04/05/2017 Code - A

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005; Ph.: 011-47623456

MM : 720 Test Series : Test – 11 (Objective) Time : 3 Hrs.

(for NEET - 2017 )

MOCK TEST FOR NEET

Instructions :
(i) Use Blue/Black ball point pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on
Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer :
1. The dimensional formula [ML0T–3] is more closely 4. A body is projected with a certain speed at angle 
associated with with the horizontal. If kinetic energy of the body at
(1) Power (2) Energy 3
highest point is times the initial kinetic energy,
(3) Intensity (4) Velocity 4
   then the value of  is
2. A and B are two vectors given by A  3iˆ  3 jˆ and
(1) 30° (2) 45°

B  iˆ  jˆ. The magnitude of component of (3) 60° (4) 135°
 
A along B is 5. If coefficient of friction between the block and the
plane (inclined at 30°) is 0.6, then the acceleration
3 of block will be
(1) 3 (2)
2

(3) 3 2 (4) 2 m
   
3. If A + B is perpendicular to A  B, then
(1) A = B 30°
(2) A = 2B

B g
(3) A  (1) Zero (2)
2 2

B ⎛1 3 3⎞ g
(4) A  (3) g ⎜⎜ 2  10 ⎟⎟ (4) (3 3  5)
4 10
⎝ ⎠
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Test-11 (Code A) Test Series for NEET - 2017
6. A block of mass 2 kg is lowered by 10 cm using a 13. A vessel, whose bottom has round holes of diameter
string starting from rest. Its speed at lowest point is 0.1 mm, is filled with water. The maximum height
2 ms –1 . Work done by tension in the string is upto which water can be filled without leakage is
(Take g = 10 ms–2) (Surface tension of water is 0.075 N/m)
(1) Zero (2) 2 J (1) 30 cm (2) 50 cm
(3) 4 J (4) 6 J (3) 75 cm (4) 100 cm
7. A heavy chain of length 1 m and weight 20 kg hangs 14. Time period of rotation of the earth so that the bodies
vertically with one end attached to a peg and carries at equator would weigh 40% of their actual weight is
a block of mass 10 kg at the other end. Find the (1) 64 minutes (2) 108 minutes
workdone in winding 50 cm of chain round the peg.
(3) 128 minutes (4) 192 minutes
(1) 85 J (2) 100 J
15. The densities of wood and benzene at 0°C are
(3) 120 J (4) 125 J 880 kg/m 3 and 900 kg/m 3 respectively. The
8. A ladder of length l and mass m is placed against coefficients of volume expansion of wood is
a smooth vertical wall and rough horizontal plane. 1.2 × 10–3/°C and of benzene 1.5 × 10–3/°C. The
Coefficient of friction between the ground and ladder temperature at which a piece of wood would just
is 0.5. The minimum angle  at which the ladder will sink in benzene
stay in equilibrium is (1) 53°C (2) 63°C

1 ⎛ 1 ⎞
(3) 73°C (4) 83°C
(1) tan ⎜ ⎟ (2) tan–1(2)
⎝2⎠ 16. When the temperature of a blackbody increases, it
is observed that the wavelength corresponding to
(3) tan–1(0.5) (4) tan–1(1) maximum energy changes from 0.26 m to
9. A small solid sphere of radius r rolls down an 0.13 m. The ratio of the emissive powers of the
inclined plane without slipping which ends into a body at the respective temperature is
vertical loop of radius R. The height of inclined plane (1) 16 : 1 (2) 1 : 16
above the base so that solid sphere just loops the
loop is (3) 1 : 4 (4) 4 : 1
17. The rms speed of the molecules of a gas is
5 5 400 ms–1. If half of the gas leaks out at constant
(1) R (2) (R  r )
2 2 temperature, the rms speed of the remaining
molecules will be
25 17 27 17
(3) R r (4) R r (1) 200 ms–1 (2) 400 ms–1
10 10 10 10
10. A block of silver of mass 4 kg hanging from a string (3) 400 2 ms1 (4) 800 ms–1
is immersed in a liquid of relative density 0.72. If the 18. The value of CP – CV = R for a gas in state A and
density of silver is 104 kg/m3, then tension in the CP – CV = 1.1 R in other state B. If PA and PB
string is denote the pressure and TA and TB are temperature
(1) 37.12 N (2) 42 N in the two states, then

(3) 7.20 N (4) 17.3 N (1) PA = PB, TA > TB

11. The surface energy of a liquid drop is E. It is sprayed (2) PA > PB, TA = TB
into 1000 equal droplets. Then its surface energy (3) PA < PB, TA > TB
becomes
(4) PA = PB, TA < TB
(1) E (2) 10 E
⎛ 5 ⎞
(3) 100 E (4) 1000 E 19. One mole of air ⎜ CV  R ⎟ is confined at
⎝ 2 ⎠
12. Two concentric shells have masses M and m and
atmospheric pressure in cylinder with piston at 0°C.
their radii are R and r respectively. (R > r). The
After 13200 J of heat is transferred to it, the volume
gravitational potential at their common centre, is
of gas is nearly
GM GM (1) 22 L
(1)  (2) 
R r (2) 30 L

⎡M m ⎤ ⎡M m ⎤ (3) 37 L
(3) G ⎢  ⎥ (4) G ⎢  ⎥
⎣R r ⎦ ⎣R r ⎦ (4) 60 L

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Test Series for NEET - 2017 Test-11 (Code A)
20. A particle performs simple harmonic motion with 25. The potential field depends on the x and y-
amplitude A and time period T. The mean velocity of coordinates as V = x2 – y2. The corresponding
the particle over the time interval during which it electric field lines in xy plane are
A y y
travels a distance of starting from extreme
2
position is
(1) x (2) x
A A
(1) (2)
T 2T
2A 3A y y
(3) (4)
T T
21. A stretched rope having linear mass density
5 × 10–2 kg/m is under a tension of 80 N. The power (3) x (4) x
that has to be supplied to rope to generate harmonic
waves at a frequency of 60 Hz and an amplitude of
2 2 26. The equivalent capacitance of the circuit across the
m is
15 terminals A and B is

(1) 215 W (2) 251 W

2 F
(3) 512 W (4) 5120 W 2 F
3
22. A train moves towards a stationary observer with a A B
speed of 34 ms–1. The train sounds a whistle and its
2 F
frequency registered by the observer is f1. If the 2 F 3
train’s speed is reduced to 17 ms–1, the frequency
registered is f2. If the speed of sound is 340 ms–1
f1 (1) 0.5 F (2) 1 F
then the ratio of f is (3) 2 F (4) 4 F
2
27. An ammeter is obtained by shunting a 30 
18 1 galvanometer with a 30  resistance. What
(1) (2)
19 2 additional shunt should be connected across it to
double the range?
19 (1) 5  (2) 10 
(3) 2 (4)
18
(3) 15  (4) 30 

23. A point charge of 100 C is placed at 3iˆ  4 jˆ m. 28. How many calories of heat will be approximately
developed in 210 W electric bulb in 5 minutes?
The electric field intensity due to this charge at a
(1) 1050 (2) 15000
point located at 9iˆ  12 ˆj m.
(3) 63000 (4) 80000
(1) 4000 Vm–1 (2) 4500 Vm–1
29. A charged particle moves inside a smooth pipe which
(3) 6750 Vm–1 (4) 9000 Vm–1
mv
is bent as shown in figure. If R < , then force
24. Consider two concentric spherical surfaces S1 with qB
radius a and S2 with radius 2a, both centered at the exerted by the pipe on charged particle at P is
origin. There is a charge +q at the origin and there
is no other charges. If flux through surfaces is 1 and
2 respectively for S1 and S2, then X B
R
2
(1) 1  P
2
(2) 1 = 2 q v
(3) 1 = 22 (1) Towards center (2) Away from center
(4) 1 = 42 (3) Zero (4) Tangential

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Test-11 (Code A) Test Series for NEET - 2017
30. The magnetic field at the center of an equilateral 36. If the angle of a prism is 60° and the angle of
triangular loop of side 2L and carrying a current i is minimum deviation is 40°, then the angle of refraction
would be
90 i 3 30 i
(1) (2) (1) 20° (2) 10°
4L 4L
(3) 40° (4) 30°
2 30 i 30 i
(3) (4) 37. A spherical convex surface separates object and
L 4L
31. A toroid is wound over a circular core. Radius of 4
image spaces of refractive indices 1.00 and . If the
each turn is r and radius of toroid is R(R >> r). The 3
coefficient of self-inductance of the toroid is given by radius of curvature of the surface is 10 cm, its power
(N : Total number of turns) is
(1) 1.5 D (2) 2.5 D
0 Nr 2 0 Nr
(1) (2)
2R 2R 3
(3) 3.5 D (4) D
7
0 Nr 2 0 N 2 r 2
(3) (4) 38. The two slits in Young’s experiment have widths in
R 2R
the ratio 1 : 9. The ratio of the intensity of light at
32. The voltage-time graph for triangular wave having the maxima and the minima in the interference
peak value V0 is shown in figure pattern is
V (1) 1 : 4 (2) 4 : 1
V0
(3) 3 : 4 (4) 4 : 3
t 39. The work functions for tungsten and sodium are
T/2 T 4.5 eV and 2.3 eV, respectively. If the threshold
–V0 wavelength  for sodium is 5460 Å, the value of  for
tungsten is
T (1) 528 Å (2) 1056 Å
The rms value of voltage in time interval from 0 to
2 (3) 2791 Å (4) 5893 Å
is
40. In order to break a bond (chemical bond) in the
V0 V0 molecules of human skin causing sunburn, a photon
(1) (2) energy of about 3.5 eV is required. This corresponds
3 2
to wavelength in
V0 2V0
(3) (4) (1) IR region (2) X-ray region
2 3
(3) Visible region (4) UV region
33. Doubly-ionized helium ions are projected with a
speed of 10 ms–1 in a direction perpendicular to a 41. In a hydrogen atom following Bohr’s postulates, the
uniform field of magnitude 1.32 T. The time taken by product of linear momentum and angular momentum
the ion to complete the circle is is proportional to (n)x, where n is the orbit number.
Then x is
(1) 10–6 s (2) 10–7 s
(3) 10–8 s (4) 10–9 s (1) –2 (2) 0

34. Above Curie temperature a ferromagnetic material (3) 1 (4) 2

behaves as 42. The ratio of molecular mass of two radioactive
(1) Diamagnetic substance 3
substances is and the ratio of their decay
(2) Superconductor substance 2
(3) Semiconductor substance 4
constants is . Then the ratio of their initial activity
(4) Paramagnetic substance 3
per mole
35. The focal lengths of objective and the eye-piece of a
compound microscope are fo and fe respectively. 8 9
Then (1) (2)
9 8
(1) fo < fe (2) fo > fe
4
(3) fo = fe (4) fo  fe (3)
3
(4) 2
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Test Series for NEET - 2017 Test-11 (Code A)

43. When npn transistor is used as an amplifier 

(1) Zero (2)
(1) Electrons move from base to collector 4

(2) Holes move from emitter to base (3) (4) 
2
(3) Electrons move from collector to base 45. The output of an AND gate is connected to both the
inputs of an NAND gate. The combination will serve
(4) Holes move from base to emitter as a/an
44. In a common base amplifier, the phase difference (1) OR gate (2) NOT gate
between input signal voltage and output voltage is (3) NOR gate (4) NAND gate

CHEMISTRY
46. Which of the following compounds is/are aromatic? 49. In the following reaction
P4 + NaOH  PH3 + NaH2 PO2
Graphite Equivalent weight of P4 is
N N
M M
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e) (1) (2)
1 2
(1) (a), (b) & (e) only (2) (a), (b) & (d) only
3M M
(3) (a), (b) & (c) only (4) (a), (b), (d) & (e) only (3) (4)
5 3
47. Tautomerism is not favourable in 50. Consider the following statements :

NH (a) Pb reacts with dil. HNO3 produces NO(g)

O
(b) SO3 in solid state exists as cyclic tetramer
(1) (2) (c) BrO4 is stronger oxidising agent than CrO 4

Incorrect statement among the following is/are

O O
(1) (a) only (2) (b) & (c)
O (3) (b) only (4) All are incorrect
(3) Ph (4) All of these 51. Choose the correct statement for the following
Ph compounds
48. Consider the following structures CH3 CH3 CH3
CH3
CH3 CH3 CH3
CH3 CH3 CH3
(a) (b) (c) (d)
a. b. (1) (a) & (b) are two different compounds
CH3 CH3 (2) (c) & (d) are resonating structures
(3) (c) & (d) are identical compounds
CH3 CH3
(4) (c) & (d) are two different compounds

c. d. 52. The root mean square velocity of hydrogen is 5

times than that of nitrogen. If T is the temperature of
CH3 CH3 the gas then
Correct among the following is/are (1) TH2 = TN2
(1) a & b are diastereomers
(2) TH2 > TN2
(2) b & c are enantiomers
(3) TH2 < TN2
(3) b & d are diastereomers
(4) All of these (4) TH2 = 7 TN2

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Test-11 (Code A) Test Series for NEET - 2017
53. Consider the following graph for ideal solution 60. Which of the given sets contains same hybridisation
of central atom?
o (1) NO2 , NO2
D PB
o
PA 
C (2) CH 3, CH3
V.P. V.P.
(3) ICl2 , ICl2
B
(4) SO32–, SO42–
xA = 0
xA = 1 A 61. The number of phenols possible for the molecular
xB = 1
xB = 0 formula C8H10O is
(1) 4
Correct statements among the following is/are
(2) 5
(1) Gmix < 0, Smix > 0
(3) 9
(2) Hmix = 0, Vmix = 0
(4) 10
(3) AB + AC = AD
(4) All are correct CH3
(i) B2H6/THF
62. – X (Major). X is
54. Which of the following has least flocculating value for (ii) H2O2/OH
positive sol?
CH3
(1) Cl (2) SO42–
(1)
(3) PO43– (4) [Fe(CN)6 ]4– OH

55. Consider the following statements : CH2 — OH

(a) Catalyst does not alter the free energy change (2)
of the reaction.
(b) On increasing temperature, rate of exothermic OH
reaction increases.
(3)
(c) For first order reaction, t75% = 2t50%.
Correct statement(s) among the above is/are
OH
(1) (a) & (c) only (2) (b) & (c) only CH3
(3) (a) only (4) (a), (b) & (c) (4)
56. 0.2 g sample of H2O2 required 10 ml of 1 N KMnO4
for complete reaction in acidic medium. Purity of 63. Light of wavelength  strikes on metal surface with
H2O2 is intensity X and metal emits Y electrons per second
(1) 30% (2) 60% of average energy Z. What will happen to Y and Z if
X is doubled?
(3) 85% (4) 90%
(1) Z will remain constant and Y will increase
57. Total number of valence electrons in 1.4 g of N3– is
[N0 = Avogadro’s number] (2) Both Z and Y will remain constant

(1) 0.1 × N0 (2) 0.8 × N0 (3) Z will decrease and Y will increase

(3) 0.26 × N0 (4) 0.5 × N0 (4) Both Z and Y will increase

58. Total number of electrons in Potassium (Z = 19) 64. Consider the following statements
having (l + m) = 0 is (a) On each body diagonal two tetrahedral voids are
(1) 9 (2) 10 present in ccp unit cell.

(3) 11 (4) 7 (b) Octahedral voids are only present in simple cubic
structure.
59. A current of 2.0 ampere is passed for 5 hours through
a molten salt of tin to deposit 22.2 g tin. The oxidation (c) In CsCl, Cs+ has simple cubic arrangement.
state of tin in its salt is (At. Wt. of tin = 119) Correct statement is/are
(1) +1 (2) +4 (1) (a) only (2) (b) only
(3) +2 (4) +3 (3) (c) only (4) (a) & (c)
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Test Series for NEET - 2017 Test-11 (Code A)
O 69. Select the correct statements among the following
(a) ClO4 > BrO4 > IO4 Oxidising power
C CH3
(i) LiAlH4
65. A. (b) Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2 Bond dissociation energy

(ii) H2O/H (c) Sn < Pb First Ionisation energy
(d) NaH > KH > RbH Stability order
O C
O C2H5 (1) (a) & (b) only (2) (b) & (d) only
Product A in the above reaction is (3) (a), (b) & (d) (4) (b), (c) & (d) only
CH2 — OH 70. Total number of isomers formed by disubstituted
Borazole is
(1)
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) 6
O C C2H5
O 71. Which of the following halides is most acidic?
OH (1) BI3 (2) BCl3

CH — CH3 (3) BBr3 (4) BF3

72. Bleaching powder contains a salt of an oxoacids as
(2) one of its components. The anhydride of the oxoacids
is
HO — CH2 (1) Cl2O (2) Cl2O7
CH2 — OH (3) ClO2 (4) Cl2O6
(3) 73. Which of the following pairs of elements/ions have
half or full filled valence shell configuration?
OH (1) Cu+, Cr+ (2) Pd, Eu
O C — CH3 (3) Yb, Eu (4) All of these
74. Which of the following is incorrect for K2Cr2O7?
(1) Six (Cr — O) bonds are equivalent
(4)
(2) Cr — O — Cr bond angle is 126° nearly
H2C — OH (3) Orange colour due to d-d transition
66. When propionic acid is treated with aqueous (4) All are correct
NaHCO3, CO2 is liberated. The C of CO2 comes from
75. MnO4 reacts with Br in alkaline medium to give
(1) Methyl group (2) Carboxylic acid
(3) Bicarbonate (4) Both (2) & (3) (1) BrO3 , MnO2 (2) Br2, MnO42–

67. Polymer of isoprene which is in trans form is called (3) Br2, MnO2 (4) BrO–, MnO42–

(1) Chloroprene (2) Natural rubber 76. 5600 ml of an unknown gas at STP requires 52.25 J
of heat to raise its temperature by 10°C at constant
(3) Gutta-percha (4) Neoprene volume. Gas will be
68. pH of aqueous solution of Borax can be calculated (1) He (2) H2
as
(3) CO2 (4) NH3
1
(1) pH = 7 +  pK a + log c  77. Which of the following relations is incorrect?
2
(1) Stotal = 0 [for adiabatic reversible process]
1
(2) pH = 7 –  pK b + log c  (2) G = G° = 0 (when Qc = Kc = 1)
2
V2
1
(3) pH = 7 +
2
pK a + pK b  (3) W = 2.303 RT log
V1
(for isothermal expansion

of an ideal gas)
1
(4) pH = 7 –  pK a + pK b  (4) Wadiabatic = CV (T2 – T1)
2
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Test-11 (Code A) Test Series for NEET - 2017
78. The possible number of isomers for the complex 85. Equilibrium constant (K) for the below given reaction is
K2[PdClBr2SCN] is
(1) 1 (2) 2 CH3
H3C CH3
(3) 4 (4) 5

79. If Eo  1.51 V and Eo  1.23 V .

MnO4 /Mn(aq)
2
MnO2 /Mn2  H3C CH3
CH3
Then standard electrode potential of Eo ○
– is
MnO4 /MnO2
(1) > 1 (2) < 1
(1) 0.28 V (2) 1.70 V
(3) = 1 (4) Zero
(3) 1.85 V (4) 2.74 V
86. Select the incorrect statements among the following
80. Solubility of AgCl will be maximum in
(a) -D-glucose and -D-glucose are anomers.
(1) 0.1 M NaCl (aq)
(b) Glucose produces oxalic acid with dil. HNO3.
(2) 0.2 M CaCl2 (aq)
(c) Acrilon is polyamide polymer.
(3) 0.5 M AgNO3(aq)
(1) (a) & (b)
(4) 0.1 M NH3 (aq)
(2) (c) only
81. 0.1 M CH 3 COOH (pH = 3) is titrated with
0.05 M NaOH solution. Calculate the pH (approx.) (3) (a) only
when 25% of acid has been neutralised. (4) (b) & (c)
(1) 4.5 (2) 5.4 87. Two glass bulbs A and B are connected by a very
(3) 4 (4) 3.5 small tube (of negligible volume) having stopcock.
82. In the Dow’s process Volume of bulb A is 100 mL and it contains some
gas while bulb B is empty. On opening the stop
X OH cock, the pressure drop by 60%. The volume of bulb
B must be
NaOH(aq)
(1) 100 mL
High temperature
High pressure (2) 150 mL
NO2 NO2 (3) 200 mL
Rate of reaction will be maximum when group ‘X’ is (4) 180 mL
(1) – F (2) – Cl 88. Which of the following is best for coupling with
(3) – Br (4) –I H5C6 — N2 Cl ?
83. Consider the following reaction (1) C6H5Cl

O O 
(2) C6H5 NH 2
NaOH
O Na + CH3OH
–
2H C H H C (3) C6 H5 CH3
50%
(4) C6 H5 NO2
Correct statement is/are
89. The ratio of sweetness values of Aspartame to that
(1) Rate  [Substrate]2 [OH–]1 of Alitame is nearly
(2) Transfer of H ion is rate determining step (1) 1 : 10
(3) CCl3 — CHO does not give above reaction (2) 14 : 1
(4) All of these (3) 1 : 20
84. Correct order of basicity for the following compounds is (4) 20 : 1
O M
a. b. c. d. 90. pH of solution of NH4CN on dilution, will
10
N N N N
(1) Increase
H H H (2) Decrease
(1) a > b > d > c (2) a > c > b > d (3) Remain same
(3) c > a > d > b (4) b > c > d > a (4) First increase then decrease
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Test Series for NEET - 2017 Test-11 (Code A)

BOTANY
91. RuBisCO does a very difficult biochemical job. It 98. The results of numerical taxonomic analysis are often
kick starts the first stage of the Calvin cycle. It is summarised with a tree like diagram called
present in photosynthetic prokaryotes like (1) Cladogram (2) Karyogram
(1) Clostridium (2) Anabaena (3) Dendrogram (4) Phylogram
(3) Bacillus (4) Mycoplasma 99. Centripetal primary xylem formation is feature of
92. How many of the given below groups show (a) Sunflower root (b) Sunflower stem
chemo-organoheterotrophy?
(c) Wheat stem (d) Maize root
Fungi, Bacteria, Animals, Slime moulds,
(1) (a) & (d) (2) (b) & (c)
Protozoans, Conifers.
(3) (a) & (b) (4) (b) & (d)
(1) Four (2) Five
100. Choose odd one out w.r.t. sclerenchymatous fibres.
(3) Three (4) Two
(1) Flax (2) Jute
93. Choose odd one out w.r.t. sexual spore produced in
fungi. (3) Hemp (4) Cotton
(1) Ascospore (2) Basidiospore 101. Choose correct sequence of structures from outer
towards the inner side in dicot stem.
(3) Oospore (4) Zoospore
(1) Phellem Vascular cambium Secondary
94. Choose the correct option w.r.t. life cycle of fungi. cortex Duramen
(2) Phellogen Secondary cortex Secondary
Zygote phloem Stelar cambium
Diploid
stage (2N)
C (3) Phellem Phellogen Duramen
Sapwood
Dikaryotic A
stage (N+N) (4) Cork Extra stelar cambium Alburnum
Secondary meristem
B Haploid
stage (N) 102. How many of the following plants show epigynous
condition?

(1) A-Mitosis, B-Plasmogamy, C-Karyogamy Brinjal, Potato, Cucumber, Guava, Water melon,
Cassia, Gulmohar, Rose, Plum, Mustard, Turnip
(2) A-Meiosis, B-Karyogamy, C-Plasmogamy
(1) Two (2) Three
(3) A-Meiosis, B-Plasmogamy, C-Karyogamy
(3) Five (4) Four
(4) A-Mitosis, B-Karyogamy, C-Plasmogamy
95. TMV is not associated with 103. Tendril in water melon is homologous to

(1) Capsomeres (2) Peplomeres (1) Spine in Cacti

(3) Helical capsid (4) Spirially wound RNA (2) Tendril in pea
96. Choose correct option : (3) Phyllode in Australian Acacia
(a) Mosses form filamentous gametophyte. (4) Thorn in Citrus
(b) Shedding of pollen occurs at three celled stage 104. How many of the given below features are associated
in Cycas. with xylem sap?
(c) Meroblastic development is shown by (a) Alkaline
Selaginella. (b) Contains glutamine, asparagine
(d) Algae are embryophytes.
(c) Nitrogenous organic compounds
(1) (a) & (d)
(d) Contains minerals
(2) (b) & (d)
(1) Four (2) Two
(3) (a) & (c)
(3) Three (4) One
(4) (a), (b) & (c)
105. Little leaf disease is caused due to deficiency of
97. Female cone is present in
(1) Zn (2) Mo
(1) Equisetum (2) Lycopodium
(3) Cu (4) S
(3) Cycas (4) Pinus
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Test-11 (Code A) Test Series for NEET - 2017
106. The rate of photosynthesis is greater when red and 112. Match the following
far red light are given together as compared to the
Column - I Column - II
one when they are given apart. This enhancement
(Hormones) (Bioassay)
effect is seen for
a. Auxin (i) -amylase endosperm test
(1) Chromatium (2) Chlorobium
b. Gibberellin (ii) Chlorophyll preservation test
(3) Chlorella (4) Clostridium
c. Cytokinin (iii) Root inhibition test
107. Cyclic electron transfer during photosynthesis does
not involve d. Ethylene (iv) Triple response test
(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
(1) P700
(3) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (4) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
(2) Plastoquinone
113. A bivalent has
(3) NADP reductase
(1) Two chromatids, four chromosomes
(4) Cytochrome b-f complex
(2) Two chromosomes, two chromatids
108. C4 cycle reduces photorespiration in maize due to
(3) Two chromosomes, four chromatids
(1) Oxidative photosynthetic cycle in mesophyll
(4) Two chromatids, two non homologues
(2) High concentration of CO2 in bundle sheath cells
114. According to Levitt's theory of stomatal opening,
(3) Agranal chloroplast in bundle sheath cells ________ solute is formed during day time
(4) More than one option is correct (1) Sucrose (2) Potassium malate
109. Choose the correct option w.r.t. hormones involved (3) Glucose (4) Glucose-6-phosphate
in germination and seedling development in bean. 115. Segregation of homologous chromosomes during
gamete formation occurs at
A
(Epicotyl hook) (1) Anaphase-II (2) Metaphase-I
C
(Apical
growth)
(3) Anaphase-I (4) Metaphase-II
B
(Cotyledons 116. Choose odd one out w.r.t. function of RER.
expansion)
(1) Glycosylation of proteins

D
(2) Glycogen metabolism
(Lateral
root
formation)
(3) Membrane protein synthesis
(4) Secretory protein synthesis

(1) A- Ethylene, B- Gibberellins 117. Chromosomal puffs of polytene chromosomes are

(2) A- Ethylene, D- Auxin, (1) Active site of mRNA synthesis

(2) Balbiani rings
(3) A- Auxin, D- Ethylene
(3) Formed through endoduplication of DNA
(4) B- Cytokinin, C- Ethylene
(4) More than one option is correct
110. Which is the ultimate electron acceptor in the
alcoholic and lactic acid fermentation respectively? 118. At the time of pollination male gametophyte of
angiosperms may possess
(1) PGAL, pyruvic acid
(1) Vegetative cell + Planogametes
(2) Acetaldehyde, pyruvic acid
(2) Tube cell + Megagametes
(3) Acetyl COA, Acetaldehyde
(3) Tube cell + Microgametes
(4) Phosphoglycerate, phosphoglyceraldehyde
(4) Generative cell + Microgametes
111. Choose the incorrect option w.r.t. anabolic nature of 119. Which is the correct representation for sporophytic
respiratory pathway. budding?
(1) Acetyl COA – Fatty acid (1) MMC(2n)  Embryo sac (2n)
(2) Oxalo acetic acid – Aspartic acid (2) Nucellus (2n)  Embryo (2n)
(3) Succinyl COA – Glutamic acid (3) Nucellus (2n)  Embryo sac (2n)
(4) Acetyl COA – Terpenes (4) Egg (n)  Embryo (n)
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Test Series for NEET - 2017 Test-11 (Code A)
120. Sex organs of Chara 128. Semi dwarf high yielding varieties of wheat which
were introduced in India were
(1) Are formed abaxially
(1) Jaya, Ratna in 1966
(2) Are located on internode
(2) Sonalika, Kalyan Sona in 1963
(3) Are multicellular and jacketed
(3) Taichung Native-1, IR-8 in 1960
(4) Produce isogametes
(4) IR-8, IR-36 in 1966
121. Bulbil as a modification of floral bud is present in
129. Biological oxygen demand is highest for
(1) Oxalis (2) Agave
(1) Distilled water
(3) Pineapple (4) Cycas (2) Liquid manure
122. Law of independent assortment is not seen for (3) Filter waste water
(1) Stem height and seed shape – Pisum (4) Molasses
(2) Eye colour and wings size – Drosophila 130. Choose incorrect option w.r.t. importance of microbe
(3) PKU and sickle cell anemia – Humans (1) Baker’s yeast – Saccharomyces cerevisiae
(4) More than one option is correct (2) Swiss cheese – Propionibacterium
shermanii
123. How many of the given features are associated with
multiple alleles of a gene? (3) Super bug – Pseudomonas putida

a. Different locus (4) Bioactive molecule – Lactobacillus acidophilus

131. Father of Ecology in India is
b. Show linkage
(1) Ramdeo Mishra
c. Show dominant-recessive relationship
(2) Raman Sukumar
d. Alternative forms of a gene
(3) Eugene Odum
(1) a + b + c (2) b + c + d
(4) Paul Ehrlich
(3) c + d (4) a + b + d
132. An orchid growing as an epiphyte on a branch of
124. A trait is controlled by quantitative inheritance. If mango represents
15 phenotypes are possible then what would be
(1) Protocoperation
number of polygenes involved?
(2) Commensalism
(1) 12 (2) 6
(3) Mutualism
(3) 10 (4) 14
(4) Competition
125. How many of the given features are associated with
133. What would be energy present at tertiary consumer
repressor and activator regulatory protein of Lac
level if energy at primary producer level is 10,000 J?
operon respectively?
(1) 100 J
Positive control, Bind operator, Promote RNAP
(2) 1000 J
binding, Negative control, Bind promoter, Inhibit
RNAP binding (3) 1 J
(1) Two, four (2) Three, three (4) 10 J
(3) Two, three (4) Three, four 134. What percent of all gymnosperm species in the
world is facing threat of extinction?
126. Nucleosome formation occurs in
(1) 12%
(1) Clostridium
(2) 23%
(2) Bacillus
(3) 32%
(3) Methanobacterium
(4) 31%
(4) Nostoc
135. Copenhagen accord was endorsed at
127. Choose incorrect option w.r.t. features of genetic (1) COP-21
code.
(2) COP-13
(1) Degenerate (2) Unambiguous
(3) COP-15
(3) Specific (4) Non-redundant
(4) COP-22
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Test-11 (Code A) Test Series for NEET - 2017

ZOOLOGY
136. Choose the odd one out w.r.t. effect on diameter of 144. Which of the following is true for ctenophores?
blood vessels.
(1) They inhabit in fresh and marine water bodies
(1) Angiotensin II (2) Serotonin (2) They have statocyst for balancing which is
(3) ANF (4) Vasopressin present at oral end
137. In a resting muscle, the region where thick filaments (3) They are hermaphrodites and reproduce only
are not overlapped by thin filaments is called sexually
(1) A-band (2) H-zone (4) They are triploblastic, acoelomate with biradial
symmetry
(3) I-band (4) Z-disc
145. Which of the following statements w.r.t. circulatory
138. Which of the following articulating sets of bones form system is wrong?
pivot joints?
(1) Adrenaline augments the force of cardiac muscle
(a) Atlas and Occipital (b) Atlas and Axis contraction, thus forcing a larger amount of
(c) Radius and Ulna (d) Radius and Humerus blood out of the heart in a single stroke

(1) (a) & (c) only (2) (a) & (b) only (2) Increase in venous return to the ventricles leads
to more stretching of the muscles and the
(3) (b) & (c) only (4) (c) & (d) only following contraction ejects a larger volume of
139. Which cranial nerve is responsible for accommodation blood
of lens for near vision and constriction of pupil? (3) Cardiac output is under the influence of three
(1) Optic (2) Occulomotor major controlling systems, the nervous system,
hormonal control and the autoregulation
(3) Pathetic (4) Abducens attributable to the effect of venous return on the
140. Which of the following is an incorrect match of the heart muscle
animal and its excretory structure? (4) The branch of vagus, when stimulated
(1) Fasciola – Flame cells accelerates the rate of heartbeat and thus the
stroke volume
(2) Palaemon – Green glands
146. Which process happens first in a nerve cell when a
(3) Nereis – Organ of Bojanus stimulus reaches threshold?
(4) Lepisma – Malpighian tubules (1) Potassium channels in the cell membrane open
141. Nyctalopia, xerophthalmia and keratinization of (2) Neurotransmitters are released into the synapse
epithelia are due to
(3) Sodium ions move into the nerve cell
(1) Deficiency of proteins (4) K+ ions diffuse outside the nerve cell
(2) Deficiency of retinol 147. Which pairs of hormones have opposite effects?
(3) Deficiency of riboflavin (1) Calcitonin and parathyroid hormone
(4) Deficiency of tocopherol (2) Epinephrine and norepinephrine
142. The most abundant and largest WBCs respectively (3) Growth hormone and thyroxine
are
(4) Aldosterone and cortisol
(1) Monocytes and lymphocytes
148. The graph shows blood glucose levels over a period
(2) Neutrophils and lymphocytes of time. Which hormones might have caused the
surge as indicated by the arrow?
(3) Neutrophils and monocytes
(a) ADH
(4) Eosinophils and macrophages
(b) FSH
143. Which of the following organs is lined by mucosa
having compound epithelium instead of simple (c) Glucagon
epithelium? (d) Adrenaline
(1) Uterus (2) Stomach (e) Insulin
(3) Respiratory passage (4) Urinary bladder (f) Aldosterone
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Test Series for NEET - 2017 Test-11 (Code A)
(1) Only (b) (2) Only (a) & (b)
(3) Only (a), (b) & (c) (4) Only (b), (c) & (d)
Blood 154. Find the incorrect match.
glucose
level (1) Myoglobin – Monomeric protein, exists in
tertiary structure
(2) Chitin – A homopolysaccharide of
N-acetyl glucosamine residues
(1) Only (e) (2) Only (c)
joined by (1, 4) glycosidic bonds
(3) (c) & (d) (4) (b) & (e)
(3) Lecithin – A phospholipid secreted by type II
149. Choose the option which is incorrect when we pneumocytes in alveoli and acts
compare the steps involved during inhalation and as surfactant
exhalation.
(4) Lyases – Enzymes that catalyse splitting
During inhalation During exhalation of a substrate by addition of
(1) Diaphragm contracts Diaphragm relaxes water
(2) Intrapleural pressure Intrapleural pressure 155. Which of the following is an incorrect match of the
becomes less negative becomes more negative components of digestive secretions, in which juices
these are present and their function?
(3) External intercostal External intercostal
muscles contract muscles relax Component Digestive Function
secretions
(4) Lungs expand Lungs contract
(1) Thiocyanate Saliva Antibacterial
150. Which of the following statements about information ions agent
flow in our visual system is true?
(2) DNase Pancreatic Hydrolysis
(1) Amacrine cells integrate the activity of juice nucleosides
neighbouring rod and cone cells (3) Sodium Bile juice Emulsification of
(2) The highest density of rod cells in the human taurocholate fats
retina is centrally located in the fovea, resulting (4) Castle's Gastric Absorption of B12
in high-acuity dim light vision intrinsic factor juice in ileum
(3) When photons of light enter the eye, the first 156. Which of the following hormonal disorders is not due
cells they encounter in the retina are ganglion to adenoma in the gland?
cells
(1) Toxic goitre (2) Conn’s disease
(4) Axons of retinal bipolar neuron bundle together
as the optic nerve (3) Addison’s disease (4) Osteitis fibrosa cystica

151. The membrane most directly responsible for the 157. The longest and shortest podomeres in the leg of
ability to discriminate different pitches of sound is the cockroach respectively are
(1) Round window (2) Tympanum (1) Femur, tibia (2) Tibia, coxa
(3) Tectorial membrane (4) Basilar membrane (3) Tarsus, trochanter (4) Tibia, trochanter
152. Which statement is not true? 158. If the corpora allata in the nymph of cockroach is
stimulated to increase its secretions, the result will
(1) The interaction among malleus, incus and
be
stapes conducts sound waves across the fluid
filled middle ear (1) The nymph will rapidly complete metamorphosis
(2) Stiffening of the ossicles in the middle ear can (2) Metamorphosis in the nymph will not affected
lead to deafness
(3) The nymph will retain juvenile characters and will
(3) The term ‘adaptation’ refers to the process by not metamorphose into adult
which a sensory system becomes adjustable to
(4) Wings will develop from wing pads
a continuing source of stimulation
159. Select the correct set of secondary metabolites
(4) In general, mammals depend more on vision
which are alkaloids.
than on olfaction as their dominant sensory
modality (1) Ricin and abrin
153. Gap junctions are present in (2) Morphine and codeine
(a) Myometrium (b) Myocardium (3) Concanavalin and curcumin
(c) Biceps (d) Hamstring muscle (4) Gums and cellulose

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Test-11 (Code A) Test Series for NEET - 2017
160. Number of nitrogen in adenine molecule is 167. Which is false about embryonic development in
(1) 2 (2) 3 humans?

(3) 4 (4) 5 (1) Cleavage in humans is holoblastic, slow and

asynchronous
161. If succinic dehydrogenase is inhibited by malonate,
which of the following would be true? (2) The first cleavage plane is equatorial

(1) Increase in Km (3) The presence of zona pellucida prevents

implantation
(2) Addition of succinate stimulates the dissociation
of malonate from the enzyme (4) The trophoblast cells secrete hCG which
prevents corpus luteum from regressing
(3) Addition of oxalo-acetate removes inhibition
168. Normally in a non-pregnant female, the ovarian
(4) Both (1) & (2)
hormones are secreted in response to
162. The source of variation in a population due to
(1) Adrenal gonadocorticoids
introduction of new alleles or new allelic combination
can be due to all of the following factors, except (2) Pituitary gonadotrophins
(1) Mutation (3) Placental gonadotrophins
(2) Natural selection (4) Melatonin
(3) Recombination 169. Which is not a component of the non-specific
(4) Gene flow immune defense?

163. Darwin’s theory of natural selection is based on (1) Macrophages and PMNL cells
certain observations which are factual. Which of the (2) Lysozyme and pyrogens
following is not a correct observation?
(3) Interleukins and immunoglobulins
(1) Natural resources are limited
(4) Interferons and mucous
(2) Populations are stable in size except for seasonal
fluctuations 170. Which of the following is not a primary lymphoid
organ?
(3) Members of population vary in characteristics
(1) Bursa of Fabricius (2) Foetal liver
(4) Large discontinuous variations appear suddenly
and attain full constancy at once (3) Spleen (4) Thymus
164. The first land plants were bryophytes which 171. Genetically engineered plants are generated in
originated from laboratory by altering their genetic makeup. This is
done by adding one or more genes to a plants
(1) Red algae
genome by
(2) Green algae
(1) Biolistic method or Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(3) Tracheophytes mediated transformation
(4) Brown algae (2) DNA injection or electroporation
165. A large sexually reproducing population can remain (3) Liposomes
in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium by providing, the
following conditions, except (4) Bacillus thuringiensis mediated transformation

(1) No mutations 172. The non-specific component of immune system that

destroys virus infected cells and cancerous cells by
(2) No migration attacking their cell membrane and causing it to lyse
(3) Non-random mating are
(4) No natural selection (1) Neutrophils (2) NK cells
166. Which of the following does not give the defined (3) Cytotoxic T cells (4) Both (2) & (3)
action of the contraceptive? 173. ELISA performed as a screening test for AIDS aims
(1) Tubectomy – Prevents oogenesis at detection of
(2) Barrier methods – Prevents fertilization (1) Viral genome in infected cells
(3) Hormonal contraceptives – Prevent/retard entry of (2) Reverse transcriptase in WBCs
sperms, prevent ovulation
(3) Antibodies against HIV in the serum
(4) Emergency pill – Inhibit implantation of
(4) Both (1) & (2)
blastocyst
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Test Series for NEET - 2017 Test-11 (Code A)
174. Which of the following is incorrect regarding human 177. In which of the following GM crops, the expression
embryonic development? of a native gene has been blocked by anti-sense
(1) The spindle in the zygote is formed by proximal technology?
centriole of sperm (1) Round-up ready soyabean
(2) After implantation the uterine mucosa undergoes (2) Bt cotton
profound changes and is called the decidua
(3) Golden rice
(3) The placenta is a temporary association
(4) Flavr savr
between foetal and maternal tissues allowing
passage of soluble inorganic and organic 178. Which of the following is used in biowar?
nutrients, hormones, antibodies, blood cells and (1) A pathogen
viruses
(2) Toxin from a pathogen
(4) After gastrulation, the embryo passes through
notogenesis and neurulation (3) A delivery system for the bioweapon agent

175. Stimulants like amphetamines are used clinically for (4) All of these
treatment of the following conditions, except 179. Texas cattle fever is caused by
(1) Attention deficit (1) Bacteria (2) Virus
(2) Narcolepsy (3) Protozoan (4) Ticks
(3) Insomnia 180. Which of the following properties of acquired
(4) Weight control immunity is the basis of vaccination?

176. The Cry protein is toxic to the larva of insects (1) Specificity
belonging to the order (2) Diversity
(1) Odonata (2) Lepidoptera (3) Memory
(3) Hymenoptera (4) Isoptera (4) Discrimination between self and non-self

  

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 04/05/2017 Code - A

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005; Ph.: 011-47623456

MM : 720 Test Series : Test – 11 (Objective) Time : 3 Hrs.

(for NEET - 2017 )

Answers and Hints

PHYSICS
1. Answer (3) 10. Answer (1)
2. Answer (3) ⎛   L ⎞
T  ⎜ S ⎟ mg  37.12 N
| A | cos  
AB

33
 3 2 ⎝ S ⎠
|B | 2 11. Answer (2)
3. Answer (1) Ei = T.Ai, Ef = T.Af
4. Answer (1) 12. Answer (4)
3⎛1 2⎞ 1 2 2
13. Answer (1)
⎜ mu ⎟  mu cos 
4⎝2 ⎠ 2 2T
 gh
r
3
cos   ⇒   30 14. Answer (2)
2
5. Answer (1) ⎛ 2R ⎞
w   mg ⎜ 1  ⎟
tan  <  ⎜ g ⎟⎠
⎝
6. Answer (2) 15. Answer (4)
1 b 1   bT
W = KE + PE = mv2 – mgh = 2 J 
2 w 1  w T
7. Answer (4) 16. Answer (2)
⎛ Mrope ⎞ ⎛ Mrope wound ⎞ E  T4 and T = b
W  ⎜ ⎟ ghcm ⎜ ⎟ ghcm  Mblock gh
⎝ 2 ⎠ ⎝ 2 ⎠ 17. Answer (2)
1 1 1 50 rms speed does not depend on quantity of gas, it
 10g  10g  10g  g  125 J depends on the temperature.
4 2 2 4
8. Answer (4) 18. Answer (3)
l At low pressure and high temperature gas behaves
mgl sin   mg cos  like ideal gas.
2
19. Answer (4)
1
tan  
2 nRT
V=  22.7 L
9. Answer (4) P
Minimum velocity at top should be v  g (R  r ) W = nRT = P(V)
1 1 V = 37.7 L
mgh  mv 2  I 2  mg (2R  r )
2 2 Vf = 60.4 L

(1)
Answers & Hints of Test-11 (Code A) Test Series for NEET - 2017
20. Answer (4) 32. Answer (1)
A T T /2
x  ,t 
∫V
2
2 6 dt
0
21. Answer (3) Vrms  T /2

P 
1 2 2
 A v and v 
T ∫ dt
2  0

22. Answer (4) 33. Answer (2)

⎛ v ⎞ 2m
f  f0 ⎜ T 
⎟ qB
⎝ v  vs ⎠
34. Answer (4)
23. Answer (4)
Curie-Weiss Law
 q
r  r2  r1  6iˆ  8 jˆ m and E  k 2 35. Answer (2)
r
36. Answer (4)
| r |  10 m
37. Answer (2)
24. Answer (2)
1
q P 
1  2  f
0
38. Answer (2)
25. Answer (1)
39. Answer (3)
26. Answer (2)
00 = 11
Balanced bridge or wheatstone bridge.
40. Answer (4)
27. Answer (3)
hc
28. Answer (2)  
E
P t
H  41. Answer (2)
J
42. Answer (3)
29. Answer (1)
43. Answer (4)
30. Answer (1)
44. Answer (1)
31. Answer (4)
45. Answer (4)

CHEMISTRY
46. Answer (4) 3RTH2
47. Answer (4) Vrms H2 2 14TH2
=  5=
48. Answer (4) Vrms N2 3RTN2 TN2
49. Answer (4) 28
0 –3 M 14 TH2
12e – + P4 
 P H3  EP4 = 5= TH2 < TN2
12 TN2
0 +1 M 53. Answer (4)
P4 
 4 NaH2 P O2 + 4e –  EP4 =
4
For ideal solution Gmix < 0, Smix > 0, Hmix = 0
M M M
 Eq wt = + = Vmix = 0
12 4 3
54. Answer (4)
50. Answer (3)
More the charge less the flocculating value.
SO3 in solid state exists as cyclic trimer.
55. Answer (4)
51. Answer (4)
56. Answer (3)
Resonance is not possible in III and IV because
rings are non planner. meq of H2O2 = meq of KMnO4
52. Answer (3) meq of H2O2 = 10 × 1 = 10
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Test Series for NEET - 2017 Answers & Hints of Test-11 (Code A)

W 70. Answer (3)

× 1000 = 10
E X X
W 10
= W = 0.17g B B
17 1000
0.17 H N N X H N N H
Percentage Purity = ×100 = 85%
0.2
H B B H H B B X
57. Answer (2)
N N
Total number of valence electrons
1.4 H H
= × 8 × N0 = 0.8 N0
14 (a) (b)
58. Answer (3) H X
2 2 6 2 6 1
1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 4s
B B
K(19) :
X N N X H N N X
l= 0 0 1 0 1 0
H B B H H B B H
m= 0 0 –1, 0, +1 0 –1, 0, +1 0
59. Answer (3) N N
Q = I × t = 2 × 5 × 60 × 60 = 36000 C.
H X
Snn+ + ne–  Sn (c) (d)
n × 96500 C 119g  n=2 71. Answer (1)
36000 C 22.2g Least extent of back bonding.
60. Answer (4) 72. Answer (1)
Both ‘S’ have sp3 hybridisation Cl 
61. Answer (3) H +1
Ca OCl HOCl
OH OH OH OH OH –1 –H2O
C2H5 CH3 CH3
(OCl)
Cl2O
C2H5 CH3
73. Answer (4)
C2H5 CH3
OH OH OH OH 74. Answer (3)
H3C H3C CH3 K2Cr2O7 is orange due to charge transfer.
H3C CH3 75. Answer (1)
CH3
CH3
CH3 2MnO4 + Br + H2O  2OH– + 2MnO2 + BrO3
62. Answer (4) 76. Answer (2)
It is hydroboration-oxidation reaction 5600 mL of gas at STP = 0.25 mol for 10°C rise,
63. Answer (1) 0.25 mol of gas at constant volume requires heat
= 52.25 J for 1°C rise, 1 mol of gas at constant
64. Answer (4)
52.25
Octahedral voids are present in FCC structure also. volume will require heat = = 20.9 J
10 × 0.25
65. Answer (2)
 CV = 20.9 JK–1 mol–1
LiAlH4 is strong reducing agent easily reduce ketone
and ester to alcohol. CP = CV + R = 20.9 + 8.314 = 29.214
66. Answer (3) CP 29.214
= = = 1.4
67. Answer (3) CV 20.9
68. Answer (1)
 Diatomic gas i.e., H2
Borax Na2B4O7 ·10 H2O is salt of weak acid and
77. Answer (3)
strong base.
V2
69. Answer (4) W  2.303 RT log
V1 .
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Answers & Hints of Test-11 (Code A) Test Series for NEET - 2017
78. Answer (3) 83. Answer (4)
Cis and trans isomer and linkage isomer. Cannizzaro’s reaction not possible for good leaving
79. Answer(2) group than H ion and H ion migration is rate
+7
determine step.
– 2+ o o
MnO4 + 5e Mn G1= – 5 × F × E1 84. Answer (2)
+4 – 2+ o o Nitrogen in structure a and c is sp 3 hybridised
MnO 2 + 2e Mn G2= –2 × F × E 2
whereas in structure b and d is sp2 hybridised. d is
On subtracting less basic because lone pair participate in conjugation.
– o o
MnO4 + 3e MnO2 G3= –3 × F × E 3 85. Answer (1)
G3 = G1 – G2o
o o
In reactant t-butyl group attached at axial position in
–3FE3o = – 5FE1o – (– 2FE2o) which repulsion is more and lesser stability whereas
3FE3o = 5FE1o – 2FE2o at equatorial position stability is more.
5E1o – 2E o2 5 × 1.51 – 2 × 1.23 86. Answer (4)
Eo3 = = = 1.70 V
3 3 87. Answer (2)
80. Answer (4)
AgCl form complex with NH3
i.e., [Ag(NH3)2 ]
P1 = P P2 = P – 0.6P = 0.4P
81. Answer (1) V1 = 100 ml V2 = 100 + V
Calculate pKa from pH i.e., pKa = 5 Apply P1V1 = P2V2
CH3COOH + NaOH  CH3COO – Na + H2O. P × 100 = 0.4 P(100 + V)
0.1 m V = 150 ml
1 1 88. Answer (2)
0.1 – 0.1 × = 0.075 m 0.1 × = 0.025 m
4 4

Due to stronger + R effect of NH
salt 0.025 2
pH = pKa + log = 5 + log  4.5
acid 0.075 89. Answer (3)
82. Answer (1) Factual
F has maximum –I effect amongst halogens. 90. Answer (3)

BOTANY
91. Answer (2) 99. Answer (1)
Anabaena is photosynthetic. Root
92. Answer (2) 100. Answer (4)
Conifers photoautotrophy. Cotton fibres are extension of seed coat.
93. Answer (4) 101. Answer (2)
Zoospore is planospore which is asexual type. Phellem Phellogen Phelloderm
Secondary phloem Vascular cambium
94. Answer (3) Secondary xylem
95. Answer (2) 102. Answer (2)
Peplomeres are part of envelope. 103. Answer (4)
96. Answer (4) Same origin and different functions.
Algae are non embryophytes. 104. Answer (3)
97. Answer (4) Acidic – pH 5.2 – 6.5
Female cone is absent in Cycas. 105. Answer (1)
98. Answer (3) 106. Answer (3)
Cladogram is based on phylogeny. Chlorella has both PS-I and PS-II.
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Test Series for NEET - 2017 Answers & Hints of Test-11 (Code A)
107. Answer (3) 124. Answer (4)
NADP reductase is part of noncyclic ETS. Phenotypes = 2 × n + 1
108. Answer (4) =2×7+1
Option (2) & (3). = 15
109. Answer (2) Here ‘n’ is number of pair of polygenes.
110. Answer (2) 125. Answer (2)
111. Answer (3)
Repressor – Negative control, bind operator, inhibit
Succinyl COA – Cytochrome, chlorophyll. RNAP binding.
112. Answer (2) Activator – Positive control, promote RNAP binding,
113. Answer (3) bind upstream region of promoter.
114. Answer (2) 126. Answer (3)
115. Answer (3) Archaeal nucleosomes.
Disjunction 127. Answer (4)
116. Answer (2) Redundant
117. Answer (4) 128. Answer (2)
118. Answer (3) 129. Answer (4)
In less than 40% angiosperms pollination occurs at 130. Answer (4)
three-celled stage.
Cyclosporin – Trichoderma
119. Answer (2)
131. Answer (1)
(1) Diplospory
(3) Apospory 132. Answer (2)

(4) Aplospory (+, 0) interaction

120. Answer (3) 133. Answer (4)
– Adaxially 10% law.
– At node 134. Answer (4)
– Oogametes 12% Birds
121. Answer (2) 23% Mammals
122. Answer (2) 32% Amphibians
Linked genes. 135. Answer (3)
123. Answer (3) COP-13 – Kyoto Protocol
• Same locus. COP-21 – Paris agreement
• Do not show linkage. COP-22 – Morocco

ZOOLOGY
136. Answer (3) 143. Answer (4)
ANF is vasodilator and rest are vasoconstrictors. 144. Answer (3)
Ctenophores are diploblastic have statocyst on aboral
137. Answer (2)
end and are exclusively marine.
138. Answer (3) 145. Answer (4)
139. Answer (2) 146 Answer (3)
140. Answer (3) 147. Answer (1)
Excretory organ is nephridia in Nereis. 148. Answer (3)
149. Answer (2)
141. Answer (2)
During inhalation, the intrapleural pressure becomes
142. Answer (3) more negative.
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Answers & Hints of Test-11 (Code A) Test Series for NEET - 2017
150. Answer (3) 166. Answer (1)
151. Answer (4) Tubectomy inhibits transport of sperms to the site of
fertilization.
152. Answer (1)
167. Answer (2)
153. Answer (2)
First cleavage plane is meridional.
154. Answer (4)
168. Answer (2)
155. Answer (2)
Pituitary gonadotrophins - FSH and LH stimulate
156. Answer (3) ovaries to secrete estrogens and progesterone.
Addison’s disease is due to hyposecretion and rest 169. Answer (3)
are due to hypersecretion.
Interleukins are secreted by T cells and
157. Answer (4) immunoglobulins by B-cells.
158. Answer (3) 170. Answer (3)
Juvenile hormone or neotenin from corpora allata 171. Answer (1)
retains juvenile characters. 172. Answer (2)
159. Answer (2) Cytotoxic T cells also destroy cancer and virus
160. Answer (4) infected cells but are part of specific immunity and
require antigen presentation.
161. Answer (4)
173. Answer (3)
162. Answer (2)
ELISA is based on antigen-antibody interaction.
Natural selection operates on existing phenotypes
and fixes a variation with adaptive value in a 174. Answer (3)
population. Blood cells do not cross placental barrier.
163. Answer (4) 175. Answer (3)
Darwinian variations are small and continuous. Insomniacs require sleeping pills.
164. Answer (2) 176. Answer (2)

Bryophytes originated from chlorophyte ancestors 177. Answer (4)

(green algae) 178. Answer (4)
165. Answer (3) 179. Answer (3)
Non random mating increases homozygosity. 180. Answer (3)

  

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