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Murali Bharadwaz Classes for MD Entrance Coaching Programe

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NEET PG Sunday Mock Test Code -1886 __
1. In the neural tube nerve cells are present in 8. With age the lens of the eye becomes less
the : elastic causing less bending of the light rays. The
A. Outer marginal layer consequence of this is that the eye is less able to:
B. Middle mantle layer A. Produce mydriasis
C. Inner ependymal layer B. Produce miosis
D. In all the above layers C. Focus on far objects
D. Focus on near objects
2. In the suboccipital triangle to expose the third
part of the vertebral artery you have to cut the: 9. Control of the muscle in standing and moving
A. Transverse ligament of the Atlas is not something thatwe are able to do from
B. Anterior atlanto-occipital membrane birth.What is the order of muscles (from the first
C. Posterior atlanto-occipital membrane skill to the last skill) that babies learn to

m
D. Atlanto axial membrane coordinate and control?
A. Muscles of the body, muscles of the neck,
3. The shortest part of the colon is : muscles of

co
A. ascending colon the shoulders and arms
B. sigmoid colon B. Muscles of the neck, muscles of the shoulders
C. Transverse colon and
D. descending colon arms, muscles of the body

s.
4. All are structures passing between the base of C. Muscles of the shoulders and arms, muscles of
skull and the superior constrictor except: the
A. Glossopharyngeal nerve body, muscles of the neck
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B. Pharyngobasilar fascia D. Muscles of the neck, muscles of the body,
C. Eustachian tube muscles of
D. Levator veli palati the shoulders and arms
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5. Lesion of Cranial part of XI nerve cause 10. Which of the following would result from a
paralysis of regurgitant aortic valve in a nonfailing heart?
A. Sternocleidomastiod muscle A. A decrease in diastolic pressure
B. Trapezius muscle B. A decrease in cardiac energy consumption
C. Stylopharyngeus muscle C. A systolic murmur
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D. Pharyngeal constrictors D. A decrease in heart rate

6.Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) and renal 11. Enzymes that catalyze the equilibrium
blood flow (RBF)will both be increased if between Aldoses and Ketoses are known as :
on

A. The efferent and afferent arterioles are both A. Mutases

dilated B. Isomerases
B. The efferent and afferent arterioles are both C. Aldolases
constricted D. Epimerases
C. Only the afferent arteriole is constricted
D. Only the efferent arteriole is constricted 12. The role of Citrate in fatty acid biosynthesis
is :
7. If 600 mL of water is ingested rapidly, plasma (A)to activate fatty acid synthase
volume will increase by approximately (B) to activate acetyl CoA carboxylase
A. 400 mL (C)to act as a precursor for addition of carbon atom
B. 200 mL (D) to inhibit oxidation of fatty acids
C. 100 mL
D. 50 mL 13. The property of proteins to absorb ultraviolet
rays of light is due to :
A. Peptide band

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B. Imino group (C)Bacillus cereus
C. Di Sulphide bond (D)Clostridium difficile
D. Aromatic amino acid .
21. Chorioallantoic membrane is sometimes used
14. Amole of NaO contains howmanymolecules for harvesting –
(A)6.023 x 10 23 (A)Yellow fever virus
(B) 6.023x10 22 (B) Rubella virus
(C)6.023x10 2i (C)Herpes simples
(D)6.023x10 20 (D)Echovirus

15. Precursor of melanin is 22.Which tetracycline can be used safely in

A. Melatonin presence of renal impairment ?

m
B. Melanocyte stimulating hormone (A)Oxytetracycline
C. Corticotrophin (B)Chlortetracyline
D. DOPA (C)Doxycycline

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(D)Tetracycline
16. The skin lesions of secondary syphilis include
all of the following except - 23. Which one is preferred for the treatment of
neurocysticercosis ?

s.
(A)Macules (A)Mebendazole
(B) Vesicles & Bullae (B) Albendazole
(C)Nodule (C)Thiabendazole
bb
(D)Hyper pigmented patches (D)Praziquantel

17. Leprosy bacilli is transmitted from person to 24. Final common metabolism of atracurium,
person by all except – mivacuriumand succinylcholine are by:
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(A)Discharge from nasal mucosa (A)Conjugation

(B) From open sore (B) Reduction
(C)Through intact skin (C)Hydrolysis
(D)Through breast milk (D)Acetylation
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18. Inmycoplasma pneumonia, not true is – 25. Drug of choice in MRSA

(A)Increased ESR seen (A)Cephalosporins
(B)Cold agglutinins present (B) Glycopeptides
(C)Erythromycin treatment of choice (C)Penicillin
on

(D)Difficult to culture from sputum (D)Erythromycin

19. Reduvid bud is a vector for the transmission 26. Drug contraindicated in pregnancy:
of – A. Clonidine
(A)Relapsing fever B. Enalapril
(B) Lyme’s disease C. Methyl dopa
(C)Scrub typhus D. Hydralazine
(D)Chaga’s disease
27.Which of the following is NOT indicated in
20. Vibrio cholerae produce a heat libile exotoxin Digitalis poisoning
that act via the CAMP pathway to cause cholera. A. Potassium
Which of the following bacteria causes disease B. Hemodialysis
inman by a similarmechanism – C. Phenytoin
(A)Shigella dysenteriae type I D. Lidocaine
(B) Escherichia coli

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28. The most characteristic and frequent feature antigen they release lymphokines, which in turn
of chronic rheumatic heart disease is the act on the macrophages, lymphocytes, and other
development of cells. They in turn yield which one of the
(A)Vegetations on the endocardium following types of delayed hypersensitivity?
(B) Aschoff bodies within the myocardium (A)Anaphylactic type
(C)Fibrin deposits within the pericardium (B)Cytotoxic antigens
(D)Stenosis of the mitral valve (C)Complex-mediated antigen antibody
(D)Cell-mediated
29. The percent ofwomenwith gestational
diabetes thatwill develop diabetesmellitus later 34. Death Sentence (Capital Punishment) can
in life is: only be awarded by :
(A)10 (A)First Class Judicial Magistrate

m
(B) 20 (B) Assistant Sessions Judge
(C)60 (C)Additional Sessions Judge
(D)80 (D)Chief Judicial Magistrate

co
30. Diabetes mellitus is divided into three 35. Membrana Pupillaris completely
categories based on etiology. Which disease disappeared
occurs most commonly in those individuals who (atrophied) by :

s.
are less than 40 years of age and what is the (A)Just after birth
cause? (B) 6 days after birth
(A)Gestational diabetes and low serum insulin (C)After 20 weeks of Intrauterine life
bb
(B) Gestational diabetes and high serum insulin (D) After 28 weeks of Intrauterine life
(C)Non-insulin dependent and low blood glucose
(D)Insulin-dependent and high blood glucose 36. All are features of ligature strangulation
except
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31. Histologic sections (routine H&E stain) of (A)Incomplete ligature mark

lung (B) Subconjuctival hemorrhage
reveal the alveoli to be filledwith pale, (C)Horizontal ligature
nongranular pink fluid. Neither leukocytes nor (D)Face congestion
erythrocytes are present within this fluid.What is 37. 20 permanent and 8 temporary teeth are
lin

the most likely (i.e.,most common) cause of this present approximately at the age of
abnormality? (A)8
(B) 11
(A)Bacterial pneumonia (C)13
on

(B) Congestive heart failure (D)20

(C)Pulmonary embolus
(D)Viral pneumonia 38. The commonest type of inquest held in India
is
32. Pearly penile papules at the edge of the glans A. Magistrate’s inquest
penis in a healthy 17-year-old adolescent B. Police inquest
present: C. Coroner’s inquest
(A)A premalignant change D. Medical examiner’s inquest
(B) Infection with human papillomavirus 39. Who was a Roman medical teacher –
(C)A benign, unremarkable finding (A)Hippocrates
(D)Balanitis with Staphylococcus aureus (B) Galen
(C)Paracelsus
33. When T lymphocytes carrying specific (D)Aristotle
antigen
receptors become activated by contact with that 40. Physical quality of life index in India is –

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(A)31
(B) 43 (A)Median
(C)50 (B) First quartile
(D)61 (C)Third quartile
(D)Mode
41. PQLI index involves all except – 48. Quantities continuous data can be presented
(A)Life expectancy at age 1 year by the following diagrams, except
(B) Per capita income (A)Histogram
(C)Literacy (B) Frequency polygon
(D)IMR (C)Ogive
(D)Bar chart
42. The measure used to express the global

m
burden of disease, i.e., how a healthy life is 49. Chi-square test is used to measure the degree
affected by disease is – of :
(A)Disability – Adjusted life year (A)Association between two variables

co
(B)Case fatality rate (B)Correlation between two variables
(C)Life expectancy (C)Strength of association
(D)Age – specific incidence rate (D)None of the above

s.
43. Following indexmeasures a average 50. To calculate the predictive value of a
achievements in basic dimensions of human negatives test, the denominator is composed of :
development – (A)True Positives + False Negatives
bb
(A)Human poverty index (B) True Positives + False Positives
(B)Human development index (C)True Negatives + False Negatives
(C)Gender empowerment index (D)True Positives + True Negatives
(D)Life expectancy at birth
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51. Upper abdominal symptoms in a recently

44. HDI does not include – diagnosed diabetic, especially in one above 50
(A)GDP years of age, with no family history or obesity,
(B) IMR should raise suspicion of
(C)Life expectancy at birth a) Carolis disease
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(D)Literacy b) Choledocal cyst

c) pancreatic head tumour
45. Carriers are not an important source of d) Cholangiocarcinoma
transmission in –
on

(A)Typhoid 52. Which one is incorrect among the following

(B) Poliomyelitis statements ?
(C)Diphtheria (A)Porophyrias are group of diseases having
(D)Measles derngements of synthesis of haem
(B) Porophyria Cutanea tarda is the most common
46. Diseases which are imported into a country type of human porphyria
in (C)Most patients with porphyria cutanea trada have
which they do not otherwise occur is – associated mutations in the HFE gene linked to
(A)Exotic haemochromatosis
(B) Epizootic (D) The Diagnosis is confirmed by demonstration
(C)Endemic of
(D)None of the above elevated levels of free ery-throcyte protoporphyrin

47. A measure location dividing the distribution 53. Among the followings which one is the
in the ratio of 1 : 3 is : incorrect statement ?

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(A)The human hemostatic system provides a natural statements are correct, except :
balance between procoagulant and anti-coagulant (A)Predominantly characterised by Osteopenia and
forces brittle bones
(B) The platelet adhesion is primarily mediated by (B)OI can be classified into several varieties
collagen tissue at the site of vascular injury (C)The classifications mild and moderate forms are
(C)Platelet adhesion results in subsequent platelet related to prognosis
adhesion and aggregation (D)The Sclerae can be normal in OI
(D)The platelet GPIIBIIIA complex is the most
abundant 58. Regarding dementia the following statements
receptor on the platelet surface are true, except :
54. Which one is the incorrect statement among (A)More than 50% of the dementic patients suffer
the following ? from

m
(A)Cutaneous lupus erythematous can be Alzheimer’s disease
subdivided into acute, sub-acute and chronic types (B) Lumber puncture should be routinely done in
(B)Subacute lupus is characterised by erythema of the

co
the evaluation of dementia
nose and malar eminences (C)Neuropsychiatric assessment is important for
(C)Most of subacute cutaneous lupus erythematous diagonsis
have (D)In early state of Alzheimer’s disease mild

s.
minimal or absence of renal CNS involvement depressive
(D)A Particular pattern of IgG deposits throughout features, social withdrawal & are the most
the prominent
bb
epidermis has been associated with subacute psychiatric changes physical changes
cutaneous
lupus erythematus 59. In haematopoiesis the following statements
are true, except :
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55. Hypothermia is defined as when the body (A)Haematopoiesis is the process by which the
temperature goes below formed
(A)< 96°F elements of the blood are produced
(B)< 95°F (B) In the bone Marrow the first morphologically
(C)< 94°F recognizable erythroid precursor is the normoblast
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(D)< 90°F (C)The erythropoietin is produced by the

peritubular cells within the kidney
56. In Gonococcal infection the following are (D)There is daily replacment of 0.8 - 1% of all
true circulating red cells
on

except :
(A)Acute urethritis is the most common of clinical 60. Leukotrienes:
manifestation of gonorrhea in males (A)Are synthesized by fibroblasts
(B)Gonococci become fully resistant to antibiotics (B)Decrease vascular permeability
either (C)Leukotriene D4 has been identified as SRS-A
by Chromosomal mutations or by acquisition of which
RFactors causes bronchial wall smooth muscle relaxation
(C)Spectinomycin can be kept reserved for use (D)Stimulate mucus secretion
against
multiresistant strains of N. Gonorrhea 61. Which of the following is seen in pulmonary
(D)The vaginal mucosa in reproductive age is very thromboemboiism:
much (A)S1Q3T3
susceptible to Gonococcal infection (B) S2Q3T3
(C)S3Q3T1
57. In Ostogenesis Imperfecta (01) the following (D)S3Q3T2

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62.Which of the following is seen in SIADH 69. Which of the following is not a feature of
except: Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura ?
(A)Hypernatremia (A)Prolonged PT and aPTT
(B)Decreased plasma osmolality (B)Normal Fibrinogen concentration
(C)Hypouricemia (C)Normal Fibrin degradation products
(D)Low plasma renin activity (D)Platelet count decreased

63. Investigation of choice for pulmonary 70. Kaposi’s sarcoma is associated with
thromboembolism is: (A)Bronchial asthma
(A)CT scan with intravenous contrast (B) HIV
(B) Ventilation perfusion scan. (C)Hepatitis B

m
(C)MRI (D)Hairy cell leukemia
(D)USG
71. False regarding Cirrhosis if liver

co
64.Which of the following is seen in gallstone (A)The number and size of vascular spiders have
disease: been
(A)Decreased bile and cholesterol ratio shown to correlate with the severity of chronic liver
(B) Increased bile and cholesterol ratio disease

s.
(C)Equal bile and cholesterol ratio (B) In Alcoholic liver disease ALT:AST level is > 2
(D)Cholesterol only (C)Approximately 1,500 mL of acites fluid must be
present before dullness is detected on physical
bb
65. All of the following conditions will have examination
hypermetabolic state except: (D)Routine ultrasonography can detect as little as
(A)Accident 50 mL
(B) Burns of f luid in the abdomen
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(C)PEM
(D)Anorexia nervosa 72. A 24-year-old male with a recent history of
transsphenoidal surgery to remove a large
66.Which of the following is related to type 2 prolactinoma complains of excessive urination,
diabetes mellitus: including waking up from sleep to urinate. In
lin

(A)Prone to ketoacidosis addition, he reports constant thirst. Physical

(B) Insulin resistance examination is unremarkable. Blood tests reveal
(C)Target defect normal glucose level. Urine specific gravity is
(D)B cell destruction reported at 1.004. Urine osmolality of 150mOsm/
on

kgwith a plasma osmolality

67. All of the following are true about SARS f290mOsm/kg.Which
except: of the following test confirms the diagnosis
a) Low dose Dexamethasone suppression test
(A)It may present as systemic disease b) High dose Dexamethasone suppression test
(B) 20% of cases present with diarrhea c) Water deprivation testing
(C)It may present with bilateral hilar opacity d) CT Scan abdomen
(D)Incubation period is 3-7 days
73.What artery is occluded if a patient presents
68.Which of the following is the with contralateral hemiplegia especially of upper
earliestmanifestation of rickets extremities, contralateral hemisensory loss
(A)Bossing of frontal and parietal bones especially of upper extremities, homonymous
(B) Craniotabes hemianopia, and aphasia?
(C)Costo chondral junction becomes prominent
(D)Pigeon chest

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a) Dominant MCA a) Shy-Drager syndrome
b) Non Dominant MCA b) Riley-Day syndrome
c) Dominant ACA c) Parinaud syndrome
d) Non Dominant MCA d) Picks disease

74. Biconvex “lentiform” hemorrhage is a 81. In which of the following cyanotic heart
feature of disease shows enlarged cardiac shadow and
a) Epidural hemorrhage plethoric lung field in chest X-ray :
b) Subdural hemorrhage (A)VSD
c) Subarachnoid hemorrhage (B)TOF
d) Intracerebral hemorrhage (C)TGA
(D)Ebstein’s anomaly.

m
75.Classical traid of Normal pressure
hydrocephalus include all except 82. A newborn baby has a head circumference of
a) bladder incontinence 35 cms. At birth, his optimal head

co
b) dementia circumferencewill be 43 cms at –
c) diplopia (A)4 months of age
d) ataxia (B) 6 months of age
(C)8 months of age

s.
76. False among the following pericardial (D)12 months of age
tamponade
a) prominent x descent 83. An 18 month old infant can do A/E
bb
b) prominent y descent (A)Climbing upstairs
c) Kussmaul’s sign is absent (B)Can follow mother’s activities
d) Cardiac catheterization will reveal equalization (C)Can turn 2-3 pages at a time
of diastolic pressures across the cardiac chambers (D)Can say two or three words
em

77. Which of the following carries the best 84. Congenital anomalies associated with Wilm’s
disease prog- nosis with appropriate treatment? tumour all of the following, except :
a) Burkitt’s lymphoma (A)Beck Weith-Wiedmann syndrome
b) Diffuse large B cell lymphoma (B)Hemihypertrophy
lin

c) Nodular sclerosing Hodgkin’s disease (C)Aniridia

d) Mantle cell lymphoma (D)None of the above

78. pseudo-hyponatremia is due to all except 85.Which of the following is not present at birth?
on

a) hyperglycemia (A)Parachute reflex

b) hypertrigleridemia (B)Moro reflex
c) hypercalcemia (C)Tonic neck reflex ,
d) hyperproteinemia (D)Rooting reflex
79. classic symptomassociatedwith Right
trochlear nerve palsy Diplopia when looking 86. Hypercalciuria is said to be present in
a) down children if daily calciumexcretion in urine
b) up ismore than:
c) right (A)lmg/kg
d) left (B) 2mg/kg
(C)3mg/kg
80. What disease is characterized by abnormal (D)4mg/kg
sweating, orthostatic hypotension, inadequate
muscle tone in GI, absence of lingual fungiform 87. Total body water of newborn is what%of
papillae, and progressive sensory loss? body weight?

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(A)60% ‘ 95. Ecthyma gangrenosum is typically due to
(B)70% A. Escherichia coli
(C)80% B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
(D)90% C. Staphylococcus aureus
88. A year 6 old child with IQ of 50. Which of the D. Candida albicans
following can the child do. 96. Lignocaine can be used in all except –
A. Identify colours (A)Ventricular fibrillation
B. Read a sentence (B)Spinal anaesthesia
C. Ride a bicycle (C)Epidural anaesthesia
D. Copy a triangle (D)Convulsions
89. Blood specimen for neonatal thyroid
screening is obtained on: 97.Which of the following anaesthetics have half

m
A. Cord blood life more than 2 hrs-
B. 24 hours after birth. (A)Bupivacaine
C. 48 hours after birth. (B) Lignocaine

co
D. 72 hours after birth (C)Etidocaine
(D)Chlorprocaine
90. A 7 year old child presented with pneumonia, 98. PIN number of oxygen is
myringitis bullosa and erythema multiforme. (A)2,5 .

s.
The (B) 3,5
most likely diagnosis is (C)2,6
(A)pneumococcal infection (D)3,6
bb
(B) staphylococcal infection
(C)tubercular infection 99. FRC (Functional Residual Capacity) is the
(D)mycoplasma infection (A)volume of air in the lungs after maximal
inspiration
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91. Diagnosis method of choice in contact (B) volume of air in the lungs at normal tidal
dermatitis is – expiratory
(A)Patch test level
(B) Tzanck test (C)volume of air in the lungs after maximal
(C)Skin biopsy expiration
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(D)Intradermal test (D)volume of air in the lungs after normal tidal

inspiration
92.Which of the following is burrow’s solution –
(A)Aluminum subacetate 100.All of the following are true for N2O except
on

(B)Silver nitrate A. N2O in the cylinders is in a liquid state

(C)Potassium permagnate B. has analgesic properties
(D)Sodium thiosulfate C. is a volatile anesthetic agent
D. can be replaced by air for anesthesia
93. Thin zone of grentz is seen in
(A)Lepromatous leprosy 101. Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder has
(B) Sarcoidosis all the following features, except :
(C)Lymphoma A Hyperactivity
(D)Syphilis B Delusion
C Impulsivity
94. Herald patch is seen in D Inattention
(A)Pityriasis rosea
(B) Lichen planus 102. Feature suggestive of Bipolar depression are
(C)Pityriasis alba all,except :
(D)Taenia versicolour

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A. Late age of onset A. Onion peel type of periosteal reaction
B. Psychotic depression B. Sunray spiculation type of Periosteal reaction
C. Atypical features C. Codman triangle reaction
D. Seasonality D. None of the above

103. All are seen in grief reaction except 110. FAST ultrasound scan is specifically useful
A. Anxiety to look for which of the following
B. Denial A. Liver Abscess impending rupture
C. Anger B. Pulsating large abdominal aortic aneurysm
D. Depression C. Acute Pancreatitis
D. Intra peritoneal fluid
104. A widow has increased the number of visits

m
to physician due to the caring from him and is an 111. Damage control surgery does all the
example for following except
A. Transference - a) Arrest haemorrhage

co
B. Counter transference b) Control sepsis
C. Therapeutic relationship c) Prevents hepatorenal syndrome
D. Pathological grief d) Protect from further injury

s.
105.Modafinil, a new non-amphetamine 112. All the following are features of healing by
stimulant dr has been recently introduced for the secondary intention except
treatment a) Wound left open.
bb
A. Insomnia b) Heals by granulation, contraction and
B. night terrors epithelialisation
C. Sleepwalking c) Increased inflammation and proliferation
D. narcolepsy d) Minimal scar
em

106. The gyrometric property of ———— is 113. Pressure sore frequency is highest in
used for NMRimaging technique : a) Sacrum
A. Positron b) Ischium
B. Neutron c) Greater trochanter
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C. Proton d) Malleolus
D. Electron
114. Clinical implications of Gompertzian
107.Which of the following features on growth are true except
on

mammogram would suggestmalignancy? a) The majority of the growth of a tumour occurs

A. Well defined lesion after it is clinically detectable
B. A mass of decreased density b) ‘Early tumours’ are genetically old
C. Areas of spiculated microcalcifications c) The rate of regression of a tumour will depend
D. Smooth borders upon its age
d) By the time they are detected, tumours have
108. Most radiosensitive tumor is: passed the period when they might be most
A. Seminoma sensitive to antiproliferative drugs
B. Osteosarcoma
C. Malignant melanoma 115. Multiple hamartomas of skin, breast and
D. None of the above mucus membranes ,Breast cancer,
Neuroendocrine tumours ,Endometrial cancer,
109.Which one of the following radiographic sigh thyroid cancer are a feature of
is of ten associatedwith Ewings Sarcoma?

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a) Hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer a) Observe
b) Peutz–Jeghers syndrome b) Ultrasound guide FNAC
c) Cowden’s syndrome c) Total thyroidectomy
d) Li–Fraumeni syndrome d) Thyroid lobectomy

116. Neurofibromatosis type 2 include all except 122. False regarding Papillary carcinoma of
a) Acoustic neuromas thyroid
b) Spinal tumours a) In an thyroid tumor , if any papillary structure is
c) Optic gliomas present, the tumour will behave in a predictable
d) Meningiomas fashion as a papillary carcinoma
b) Orphan Annie-eyed nuclei are seen cytology
117. BLM helicase is implicated gene abnormal c) Multiple foci may occur in the same lobe as the

m
in primary tumour
a) Ataxia telangiectasia d) Papillary carcinomas are often encapsulated.
b) Basal cell naevus syndrome (Gorlin)

co
c) Von Hippel–Lindau syndrome 123. False regarding Riedel’s thyroiditis
d) Bloom’s syndrome a) Thyroid tissue is replaced by cellular fibrous
tissue
118. Which of the following is best imaging of b) occur in association with retroperitoneal and

s.
softtissue lesions for screening mediastinal fibrosis
a) Ultrasound c) Treatment with high-dose steroids is
b) CT with contrast contraindicated
bb
c) MRI d) A reduction in the size of the goitre and long-
d) PET Scan term improvement in symptoms are expected if
treatment is commenced early
119. False regarding Recommendations
em

concerning anticoagulant management in a 124. Profuse watery diarrhoea, hypotension,

High-risk procedure in a patientwith a high-risk abdominal pain are features of
condition a) Insulinoma
a) Discontinue warfarin 3–5 days before the b) Gastrinoma
procedure c) VIPoma
lin

b) Discontinue warfarin 3–5 days after the d) Glucagonoma

procedure
c) Intravenous heparin should be discontinued 4–6 125. Which of the following is suggestive of non
hours before the procedure functioning endocrine pancreatic tumours
on

d) Intravenous heparin should be resumed 2–6 (NFPETs) instead of pancreatic cancer

hours after the procedure a) Tumour size - < 5 cm
b) CT scan – Hypodensity
120. The risk of a thromboembolic event is high c) Chromogranin A in blood - Positive
in all the following patients except d) Somatostatin receptor scintigraphy - Negative
a) Atrial fibrillation with valvular heart disease
b) Mechanical mitral valve 126.Most common site of neuroendocrine
c) Mechanical valve and previous thromboembolic tumours
event a) Stomach
d) Mechanical aortic valve b) Appendix
c) Lung
121. Thyoid inceidentalomaon Ultrasound which d) Small Bowel
is 2.5 cm size .What is next step
127. Most common functional Endocrine
pancreas tumour inMEN 1 patients are

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a) VIPomas a) gently sloping edge
b) insulinoma b) base contains granulation tissue
c) Glucagonoma c) elevation of the ulcer edge
d) Gastrinoma d) Ulcer in the area between the muscles of the calf
and the ankle
128. Blood-stained NippleDischarge from a
single duct is caused by all except 134. a hernia through a gap in the lacunar
a) Intraduct papilloma (Gimbernat’s) ligament is called
b) Intraduct carcinoma a) Narath’s femoral hernia
c) Fibrocystic disease b) Laugier’s femoral hernia
d) Duct ectasia c) Cloquet’s hernia
d) hernia-en-glissade

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129. No increased risk off invasive breast
carcinoma based on pathological examination of 135.False regarding Obturator hernia
benign breast tissue is seen in all the following a) occur more frequently in women than in men.

co
except b) causes a definite swelling in Scarpa’s triangle
a) Apocrine metaplasia c) swelling is liable to be overlooked because it is
b) Periductal mastitis covered by the pectineus
c) Papilloma with a fibrovascular core d) On vaginal or rectal examination the hernia can

s.
d) Duct ectasia sometimes be felt as a tender swelling in the region
of the obturator foramen
130. indications for surgery in Tuberculosis
bb
include all except 136. False regarding Factors relating to the
a) Chronic tuberculous abscess, resistant to incidence of burst abdomen and incisional
chemotherapy hernia
b) Aspergilloma within a tuberculous cavity a) Catgut leads to a lesser incidence of ‘bursts’ than
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c) Life-threatening haemoptysis the use of non-absorbable monofilament

d) Significant weight loss polypropylene
b) Interrupted suturing has a low incidence of bursts
131. Indications for amputation of Limb include c) The incidence of burst hernia following one-layer
all except closure is low but it is higher than that following a
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a) Wet gangrene two-layered closure

b) Spreading cellulitis d) Drainage directly through a wound leads to a
c) Severe rest pain higher incidence of bursts than employing drainage
d) Venous ulcer through a separate (stab) incision
on

132. indications for operation iin Abdominal 137. Transudative ascites is caused by
aortic aneurysm include all except a) Tuberculous peritonitis
a) Aneurysm > 25 mm in anteroposterior diameter b) Peritoneal malignancy
in asymptomatic patient c) Budd–Chiari syndrome
b) Aneurysm of any size that is causing distal d) Portal vein thrombosis
embolisation
c) asymptomatic patient fit for surgery 138. most sensitive technique in the evaluation of
d) Aneurysm of any size that is painful or tender the ‘T’ stage of gastric cancer and in the
assessment of duodenal tumours
133.Which of the following is indication for the a) PET
need for a biopsy to exclude a carcinoma in a b) Endoscopic ultrasound
venous ulcer c) multislice CT
d) MRI

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139. Acute acalculous cholecystitis is seen In all a) epileptiform convulsion can cause posterior
the following except dislocation of shoulder
a) coronary artery bypass b) Anterior dislocation of shoulder is much less
b) trauma common than posterior dislocation
c) Hereditary spherocytosis c) Bankart’s lesion is seen in Anterior dislocation of
d) Burn shoulder
d) posterior dislocation of shoulder is often missed
140.Which of the following uterine anomalies is even on X-ray
most commonly associated with recurrent
pregnancy loss? 147. Posterior dislocation of the hip is associated
A. Uterine synechiae with all the following except
B. Uterine didelphys a) flexion

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C. Septate uterus b) abduction
D. Bicornuate uterus c) internal rotation
d) shortening of the leg

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141.Most common cause of VIC in children due
to 148. commonest joint in the human body to
A. supracondylar # humerus dislocated is
B. lateral condyle # humerus a) Knee

s.
C. medial condyle # humerus b) Shoulder
D. both bone forearm # c) Hip
d) Ankle
bb
142.Most common site of avascular necrosis
amongst the following is: 149. Radiological features Posterior dislocation
A. Medial candyle of femur # of the hip include all except
B. Talus # a) femoral head is out of the acetabulum
em

C. Oiecranon # b) thigh is internally rotated

D. Head of the radius # c) greater trochanter is not seen
d) Shenton’s line is broken
143. Barlow’s sign is seen in:
A. CDH 150. Most common type of tuberculosis of spine
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B. Fracture neck femur a) Central

C. Perthes disease b) Paradiscal
D. Polio c) Anterior
d) Posterior
on

144. commonest complication of a supracondylar

fracture is 151. All except one predispose to angle closure
a) Malunion glaucoma :
b) Non union A. Small cornea
c) Myositis ossificans B. Flat cornea
d) Volkmann’s ischaemic contracture C. Shallow AC
D.Short axial length of eye ball
145. commonest Cause of avascular necrosis of
femoral head 152. Bitemporal hemianopic field defect is
a) Alcoholism characteristic of:
b) Idiopathic A. Glaucoma
c) Steroid therapy B. Optic neuritis
d) Patient on renal dialysis C. Pituitary tumour
D. Retinal detachment
146. False among the following

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153. A patient of glaucoma with bronchial 160.Horner-Trantas spots are seen in
asthma presents to the emergency with status A. phlyctenular conjunctivitis
asthamaticus, causative agentmight have been) B. spring catarrh
A. Pilocarpine eye drop C. atopic conjunctivitis
B. Timolol eye drop D. Trachoma
C. Betaxolol eye drop
D. Levobunolol eye drop 161. Carhart’s notch is characteristically seen at
A. 1000 hz
154. Which of the following statements is in B. 4000 hz
correct about pthisis bulbi? C. 2000 hz
A The intraocular pressure is increased D. 6000 hz
B. Calcification of the lens is common

m
C. Sclera is thickened 162. Treatment of choice in traumatic facial
D. Size of the globe is reduced nerve injury is
A. Masterily inactivity

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155. Regarding a tumor which compresses the B. Facial slung
optic chiasma,which of the given colors is C. Facial decompression
affected first? D. Systemic corticosteroid
A. White

s.
B. Red 163. Malignant otitis externa, TRUE is
C. Blue A. Growth of pinna turning into malignancy
D. Green B. It is due to acoustic neuroma
bb
C. It is due to Pseudomonas infection in old diabetic
156. Visual evoked potential is used to diagnose? D. It is CSOM with cholesteatoma
A. Retro bulbar neuritis
B. Macular dystrophy 164.Commonest cause of acute otitismedia in
em

C. Retinitis pigmentosa children is

D. All of the above A. H. inflenzae
B. Strepto-pneumoniae
157. Jones test is used to detect: C. Staph aureus
A. Nasolacrimal duct block D. Pseudomonas
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B. Glaucoma
C. Vitreous opacities 165. Ramsay Hunt syndrome involves
D. Retinal detachment A. 7th cranial nerve
B. 5th cranial nerve
on

158. AWoman complains of coloured haloes C. 12th cranial nerve

around lights in the evening, with nausea and D. 10th cranial nerve
vomiting, IOP is normal; Diagnosis is:
A. incipient stage glaucoma open angle 166. Dohlman’s operation is performed for
B. Prodromal stage, closed angle glaucoma A. Pharyngeal pouch
C. Migraine B. Esophageal stricture
D. Raised ICT C. Achalasia cardia
159. A patient having glaucoma develops D. Ca esophagus
blepharoconjunctivitis after instilling some
antiglaucoma drug. Which of the following drug 167. Impedance denotes:
can me responsible for it: A. Site of perforation
A. Timolol B. Disease of cochlea
B. Latanosprost C. Ds. of ossicles
C. Dipiverine D. Higher function disorder
D. Pilocarpine

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168. A 25 year old woman suffering from +2 station. Maternal exhaustion has ensued and
bilateral hearing loss for 6 year which became you are concerned about fetal distress. Which of
profound with pregnancy. On tympanogram the following is the most appropriate device to
which of the following curve is obtained facilitate a safe delivery in this situation?
A. Ad A. Low forceps
B. As B. Soft cup vacuum
C. B C. Mid forceps
D. A D. Piper forceps

169. Most common cause of stridor in a neonate 174.A 34-year-old gravida 4 para 2013 at 38
is: weeks’ gestational age, with no prenatal care,
A. Foreign body presents to Labor and Delivery fully di¬lated

m
B. Bronchiolitis with delivery appearing imminent. Cervical
C. Bronchial asthma exam as well as ultrasound document complete
D. Laryngomalacia breech position of fetus.. Correct maneuvering

co
for breech
170. Fungal ballmost commonly involves delivery is as follows:
a) Frontal sinus A. Pinard’s maneuver to deliver legs, rotate fetus
b) Ethmoid sinus sacrum anterior, wrap trunk in towel, delivery of

s.
c) Maxillary sinus arms when scapula visualized, then downward
d) Sphenoid sinus pressure on maxillary ridge to deliver head
B. Pinard’s maneuver to deliver legs, rotate fetus
bb
171.A 26-year-old gravida 2 para 1001 arrives to sacrum anterior, wrap trunk in towel, delivery of
labor and deliv¬ery at 41weeks’ gestational age arms when scapula visualized, then downward
for induction of labor. Her cervi¬cal exam pressure on mandible to deliver head
demonstrates a cervix that is 1 cm dilated, firm, C. Pinard’s maneuver to deliver legs, rotate fetus
em

anterior,50%effaced, and -2 station. She is given sacrum posterior, wrap trunk in towel, delivery of
a cervical ripening agent and placed on fetal arms when scapula visualized, then downward
monitoring and tocodynamometer. pressure on mandible to deliverhead.
This patient has a Bishop score of
A. 4 175.Risk of breech delivery includes spinal cord
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B. 5 injury if deflexion is present, birth trauma, cord

C. 8 prolapse, and head entrapment. Which of the
D. Cannot be determined following is an effective method of relieving head
entrapment?
on

172.A few hours into the labor induction, the A. Wood’s corkscrew
fetal monitoring shows a late deceleration after B. Rubin’s maneuver
several episodes of frequent contractions. C. Leopold’s maneuver
Themost likely explanation for the deceleration D. Diihrssen’s incisions on the cervix
is:
A. Maternal position on left lateral side 176.The patient delivered her baby after being
B. Uterine hyperstimulation from cervical ripening induced secondary to severe pre-eclampsia at 35
agent weeks. She asks you if anything could be done
C. Compression of the fetal headmediated by vagus next time she becomes pregnant to monitor the
nerve baby due to hermultiplemedical issues. You
D. Non of the above recommend:
A. Daily NSTs starting at 35 weeks
173. A 25-year-old gravida 3 para 1102 at B. Biophysical profile every week starting at 20
35weeks’ gestational age is in the second stage of weeks
labor and has been pushing for 2 hours and is at

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C.Weekly NST starting at 28 weeks 182.if twins cleaved on day 5,it results in
D. Daily biophysical profile starting at 30 weeks A. Dichorionic/diamniotic, dizygotic twins
B. Dichorionic/diamniotic, monozygotic twins
177.A contraction stress test (CST) is considered C. Monochorionic/diamniotic, monozygotic twins
positive if late decelerations occur in: D. Monochorionic/monoamniotic, monozygotic
A. 50%or more of the contractions twins
B. All of the contractions
C. 25%or more of the contractions 183.Which of the following is/are
D. One out of three contractions contraindications tomagnesiumsulfate tocolysis?
A. Preterm premature rupture of membranes
178.Which of the following is not a relative (PPROM)
contraindication to perform a CST? B. Placental abruption

m
A. Preterm labor C. Chorioamnionitis
B. Preterm premature rupture of membranes D. All of above
C. Placenta previa

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D. Multiple pregnancy 184. A 24-year-old gravida 1 Para 0 at 35 weeks’
gestational age presents to Labor and Delivery
179.An 22-year-old nulliparous patient presents with regular contractions. No evidence of
to Labor and De¬liverywith spontaneous rupture ofmembranes and fetal heart tracing is

s.
rupture of membranes at term; she states that re¬active. Tocodynamometer shows contractions
her water broke approximately 3 hours earlier. every 2 to 3minutes. Cervix is 5 cmdilated and
Internal monitors are placed and the patient 100%effaced. Group B streptococcus status is
bb
becomes febrile dur¬ing the prolonged second unknown. She reports having a rash and itching
stage of labor.Which of the follow¬ing signs with penicillin. What is the next step of
orwould you expect on physical examination? management?
A. Shortness of breath A. Intravenous magnesium sulfate
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B. Suprapubic tenderness B. Clindamycin

C. Nausea and vomiting C. Betamethasone
D. Fundal tenderness D. Cefazolin

180.All of the following could be linked to 185.Placental abruption is associatedwith all of

lin

polyhydramnios, except: the following risk factors, except:

A. Fetal esophageal atresia A. Hypertension
B. Fetal renal agenesis B. 17 year old Primie
C. Fetal trisomy 21 C. Multiple gestation
on

D. Maternal diabetes D. Tobacco use

181.On sonogram, the patient is found to have 186.A 24-year-old G3P2002 at 36 2/7 weeks’
normal amniotic fluid index, but sonographic gestation presents to Labor and Delivery triage
measurements of the abdomen are consistent with a complaint of vaginal bleeding. It began
with 28weeks, femur length is consistentwith 29 approximately 3 hours ago, and she has used
weeks, and head measurements are in agreement about five sanitary napkins since it began. She
with 32 weeks. Workup for this patient should reports mild-to-moderate abdominal pain, no
include all of the following, except: gush of clear fluid, and decreased
A. Nutritional assessment fetalmovement. She has no history of placental
B. Evaluation for hypercoagulable disorders abnormalities. Which of the following is most
C. Workup to rule out pre-eclampsia likely to help establish a presumed diagnosis of
D. Evaluation of maternal and paternal birth placental abruption?
weights

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A. Ultrasound 192.Poorly controlled hyperthyroidism in
B. Apt test pregnancy can result in all of the following,
C. Continued or increased vaginal bleeding except:
D. Maternal CBC A. Pre-eclampsia
B. Intrauterine growth restriction
187.Placenta previa is associated with all of the C. Preterm labor
following factors, except: D. Preterm premature rupture of membranes
A. Female > male gender fetus
B. Congenital malformations 193.Of the following, which measurement of
C. Breech presentation cardiac function decreases in pregnancy and
D. Preterm premature rupture of membranes reaches it s nadir at the end of the second
trimester?

m
188.Maternal infection with rubeola is most of A. Cardiac output
ten complicated by B. Heart rate
A. Hemolysis C. Systemic blood pressure

co
B. Pneumonia D. Maternal blood volume
C. Hepatitis
D. Cardiomyopathy 194.Which of the following is not a predictor of
maternal cardiac complications during

s.
189.Which of the following represents the pregnancy?
quadruple test result that would be considered a A. Left ventricular function <40%
positive screening test for Down syndrome? B. Lone atrial fibrillation
bb
A. Increased AFP, decreased unconjugated estriol, C. New York Heart Association functional classI
decreased hCG, increased inhibin A D. Restrictive cardiomyopathy
B. Decreased AFP, decreased unconjugated estriol,
increased hCG, increased inhibin A 195.All of the following are true regarding the
em

C. Increased AFP, increased unconjugated estriol, management of postpartumhemorrhage, except:

decreased hCG, decreased inhibin A A. Causes include uterine atony, vaginal, cervical,
D. Decreased AFP, increased unconjugated estriol, or perineal laceration, and retained products of
increased hCG, increased inhibin A conception.
B. Methylergonovinemaleate is contraindicated in
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190.Which of the following gastrointestinal patients with asthma.

abnormalities is strongly associated with Down C. Risk factors for developing postpartum
syndrome? hemorrhage include multiple gestation, grand
A. Duodenal atresia multiparity, prolonged
on

B. Omphalocele labor, oxytocin augmentation, and advanced

C. Esophageal atresia maternal age.
D. Gastroschisis D. Vaginal bleeding after a vaginal delivery is
prevented by uterine contraction.
191.A 35-year-old gravida 5 Para 2022 with 196.The muscles included as part of levator ani.
gestational diabetes mellitus has just delivered are as follows:
spontaneously at 39weeks. Her neonate is at risk A. Ischiococcygeus, pubococcygeus, and
for all of the following, except: iliococcygeus
A. Hypocalcemia B. Puborectalis, pubococcygeus, and iliococcygeus
B. Hypomagnesemia C. Puborectalis, ischiococcygeus, and
C. Anemia pubococcygeus
D. Hyperbilirubinemia D. Ischiocavernosus, bulbocavernosus, and
is chiococcygeus

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197.Which of the followingmethods of tubal 202. Pulsus paradoxus can be seen in the
ligation has the highest failure rate? following clinical states except
A. Laparoscopic bipolar coagulation (a) Pericardial tamponade
B. Laparoscopic unipolar coagulation (b) Acute severe asthma
C. Postpartum partial salpingectomy (c) Acute myocardial infarction
D. Laparoscopic silicone band application (d) Massive pulmonary embolism

198.Which of the following is true regarding 203.A 50-year-old woman presents with dry
emergency contraception? cough and progressive breathlessness of 2 years'
A. The Copper IUD has been shown to be effective duration. Examination reveals clubbing,
as an emergency contraceptive if placed 5 to 8 days cyanosis, and bibasilar crepts. What is the
after having unprotected intercourse. probable diagnosis?

m
B. The primary mechanism of action of Plan B is to (a) Bronchiectasis
disrupt implantation of the pregnancy. (b) Lung abscess
C. Combined oral contraceptive pills have recently (c) Interstitial lung disease

co
been shown to be more effective than progestin only (d) Pulmonary tuberculosis
pills for preventing pregnancy after unprotected
intercourse. 204.Pleural effusion with very low glucose is
D. Data show that emergency contraception must be characteristically seen in

s.
initiated within 72 hours of unprotected intercourse (a) Malignancy
to be effective. (b) Tuberculosis
(c) SLE
bb
199.Which of the following statements is true (d) Rheumatoid arthritis
regarding medical termination of pregnancywith
mifepristone and misoprostol? 205.Which one of the following is not a feature of
A. Medical termination can generally be performed Kartagener's syndrome?
em

up to 12 weeks of gestation. (a) Bronchiectasis

B. Side effects from the medications used to induce (b) Ciliary dyskinesia
a medical abortion include bleeding and GI (c) Pancreatic insufficiency
discomfort. (d) Situs inversus
C. Women who undergo a medical termination of
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pregnancy do not need follow-up. 206.Which one of the following distinguishes

D. Methotrexate has higher efficacy and works acute/adult respiratory distress syndrome
faster than mifepristone. (ARDS) from cardiogenic pulmonary edema?
(a) Normal PaO,
on

200.The site of primary focus in congenital (b) Normal pulmonary arterial pressure
tuberculosis is (c) Normal arterial-alveolar gradient
A. Liver (d) Normal PaCO2
B. lungs - Ghon’s complex
C. brain - Riches focus 207.Which one the following statement is not
D. foetal tonsils correct about chronic obstructive pulmonary
diseases (COPD)?
201. "Kerley B lines" in the chest X-ray of a (a) Respiratory flow rates are decreased
patient is a radiological feature of (b) Total lung capacity is normal or increased
(a) Respiratory failure (c) Residual volume is increased
(b) Heart failure (d) Vital capacity is increased
(c) Renal failure
(d) Liver failure 208.The following drugs can cause eosinophilic
pneumonia except

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(a) Nitrofurantoin (a) Acute renal failure
(b) Amiodarone (b) Uncontrolled hypertension
(c) Sulfonamides (c) Nephrotic syndrome
(d) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) (d) Isolated hematuria

209. A 55-year-old woman presents with 214. The following are true about benign
progressively deepening jaundice, uncontrollable paroxysmal positional vertigo except
pruritus, pain in the abdomen (right upper (a) Fatigability
quadrant), and yellow-colored urine. (b) Good reproducibility
Investigations revealed: Serum bilirubin, 19.5 (c) Habituation
mg%; S.G.P.T., 45 IU/L; serum alkaline (d) Latency
phosphatase, 1225 IU/L; prothrombin time, 25

m
seconds; urine bile pigment, present, urine 215. The following are common causes of
urobilinogen, absent, stools, clay colored. Which seizures in adults older than 60 years of age
would be the most likely diagnosis? except

co
(a) Viral hepatitis (a) Cerebrovascular disease
(b) Cirrhosis of liver (b) Central nervous system neoplasia
(c) Carcinoma of head of the pancreas (c) Degenerative disease
(d) Hepatocellular carcinoma (d) Mesial temporal lobe sclerosis

210. A 20-year-old man presents with repeated

episodes of hematemesis. There is no history of
s.
216. The typical CSF profile in cases of viral
meningitis after 48 hours of onset is
bb
jaundice or liver decompensation. On (a) Lymphocytic pleocytosis, normal glucose level,
examination, the significant findings include normal or slightly elevated protein level
moderate splenomegaly and presence of (b) Neutrophilic pleocytosis, raised glucose level
esophageal varices. There is no ascites or peptic normal protein level
em

ulceration. The liver function tests are normal. (c) Lymphocytic pleocytosis, low glucose level, low
What is the most likely diagnosis? protein level
(a) Extrahepatic portal venous obstruction (d) Neutrophilic pleocytosis, normal glucose level,
(b) Noncirrhotic portal fibrosis elevated protein level
(c) Cirrhosis
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(d) Hepatic venous outflow tract obstruction 217. Cranial nerve most commonly involved in
posterior communicating artery aneurysm is
211.Hyperkalemia is observed in which one of (a) Oculomotor
the following conditions: (b) Facial
on

(a) Type 1 renal tubular acidosis (c) Optic

(b) Type 2 renal tubular acidosis (d) Trigeminal
(c) Type 4 renal tubular acidosis
(d) Bartter's syndrome 218. All the following drugs are known to cause
pseudotumor cerebri except
212. The following features are true about (a) Gentamicin
membranous glomerulopathy except (b) Tetracycline
(a) Heavy proteinuria (c) Vitamin A
(b) Hyperlipidemia (d) Oral contraceptive pills
(c) Early onset of renal failure
(d) Response to steroids 219. A 35-year-old man presents with daily
headache. He describes two attacks per day over
213. In which one of the following conditions, is a the last 3 weeks. Each attack lasts about an hour
renal biopsy contraindicated? and awakens him from sleep. The patient has
noticed associated tearing and reddening of the

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right eye as well as nasal stuffiness. The pain is (a) Hematopoietic cells occupying <25% of
deep, excruciating, and limited to the right side marrow space
of the head. The neurological examination is (b) Hematopoietic cells morphology should be
normal. What is the most likely diagnosis? normal
(a) Migraine headache (c) Normocytic normochromic anemia
(b) Tension headache (d) Splenomegaly
(c) Cluster headache
(d) Brain tumor 226. The agent of choice for controlling heparin-
induced bleeding is
220. In which of the following conditions is (a) Protamine sulfate
cardiac involvement not a usual feature? (b) Injectable vitamin K
(a) Facio-scapulo-humeral dystrophy (c) Whole blood

m
(b) Duchennes muscular dystrophy (d) Fresh-frozen plasma
(c) Friedreich's ataxia 227. Thrombocytosis may be seen in the
(d) Myotonic dystrophy following conditions except

co
(a) Idiopathic myelofibrosis
221. Drugs associated with ischemic stroke (b) Chronic myeloid leukemia
include the following except (c) Essential thrombocythemia
(a) Cocaine (d) Hypersplenism

s.
(b) Oral contraceptives
(c) Amphetamines 228. The following are the features of
(d) Barbiturates thalassemia major except
bb
(a) Bone marrow hyperplasia
222. von Willebrand's factor is synthesized in (b) Hair-on-end appearance
which one of the following? (c) Splenomegaly
(a) Vascular endothelium (d) Increased osmotic fragility
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(b) Macrophages
(c) Liver 229. Which one of the following disorders is not
(d) Eosinophils associated with Carpal tunnel syndrome?
(a) Diabetes mellitus
223. Which one of the following laboratory tests (b) Hypothyroidism
lin

differentiates leukemoid reaction from chronic (c) Acromegaly

myeloid leukemia? (d) Addison disease
(a) LAP (leukocyte alkaline phosphatase)
(b) LCA (leukocyte common antigen) 230. Clinical signs and symptoms in tetanus are a
on

(c) MPO (myeloperoxidase) result of

(d) TRAP (tartrate-resistant alkaline phosphatase) (a) Endotoxins
(b) Exotoxins fixed to motor nerve endplates
224. The first-line drug therapy in chronic (c) Circulating exotoxins
myeloid leukemia is (d) Both endotoxins and exotoxins
(a) Hydroxycarbamide
(b) Alpha-interferon 231. O2 (oxygen) dissociation curve is shifted to
(c) Busulfan right in the following except
(d) Imatinib (a) Rise in temperature
(b) Hypercapnia
225. Which one of the following is not consistent (c) Raised 2,3 DPG level
with the diagnosis of aplastic anemia? (d) Metabolic alkalosis

232.Wasting of the intrinsic muscles of the hand

can be expected to follow injury of the

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(a) Ulnar nerve 239. The maximum chances of HIV infection
(b) Radial nerve being transmitted to the fetus/infant in an HIV-
(c) Brachial nerve infected mother are during
(d) Axillary nerve (a) First trimester
(b) Third trimester
233.Which type of breast cancer is most likely to (c) During labor
be bilateral? (d) During breastfeeding
(a) Infiltrating duct carcinoma
(b) Pagets disease of breast 240. Which one of the following statements is not
(c) Lobular carcinoma of breast correct about obstetric cholestasis?
(d) Medullary carcinoma of breast (a) It results in pruritus without rash
(b) Associated with markedly high bilirubin and

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234.Which one of the following is the best raised liver enzymes
indicator of prognosis of soft-tissue sarcoma? (c) It is an indication of termination of pregnancy at
(a) Tumor size 37 weeks

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(b) Histological type (d) Risk of recurrence is high in future pregnancies
(c) Nodal metastasis
(d) Tumor grade 241. What is the most commonly observed fetal
effect in women receiving magnesium sulfate

s.
235.Lymphovenous anastomosis is done for therapy for pre-eclampsia/ eclampsia?
(a) Filarial lymphedema (a) Respiratory depression
(b) Lymphoid cyst (b) Variability in fetal heart rate pattern
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(c) Cystic hygroma (c) Cerebral palsy
(d) Malignant lymphedema (d) Intestinal obstruction

236. Which one of the following investigations is 242. Spiegelberg's criteria for diagnosis of
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considered to be "gold standard" technique for ovarian pregnancy include the following except
diagnosis of arterial occlusive disease? (a) Tube on the affected side must be intact
(a) Doppler ultrasound blood flow detection (b) Gestational sac must occupy the position of
(b) Duplex imaging ovary
(c) Treadmill (c) Gestational sac is connected with
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(d) Digital subtraction angiography (DSA) infundibulopelvic ligament

(d) Ovarian tissue should be present in the wall of
237.Which one of the following statements is not gestational sac on histopathology
correct regarding thoracic inlet syndrome?
on

(a) Radial nerve is involved 243.The following changes may be seen in pre-
(b) Resection of first rib is effective treatment eclampsia except
(c) Physiotherapy and position exercises relieve (a) Decreased antithrombin III
symptoms (b) Hemodilution
(d) Neurological signs and symptoms are common (c) Thrombocytopenia
(d) Elevated uric acid
238.Hemodynamic changes in pregnancy include
the following except 244.The most common karyotype of a partial
(a) Increase in cardiac output mole is
(b) Increase in heart rate (a) Diploid46XX
(c) Decrease in vascular resistance (b) Diploid46XY
(d) Increase in mean arterial pressure (c) Triploid
(d) Haploid

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245. Contraindications to epidural analgesia (a) Classical cesarean
include the following except (b) Metroplasty
(a) Raised intracranial pressure (c) Myomectomy
(b) Coagulopathy (d) Hysterotomy
(c) Infection over the back
(d) Hypertension 252. Neural tube defects have which one of the
following inheritance patterns?
246.Postcoital contraception is achieved by all (a) Autosomal dominant
except (b) Autosomal recessive
(a) High degree of progesterone (c) X-linked recessive
(b) By administration of RU-486 (d) Multifactorial
(c) GnRH agonist 253.The "fern pattern" of cervical mucus seen in

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(d) Administration of prostaglandins the first half of menstrual cycle is because of
(a) High mucoprotein level
247."Variable decelerations" on an electronic (b) Low mucoprotein level

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fetal heart rate monitor imply (c) High sodium chloride level
(a) Umbilical cord compression (d) Low sodium chloride level
(b) Fetal head compression
(c) Fetal anemia 254.Polycystic ovarian syndrome is associated

s.
(d) Uteroplacental insufficiency with the following except(UPSC 2006II question
84)
248. What is the maternal risk of using (a) Ovarian carcinoma
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misoprostol for ripening of cervix during (b) Endometrial hyperplasia
induction of labor? (c) Impaired glucose tolerance
(a) Tachycardia (d) Dyslipidemia
(b) Hypotension
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(c) Tachysystole/hyperstimulation of uterus 255. Consider the following:

(d) Bradycardia 1. Land filling for source reduction.
2. Vaccination of pigs in the risk area.
249. A 25-year-old patient who has had an 3. Immunization of children in risk area.
abortion four months ago has come with the Which of the above are the recommended
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history of profuse vaginal bleeding. On control strategies for Japanese encephalitis?

examination, uterus is bulky, both the ovaries (a) 1 only
are enlarged, pregnancy test is positive. What is (b) 1 and 2 only
the probable clinical diagnosis? (c) 2 and 3 only
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(a) Incomplete abortion (d) 1,2, and 3

(b) Choriocarcinoma 256. In a community with one lakh population,
(c) Malignant ovarian tumor 20,000 slides were examined in a particular year.
(d) Ectopic pregnancy Out of these, 100 were positive for malarial
parasite. What is the Annual Parasite Incidence
250.Most common newborn rash which presents (API) in this community?
at 24-48 hours of life is (a) 5
(a) Erythematous papular pustular lesions (b) 2
(b) Milia (c) 1
(c) Transient neonatal pustular melanosis (d) 0.5
(d) Hemangioma 257. The period of time required for the
development of the parasite from the gametocyte
251.Rupture uterus is most commonly to sporozoite stage in the body of the mosquito is
encountered after which one of the following about 10-20 days. This period is also referred to
surgeries? as

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(a) Asexual cycle
(b) Schizogony 264.The ability of a screening test to detect "true
(c) Erythrocytic cycle positives" is known as
(d) Extrinsic incubation period (a) Sensitivity
(b) Specificity
258. Which one of the following is a (c) Positive predictive value
characteristic of human immune deficiency (d) Negative predictive value
virus?
(a) It cannot cross blood-brain barrier 265. In a program, results analyzed in
(b) It is resistant to acetone comparison with cost is known as Cost-utility
(c) It is easily killed by heat study
(d) It is easily killed by T4 lymphocytes (a) Cost-benefit analysis

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(b) Management by objectives
259. With reference to lepromin test, which one (c) Cost-effective analysis
of the following statements is correct? (d) Cost – utility study

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(a) Lepromin test is strongly positive in tuberculoid
leprosy. 266. The degree to which a specific health-care
(b) It is not affected by BCG vaccine, intervention achieves its objectives, when applied
(c) It can be used as a diagnostic test. in a given population, is termed as its:

s.
(d) Its interpretation is done within 24 hours. (a) Sensitivity
(b) Effectiveness
260. Amniocentesis in early pregnancy for (c) Efficiency
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genetic disorders is a kind of (d) Impact
(a) Primordial prevention
(b) Primary prevention
(c) Secondary prevention 267. ICDS Scheme does not include
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(d) Tertiary prevention (a) Children in the age group of up to 6 years

(b) Primary school children
261. Which of the following correctly describes (c) Pregnant women
gene therapy? (d) Lactating women
(a) Synthesis of DNA probes with specific
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sequence 268. Which one of the following is the correct

(b) Mapping and isolation of gene sequence chronological sequence in which the national
(c) Introduction of gene sequence into a cell programs were launched in India for the given
(d) Use of polymerase chain reaction technique diseases?
on

(a) Anemia, filaria, TB, malaria

262. Which one of the following is a correct (b) Anemia, TB, malaria, filaria
combination regarding Indian population? (c) Malaria, filaria, TB, anemia
(a) Blood group AB 20%; Rh negative 15% (d) Malaria, anemia, filaria, TB
(b) Blood group A 40%; Rh positive 80%
(c) Blood group O 40%; Rh negative 7% 269. In a normal curve, the area of one standard
(d) Blood group B 33%; Rh positive 99% deviation around the mean includes which of the
263. The law stating that "the relative following percentage of values in a distribution
frequencies of each gene allele tend to remain (b) 68.3%
constant from generation to generation" is (c) 95.4%
known as (d) 99.7%
(a) Mendel's law (a) 48.6%
(b) Hardy-Weinberg law
(c) David-Morgan's law 270. A continuous quantitative data can be
(d) Lamarck's law depicted by

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(a) Pictograms 277. The germ theory of disease was propounded
(b) Pie chart by
(c) Histograms (a) Robert Koch
(d) Bar diagrams (b) Hippocrates
(c) Louis Pasteur
271. In which system, continuous enumeration of (d) August Weismann
births and deaths by enumerator and an
independent survey by investigator supervisor is 278. Which one of the following is not a
done? utilization rate? Bed turnover ratio
(a) Decadal Census Enumeration (a) Population bed ratio
(b) Sample Registration System (b) Bed occupancy rate
(c) Model Registration System (c) Bed Turnover ratio

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(d) National Family Health Survey (d) Average length of stay

272. The following are all residual insecticides 279. Virulence of a biological agent is defined as

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except (a) Ability of the agent to invade and multiply in
(a) Pyrethrum host
(b) DDT (b) Proportion of clinical cases resulting in severe
(c) Gamma BHC clinical manifestation

s.
(d) Malathion (c) Ability of the agent to induce a clinically
apparent illness
273. Secular trends of diseases refer to (d) Proportion of clinical cases in a virgin
bb
(a) Variation in occurrence across various social population
strata
(b) Changes in incidence as per climate 280. Which one of the following modes of
(c) Differences in incidence across different intervention covers the process of advising a
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religions patient to change his lifestyle in order to prevent

(d) Changes in occurrence over long period of time any risk factor for a disease?
(a) Health promotion
274. Which of the following countries was the (b) Specific protection
first to institute compulsory sickness insurance? (c) Disability limitation
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(a) USA (d) Rehabilitation

(b) England
(c) France 281. Which of the following is a scoring system
(d) Germany for severity of wound infection, and is
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particularly useful for surveillance and

275. Which one of the following statements research?
regarding International Classification of (a) Apgar score
Diseases, 10th revision (ICD-10) is not correct? (b) Glasgow scoring system
(a) It has twenty-one major chapters (c) Southampton grading system
(b) Each chapter has three character categories (d) ASA classification
(c) First character of a code is a "letter"
(d) It has four volumes 282. Following the immunotherapy, in patients
undergoing renal transplantation, the skin
276. Which of the following fats has the highest cancer most commonly seen is
concentration of saturated fatty acids? (a) Skin tumors
(a) Butter (b) Kaposi's sarcoma
(b) Palm oil (c) Hepatomas
(c) Coconut oil (d) Mycosis fungoides
(d) Margarine

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283. The causes of hypokalemia include the 289. In a patient with breast cancer, the
following except (UPSC 20091 question 71) following are poor prognostic factors except
(a) Tamoxifen therapy (a) High grade
(b) ACTH-producing tumors (b) Absence of epidermal growth factor receptor
(c) Nonbilious vomiting (c) Aneuploid status
(d) Diabetic ketoacidosis (d) Age less than 35 years

284. Which one of the following is not a correct 290.Which one of the following is not a common
statement regarding Raynaud disease? feature of bile duct stone?
(a) It is idiopathic. (a) Obstructive jaundice
(b) It commonly affects women. (b) Itching
(c) Exposure to cold precipitates vasoconstriction. (c) Clay colored stools

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(d) The lower extremity involvement is (d) Distended gallbladder
symmetrical.
291.A young patient develops high-grade fever

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285. Which one of the following statements is with chills and rigors, mild jaundice, and acute
correct in case of squamous cell carcinoma of the pain in the upper abdomen following
lip? cholecystectomy. On examination, she was
(a) Lymph node metastases occur early jaundiced, toxic, hemodynamically stable, and

s.
(b) More than 90% of cases occur on the upper lip having vague fullness upper abdomen. What is
(c) Lesion often arises in the areas of persistent the most probable diagnosis?
hyperkeratosis (a) Localized collection of bile in peritoneal cavity
bb
(d) Radiotherapy is considered inappropriate (b) Iatrogenic ligation of common bile duct
treatment for these lesions (c) Duodenal injury
(d) Acute pancreatitis
286. In a patient of carcinoma tongue, the
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infiltration of which muscle causes 292.The following are complications of gallstone

ankyloglossia? except
(a) Styloglossus muscle (a) Hemobilia
(b) Genioglossus muscle (b) Cholangitis
(c) Mylohyoid muscle (c) Biliary enteric fistula
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(d) Palatoglossus muscle (d) Acute pancreatitis

287. What is the best and most sensitive 293.A 50-year-old diabetic patient with
investigation for hypothyroidism? asymptomatic gallstone (>3 cm) will be best
on

(a) TSH levels treated by

(b) TRH levels (a) Early surgery
(c) T,,T4 levels (b) Bile salt treatment
(d) Radioactive I uptake (c) ESWL
(d) Waiting till it becomes symptomatic
288. Which one of the following is not a correct
statement with reference to locally advanced 294. Which of the following is not an indication
carcinoma breast? for surgical intervention in acute pancreatitis?
(a) It constitutes the bulk of patients of carcinoma (a) Acute fluid collection
breast in India. (b) Pancreatic necrosis
(b) Patients are staged as T3 or T4 with any N (c) Pancreatic abscess
without distant metastasis (Mo). (d) Diagnostic dilemma
(c) Neoadjuvant chemotherapy downgrades the
disease. 295.The following disorders are predisposing
(d) Radical mastectomy is the treatment of choice. conditions for carcinoma of the colon except

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(a) Ulcerative colitis
(b) Villous adenoma
(c) Familial polyposis coli
(d) Peutz-Jeghers syndrome

296.To which lymph nodes, the lymph from the

umbilicus drains?
(a) Axillary and inguinal
(b) External and internal iliac
(c) Pre- and para-aortic
(d) Interaortocaval

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297.The most common intraperitoneal abscess
following peritonitis is
(a) Subphrenic

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(b) Pelvic
(c) Paracolic
(d) Interloop

s.
298.The following statements are correct about
burst abdomen (abdominal dehiscence) except ;
(a) Peak incidence is between 6th and 8th
bb
postoperative days
(b) Manage with nasogastric aspiration and
intravenous fluids
(c) Cover the wound with sterile towel and perform
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emergency surgery
(d) Second dehiscence is very common

299.A patient presents to the emergency

department with pain and distension of abdomen
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and absolute constipation. What is the

investigation of choice?
(a) Plain X-ray abdomen
(b) Ultrasonography
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(c) Barium meal follow-through

d) Colonoscopy

300.What is the investigation of choice in a

patient with blunt abdominal trauma with
hematuria?
(a) Ultrasonography of abdomen
(b) Contrast enhanced computed tomography
(c) Intravenous urogram
(d) Retrograde urogram

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