen when purchasing a cane?
a) Rubber caps on the tip c) adjustable leg
b) plastic hand grip d) none of the above
_____4. In choosing for a cane, you must consider the preference of the patient at the same time the
height must be taken into account also. The length of the cane should permit the elbow to be slightly
flexed, that’s why a standard height of the cane must be met and that is:
a) 15-21 in c) 39-42 in
b) 22-38 in d) 43-80 in
_____5. Ability of ambulation and good muscle strength are required in using mechanical devices. In
using a cane, clients should flex at an angle of 15-30 % and handling at:
a) Greater tubercle c) greater trochanter
b) lesser tubercle d) lesser trochanter
_____6. Crutches are another set of mechanical walking devices. Proper use of it must be instructed
correctly by the health care provider to avoid complications. To prevent complications, the gap of the
axilla to the top edges of the crutches should be:
a) 1-2 finger widths c)4-5 finger widths
b) 3-4 finger widths d) 6-7 finger widths
_____7. Placing the weight on the armpit must be avoided because it might damage the nerves located
on the axillary area. What is the most common complication of improper use of this mechanical device?
a) driver’s pay palsy c) crutch palsy
b) waiter’s tip palsy d) none of the above
_____8. There are various types of gait in crutch walking which depends on the case of the patient.
What type of gait then provides excellent stabilty as there are always three points in contact with the
ground?
a) 4 point gait c) 3 point gait
b) 2 point gait d) swing through gait
_____9. This type of gait utilizes this sequence: move both crutches, the weaker leg moves followed by
the stronger leg.
a) 4 point gait c) 3 point gait
b) 2 point gait d) swing through gait
_____10. The distance of the feet from the walker when preparing to walk with it must be:
a) 3 in c) 9 in
b) 6 in d) 12 in

Neurologic Nursing
_____11. Seizures are episodes of abnormal motor, sensory, autonomic and psychic activity. The
underlying cause is an abnormal electrical disturbance in the nerve cells in one section of the brain
which is also called as:
a) dysthymia c) dysarthria
b) dysrhytmia d) dyskinesia
_____12. The specific cause of seizure disorders are varied which can be genetically, environmentally, or
caused by an underlying disease process. All of the following may contribute to the development of
seizures EXCEPT:
a) Hypertension c) Allergies
b) Renal Failure d) None of the above
_____13. It is very important to assess the signs of an impending seizure to identify the nature, the type
and the factors that precipitate the seizure attack. Which among the following should be assessed the
least?
a) The occurrence of aura (a premonitory or warning sensation, which can be visual, auditory etc.)
b) the types of movement in the part of the body involved
c) the presence or absence of automatisms
d) the type of food eaten before the attack
_____14. All of the following are types of generalized seizures EXCEPT:
a) Tonic-Clonic Seizures
b) Tonic Seizures
c) Clonic Seizures
d) Jacksonian Seizures
_____15. The nurse should recognize a generalized tonic-clonic seizures if which of the following occurs?
a) Brief, abrupt loss of consciousness lasting 10-20 seconds
b) Loss of LOC for several minutes, with sustained and intermittent contractions in all motor
groups
c) Sustained and intermittent contractions of selected motor groups in somewhat selected areas
d) Twitching of facial muscles
_____16. What assessment is most important before administering Mannitol 2 g/kg IV to a client with
increased ICP?
a) Vital Signs
b) Lung Sound
c) Urinary Output
d) Pupillary Reactions
_____17. A nursing intervention to include with a client experiencing increased intracranial pressure
following neurosurgery is to:
a) Maintain the head in the middle with the head of bed elevated 30 degrees
b) Administer PRN sedation, liberally
c) Loosely apply restraints
 d) Have the client cough, breath, lie in an every hour basis
_____18. the triad signs of Increased ICP are?
a) Increased temperature, Increased RR, increased HR
b) Elevated Blood Pressure, increased temperature, increased RR
c) Increased RR, projectile vomiting, increased BP
d) Increased BP, increased RR, Increased HR
_____19. The cranial cavity is comprised of the mass, the CSF and the blood. Before any increase in the
pressure, there must be an alteration on these 3 that causes the elevation. As a nursing student, you
must know your baseline data before assuming that there is an increase ICP. What then is the normal
pressure inside the cranium which usually is measured on the lateral ventricles of the brain?
a) 0-15 mmHg c)16-25 mmHg
b) 12-20 mmHg d) 18-30 mmHg
_____20. As a nurse, you must be very keen in observing the signs of Increased ICP. What is the first
sign that you have to take note of when assessing increased ICP?
a) Vertigo c) Decrease LOC
b) Ptosis d) Hyperthermia
_____21. The nurse is positioning the female client with increased intracranial pressure. Which of the
following positions would the nurse avoid?
a) Head mildline
b) Head turned to the side
c) Neck in neutral position
d) Head of bed elevated 30 to 45 degree
_____22. A female client has clear fluid leaking from the nose following a basilar skull fracture. The
nurse assesses that this is cerebrospinal fluid if the fluid:
a) Is clear and tests negative for glucose
b) Is grossly bloody in appearance and has a pH of 6
c) Clumps together on the dressing and has a pH of 7
d) Separates into concentric rings and test positive of glucose
_____23. Guillaine Barre Syndrome is an autoimmune disease that attacks the peripheral nerve myelin
which results in an acute, rapid, and segmental demyelination of the nerves which produces weakness
and paralysis. What is the pattern of paralysis in GBS?
a) Ascending c) Either
b) Descending d) All of the above
_____24. The exact location of the immune attack within the peripheral nerve system is the:
a) GM2a c) GM3c
b) GM1b d) GM2b
_____25. Myasthenia gravis is due to ____ receptors being blocked and destroyed by antibodies.
a) Epinephrine c) Nicotinic
b) Acetylcholine d) Dopamine
_____26. Myasthenia Gravis is another autoimmune disorder which affects the myoneural junction. It is
characterized by having varying degrees of weakness, with signs of diplopia and ptosis. What is the drug
of choice for this very rare disorder?
a) Pyridostigmine Bromide (Mestinon) c) Timolol Maleate
b) Carbamazepine (Tegretol) d) Interferon Beta 1a (Rebif)
_____27. Plasmapharesis is one procedure to treat exacerbations of Myasthenia Gravis. The patient’s
plasma and plasma components are removed to a centrally placed large bore double lumen catheter.
What is the main purpose of plasmapharesis in alleviating exacerbations of MG?
a) The blood is cleansed thereby reducing the amount of toxins in the blood
 b) To help the heart in its pumping ability
c) To reduce temporarily the amount of circulating antibodies
d) None of the above
_____28. A female client has experienced an episode of myasthenic crisis. The nurse would assess
whether the client has precipitating factors such as:
a) Getting too little exercise c) Taking excess medication
b) Omitting doses of medication d) Increasing intake of fatty foods
_____29. The nurse is teaching the female client with myasthenia gravis about the prevention of
myasthenic and cholinergic crises. The nurse tells the client that this is most effectively done by:
a) Eating large, well-balanced meals
b) Doing muscle-strengthening exercises
c) Doing all chores early in the day while less fatigued
d) Taking medications on time to maintain therapeutic blood levels
_____30. Assessment strategies and supportive measures for Myasthenia Gravis includes all of the
following EXCEPT:
a) Arterial Blood Gas c) Input and output
b) Serum Electrolytes d) Sleep-wake pattern
_____31. Multiple sclerosis is a disease that attacks the _______ of neurons in the CNS.
a) Myelin sheaths c) Axon terminals
b) Sodium channels d) Nicotinic receptors
_____32. Myelin sheaths are vital component of the CNS as it_________________:
a) Insulates the nerves for transmission of stimuli
b) Innervates the motor and sensory nerves for pathogenic attacks
c) It prepares the nerves for any foreign body infestation
d) None of the above
_____33. The progression of a nerve impulse with the nodes of Ranvier is called _______.
a) Saltatory conduction c) Transmission
b) Unmyelinated conduction d) Relative conduction
_____34. The nurse is assessing a 37-year-old client diagnosed with multiple sclerosis. Which of the
following symptoms would the nurse expect to find?
a) Ptosis c) Absent deep tendon reflexes
b) Tremors at rest d) Flaccid muscles
_____35. Tic Doloreux is a neurological disorder that affects what cranial nerve?
a) Abducens c) Facial Nerve
b) Trigeminal Nerve d)Olfactory Nerve
_____36. When dealing with a patient with Tic Doloreux what type of diet should be strictly
implemented?
a) Hypoallergenic Diet c) DAT
b) Soft/Liquid Diet d) High Caloric Diet
_____37. The patient with Tic Doloreux wants to go outside to view the parade of PLT College Inc as
they commemorate their Founding Anniversary. What are you going to advice this patient before
allowing him to go?
a) Nothing. Just tell the patient to enjoy and be safe.
b) Advice to wear jacket or anything that would cover the face from the heat of the sun
c) Give him crackers to eat while he is enjoying the view
d) Tell the patient to bring Gatorade to prevent dehydration while he is exposed to the warm
weather.
_____38. When obtaining the health history from a male client with retinal detachment, the nurse
expects the client to report:
a) Light flashes and floaters in front of the eye.
b) A recent driving accident while changing lens.
c) Headaches, nausea, and redness of the eyes.
d) Frequent episodes of double vision.
_____39. Pain and redness of the eyes are signs of impending detachment of the retina. When these
signs are felt by the patient, what position should you instruct the patient to assume with the hope of
that the retina will still attach to its tissue connection?
a) Lateral position on the affected side c) Fowler’s Position
b) Lateral position on the unaffected side d) Knee chest Position
_____40. One of the surgeries indicated for Retinal Detachment is Scleral Buckling. Post operatively how
are you going to position the patient to avoid further hemorrhage?
a) Lateral position on the affected side c) Fowler’s Position
b) Lateral position on the unaffected side d) Knee chest Position
_____41. A female client is admitted to the facility for investigation of balance and coordination
problems, including possible Ménière’s disease. When assessing this client, the nurse expects to note:
a) vertigo, tinnitus, and hearing loss. c) vertigo, vomiting, and nystagmus
b) vertigo, pain, and hearing impairment. d) vertigo, blurred vision, and fever.
_____42. A male client is color blind. The nurse understands that this client has a problem with:
a) rods. c) cones
b) vitreous humor d) aqueous humor
_____43. A fluid component which delivers nutrients to the eyes?
a) rods. c) cones
b) vitreous humor d) aqueous humor
_____44. The nurse is observing a student nurse administer eyedrops. What should the nurse instruct
the student to do?
a) Move the dropper to the inner canthus
b) Have the client raise her eyebrows
c) Administer the drops into the center of the lower lid
d) Have the client squeeze both eyes after administering the drops
_____45. A client was admitted to OPD Surgery for cataract extraction OD. the client asked the nurse. “
What causes cataract in old people?” Which of the following statements should form the basis for the
nurse’s response. Cataracts most commonly are result of:
a) Chronic Systemic Disease c) aging process
b) injuries sustained in early life d) the prolonged use of drugs
_____46. A client asks, “What does the lens of my eye do?” The nurse should explain that the lens of the
eye:
a) Produces aqueous humor
b) Holds the rods and cones
c) focuses light rays on the retina
d) Regulates the amount of light entering the eye
_____47. A client with cataract would most probably complain of which symptoms?
a) Halos and rainbows around lights
b) eye pain and irritation that worsens at night
c) Blurred and hazy vision
d) eye strain and headache when doing close work
_____48. A client who has been treated for Chronic Open angle glaucoma for 5 years asked the nurse.
“How does glaucoma damage my eyesight?” The nurse’s reply should be based on the knowledge that
COAG:
a) Results from chronic eye inflammation
b) Causes Increased Intraocular Pressure
c) Leads to the detachment of the retina
d) Is caused by decreased blood flow to the retina
_____49. When assessing an adult with Macular degeneration the nurse should expect to find:
a) loss of central vision c) loss of peripheral vision
b) total blindness d) partial blindness
_____50. Which of the following statements by the client would indicate that she understands the
expected course of Meniere’s Disease?
a) “ The disease process will gradually extend to the eyes”
b) “ Control of the episodes is usually possible, but a cure is not yet available”
c) “ Continued medication therapy will cure the disease”
d) “Bilateral deafness is inevitable outcome of the disease”
II. Matching Type: Match the best definition from Column A to the terminologies from Column B.

Column A Column B
_____1. Normal Condition in which the process A) Apathy
and the feeling is in harmony. B) Appropriate Affect
_____2. Belief that one is impoverished or will be C) Inappropriate Affect
deprived with wealth. D) Delusions of Poverty
_____3. Miscomprehension of an object seen E) Delusions of Grandeur
by the naked eye. F) Illusion
_____4. Severe, prolonged and unfounded feelings G) Delusion
of gloom or despondency. H) Hallucination
_____5. An aura of intense delight, elation and I) Depression
gratification J) Ecstasy
_____6. feeling of weirdness and out of ordinary K) Euphoria
towards self. L) Derealization
_____7. Rapid and abrupt shift in emotional feeling M) Depersonalization
or tone usually contrary to the stimuli. N) Labile Affect
_____8. Feeling that he is a god/goddess O) Blunted Affect
_____9. Stopping abruptly in the middle of the P) Libido
sentence, sometimes may unable to continue. Q) Differentiation
_____10. Represents the highest level degree of R) Personality
word disorganization. S) Circumstantiality
_____11. This may indicate defensiveness and T) Accomodation
characterized by unnecessary details in answering U) Growth
_____12. Rapid shifting of thoughts from one topic V) Development
to another without relevance W) Flight of Ideas
_____13.Dulled emotional tone X) Looseness of Association
_____14. Physical increase in size which is measured Y) Word Salad
quantitatively. Z) Thought Stopping
_____15. refers to changes in skills and capacity to AA) Thought Blocking
function. AB) Religious Delusion
_____16. Process by which the cells and structures
become modified and develop more refine
characteristics
_____17. energy form or life instinct that motivates
human development
_____18. outward expression of self which encompasses
temperament, feelings and self concept.
_____19. process through which humans encounter and
react to new situations by using the mechanism they
already possess.
_____20. process whereby cognitive processes mature
sufficiently to allow the person solve problems that were
insolvable before.

People who CRITICIZE a lot are INSECURE

People who COMPLAIN a lot, seldom makes ACTION
People who INSULT a lot are commonly UGLY
People who FLIRT a lot lack LOVE and ATTENTION
People who GOSSIP a lot never had TRUE FRIENDS
..........on the OTHER HAND.
People who are STRONG are usually those who were once WEAK and POOR
People who ACHIEVE a lot, have INSPIRATIONS
and people who SUCCEEDS in life are those who are DETERMINED and CLEAR on
what their GOALS are.

GOODLUCK FUTURE Registered Nurse!!!

 PLT COLLEGE, INC.
Bayombong, Nueva Vizcaya

Institute of Health Sciences – College of Nursing

RLE GRADING SHEET

Second Semester SY 2009-2010

NCM 102
Nueva Vizcaya Provincial Hospital- Pediatric Ward
Group 4
July 19,20,21-26,27,28,2010

Name of Student Grade Remarks

1) *****

2) *****

3) *****

4) *****

5) *****

6) *****

7) *****

8) *****

9) *****

10) *****

11) *****

12) *****

Submitted By: Noted By:

Prince Rener Pera, RN Mrs. Constancia Souissi, RN,MSN

Clinical Instructor Clinical Coordinator
 PLT COLLEGE, INC.
Bayombong, Nueva Vizcaya

Institute of Health Sciences – College of Nursing

RLE GRADING SHEET

Second Semester SY 2009-2010

NCM 102
Nueva Vizcaya Provincial Hospital- Pediatric Ward
Group 5
August 2,3,4-9,10,11,2010

Name of Student Grade Remarks

1) Calingayan, Janet *****

2) Cacbet, Wendy *****

3) Canilao, Mae Ann *****

4) Castro, Kris Angeli *****

5) Changiwan, Claire *****

6) Coniega, Aileen *****

7) Dacuycuy Jr., Wilfreid *****

8) Dagan, Shimei Lei *****

9) Dingrat, Lheal *****

10) Egue, Marivic *****

11) Flores, Angela *****

12) Velarde, Michelle *****

Submitted By: Noted By:

Prince Rener Pera, RN Mrs. Constancia Souissi, RN,MSN

Clinical Instructor Clinical Coordinator
 PLT College Inc
Bayombong, Nueva Vizcaya

Name: ____________________________________________ Score: __________________________

Date_______________________________ Section ______________________ Year _______________

Multiple Choice: Read each question carefully and write your answer on the space provided beside each
item.

Your Nursing Unit plans to conduct a study on the use of structured preoperative preparation in
lessening the demand for post-operative pain reliever.
_____1.The research methodology that is appropriate for the above problem would be:
a) Descriptive c) Experimental
b) Correlational d) Ex Post Facto
_____2. Which of the following activity should you initially do?
a) Find out from interview how many patients are willing to participate
b) Review literature on the topic
c) Get the permission from the hospital director
d) Prepare the tool for collecting the data
_____3. Mr. Imperial, a community health nurse conducts a study on the Role of a Nurse in Primary
Health Care. What research design is appropriate to use in this study?
a) Descriptive c) Experimental
b) Correlational d) Ex Post Facto
_____4. The best method of data collection in your study is:
a) Questionnaire c) Interview
b) Snow Balling d) Survey
_____5. Independent variables in a socio-demographic study would include personal data of the subject.
Which of the following is not an independent variable in such studies?
a) Marital Status c) Informed Consent
b) Educational Level d) Age
_____6. Nurse John Carl and Nurse Janice are interested to conduct an initial research on Responsible
Parenthood. How should they start the process?
a) Make a survey on the neighbourhood
b) identify the focus of the study
c) Observe family relationship at home
d) Watch family interactions in telenovela and family shows
_____7. Where else will they start the process?
a) Conversation with classmates and friends c) Community Data
b) Literature Review d) Notes from the lecture
_____8. Responsible parenthood through survey research is best analyzed by what design?
a) Correlation c) Experimentation
b) Qualitative d) Quantitative
_____9. The data that will be gathered in the study about responsible parenthood should give answer tp
your:
a) Hypothesis c) Research Problem
b) Conceptual Framework d) Instrumentation
_____10. Which of the following processes is not a major method of data collection?
 a) Observation c) Secondary/Existing data
b) Open-ended Questions d) Tests
_____11. These are techniques researchers are to structure a study and to gather and analyze
information relevant to the research question.
a) Research Design c) Theoretical Framework
b) Paradigm of the Study d) Research Methids
_____12. It is the general perspective on the complexities of the real world?
a) Philosophy c) Research Design
b) Paradigm d) Instrument
_____13. It is the process of developing specific predictions from general principles.
a) Research Statement c) Inductive Reasoning
b) Research Paradigm d) Deductive Reasoning
_____14. People being studied in qualitative research are called?
a) Subjects c) Key informants
b) Study Participants d) Respondent
_____15. Inherent characteristics of research subjects are referred to as:
a) Constructs c) Concepts
b) Variables d) Theory
_____16. Abstract or theoretical meaning of the concept being studied is called:
a) Paradigm c) Operational Definition
b) Conceptual Definition d) Rationale
_____17. Pieces of information obtained being studied are called:
a) Interventions c) Data
b) Treatments d) Variables
_____18. A bond or connection between phenomena is called:
a) Paradigm c) Relationship
b) Construct d) Difference
_____19. These are specific queries researchers want to answer in addressing the research problem
a) Research Questions c) Statement of the Problem
b) Hypothesis d) Research Objectives
_____20. Which of the following parts of research articulates the problem to be addressed and indicates
the need for a study?
a) Statement of the Hypothesis c) Research Purpose
b) Statement of the Problem d) Statistical Tool
_____21. The cause variable is also known as:
a) Independent c) Intervening
b) Dependent d) Moderating
_____22. The effect variable is also known as:
a) Independent c) Intervening
b) Dependent d) Moderating
_____23. It refers to a trait of an object or person at a given time
a) Quality c) Attribute
b) Quantity d) Fitness
_____24. A study entitled “Perception of High Risk Individuals Regarding Mortality Rate of AH1N1
Infection” is being conducted. The most appropriate instrument to collect data in this study is:
a) Interview c) Focus Group Discussion
b) Observation d) Questionnaire
_____25. The independent variable in the study is:
 a) Mortality Rate
b) Perception of high risk individuals regarding mortality rate of AH1N1
c) educational Attainment
d) High Risk Individuals
_____26. The effect variable in the study is:
a) Mortality of AH1N1
b) Perception of High Risk Individuals
c) AH1N1 Infection
d) High Risk Individuals
_____27. Which of the following statements is the most appropriate hypothesis of the study?
a) There is no significant relationship between perceptions of respondent considering their
educational attainment
b) There is no significant relationship between high risk individuals and rate of infection
c) There is no relationship at all
d) High Risk individuals have low level of knowledge about AH1N1 infection
_____28. It is a concise narration of the origin of the problem
a) Importance of the study c) Hypothesis
b) Background of the study d) Statement of the objectives
_____29. It presents the major and sub-problems of the study
a) Statement of objectives c) Statement of the Hypothesis
b) Rationale d) Significance of the Study
_____30. An assertion of the specific relationship between two or more variables
a) Significance of the study c) Treatment of data
b) Hypothesis d) Presentation of results
_____31. These are written materials like books, journals, magazines, encyclopedias, or novels.
a) Related Studies c) Related Literature
b) Related Readings d) Operational Definition of terms
_____32. It should be used when the variables have been studied before and have been found to be
related with one another.
a) Theoretical Framework c) Paradigm of the Study
b) Conceptual Framework d) Review of the Related Literature
_____33. Theoretical Framework belongs to what chapter of the manuscript?
a) Chapter 1 c) Chapter 3
b) Chapter 2 d) Chapter 4
_____34. All the following are sources of Research Problem EXCEPT:
a) Courses or Subjects taken c) Professors and Classmates
b) Theses and Dissertations d) Television
_____35. A research study must always address the present need of the people or the institution you
are in. And with this regard, cost-effective management of the research must always be ensured to ease
the burden and at the same time help the researcher for future finances. All of the following are 4 M’s
for cost effective research EXCEPT:
a) Man d) Machinery
b) Monetary d) Mechanic

II. Enumeration: Kindly cite all that is being asked!

1-5. Enumerate 5 characteristics of a good research problem?
6-10. Characteristics of a good hypothesis?
11-12. Two types of hypothesis?
13-15. Enumerate 3 guidelines in the formulation of the significance of the study?

III. Writing a Research Draft. Formulate your title from the given Paradigm, and formulate Specific
questions and hypothesis.

Sample Problem: A Nurse wishes to study the different factors that affect the physical performance of
patients in her ward.

Gender Physical Performance

Age
Systolic Blood Pressure
Cholesterol Level
Stress Tolerance
Lifestyle

1-5. Title: _______________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________

6-15. Specific Questions:

16-20: Formulate Your Hypothesis:

_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________

NORMAL is BORING.....................
EXPLORE!!!