PPL Air Law – Syllabus Notes

A. General

4.2 Aviation Legislation

4.2.2 Describe the requirements to hold an aviation document, as laid down in CA Act 1990
S7.

7 Requirement for aviation document

(1) Rules made under this Act may require that an aviation document shall be required by or in respect of
all or any of the following:
(a) New Zealand registered aircraft:
(b) aircraft pilots:
(c) flight crew members:
(d) air traffic service personnel:
(e) aviation security service personnel:
(f) aircraft maintenance personnel:
(g) air services:
(h) air traffic services:
(I) aerodromes and aerodrome operators:
(j) navigation installation providers:
(k) aviation training organisations:
(l) aircraft design, manufacture, and maintenance organisations:
(m) aeronautical procedures:
(n) aviation security services:
(o) aviation meteorological services:
(p) aviation communications services:
(q) any persons, services, or things within any of the classes specified in paragraphs (a) to (p):
(r) such other persons, aircraft, aeronautical products, aviation related services, facilities, and
equipment operated in support of the civil aviation system, or classes of such persons, aircraft,
aeronautical products, aviation related services, facilities, and equipment operated in support of the
civil aviation system, as may, in the interests of safety or security, be specified in the rules:
(s) any person who is an aviation examiner or medical examiner.
(2) The requirements, standards, and application procedure for each aviation document, and the maximum
period for which each document may be issued, shall be prescribed by rules made under this Act.
(3) Subject to any rules made under this Act, an aviation document may be issued by the Director for such
specified period and subject to such conditions as the Director considers appropriate in each particular
case.
(4) Any person in respect of whom any decision is taken under this section may appeal against that
decision to the District Court under section 66.

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4.2.4 Describe the criteria for the fit and proper person test, as laid down in CA Act 1990
S10.

10 Criteria for fit and proper person test

(1) For the purpose of determining whether or not a person is a fit and proper person for any purpose
under this Act, theDirector shall, having regard to the degree and nature of the person’s proposed
involvement in the New Zealand civil aviation system, have regard to, and give such weight as
the Director considers appropriate to, the following matters:
(a) the person’s compliance history with transport safety regulatory requirements:
(b) the person’s related experience (if any) within the transport industry:
(c) the person’s knowledge of the applicable civil aviation system regulatory requirements:
(d) any history of physical or mental health or serious behavioural problems:
(e) any conviction for any transport safety offence, whether or not—
(i) the conviction was in a New Zealand court; or
(ii) the offence was committed before the commencement of this Act:
(f) any evidence that the person has committed a transport safety offence or has contravened or
failed to comply with any rule made under this Act:
(g) in the case where a New Zealand AOC with ANZA privileges applies, the person’s compliance
with the conditions specified in section 11G(4).
(2) The Director shall not be confined to consideration of the matters specified in subsection (1) and may
take into account such other matters and evidence as may be relevant.
(3) The Director may, for the purpose of determining whether or not a person is a fit and proper person for
any purpose under this Act,—
(a) seek and receive such information (including medical reports) as the Director thinks fit; and
(b) consider information obtained from any source.
(4) Subsection (1) applies to a body corporate with the following modifications:
(a) paragraphs (a), (b), (c), (e), (f), and (g) of that subsection shall be read as if they refer to the
body corporate and its officers:
(b) paragraph (d) of that subsection shall be read as if it refers only to the officers of the body
corporate.
(5) If the Director proposes to take into account any information that is or may be prejudicial to a person,
the Directorshall, subject to subsection (6), disclose that information to that person and, in accordance
with section 11, give that person a reasonable opportunity to refute or comment on it.
(6) Nothing in subsection (5) shall require the Director to disclose any information the disclosure of
which would be likely to endanger the safety of any person.
(7) If the Director determines not to disclose any information in reliance on subsection (6), the Director
must inform the person of the fact of non-disclosure and,—
(a) in the case of non-disclosure to an individual of information about the individual,—
(i) inform the individual that he or she may, under the Privacy Act 1993, complain to the
Privacy Commissioner about that non-disclosure; and
(ii) the provisions of that Act apply to that non-disclosure as if, following a request under that
Act for the information withheld, the information had been withheld under section 27(1)(d) of
that Act; and
(b) in any other case,—
(i) inform the person that the person may seek a review by an Ombudsman of that non-
disclosure under theOfficial Information Act 1982; and
(ii) the provisions of that Act apply to that non-disclosure as if, following a request under that
Act for the information withheld, the information had been withheld under section 6(d) of that
Act.

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4.2.6 Describe the duties of the pilot-in-command, as laid down in CA Act 1990 S13 and
13A.

13 Duties of pilot-in-command
The pilot-in-command of an aircraft shall—
(a) be responsible for the safe operation of the aircraft in flight, the safety and well-being of all
passengers and crew, and the safety of cargo carried; and
(b) have final authority to control the aircraft while in command and for the maintenance of
discipline by all persons on board; and
(c) subject to section 13A, be responsible for compliance with all relevant requirements of this Act
and regulations and rules made under this Act.

13A Duties of pilot-in-command and operator during emergencies

(1) Subject to subsections (2) and (6), in an emergency that arises in flight, the pilot-in-command may
breach the provisions of this Act or of regulations or rules made under this Act.
(2) For the purposes of subsection (1), a breach of any prescribed requirement is permitted only if the
pilot-in-command is satisfied that—
(a) the emergency involves a danger to life or property; and
(b) the extent of the breach of the prescribed requirement goes only as far as is necessary to deal
with the emergency; and
(c) there is no other reasonable means of alleviating, avoiding, or assisting with the emergency; and
(d) the degree of danger involved in complying with the prescribed requirement is clearly greater
than the degree of danger involved in deviating from it.
(3) Subject to subsections (4) to (6), where an emergency (not being an emergency that arises in flight)
necessitates the urgent transportation of persons or medical or other supplies for the protection of life or
property, the pilot-in-command of the aircraft or the operator of the aircraft may breach the provisions of
this Act or of regulations or rules made under this Act.
(4) For the purposes of subsection (3), a breach of any prescribed requirement is permitted only if—
(a) the emergency involves a danger to life or property; and
(b) the extent of the breach of the prescribed requirement goes only as far as is necessary to deal
with the emergency; and
(c) there is no other reasonable means of alleviating, avoiding, or assisting with the emergency; and
(d) the degree of danger involved in deviating from the prescribed requirement is clearly less than
the degree of risk in failing to attend to the emergency.
(5) Nothing in subsection (3) permits—
(a) the operation of an aircraft that is not registered in New Zealand or elsewhere; or
(b) the breach of any prescribed requirement as to the airworthiness of an aircraft; or
(c) the operation of an aircraft by a person who is not lawfully entitled to operate that aircraft.
(6) Where, in any emergency described in this section, a pilot-in-command or an operator breaches this
Act or regulations or rules made under this Act in accordance with the provisions of this section, the pilot-
in-command or the operator, as the case may be, shall—
(a) immediately notify the relevant air traffic control service of the action; and
(b) as soon as practicable, notify the Director of the action and the circumstances that necessitated
it, and, if requested by the Director, provide to the Director a written report in respect of the action.

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4.2.8 Describe the responsibilities of a licence holder with respect to changes in their
medical condition, as laid down in CA Act 1990 S27.

27C Changes in medical condition of licence holder

(1) Subject to any directions that the Director may issue under section 27G(1)(b), if a licence holder is
aware of, or has reasonable grounds to suspect, any change in his or her medical condition or the
existence of any previously undetected medical condition that may interfere with the safe exercise of the
privileges to which his or her medical certificate relates, the licence holder—
(a) must advise the Director of the change as soon as practicable; and
(b) may not exercise the privileges to which the licence holder’s medical certificate relates.
(2) Subject to any directions that the Director may issue under section 27G(1)(b), if an aviation examiner
or medical examiner or operator is aware of, or has reasonable grounds to suspect, any change in the
medical condition of a licence holder or the existence of any previously undetected medical condition in
the licence holder that may interfere with the safe exercise of the privileges to which the licence holder’s
medical certificate relates, the aviation examiner or medical examiner or operator must advise both the
licence holder and the Director of the change as soon as practicable.
(3) Subject to any directions that the Director may issue under section 27G(1)(b), if a medical practitioner
has reasonable grounds to believe that a person is a licence holder and is aware, or has reasonable grounds
to suspect, that the licence holder has a medical condition that may interfere with the safe exercise of the
privileges to which the licence holder’s medical certificate relates, the medical practitioner must, as soon
as practicable,—
(a) inform the licence holder that the Director will be advised of the condition; and
(b) advise the Director of the condition.
(4) An aviation examiner or medical examiner or a medical practitioner is not subject to any civil or
criminal liability for—
(a) doing an indemnified act in good faith in the course of carrying out his or her functions under
this Part; or
(b) doing an indemnified act in good faith in the course of answering any questions put to him or
her by the Director that—
(i) concern a licence holder; and
(ii) are relevant to any action the Director may take under this Part.
(5) In this section, indemnified act means any of the following acts:
(a) advising the Director, whether in writing or otherwise, that a licence holder—
(i) may not meet the medical standards prescribed in the rules; or
(ii) may be unable to exercise safely the privileges to which the licence holder’s medical
certificate relates:
(b) expressing to the Director, whether in writing or otherwise, an opinion that the licence holder
who the aviation examiner or medical examiner or medical practitioner has examined or treated
may be unable to exercise safely the privileges to which the licence holder’s medical certificate
relates because of—
(i) illness or any bodily or mental infirmity, defect, incapacity, or risk of incapacity suffered
by the licence holder; or
(ii) the effect on the licence holder of treatment for any illness, infirmity, defect, incapacity, or
risk of incapacity:
(c) stating to the Director, whether in writing or otherwise,—
(i) the nature of a licence holder’s illness, infirmity, defect, incapacity, or risk of incapacity; or
(ii) the effect on a licence holder of treatment for any illness, infirmity, defect, incapacity, or
risk of incapacity.

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4.2.10 Describe the responsibilities of a licence holder with respect to the surrender of a
medical certificate as laid down in CA Act 1990 S27.

27I Revocation, suspension, amendment, and surrender of medical certificate

(1) If the Director has reasonable grounds to believe that a licence holder may be unable to exercise safely
the privileges to which the licence holder’s medical certificate relates, the Director may, by written notice
to the licence holder,—
(a) suspend any medical certificate issued to the licence holder; or
(b) impose or amend any conditions, restrictions, or endorsements on any medical certificate issued
to the licence holder.
(2) If the Director has reasonable grounds to believe that a licence holder is unable to exercise safely the
privileges to which the licence holder’s medical certificate relates, the Director must, by written notice to
the licence holder,—
(a) suspend any medical certificate issued to the licence holder; or
(b) revoke any medical certificate issued to the licence holder; or
(c) impose or amend any conditions, restrictions, or endorsements on any medical certificate issued
to the licence holder.
(3) If the Director has reasonable grounds to believe that a person who has been delegated authority
under section 27O to issue a medical certificate has issued a medical certificate other than in accordance
with this Part or the terms of the delegated authority, the Director—
(a) may, by written notice to the licence holder,—
(i) suspend any medical certificate issued to the licence holder; or
(ii) revoke any medical certificate issued to the licence holder; or
(iii) impose or amend any conditions, restrictions, or endorsements on any medical certificate
issued to the licence holder; and
(b) may, by written notice to the person with delegated authority, revoke that person’s delegated
authority.
(4) Any notice issued under this section must state the grounds for the Director’s decision.
(5) A notice of suspension issued under subsection (1)(a) or subsection (2)(a) or subsection (3)(a)(i)
remains in force until the Director determines what action, if any, referred to in subsection (7) is to be
taken, but any such suspension expires 10 working days after the date that the suspension is imposed
unless, before the expiry of that 10-working-day period, the Director extends the suspension for a further
specified period not exceeding 10 working days (the aggregate suspension period may not exceed 20
working days after the date on which the suspension is imposed).
(6) Any conditions, restrictions, or endorsements that are imposed or made under subsection (1)(b) or
subsection (2)(c) or subsection (3)(a)(iii) remain in force until the Director determines what action, if any,
referred to in subsection (7) is to be taken, but any of those conditions, restrictions, or endorsements
expire 10 working days after the date that they are imposed unless, before the expiry of that 10-working-
day period, the Director extends the conditions, restrictions, or endorsements for a further specified period
not exceeding 10 working days (the aggregate period may not exceed 20 working days after the date on
which the conditions, restrictions, or endorsements are imposed).

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(7) If a notice is issued under subsection (1) or subsection (2) or subsection (3), the Director may, by
written notice, take 1 or more of the following actions:
(a) impose or amend conditions, restrictions, or endorsements for a specified period:
(b) withdraw any conditions, restrictions, or endorsements:
(c) disqualify the licence holder from holding the medical certificate for a specified period:
(d) revoke the medical certificate:
(e) cancel the suspension.
(8) If the Director revokes a medical certificate under subsection (2)(b) or subsection (3)(a)(ii) or
subsection (7)(d) or subsection (11) or imposes any conditions, restrictions, or endorsements on a medical
certificate under subsection (7)(a) or disqualifies a licence holder under subsection (7)(c), the licence
holder has 20 working days from the date of the decision to ask the convener to review the decision
under section 27L, after which time the decision may not be referred to the convener.
(9) A person who has had his or her medical certificate revoked, withdrawn, or suspended or who is
disqualified from holding the medical certificate for a specified period must surrender the medical
certificate to the Director, a person authorised by the Director, or a constable.
(10) If the Director issues a notice under this section, the Director—
(a) must also, if practicable, notify any aviation document holder affected by the notice, other than
the licence holder, if the Director reasonably considers it necessary for reasons of aviation safety;
and
(b) may notify any other affected aviation document holder.
(11) The Director may, by written notice, revoke a medical certificate if a licence holder fails, without
reasonable excuse, to comply with a demand under section 27H(1) or section 27H(3) or section 27H(4)
within a reasonable period of time.
(12) Any licence holder may return his or her medical certificate to the Director and ask the Director, in
writing, to cancel the medical certificate.
(13) If a licence holder asks the Director to cancel his or her medical certificate, the Director must—
(a) cancel the medical certificate; and
(b) update the register of current medical certificates.

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4.2.12 Describe the responsibilities of a license holder with respect to safety offenses, as laid
down in CA Act 1990 S43 and 44.

43 Endangerment caused by holder of aviation document

(1) Every holder of an aviation document commits an offence who, in respect of any activity or service to
which the document relates, does or omits to do any act or causes or permits any act or omission, if the
act or omission causes unnecessary danger to any other person or to any property.
(2) Every person who commits an offence against subsection (1) is liable on conviction,—
(a) in the case of an individual, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or a fine not
exceeding $10,000; or
(b) in the case of a body corporate, to a fine not exceeding $100,000.
(3) The provisions of this section shall be in addition to and not in derogation of any regulations or rules
made under this Act.

43A Operating aircraft in careless manner

(1) Every person commits an offence who operates any aircraft in a careless manner.
(2) Every person who commits an offence against subsection (1) is liable on conviction,—
(a) in the case of an individual, to a fine not exceeding $7,000; or
(b) in the case of a body corporate, to a fine not exceeding $35,000.
(3) The provisions of this section shall be in addition to and not in derogation of any regulations or rules
made under this Act.

44 Dangerous activity involving aircraft, aeronautical product, or aviation related service

(1) Every person commits an offence who—
(a) operates, maintains, or services; or
(b) does any other act in respect of—
any aircraft, aeronautical product, or aviation related service, in a manner which causes unnecessary
danger to any other person or to any property.
(2) Every person commits an offence who—
(a) causes or permits any aircraft, aeronautical product, or aviation related service to be operated,
maintained, or serviced; or
(b) causes or permits any other act to be done in respect of any aircraft, aeronautical product, or
aviation related service,—
in a manner which causes unnecessary danger to any other person or to any property.
(3) Every person who commits an offence against subsection (1) or subsection (2) is liable on conviction,
—
(a) in the case of an individual, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or a fine not
exceeding $10,000; or
(b) in the case of a body corporate, to a fine not exceeding $100,000.
(4) The provisions of this section shall be in addition to and not in derogation of any regulations or rules
made under this Act.

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44A Failure to comply with inspection or monitoring request

(1) Every person commits an offence who, without reasonable excuse, fails to comply with any
requirement of the Director under subsection (1) or subsection (3) of section 15.
(2) Every person who commits an offence against subsection (1) is liable on conviction,—
(a) in the case of an individual, to a fine not exceeding $10,000 and, if the offence is a continuing
one, to a further fine not exceeding $2,000 for every day or part of a day during which the offence is
continued; or
(b) in the case of a body corporate, to a fine not exceeding $100,000 and, if the offence is a
continuing one, to a further fine not exceeding $20,000 for every day or part of a day during which
the offence is continued.

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4.4 Definitions
CAR Part 1 (unless otherwise noted)

State the definition of:

(a) accident;
an occurrence that is associated with the operation of an aircraft and takes place between the time any
person boards the aircraft with the intention of flight and such time as all such persons have disembarked
and the engine or any propellers or rotors come to rest, being an occurrence in which -
(1) a person is fatally or seriously injured as a result; or
(2) the aircraft sustains damage or structural failure; or
(3) the aircraft is missing or is completely inaccessible

(b) Act;
means the Civil Aviation Act 1990

(c) aerobatic flight;

(1) an intentional maneuver in which the aircraft is in sustained inverted flight or is rolled from
upright to inverted or from inverted to upright position; or
(2) maneuvers such as rolls, loops, spins, upward vertical flight culminating in a stall turn,
hammerhead or whip stall, or a combination of such maneuvers:

(d) aerodrome;
(1) means any defined area of land or water intended or designed to be used either wholly or partly
for the landing, departure, and surface movement of aircraft; and
(2) includes any buildings, installations, and equipment on or adjacent to any such area used in
connection with the aerodrome or its administration:

(e) aerodrome elevation; (AIP GEN 2.2)

the elevation of the highest point of the landing area:

(f) aerodrome operational area;

(1) the movement area at an aerodrome and its associated strips and safety areas; and
(2) any ground installation or facility provided at an aerodrome for the safety of aircraft operations:

(g) aerodrome traffic circuit;

means the pattern flown by aircraft operating in the vicinity of an aerodrome:

(h) aeronautical information circular;

means a notice containing information that—
(1) does not qualify for the origination of a NOTAM or for inclusion in the AIPNZ; and
(2) relates to flight safety, air navigation, technical, administrative or legislative matters:

(i) aeronautical information publication (AIP);

means a publication issued by, or with the authority of, a State and containing aeronautical information of
a lasting character essential to air navigation:

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(j) AIP supplement;

means temporary changes to the information contained in the AIPNZ that are published by means of
special pages:

(k) air traffic control (ATC) service;

means a service provided for the purposes of—
(1) preventing collisions—
(i) between aircraft; and
(ii) between aircraft and obstructions on any manoeuvring
area; and
(2) expediting and maintaining a safe and efficient flow of air
traffic:

(l) airworthiness certificate;

means—
(1) for a New Zealand registered aircraft, an airworthiness certificate issued by the Director under
Part 21, Subpart H; and
(2) for a foreign registered aircraft, an airworthiness certificate issued by the competent authority of
the State of registry:

(m) airworthy condition;

means the condition of an aircraft, including its components, fuel, and other materials and substances
essential to the manufacture and operation of the aircraft, that complies with all the
requirements prescribed by the Civil Aviation Rules relating to design, manufacture, maintenance,
modification, repair, and safety:

(n) alerting service;

means an air traffic service provided to notify appropriate organisations regarding aircraft in need of
search and rescue aid, and to assist such organisations as required:

(o) altitude;
means the vertical distance of a level, a point, or an object considered as a point, measured from mean sea
level:

(p) apron; (AIP GEN 2.2)

A defined area on a land aerodrome intended to accommodate aircraft for purposes of loading or
unloading passengers or cargo, refuelling, parking, or maintenance.

(q) ATC clearance;

means authorization for an aircraft to proceed under conditions specified by an air traffic control unit:

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(r) ATC instruction;

means a directive issued by ATC for the purpose of requiring a pilot to take a specific action:

(s) aviation event;

means an event to be conducted below the minimum safe heights prescribed under Part 91 that is—
(1) an air show or practice for an air show; or
(2) an air race or practice for an air race; or
(3) an aerobatic competition; or
(4) aerobatic training or practice:

(t) AWIB service;

means an automatic broadcast of aerodrome and weather information provided specifically for the
facilitation of aviation, and for the avoidance of doubt, an AWIB service is not an air traffic service:

(u) basic weather report;

means a verbal comment, in support of aviation, describing any of the following current weather
conditions observed at a particular place or airspace:
(1) wind direction and strength:
(2) mean sea level air pressure:
(3) air temperature:
(4) weather conditions and cloud cover:

(v) ceiling;
means the height above ground or water of the base of the lowest layer of cloud below 20 000 feet
covering more than half the sky:

(w) controlled flight;

means any flight that is subject to an ATC clearance:

(x) cost sharing flight;

means any flight that is performed solely for the carriage of persons where—
(1) the flight is not advertised to the public; and
(2) the crew members receive no payment or other reward for their services; and
(3) the persons carried by the aircraft, including the crew members, share equally in the cost of the
flight; and
(4) no payment or other reward is required of a person on the flight other than that specified in
subparagraph (3)—
and, for the avoidance of doubt, a cost sharing flight is not an operation for hire or reward:

(y) cross-country flight;

means a flight which extends more than 25 nautical miles in a straight line distance from the centre of the
aerodrome of departure:

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(z) dangerous goods;

means articles or substances that are capable of posing risk to health, safety, property, or the environment
and—
(a) are listed in, or classified in accordance with, the ICAO’s Technical Instructions for the Safe
Transport of Dangerous Goods by Air; or
(b) have properties that would result in the articles or substances being classified as dangerous
goods under the ICAO’s Technical Instructions for the Safe Transport of Dangerous Goods by Air:

(aa) day;
means the hours between—
(1) the beginning of morning civil twilight, which is when the centre of the rising sun’s disc is 6
degrees below the horizon; and
(2) the end of evening civil twilight, which is when the centre of the setting sun’s disc is 6 degrees
below the horizon:

(bb) dual flight time;

means flight time during which a person is receiving flight instruction from an appropriately licensed and
rated pilot on board a dual control aircraft:

(cc) emergency locator transmitter;

means an equipment that broadcasts a distinctive signal on a designated radio frequency to facilitate a
search and rescue operation:

(dd) final reserve fuel;

means the minimum quantity of fuel required to provide a margin to secure the safe completion of a flight
in the event of any unplanned manoeuvring in the vicinity of the destination or alternate or
a suitable aerodrome, as the case may be, and in ordinary circumstances remains on board until
completion of the landing:

(ee) fit and proper person;

means a person who satisfies the fit and proper person test specified in the Act:

(ff) flight information service;

means an air traffic service provided for the purpose of giving advice and information intended for the
safe and efficient conduct of flights:

(gg) flight manual;

means a manual, associated with the certificate of airworthiness, containing limitations within which the
aircraft may be considered airworthy, and instructions and information necessary to the
flight crew members for the safe operation of the aircraft:

(hh) flight plan;

means specified information that is required under the rules to be provided to an ATS unit or to a flight
following service regarding an intended flight, or portion of a flight, of an aircraft:

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(ii) flight time;

means—
(1) for an aircraft other than a balloon, the total time from the moment an aircraft first moves for the
purpose of flight until the moment it comes to rest at the end of the flight including any associated
push back, taxiing and subsequent holding time; and
(2) for a balloon, the total time from burner on for the purpose of inflation for flight until the
envelope is completely deflated at the end of a flight:

(jj) height;
means the vertical distance of a level, a point, or an object considered as a point, measured from a
specified datum and includes the vertical dimension of an object:

(kk) hover taxi;

a hover taxi is used when operating below 25 feet above ground level (AGL):

(ll) incident;
means any occurrence, other than an accident, that is associated with the operation of an aircraft and
affects or could affect the safety of operation:

(mm) landing area; (AIP GEN)

that part of a movement area intended for the landing or take-off of aircraft:

(nn) night;
means the hours between—
(1) the end of evening civil twilight, which is when the centre of the setting sun’s disc is 6 degrees
below the horizon; and
(2) the beginning of morning civil twilight, which is when the centre of the rising sun’s disc is 6
degrees below the horizon:

(oo) NOTAM;
means a notice distributed by means of telecommunication containing information concerning the
establishment, condition or change in any aeronautical facility, service, procedure or hazard, the
timely knowledge of which is essential to personnel concerned with flight operations:

(pp) passenger;
in relation to an aircraft, means any person carried by the aircraft, other than a crew member:

(qq) personal locator beacon;

means an equipment that broadcasts a distinctive signal on a designated radio frequency to facilitate a
search and rescue operation, is designed to be carried on a person, and is manually
activated:

(rr) pilot-in-command;
in relation to any aircraft, means the pilot responsible for the operation and safety of the aircraft:

(ss) rating;
means an authorisation entered on, or associated with, a licence, certificate, or logbook, and forming part
of it, stating special conditions, privileges, or limitations relating to the licence or certificate:

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(tt) SARTIME;
means the time nominated by a pilot for the initiation of alerting action:

(uu) simultaneous operations — visual conditions; (AIP GEN)

Operations using parallel runways where both may be in use at the time, in accordance with the following
criteria (excluding provision for wake turbulence separation requirements):
(a) Uncontrolled aerodrome — simultaneous-independent operations, with displacement between
parallel runway centre lines not less than 210 m.
(b) Controlled aerodrome — aerodrome control service on watch:
(i) simultaneous-independent operations: where ATC controls aircraft with displacement
between parallel runway centrelines not less than 210 m (not less than 165 m edge-to-edge if
grass runways); or
(ii) simultaneous-dependent operations: where ATC controls aircraft including sequencing or
staggering operations (to avoid side-by-side parallel flight or side-by-side manoeuvring
on a parallel runway); or
(iii) simultaneous-segregated operations: where ATC controls aircraft departures on one
runway and aircraft arrivals on the parallel runway.

(vv) takeoff weight;

means the weight of the aeroplane at the commencement of the take-off run and includes everything and
everyone carried in or on the aeroplane at the commencement of the take-off run:

(ww) threshold; (CAR 121.3)

means that point where a 1:20 obstacle-free approach surface intersects the runway surface:

(xx)Technical Instructions;
means ICAO Document 9284 Technical Instructions for the Safe Transport of Dangerous Goods by Air
approved and published by decision of the Council of the International Civil Aviation Organisation under
Annex 18 of the Convention:

(yy) type;
(1) in relation to the licensing of aviation personnel means all aircraft of the same basic design,
including all modifications thereto except those modifications which result in a significant
change in handling or flight characteristics; or
(2) in relation to the certification of aircraft, aircraft engines, or propellers, means those aircraft,
aircraft engines or propellers which are similar in design:

(zz) UNICOM service;

means a ground radio communications service in the aeronautical mobile service providing local
aerodrome information for the facilitation of aviation, and, for the avoidance of doubt, a UNICOM
service is not an air traffic service:

(aaa) VFR flight;

means a flight conducted in accordance with the visual flight rules:

(bbb) vicinity of an aerodrome; (AIP GEN)

an area around an aerodrome where aircraft carry out manoeuvres associated with entering, leaving, or
operating within an aerodrome traffic circuit:

14
 PPL Air Law – Syllabus Notes

(ccc) visibility;
means the ability, as determined by atmospheric conditions and expressed in units of measurement, to see
and identify prominent unlighted objects by day and prominent lighted objects by night:

(ddd) visual meteorological conditions;

means meteorological conditions expressed in terms of visibility, distance from cloud, and ceiling equal
to or better than specified minima:

(eee) visual reference; (AIP GEN)

continuous reference to terrain (land or water):

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 PPL Air Law – Syllabus Notes

4.6 Abbreviations
CAR Part 1 (unless otherwise noted)

State the definition of:

(a) ABN; (AIP GEN)

aerodrome beacon

(b) AGL;
above ground level

(c) AFIS; (AIP GEN)

Aerodrome Flight Information Service

(d) AFRU;
Aerodrome Frequency Response Unit

(e) AMSL;
above mean sea level

(f) ATIS;
Automatic Terminal Information Service

(g) AWIB;
Aerodrome and Weather Information Broadcast

(h) AWS; (AIP GEN)

Automatic Weather Station

(i) BWR; (AIP GEN)

Basic Weather Report

(j) CAR;
NZ Civil Aviation Rules

(k) DTHR; (AIP GEN)

displaced runway threshold

(l) ECT; (AIP GEN)

evening civil twilight (end of daylight)

(m) ELT;
emergency locator transmitter

(n) FATO (Helicopter candidates only); (AIP GEN)

final approach and take-off area

(o) ME1;
a medical examiner who holds a Medical Examiner 1 Certificate issued under the Act

16
 PPL Air Law – Syllabus Notes

(p) ME2;
a medical examiner who holds a Medical Examiner 2 Certificate issued under the Act

(q) MCT; (AIP GEN)

morning civil twilight (beginning of daylight)

(r) POB; (AIP GEN)

persons on board

(s) QNH;
an altimeter sub-scale setting to obtain elevation when on the ground

(t) TALO (Helicopter candidates only); (AIP GEN)

touchdown and lift-off area (located at a heliport)

(u) TLOF (Helicopter candidates only); (AIP GEN)

touchdown and lift-off area

(v) VFR;
visual flight rules

(w) VPC; (AIP GEN)

visual planning chart

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 PPL Air Law – Syllabus Notes

B. Personnel Licensing

4.10 Requirements for Licences and Ratings

4.10.2 State the requirements for holding a pilot’s licence.

CAR 61.5(a)(b)(c)

4.10.4 State the requirements for a pilot-in-command to hold a type rating on the type of
aircraft being flown.
CAR 61.5(d)

4.10.6 State the general requirements for entering flight details into a pilot’s logbook.
CAR 61.29
→ must maintain an accurate and up-to-date logbook

4.12 Eligibility, Privileges and Limitations

4.12.2 Describe the allowance for a person who does not hold a current pilot licence to fly
dual with a flying instructor.
CAR 61.103

4.12.4 State the solo flight requirements on a person who does not hold a current pilot licence.
CAR 61.105

4.12.6 State the limitations on a person who does not hold a current pilot licence.
CAR 61.107

4.12.8 State the eligibility requirements for the issue of a private pilot licence.
CAR 61.153

4.12.10 State the privileges of holding a private pilot licence.

CAR 61.155(a)

4.12.12 State the limitations on the holder of a private pilot licence.

CAR 61.155(b)

4.12.14 State the requirements and limitations of a PPL holder sharing the cost of a flight.
CAR 1.1
→ any flight that is performed solely for the carriage of persons where—
(1) the flight is not advertised to the public; and
(2) the crew members receive no payment or other reward for their services; and
(3) the persons carried by the aircraft, including the crew members, share equally in the cost of the
flight; and
(4) no payment or other reward is required of a person on the flight other than that specified in
subparagraph (3)—
→ and, for the avoidance of doubt, a cost sharing flight is not an operation for hire or reward:

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 PPL Air Law – Syllabus Notes

4.14 Competency, Currency and Recency

4.14.2 State the recent experience requirements of a pilot-in-command, by day and by night,
who is the holder of a private pilot licence.
CAR 61.37(b)(c)

4.14.4 State the requirements for the completion of a biennial flight review.
CAR 61.39
→ must not exercise the privileges of the pilot license for longer than 24 months from the date of the
issue flight test for the pilot license unless the holder—
(1) has successfully completed a biennial flight review under paragraph 61.39(c) within the
previous 24 months

4.16 Medical Requirements

4.16.2 State the requirements for holding a medical certificate.

CAR 61.35

4.16.4 State the requirements on a person applying for a medical certificate.

CAR 67.55

4.16.6 State the requirements for maintaining medical fitness following the issue of a medical
certificate.
CA Act 1990
S27C Changes in medical condition of licence holder
(see Pg 4)

4.16.8 State the normal currency period of the Class 2 medical certificate for a PPL holder
who is under the age of 40.
CAR 67.61(a)(2)(i)
→ 60 months, if the applicant is less than 40 years of age on the date that the medical certificate is issued

4.16.10 State the normal currency period of the Class 2 medical certificate for a PPL holder
who is 40 years of age or more on the date that the certificate is issued.
CAR 67.61(a)(2)(ii)
→ 24 months, if the applicant is 40 years of age or more on the date that the medical certificate is issued

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 PPL Air Law – Syllabus Notes

C. Airworthiness of Aircraft and Aircraft Equipment

4.20 Documentation

4.20.2 State the documents which must be carried in aircraft operated in New Zealand.
CAR 91.111
→ the current airworthiness certificate or a certified copy
→ the aircraft flight manual or an equivalent
→ for New Zealand registered aircraft (operating within NZ):
(i) the technical log required under rule 91.619
(ii) CAA 2173 Weight and Balance Data or equivalent
(iii) CAA 2129 Aircraft Radio Station Equipment Approval Levels

4.22 Aircraft Maintenance

4.22.2 Describe the maintenance requirements of an aircraft operator.

CAR 91.603

4.22.4 State the requirement for annual and 100 hour inspections.
CAR 91.605(c)

4.22.6 State the requirement for a review of airworthiness.

CAR 91.615

4.22.8 State the requirements for maintenance records.

CAR 91.617

4.22.10 State the requirements for and contents of a technical log.

CAR 91.619

4.22.12 State the requirements for entering defects into a technical log.
CAR 91.619

4.22.14 State the requirements for clearing defects from a technical log.
CAR 91.619

4.22.16 State the limitations and requirements on a person undertaking ‘pilot maintenance’.
CAR 43.51(b)
→ Appendix A — Maintenance performed by a person under rule 43.51(b)

4.22.18 State the requirements for conducting an operational flight check on an aircraft.
CAR 91.613

4.22.20 State the inspection period for radios.

CAR 91.605(e)(1)
→ (for IFR) within the preceding 24 months

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 PPL Air Law – Syllabus Notes

4.22.22 State the inspection period for altimeters.

CAR 91.605(e)(2)
→ within the preceding 24 months

4.22.24 State the inspection period for transponders.

CAR 91.605(e)(3)
→ within the preceding 24 months

4.22.26 State the normal inspection period for the ELT.

CAR 91.605(e)(4)(i)
→ has been tested and inspected under Appendix F of Part 43 within the previous 12 months or aircraft
manufacturer’s 100 hour inspection or a manufacturer’s equivalent inspection, whichever is earlier

4.24 Instruments and Avionics

4.24.2 State the minimum instrument requirements for a day VFR flight.
CAR 91.509

4.24.4 State the minimum instrument requirements for a night VFR flight.
CAR 91.511

4.24.6 State the radio equipment requirements for a VFR flight.

CAR 91.513

4.24.8 State the communications and navigation equipment requirements for a VFR over water
flight.
CAR 91.515

4.26 Equipment

4.26.2 State the equipment requirements for a night VFR flight.

CAR 91.511

4.26.4 State the equipment requirements for flight over water.

CAR 91.525

4.26.6 State the requirements for indicating the time in flight.

CAR 91.509(b)

4.26.8 State the requirements for emergency equipment in aircraft with seating capacity for less
than 10 passengers.
CAR 91.523

4.26.10 State the requirements for an ELT.

CAR 91.529

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 PPL Air Law – Syllabus Notes

D. General Operating and Flight Rules

4.30 General Operating Requirements

4.30.2 Describe the requirements of passengers to comply with instructions and commands.
CAR 91.5

4.30.4 State the requirements for operating an aircraft in simulated instrument flight.
CAR 91.125

4.30.6 State the requirements of a pilot-in-command with respect to the safe operation of an
aircraft.
CAR 91.203

4.30.8 Describe the authority of the pilot-in-command.

CAR 91.203

4.30.10 State the requirements for crew occupation of seats and wearing safety belts.
CAR 91.205

4.30.12 State the requirements for the occupation of seats and wearing of restraints.
CAR 91.207

4.30.14 State the requirements for the use of oxygen equipment.

CAR 91.209

4.30.16 State the requirements for briefing passengers prior to flight.

CAR 91.211

4.30.18 State the requirements for familiarity with operating limitations and emergency
equipment.
CAR 91

4.30.20 State the requirements for carrying appropriate aeronautical publications and charts in
flight.
CAR 91.219

4.30.22 State the requirements for operating on and in the vicinity of an aerodrome.
CAR 91.223

4.30.24 Describe the standard overhead joining procedure, and state when it should be used.
AIP AD 1.5 – 5
“...should be followed at unattended aerodromes (where no aerodrome control or AFIS is provided) and at
other aerodromes when a pilot is unfamiliar with the aerodrome or is uncertain of circuit traffic.”

4.30.26 State and describe the application of the right of way rules.
CAR 91.229

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 PPL Air Law – Syllabus Notes

4.30.28 Explain the requirement for aircraft lighting.

CAR 91.233

4.30.30 State the requirements for wearing/holding identity documentation in certain areas.
CAR 19.357

4.32 General Operating Restrictions

4.32.2 State the restrictions on smoking in an aircraft.

CA Act 1990
65N No smoking
(1) Every person commits an offence who smokes—
(a) when instructed not to smoke by a crew member, passenger information signs, or placards; or
(b) while on any aircraft that is carrying passengers for hire or reward on any internal flight; or
(c) in contravention of section 96A(6).
(2) Every person who commits an offence against subsection (1) is liable on conviction to a fine not
exceeding $2,500.
(3) In subsection (1), to smoke has the meaning set out in section 96A(1).

4.32.4 State the restrictions associated with the abuse of drugs and alcohol.
CAR 91.203
CAR 19.7

4.32.6 State the restrictions on the use of portable electronic devices in flight.
CAR 91.7

4.32.8 State the restrictions on the carriage and discharge of firearms on aircraft.
CAR 91.9

4.32.10 Explain the restrictions on stowage of carry-on baggage.

CAR 91.213

4.32.12 Explain the restrictions on the carriage of cargo.

CAR 91.215

4.32.14 State the restrictions applicable to aircraft flying near other aircraft.
CAR 91.227

4.32.16 State the restrictions on the dropping of objects from an aircraft in flight.
CAR 91.235
A pilot of an aircraft shall not allow any object to be dropped from that aircraft in flight unless the pilot
has taken reasonable precautions to ensure the dropping of the object does not endanger persons or
property.

4.32.18 State the speed limitation on aircraft operating under VFR.

CAR 91.237
...a pilot must not operate an aircraft at an indicated speed of more than 250 kts below an altitude of
10 000 feet AMSL when—...

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 PPL Air Law – Syllabus Notes

4.32.20 State the minimum heights for VFR flights (A) or (H) under CAR Part 91.
CAR 91.311
→ over any congested area of a city, town, or settlement, or over any open air assembly of persons at a
height of less than 1000 feet above the surface or any obstacle
→ over any other area
(i) at a height of less than 500 feet above the surface; or
(ii) at a height of less than 500 feet above any obstacle, person, vehicle, vessel, or structure

4.32.22 State the restrictions when operating VFR in icing conditions.

CAR 91.315
→ No pilot-in-command of an aircraft shall perform a take-off under VFR in an aircraft that has snow,
ice, or frost, adhering to the wings, stabilisers, or control surfaces.

4.32.24 State the restrictions applicable to operating an aircraft in aerobatic flight.

CAR 91.701

4.32.26 State the restrictions applicable to parachute-drop operations.

CAR 91.705

4.32.28 State the restrictions applicable to aircraft towing gliders.

CAR 91.709

4.32.30 State the restrictions applicable to aircraft towing objects other than gliders.
CAR 91.711

4.34 General Meteorological Requirements and Restrictions

4.34.2 State the met minima for VFR flight (A) or (H) in various airspace.
CAR 91.301

4.34.4 State the restrictions and met minima for Special VFR flight (A) or (H).
CAR 91.303

4.36 Carriage of Dangerous Goods

4.36.2 State the restriction for the carriage of dangerous goods in an aircraft.
CAR 92.7 General carriage requirements
(a) A person must not offer or accept dangerous goods for carriage by air unless those goods are
classified, documented, certificated, described, packaged, marked, and labelled in accordance with
the Technical Instructions, and are in the condition for shipment prescribed by the Technical
Instructions.
(b) A person must not carry dangerous goods by air unless those goods are accepted, handled, and
carried in accordance with the Technical Instructions or under the provisions of this Part.

4.36.4 State the requirements for the carriage of non-dangerous goods in an aircraft.
CAR 92

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 PPL Air Law – Syllabus Notes

E. Flight Planning and Preparation

4.50 Flight Preparation

4.50.2 Explain the requirements for obtaining and considering relevant information prior to
flight.
91.217 Preflight action
Before commencing a flight, a pilot-in-command of an aircraft must obtain and become familiar with all
information concerning that flight including—
(1) where practicable, the current meteorological information; and
(2) the fuel requirements; and
(3) the alternatives available if the planned flight cannot be completed; and
(4) any known or likely traffic delays that have been notified by ATS; and
(5) the status of the communication and navigation facilities intended to be used; and
(6) the current conditions of the aerodrome and runway lengths at aerodromes of intended use; and
(7) any take-off and landing distance data contained in the aircraft flight manual; and
(8) in the case of aircraft powered by two or more engines—
(i) engine inoperative procedures; and
(ii) one engine inoperative performance data.

91.219 Familiarity with operating limitations and emergency equipment

Each pilot of an aircraft shall, before beginning a flight, be familiar with—
(1) the aircraft flight manual for that aircraft; and
(2) any placards, listings, instrument markings, or any combination thereof, containing any
operating limitation prescribed for that aircraft by the manufacturer or the Director; and
(3) the emergency equipment installed on the aircraft; and
(4) which crew member is assigned to operate the emergency equipment; and
(5) the procedures to be followed for the use of the emergency equipment in an emergency
situation.

4.50.4 Describe the publications and their content that provide operational route and aerodrome
information.
1. AIPNZ Vol. 1
→ General Information (GEN)
→ En-route Information (ENR)
→ Aerodrome Information (AD)
2. AIPNZ Vol. 2 & 3
→ contain specific GEN, ENR & AD information, procedures and charts specific to IFR flights
→ detailed information concerning IFR flight
→ include aerodrome instrument approach charts and related data
3. AIPNZ Vol. 4
→ contain specific GEN, ENR & AS information procedures and charts specific to VFR flights
→ contains all aerodrome charts and Operational Data for VFR operations
4. AIP Supplement
→ amendments and/or additions to AIPNZ documents
→ pilots should have a good working knowledge of the Supplement and check regularly for updates

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 PPL Air Law – Syllabus Notes

5. NOTAM and Pre-flight Information Bulletins (PIB)

→ NOTAM are used to promulgate temporary changes to operationally significant information that
requires immediate dissemination
→ Series A (domestic) NOTAM contain information of interest for operators within New Zealand
→ Series B (international) NOTAM contain information relating to operations by international and
domestic operators
6. Aeronautical Information Circular (AIC)
→ contain information of interest to pilots and aircraft operators
→ are distributed to holders of the AIP
→ are issued as required, and in accordance with the AIRAC cycle
7. Aeronautical Charts
→ see GEN 3.2 AERONAUTICAL CHARTS
→ part of the AIP
→ updated in accordance with the AIP amendment cycle
→ Aerodrome Obstacle Charts — Type A, are published for some international airports
→ En-route Charts (ENRC) and Area Charts (ARC) depict ATS routes, communications and navigation
facilities, controlled airspace and appropriate special use airspace
→ Visual Planning Charts (VPC)
→ 1:1,000,000 series shows all designated airspace and special use airspace
→ Visual Navigation Charts (VNC)
→ 1:500,000 series shows selected aeronautical information up to the lower level of the upper CTA
→ 1:250,000 series provides complete aeronautical information up to the lower level of the upper
CTA
→ 1:125,000 series provides complete aeronautical information in the Terminal area up to the lower
level of the upper CTA

4.50.6 Derive operational information from charts and publications that provide route and
aerodrome information.
→ see information above

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 PPL Air Law – Syllabus Notes

4.54 Fuel Requirements

4.54.2 State the minimum fuel reserve (A) required for a day VFR flight.
CAR 91.305
A pilot-in-command of an aeroplane must not begin a flight under VFR unless, in the forecast weather
conditions, the aeroplane has enough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing at the planned
normal cruising speed and to fly after that point of intended landing for at least—
(1) a further 30 minutes during the day; or
(2) a further 45 minutes at night

4.54.4 State the minimum fuel reserve (A) required for a night VFR flight.
CAR 91.305
→ see above

4.56 Flight Plans

4.56.2 State the requirements for the filing of a flight plan for flight under VFR.
CAR 91.307

4.56.4 State the requirements for notification of changes to the filed flight plan.
CAR 91.307(d)(1)

4.56.6 State the requirements for the terminating a flight plan.

CAR 91.307(d)(2)

4.56.8 Describe the difference between ETA and SARTIME.

CAR 91
→ ETA means estimated time of arrival
→ SARTIME means the time nominated by a pilot for the initiation of alerting action (the time that
search and rescue action will commence if the flight plan is not terminated)

4.56.10 State the time search and rescue action would be initiated if a flight plan is not terminated
before SARTIME.
AIP ENR
→ a time nominated by the PIC
→ often approx. 30min
→ good practice to nominate a SARTIME which will allow a reasonable time after ETA to terminate the
flight plan

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 PPL Air Law – Syllabus Notes

F. Air Traffic Services

4.60 Communications

4.60.2 Derive from operational publications, the required radio frequency for communicating
with specified ATC units.
→ FISCOM
→ Aerodrome Information charts

4.60.4 State the requirements for making position reports to an ATS unit.
91.309 Position reports
→ Each pilot-in-command of an aircraft on a VFR flight shall, when operating in controlled airspace,
report the position of the aircraft to ATC at the times or reporting points required by ATC.
AIP ENR 1.1 – 11 (VFR Position Reporting)

4.60.6 State the content of a VFR position report.

AIP ENR 1.1 – 12
→ 7.3.1 Visual position reports should contain those elements of the following as applicable to the reason
for the report:
(a) identification;
(b) SSR code (if on discrete code);
(c) position;
(d) time;
(e) altitude;
(f) intended route;
(g) next landing point; and
(h) ETA at next landing point

4.60.8 State the purpose of Universal Communications Services (UNICOM).

AIP GEN 3.4 – 11
→ UNICOM is not an air traffic service.
→ UNICOM is an air/ground communications facility providing an information service at aerodromes
with no aerodrome control or aerodrome flight information service

4.60.10 State the purpose of an Aerodrome Frequency Response Unit (AFRU).

AIP GEN 3.4 – 11
→ a unit that provides confirmation to pilots that they have selected the correct aerodrome frequency,
and that their aircraft radio is operating correctly

4.60.12 State the purpose of Aerodrome and Weather Information Broadcasts (AWIB).
AIP GEN 3.4 – 13
→ an automated broadcast on a specified frequency at some unattended aerodromes
→ relays information on meteorological and operational conditions that are obtained from automatic
sensors and manual observations
→ is not provided by an air traffic service and is therefore not required to have the same standard of
accuracy as an ATIS

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 PPL Air Law – Syllabus Notes

4.60.14 State the meaning of the various light signals from a control tower.
CAR 91.243
AIP AD 1.9 – 1

4.60.16 State the communications requirements when TIBA procedures are in force.
AIP ENR 1.15 - 13

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 PPL Air Law – Syllabus Notes

4.62 Clearances

4.62.2 State the requirements for complying with ATC clearances and instructions.
CAR 91.241
AIP ENR 1.1 - 12

4.62.4 State the requirements for coordinating with an aerodrome flight information service.
CAR 91.225(b)

4.62.6 State the requirements for receiving an ATC clearance prior to entering various types of
airspace, and ground manoeuvring area.
CAR 91.245
AIP ENR 1.1 - 12

4.62.8 State the requirements for receiving an ATC clearance prior to re-entering controlled
airspace.
CAR 91.245

4.63 Separation

4.63.2 Describe the method of passing traffic information using the clock code.
→ 12 hour clock method
→ 3 o'clock position = RH side, etc.
→ each 5 min of the hour = 30°
eg. 10 o'clock is (2 x 30°) = 60° to the left
4 o'clock is (4 x 30°) = 120° to the right

4.63.4 Describe the situations where Air Traffic Control is responsible for the provision of
separation between VFR, SVFR and IFR traffic.
AIP ENR 1.1 - 22

4.63.6 Describe the situations where the pilot-in-command is responsible for maintaining separation
from other traffic.
AIP ENR 1.1 - 22

4.63.8 Describe the normal separation standards applied by ATC.

AIP ENR 1.1 - 23

4.63.10 Describe the situations where the normal separation may be reduced.
AIP ENR 1.1 - 26

4.63.12 State the wake turbulence separation requirements for light aircraft in non-radar
environment.
AIP AD 1.6

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 PPL Air Law – Syllabus Notes

4.66 Radar Services

4.66.2 Describe the radar services available to VFR flights.

AIP ENR 1.6 - 13
→ Radar Control, radar advisory and radar information services, as appropriate, are provided to VFR
flights under area radar or approach radar control within radar coverage in Class C and Class D airspace.
→ Radar services are not normally provided to VFR flights within radar coverage operating in Class G
airspace. Every effort will be made to provide a service if requested, but it will be limited to:
(a) assisting aircraft experiencing an emergency; and
(b) giving navigational assistance.
→ The use of radar by ATC does not absolve the pilot from compliance with the requirements for
operation under VFR.
→ Terrain clearance remains the responsibility of the pilot.
→ Should pilots operating under VFR encounter a situation where their ability to remain clear of terrain
is compromised, any requests for assistance from ATS must include details of the circumstances.

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 PPL Air Law – Syllabus Notes

G. Airspace, Aerodromes and Heliports

4.70 Altimetry

4.70.2 Explain the altimeter setting requirements for flight under VFR.
CAR 91.239
AIP ENR 1.7

4.70.4 State the procedure to use to obtain an altimeter setting when QNH is not available prior to
takeoff and the requirement to obtain a QNH once in flight.
AIP ENR 1.7 – 4
→ set altimeter to aerodrome elevation QFE
→ obtain appropriate QNH from ATS unit ASAP

4.70.6 Describe QNH zones and state when zone QNH should be used.
AIP ENR 1.7 – 4
→ 12 defined Area QNH zones within NZ
→ area QNH can be obtained from ATC, Flight Service or Flight Information
→ when flying outside control zones and clear of aerodromes the altimeter is to be set to the area QNH
for the area that you are in

4.72 Cruising Levels

4.72.2 State the altitude requirements when cruising VFR within the New Zealand FIR.
AIP ENR 1.7
CAR 91.313
(1) when operating VFR at or below 13 000 feet AMSL and—
(i) on a magnetic track of 270° clockwise to 089°, any odd thousand foot altitude AMSL plus 500
feet; or
(ii) on a magnetic track of 090° clockwise to 269°, any even thousand foot altitude AMSL plus 500
feet:

4.72.4 Describe situations where ATC may assign cruising altitudes not in accordance with
the VFR table of cruising altitudes.
AIP ENR 1.7 - 7

4.74 Transponders

4.74.2 State the requirements for the operation of transponders within the New Zealand FIR.
CAR 91.247
AIP ENR 1.6 - 3

4.74.4 Describe the procedures required of pilots operating transponders.

AIP ENR 1.6 - 7

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 PPL Air Law – Syllabus Notes

4.74.6 State the requirements and limitations on an aircraft operating under VFR in transponder
mandatory airspace without an operating transponder.
CAR 91.247
AIP ENR 1.6 - 11

4.75 Airspace

4.75.2 State the rules pertaining to operating VFR in the various classes of airspace.
CAR 91.301
AIP ENR 1.2 - 2

4.75.4 Describe the vertical limits and purpose of control zones (CTR).
CAR 71.55
→ protects the flight paths of IFR flights arriving at and departing from the aerodrome
→ are the only type of controlled airspace that touch the surface of the earth

4.75.6 Describe the vertical limits and purpose of control areas (CTA).
CAR 71.53
→ extend from a specified lower limit to a specified upper limit
→ lower limit of a control area must be not less than 700 feet above the surface of the earth
→ the upper limit of a control area must not exceed flight level 660 (66,000ft)

4.75.8 State the status and conditions relating to flight in VFR transit lanes.
CAR 71.57
→ portions of controlled airspace that are released as Class G (uncontrolled) airspace during daylight
hours only
→ allows VFR aircraft to transit within airspace not normally used by IFR aircraft
→ no clearance is required to operate within VFR transit lanes when active
→ it is recommended that pilots use their transponders if fitted
→ use the lanes for transiting purposes only
→ depicted on VNCs with the designation Txxx

4.75.10 Describe the status and purpose of a general aviation area (GAA).
CAR 71.59
CAR 91.139
→ portions of controlled airspace which become Class G (uncontrolled) airspace under certain
conditions
→ available for use during daylight hours only

4.75.12 Describe visual reporting points.

CAR 71.251
→ for ATS information regarding the progress of aircraft in flight
→ facilitating the safe conduct of flight by visual reference
→ based on prominent geographical features
→ identified by names or designators that are easily recognizable in voice communications

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 PPL Air Law – Syllabus Notes

4.75.14 Describe the status of controlled airspace when ATC go off duty.
AIP GEN 3.3 - 2
→ the rules and procedures for Class G (uncontrolled) airspace apply

4.75.16 State the restrictions on operating an aircraft in a restricted area.

CAR 91.129
→ most permanent restricted areas are conservation sites of importance to New Zealand’s wildlife
→ must have the approval of the administering authority responsible for the restricted area to operate
within that area
→ must comply with any conditions promulgated for operation within the restricted area
→ comply with any conditions imposed by the administering authority

4.75.18 State the restrictions on operating an aircraft in a military operating area (MOA).
CAR 91.133
→ an area within which military operations, including live firing and the use of explosives, may take
place
→ must have the approval of the administering authority responsible for the military operating area
→ must comply with any conditions promulgated for operation within the military operating area
→ must comply with any conditions imposed by the administering authority

4.75.20 State the restrictions and operating considerations relating to operating an aircraft in a
mandatory broadcast zone (MBZ).
CAR 91.135
→ an area normally established at a busy uncontrolled aerodrome, or airspace that has intensive
tourist operations
→ an MBZ requires a pilot to broadcast position, altitude and intention reports on a specified frequency:
- on entry
- when joining an aerodrome traffic circuit
- prior to entering a runway
- at specified regular intervals when operating within the MBZ
→ landing or anti-collision lights must be switched on (if fitted)
→ depicted on VNCs as Bxxx and bounded by blue dotted line

4.75.22 State the restrictions and operating considerations relating to operating an aircraft in a
volcanic hazard zone (VHZ).
CAR 91.137
→ designated where volcanic activity may be present
→ aircraft are required to operate in VMC by day only while in a VHZ in order to be able to observe any
volcanic ejecta or ash plume

4.75.24 State the restrictions and operating considerations relating to operating an aircraft in a
danger area.
CAR 91.129
→ a pilot must not operate an aircraft within a danger area unless that pilot has determined that the
activity associated with the danger area will not affect the safety of the aircraft
→ danger areas do not have an administering authority as there is no requirement to control access

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 PPL Air Law – Syllabus Notes

4.75.26 State the restrictions and operating considerations relating to operating an aircraft in a
designated low flying zone (LFZ).
CAR 91.131
→ normally exist over flat areas
→ extend from the surface of the earth to 500ft AGL
→ prescribed to allow low-level flight training by a specified using agency
→ daytime use only
→ depicted on VNCs as Lxxx

4.75.28 State the operating considerations relating to operating an aircraft in a common

frequency zone (CFZ).

→ these areas are not designated airspace, but they are where voluntary common frequencies have been
established in order to enhance safety
→ similar in function in uncontrolled airspace as MBZs around uncontrolled aerodromes
→ not mandatory to use a radio on the specified frequency within a CFZ but it would be very poor
airmanship not to use the published frequency and not to comply with expected local radio procedures
when radio equipped
→ as a minimum pilots should broadcast their position and intentions on entry and exit from a CFZ
→ use of landing and/or anti-collision lights is also a recommended practice within a CFZ
→ on VNCs by use of the abbreviation CFZ
→ bounded by diamond-shaped marking

4.75.30 State the operating considerations relating to operating an aircraft over or close to
temporary hazards/airspace.
AIP ENR
→ temporary restricted areas can be designated when the Director considers it necessary in the interests
of aviation safety, or security, or in the public interest

4.75.32 Interpret airspace information on aeronautical charts used for VFR flights.
→ use of VPCs, VNCs & IFR en-route/area charts

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 PPL Air Law – Syllabus Notes

4.76 Aerodromes and Heliports

4.76.2 Describe the limitations on the use of a place as an aerodrome or heliport.

CAR 91.127
→ no person may use any place as an aerodrome unless that place is suitable for the purpose of taking off
or landing of the aircraft concerned, etc.

4.76.4 Describe the method of runway designation.

AIP AD 1.10 – 1
→ The runway or strip designation is a two-digit number based on the whole number nearest to one-tenth
of the magnetic azimuth of the centreline when viewed from the direction of approach,
e.g. if the magnetic azimuth of strip is 208°M, the runway will be designated as RWY 21

4.76.6 Describe the movement area of an aerodrome.

CAR 1.1
(1) means that part of an aerodrome to be used for the take-off and landing of aircraft and for the surface
movement of aircraft associated with take-off and landing; but
(2) does not include areas set aside for loading, unloading, or maintenance of aircraft:

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 PPL Air Law – Syllabus Notes

4.76.8 Describe the meaning of the various aerodrome ground signals.

AIP AD 1.9

4.76.10 Interpret information on aerodrome/heliport charts.

AIP GEN 2.3 - CHART SYMBOLS
AIP Volume 4

4.76.12 Interpret runway and taxiway signs and markings.

CAR 139
→ see Vector articles Aerodrome Signs & Aerodrome Markings
https://www.caa.govt.nz/assets/legacy/aerodromes/Aerodrome_Signs.pdf
https://www.caa.govt.nz/assets/legacy/aerodromes/Aerodrome_Markings.pdf

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 PPL Air Law – Syllabus Notes

4.78 Aerodromes Lighting

4.78.4 Describe the following lighting systems:

→ see CAANZ Aerodrome Lighting
https://www.caa.govt.nz/aerodromes/aerodrome-lighting/

(a) Runway edge lighting (REDL);

→ Is normally white for the usable portion of the runway
→ uniformly spaced in rows at intervals of not more than 60 m for an instrument runway, and at intervals
of not more than 100 m for a non-instrument runway

(b) Runway landing threshold lighting (RTHL);

→ May extend across the full width of the runway or have a clear gap about the central section
→ this lighting is normally uni-directional green, visible from the approach direction

(c) Runway end lighting (RENL);

→ installed across the end of the runway
→ may extend across the full width of the runway or have a clear gap about the central section
→ this lighting is normally uni-directional red, visible from the direction of the runway

(d) Runway centreline lighting system (RCLL);

→ a precision approach runway may also be provided with flush centre line lights over the whole length
of the runway
→ this lighting will be coded to show:
- white from the threshold to a point 914m from the runway end;
- alternate red and white between 914m and 300m from the runway end;
- red between 300m and the runway end

(e) Runway end identifier lighting (REIL);

→ Comprises a very high intensity uni-directional light projector located on either side of the runway
approximately 30m from the runway extended centre line and downwind of the landing threshold
→ the projectors are aligned to be visible from the approach direction, and are synchronized to flash
simultaneously and to show brilliant white flashes at a rate of 60 flashes per minute
→ the projectors have two intensities

(f) Circling guidance lighting (CGL);

→ installed to provide either: positive tracking in terrain or obstacle restricted circuit areas, or
- a clear indication of landing threshold from the latter portion of the downwind leg or from base
leg and final approach in reduced visibility
- to provide positive tracking where terrain or obstacles restrict the circuiting area, a racetrack
pattern of lights may be laid out to identify to a pilot the track to be followed
- the system is normally used by night only
(g) Runway lead in lighting (RLLS);
→ may be provided where additional lighting is required to provide positive tracking to an aerodrome or
to the commencement of the approach lighting
→ is normally fixed or flashing omni-directional red lights
→ the outermost light may be a fixed or flashing amber and, where additional conspicuity is required,
flashing omni-directional white lights may be provided

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 PPL Air Law – Syllabus Notes

(h) Pilot activated lighting (PAL).

→ a pilot activated VHF switching system to operate runway and associated lighting
→ at most aerodromes lighting duration is twenty minutes and a standard system of keying of the aircraft
transmitter on the designated frequency achieves various lighting changes as follows:
- Activation
Five rapid and short transmissions, collectively not exceeding three seconds.
- Brilliance and runway selection
After a ten second warm up when first turned on, the lights switch to full brightness. To change
intensity, repeat the activation sequence but hold the button down on the last transmission. The
lighting intensity will continuously cycle until the transmit button is released. Where alternative
runways are available the cycling will include changing to the next runway(s) and cycling their
brilliance before starting the cycle again.
- Re-activation
At any time a single transmission will reset the lighting timer for a further 20 minutes. Note: There
is no warning prior to the lights turning off.

4.78.6 Describe aerodrome beacons.

CAR Part 139, Appendix E.3.5
AC 139-6
→ an aeronautical beacon used to indicate the location of an aerodrome from the air
→ must be provided at an aerodrome intended for use at night when aircraft navigate predominantly by
visual means, reduced visibilities are frequent, or it is difficult to locate the aerodrome from the air due to
surrounding lights or terrain
→ should be on or adjacent to the aerodrome, located to ensure that it is not shielded by objects in
significant directions, and does not dazzle a pilot approaching to land
→ should show white flashes only
→ the frequency of the flashes should be from 12 to 30 per minute
→ the light from the beacon should show at all angles of azimuth

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 PPL Air Law – Syllabus Notes

H. Emergencies; Incidents; and Accidents

4.80 Responsibilities of Pilots

4.80.2 State the requirement for the notification of accidents.

CAR 12.51
→ Each pilot-in-command of an aircraft that is involved in an accident or, if that person is fatally or
seriously injured, or if the aircraft is missing, the operator, shall notify the Authority of the accident as
soon as practicable.

4.80.4 State the requirement for the notification of incidents.

CAR 12.55
→ A holder of a certificate issued by the Director under the Act and the following Parts must notify the
Authority as soon as practicable of any associated incident if the certificate holder is involved in the
incident and the incident is a serious incident or is an immediate hazard to the safety of an aircraft
operation.

4.80.6 State the extent to which a pilot may deviate from the CA Act or rules in an emergency
situation.
CA Act 1990 S13A
→ a breach of any prescribed requirement is permitted only if the pilot-in-command is satisfied that—
(a) the emergency involves a danger to life or property; and
(b) the extent of the breach of the prescribed requirement goes only as far as is necessary to deal
with the emergency; and
(c) there is no other reasonable means of alleviating, avoiding, or assisting with the emergency; and
(d) the degree of danger involved in complying with the prescribed requirement is clearly greater
than the degree of danger involved in deviating from it.

4.80.8 State the pilot action required following deviation from the CA Act or rules in an
emergency situation.
CA Act 1990 S13A
→ where, in any emergency described in this section, a pilot-in-command or an operator breaches this Act
or regulations or rules made under this Act in accordance with the provisions of this section, the pilot-in-
command or the operator, as the case may be, shall—
(a) immediately notify the relevant air traffic control service of the action; and
(b) as soon as practicable, notify the Director of the action and the circumstances that necessitated
it, and, if requested by the Director, provide to the Director a written report in respect of the action.

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 PPL Air Law – Syllabus Notes

4.82 Communications and Equipment

4.82.2 State the transponder code a pilot should set to indicate an emergency condition.
AIP ENR 1.15 - 1
→ 7700

4.82.4 State the transponder code a pilot should set to indicate a loss of communications.
AIP ENR 1.15 – 3
→ 7600

4.82.6 State the transponder code a pilot should set to indicate that the aircraft is being subjected to
unlawful interference.
AIP ENR 1.6 - 9
→ 7500

4.82.8 Describe the means by which ATC will verify the transmission of an emergency SSR
transponder code.
AIP ENR 1.6 – 9
→ the controller will attempt to verify by RTF with the aircraft concerned that the code selection is
intentional:
“ ... (CALL SIGN) ... CONFIRM SQUAWKING SEVEN FIVE ZERO ZERO”.
→ if the aircraft is not being subjected to unlawful interference, the pilot should respond to the query by
broadcasting that the aircraft is not being subjected to unlawful interference
→ if the reply is in the affirmative or if no reply received, this will indicate the aircraft is subjected to
unlawful interference

4.82.10 Describe the use of the speechless technique using unmodulated transmissions.
AIP ENR 1.15 – 11
→ when an unmodulated transmission is heard, the ATS operator will request the pilot activate the
transmitter three times; and
(b) if the pilot complies ATS will frame questions requiring “YES” or “NO” answers to determine if
the aircraft:
(i) can continue visually; or
(ii) can execute an instrument approach, or has reached a nominated position.
→ this and any other information required will be obtained by requiring the pilot to use the following
code:
(a) “YES” or “ROGER” activate transmitter once
(b) “NO” activate transmitter twice
(c) “SAY AGAIN” activate transmitter 3 times
(d) “AT NOMINATED POSITION” activate transmitter 4 times

4.82.12 Describe and interpret ground-air visual signal codes.

AIP GEN 3.6 – 10
(Table GEN 3.6-2)

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 PPL Air Law – Syllabus Notes

4.82.14 Describe the procedures for directing a surface craft to a distress incident.
AIP GEN 3.6 - 8
→ When it is necessary for a pilot to direct a surface craft to the place where an aircraft or surface craft is
in distress, the pilot should do so by transmitting precise instructions by any means available
→ see above ref. for additional instructions

4.82.16 State the procedures for the emergency activation of an ELT.

AIP GEN 3.6 - 12

4.82.18 State the pilot action required following the inadvertent transmission of an ELT.
AIP GEN 3.6 – 13
→ if it is found that the ELT has been activated, switch it off and report the activation immediately to the
nearest ATS unit in order that any RCCNZ action commenced as a result of the transmission may be
terminated

4.82.20 State the requirements for the operational testing of an ELT.

AIP GEN 3.6 – 14
→ ELT self test is authorized on 121.5 MHz/406 MHz as follows:
(a) tests should be no longer than three audio sweeps and NOT exceed 20 seconds; and
(b) tests may be conducted only within the time period made up of the first five minutes after each
hour. Emergency tests outside this time must be coordinated with both the nearest ATS unit and
RCCNZ.
→ airborne ELT tests are NOT permitted

4.82.22 State the procedures to be followed on receiving an ELT signal.

AIP GEN 3.6 - 14
→ On receiving an ELT signal, pilots must report the following information to the nearest ATS unit:
(a) aircraft position and time when the signal was first heard;
(b) aircraft position and time when the signal was last heard;
(c) aircraft position at maximum signal strength; and
(d) aircraft level, strength and frequency of emergency signal on 121.5MHz

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