JEEM Mock Test-X - 17-1-20
JEEM Mock Test-X - 17-1-20
JEEM Mock Test-X - 17-1-20
▪ Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
▪ Please read the instructions carefully. You ar e allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
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A. General Instructions
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue / Black Ball Point Pen. Use of
pencil is strictly prohibited.
2. The Answer Sheet is kept inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out
the Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars carefully.
3. The test is of 3 hours duration.
4. The Test Booklet consists of 75 questions. The maximum marks are 300.
5. This question paper contains Three Parts.
6. Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
7. Each Part has only one section: Section - A.
8. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be provided for rough
work.
9. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic devices, in any
form, are not allowed.
10. Use Blue / Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars / marking responses on Side-1 and Side-2 of the
Answer Sheet. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.
11. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone,
any electronic device, etc. except the Admit Card inside the examination hall / room.
12. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the
Room / Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
13. Do not fold or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet.
(i) Section-A (01 – 20, 26 – 45, 51 – 70) contains 60 multiple choice questions which have only one
correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
Section-A (21 – 25, 46 – 50, 71 – 75) contains 15 Numerical based questions, the answer of which
maybe positive or negative numbers or decimals and each question carries +4 marks for correct
answer. There is no negative marking.
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JEEM Mock Test-X
PART – I: PHYSICS
Section – A: Single Correct Answer Type
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
2. If R is the radius of a nucleus and A is its mass number, then log R versus log A graph
will be
(A) a straight line (B) a parabola (C) an ellipse (D) none of these
5. For the circuit shown in the figure, the current through the inductor L
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JEEM Mock Test-X
6. A uniform solid brass sphere is rotating with angular speed 0 about a diameter.
If its temperature is now increased by 1000C. What will be its new angular speed
(Given brass = 2.0 10−5 per 0C )
(A) 1.1 0 (B) 1.01 0 (C) 0.996 0 (D) 0.824 0
7. Two point white dots are 1 mm apart on a black paper. They are viewed by eye of pupil
diameter 3 mm. Approximately, what is the maximum distance at which these dots can
be resolved by the eye? (Take wavelength of light = 500 nm)
(A) 5 m (B) 1 m (C) 6 m (D) 3 m
8. Which of the following phenomenon is not common to sound and light waves?
(A) interference (B) diffraction (C) polarization (D) reflection
9. ( )
Potential is varying with x and y as V = 2 x2 − y2 . The corresponding field pattern is:
(A) y (B) y
x x
(C) y (D) y
x x
10. Photoelectric effect experiments are performed using three different metal plates p, q
and r having work functions p = 2.0 eV, q = 2.5 eV and r = 3.0 eV, respectively. A light
beam containing wavelengths of 550 nm, 450 nm and 350 nm with equal intensities
illuminates each of the plates. The correct I-V graph for the experiment is
(A) I P (B) I
r
p q
r
V V
(C) I r (D) I
q
p
r q
p
V V
Space for rough work
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JEEM Mock Test-X
12. In a common-base mode of a transistor, the collector current in 5.488 mA for an emitter
current of 5.60 mA. The value of the base current amplification factor () will be
(A) 49 (B) 50 (C) 51 (D) 48
13. A ball falls from a height h0. There are n collisions with the earth. If after n collisions the
ball rises to a height hn, then coefficient of restitution e is given by
hn h0 hn hn
(A) en = (B) en = (C) ne = (D) ne =
h0 hn h0 h0
1.5 V
+ -
10
14. In the figure, AB is a uniform wire of length 100 cm
C
whose resistance is 5 . If galvanometer reads zero, A B
then AC =
0.2
(A) 10cm (B) 20cm
(C) 40cm (D) 80cm
1.8
+ -
2V
15. One half mole of a monoatomic ideal gas absorbs 1200 J of heat energy while
performing 2196 J of work. The temperature of the gas changes by
(A) 1600C (B) 800C (C) 400C (D) -1600C
16. Source and observer both start moving simultaneously from origin one along x-axis and
the other along y-axis with speed of source = 2 (speed of observer). The graph between
the apparent frequency observed by observer (f) and time (t) would be (dotted lines
represent frequency of source f0)
(A) f (B) f
f0
f0
t t
(C) f (D) f
f0 f0
t t
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JEEM Mock Test-X
Section – A
Numerical based questions
21. The radius of a planet is R. A satellite revolves around it in a circle of radius r with
r n2
angular speed . The acceleration due to gravity on planet’s surface will be . Find
R2
the value of ‘n’
22. There is a 900 bend in a pipe line in which water is flowing at speed v. The cross
sectional area of pipe is A. The force exerted by pipe walls on water at bend is
N Aw v 2 newton. What is the value of ‘N’?
23. A magnetic needle lying parallel to a magnetic field requires W unit of work to turn it
through 60°. The torque needed to maintain the needle in this position will be N W.
What is the value of ‘N’?
A
25. In a two slit experiment with monochromatic light, fringes are obtained on a screen
placed at some distance from the slits. If the screen is moved by 5 10 −2 m towards the
slits the change in fringe width is 3 10 −5 m. If the distance between the slits is 10 −3 m,
the wavelength of light used is N × 103 Å. What is the value of ‘N’?
Space for rough work
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JEEM Mock Test-X
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
26. How many minimum number of quantum number(s) is/are needed to express a vacant p-orbital of
an atom?
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 1
28. 200 mL of a sample of H2O2 solution requires 400 mL of 0.4 M acidified permanganate solution
for complete reaction. What is the volume strength of the H2O2 solution?
(A) 22.4 (B) 4.48 (C) 11.2 (D) 5.6
29. For which of the following atom, there is maximum difference between the second and third
ionization energy?
(A) Na (B) Mg (C) K (D) Al
30. Which of the following carbonate requires the lowest amount of energy for decomposition?
(A) BeCO3 (B) MgCO3 (C) CaCO3 (D) BaCO3
31. If 8 g of dioxygen gas occupy 5.2 L volume at NTP, then the gas undergoes
(A) positive deviation from ideal behaviour
(B) negative deviation from ideal behaviour
(C) no deviation from ideal behaviour
(D) positive deviation at low pressure and negative deviation at high pressure
33. The rate of a chemical reaction involving one reactant, is directly proportional to the square of
concentration of the reactant. What is the relation between the half-life(t½) and initial concentration
[A]0 of the reaction?
1 1
(D) t1/2 A 0
2
(A) t½ [A]0 (B) t1/2 (C) t1/2
A 0 A 0
2
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JEEM Mock Test-X
k
34. The conjugate base of which of the following substance has the highest value of p b ?
OH OH
(A) (B)
OH OH
(C) (D)
CH3 CH3
35. Which of the following compound forms the lowest number of monochloro products when it is
treated with Cl2/h?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
36. Which of the following substances can be distinguished with ammonical AgNO 3 solution?
(A) CH3CH2CH2CH3 and CH3CH = CHCH3 (B) CH3CH2CH = CH2 and CH3C CCH3
(C) CH3C CCH3 and CH3CH = CHCH3 (D) CH3CH2C CH and CH3CH2CH = CH2
37. Which of the following compounds can be easily distinguished by Lucas test?
OH OH
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JEEM Mock Test-X
41. Which of the following compound is not formed by heating orthosilicic acid?
(A) H2SiO3 (B) SiO2 (C) H2Si2O7 (D) H2O
CH C
43. How many maximum number of moles of acetic anhydride can be completely absorbed by one
mole of glucose?
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6
45. Which of the following ligand can form the strongest back bond with metals or metal ions?
(A) CO (B) NO+ (C) CN– (D) PPh3
Section – A
Numerical based questions
46. What can be the maximum value of van’t Hoff factor of the solute [Cr(NH 3)6]Cl3 in aqueous
solution?
47. One litre of 4 M aqueous solution of NiCl2 was electrolysed in a cell containing nickel cathode and
the anode is an alloy of Ni. The electrolysis is carried out by passing 4F of electricity through the
solution. How many moles of Ni2+ ion will be left in the solution after electrolysis?
48. How many octahedral void(s) is/are present in HCP unit cell of a metal?
49. How many carbon atom(s) is/are present in any one monomer of Nylon-6, 6.
50. How many asymmetric carbon atom(s) is/are present in the following compound.
O
NH
NH
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JEEM Mock Test-X
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
51. Let A be the set of all determinants of order 3 with entries 0 or 1 only, B the subset of A consisting
of all determinants with value 1, and C the subset consisting of all determinants with value – 1.
Then if n (B) and n(C) denote the number of elements in B and C, respectively, we have
(A) C = (B) n (B) = n ( C) (C) A = B C (D) n (B) = 2n ( C)
52. In any discrete series (when all the values are not same) the relationship between M.D. about
mean and S.D. is
(A) M.D. = S.D. (B) M.D. > S.D. (C) M.D. <S. D. (D) M.D. S.D.
54. A tower PQ subtends an angle at a point A on the same level as the foot Q of the tower. It also
subtends the same angle at a point B where AB subtends the angle with AP then
(A) AB = BQ (B) BQ = 2AQ
AB AB
(C) = (1/ 2 ) sin (D) = (1/ 2 ) cos ec
BQ BQ
S = 1 + 2 + 3 + ............. + 2024 is
(A) 59000 (B) 58750 (C) 59730 (D) 65138
2−i
56. The reflection of the complex number , (where i = −1 ) in the straight line z (1 + i) = z (i − 1)
3+i
is not (select the wrong option)
−1 − i −1 + i i (i + 1) −1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 2 2 1+ i
57. If f ( x ) = ax2 + bx + c, a,b,c R and equation f ( x ) − x = 0 has imaginary roots and and
2
, be the roots of f f ( x ) − x = 0, then 0 is
1
(A) 0 (B) purely real (C) purely imaginary (D) none of these
space for rough work
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JEEM Mock Test-X
n n
1 0.01 1 0 0 1
58. What is wrong in the following computation? = + 10−2
1 1 1 1 0 0
n n −1 k
1 0 1 0 0 1 0 1 0 0
= + n 10−2 0 0 Since, 0 0 = 0 0 , for k 2 .
1 1 1 1
k
0 1 0 0
(A) = , for k 2 is not true
0 0 0 0
(B) Computation of second term on RHS is not valid
(C) First term should be calculated completely
(D) None of the above
59. Two numbers b and c are chosen at random (with replacement from the numbers 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6,
7, 8 and 9). The probability that x 2 + bx + c 0 for all x R is
17 32 82 45
(A) (B) (C) (D)
123 81 125 143
60. (
If f ( x ) = cos−1 x − x 2 + 1 −
) 1
+ 2
1
, then domain of f ( x ) is (where [.] is the greatest
x x − 1
integer)
1+ 5 1− 5 1+ 5
(A) 2, (B) − 2, (C) 2, (D) none of these
2 2
2
xa sinb x
61. If lim ,a,b,c R − 0 exists and has non – zero value, then
x →0
( )
sin xc
(A) a, b, c are in AP (B) a, b, c are in G.P. (C) a, b, c are in HP (D) none of these
f (x)
62. If f ( x ) is a continuous function x R and the range of f ( x ) is 2,
26 and g ( x ) = ( )
c
is continuous x R , then the least positive integral value of c is (where . denotes the
greatest integer function)
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 5 (D) 6
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JEEM Mock Test-X
64.
2
(
If f " ( x ) 0, x R, f ' ( 3 ) = 0 and g ( x ) = f tan x − 2 tan x + 4 , 0 x ) 2
, then g ( x ) is
increasing in
(A) 0, (B) , (C) 0, ,
2 3
(D)
0 3 4 2
2t 3
− 15t + 36t − 25, 2 + sin t ;2 t 4 is
2
(A) ( −, 1) (B) ( −, log3 e) (C) ( 0, log3 2 ) (D) ( −, log3 2)
( )
2sin x + 1 − sin 2x + 1
2 2
dx is
66. Let x2 + 1 n, n N, then 2sin x2 + 1 + sin 2x2 + 1
x
( )
1 2
(A) In
1
2
(
sec x2 + 1 + c ) (B) In sec
2
(
x +1 + c
)
(C)
1
2
(
In sec x 2 + 1 + c ) (
(D) In sec x + 1 + c
2
)
2
67. The value of 0
x 2 − x + 1 dx, (where [.] denotes the greatest integer function) is given by
5− 5 6− 5 7− 5 8− 5
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 2 2 2
dy
+ x ( x + y ) = x 3 ( x + y ) − 1 is
3
68. The solution of the equation
dx
1 1
(A) = x 2 + 1 + ce x (B) = x 2 + 1 + cex
(x + y)
2
( x + y )
1 2 1
= x 2 + 1 + ce x
2
(C) (D) = x 2 + 1 + cex
(x + y)
2
(x + y)
70. If y = sin x and y = cos x are two given equations, then the number of solutions is ([.]
denotes the greatest integer function)
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) infinitely many solutions
space for rough work
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JEEM Mock Test-X
Section – A
Numerical based questions
71. Consider a tetrahedran with faces F1,F2 ,F3 ,F4 . Let V1, V 2 ,V3 , V 4 be the vectors whose
magnitudes are respectively equal to areas of F1,F2 ,F3 ,F4 and whose directions are perpendicular
72. Two parabola C and D intersect at two different points, where C is y = x2 − 3 and D is y = kx2 .
The intersection at which the x value is positive is designated point A, and x = a at this
intersection the tangent line l at A to the curve D intersects curve C at point B, other than A. If x –
value of point B is 1, then a is equal to
73. The number of integral solutions of the equation 2x + 2y + z = 20, where x 0, y 0 and
z 0 is 11N then find N.
( ) is
6
74. The number of rational terms in the expansion of 1 + 2 + 3 5
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