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Analysis of Ocean Structures

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Analysis of Ocean Structures

Tutorial 3

Submitted by

Varier Raghu Unnikrishnan Jyothi

19NA60R06

Department of Ocean Engineering and Naval Architecture

IIT Kharagpur
Answer 1:-

We know Hydrodynamic Pressure in linearized form is,



P = −𝜌

𝑃 = −𝜌 ( 𝑒 𝑠𝑖𝑛(𝑘𝑥 − 𝜔𝑡))

𝑃 = 𝜌𝑎𝑔𝑒 𝑐𝑜𝑠(𝑘𝑥 − 𝜔𝑡)

This hydrodynamic pressure results in a vertical force on the keel of the ship whose magnitude can be obtained
by integrating the above equation over the keel area.

Let dx be a small portion of the ship length along the x-direction and B be the width under consideration.

Since the total load is 1000 tonne, we can calculate B as below:-

Let the underwater volume be expressed as V = L. B. T……………….where T is the draught

Displacement = 𝜌. 𝑔 . 𝐿. 𝐵. 𝑇 = 1000 . 1000

B = 12 + 2 . T. sin(45) = 12 + 1.4142 T

Substituting the values we get,

T = 0.7472 m

B = 13.0567 m…………………………..projected length on which the hydrodynamic forces act

Small hydrodynamic force dF due to pressure P over dx is given by:-

dF = P. B .dx

dF = 𝜌𝑎𝑔𝑒 𝑐𝑜𝑠(𝑘𝑥 − 𝜔𝑡) .B .dx

Force distribution over the length of the ship can be expressed as:-

L(x,t) = = 𝜌𝑎𝑔𝑒 𝑐𝑜𝑠(𝑘𝑥 − 𝜔𝑡) .B

Substituting the values of 𝜌, 𝑎, 𝑔, k and B:-


. ∗
L(x,t) = 65644.19 𝑒 𝑐𝑜𝑠(0.0628𝑥 − 𝜔𝑡)

Here z = -T = -0.7472 m

From the Dispersion relation,


𝜔 = 0.785099025 / second

So we have

L(x, t) = 62635 𝑐𝑜𝑠(0.0628𝑥 − 0.7851𝑡)

The following table is plotted with Force along Y axis and Length along x –axis:-

x t 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
-50 -99.75581542 -44373.3 -137.107 44179.34 62634.76 44425.99 211.8082 -44126.4 -62634.50443
-40 -36880.46272 -61879.2 -36910.6 9664.091 50581.81 61890.71 36970.97 -9590.28 -50537.71514
-30 -59587.89345 -55772.5 -59599.4 -28538.9 19227.27 55738.46 59622.32 28605.37 -19156.15634
-20 -59557.08231 -28383.5 -59545.5 -55851.7 -19464.2 28316.88 59522.29 55885.45 19535.23153
-10 -36799.78657 9836.422 -36769.6 -61851.9 -50728.4 -9910.19 36709.05 61840.11 50772.1384
0 0 44302.84 37.35093 -44250 -62635 -44355.6 -112.053 44197.1 62634.82181
10 36799.78657 61863.66 36830 -9762.64 -50640.6 -61875.3 -36890.4 9688.844 50596.58097
20 59557.08231 55817.83 59568.64 28450.06 -19322.2 -55783.9 -59591.7 -28516.6 19251.10792
30 59587.89345 28472.38 59576.37 55806.46 19369.4 -28405.8 -59553.3 -55840.3 -19440.42693
40 36880.46272 -9737.89 36850.27 61867.57 50669.78 9811.678 -36789.8 -61855.9 -50713.65743
50 99.75581542 -44232.3 62.40492 44320.54 62634.99 44285.12 12.29693 -44267.7 -62634.98032

Force (t=0) Force(t=1) Force(t=2) Force(t=3)


Force(t=4) Force(t=5) Force(t=6) Force(t=7)
80000

40000

0
-55 -50 -45 -40 -35 -30 -25 -20 -15 -10 -5 0 5 10 15 20 25 30 35 40 45 50 55

-40000

-80000

All above force values are in N.


Answer 2:-

The velocity potential function of the wave is given as


{ ( )}
𝜙(𝑥, 𝑧; 𝑡) = sin(𝑘𝑥 − 𝜔𝑡)
( )

We know Hydrodynamic Pressure in linearized form is,



P = −𝜌

𝑎𝑔 cosh{𝑘(ℎ+𝑧)}
𝑃 = −𝜌 ( sin(𝑘𝑥 − 𝜔𝑡) )
𝜔 cosh(𝑘ℎ)

cosh{𝑘(ℎ+𝑧)}
P = 𝜌𝑎𝑔 cos(𝑘𝑥 − 𝜔𝑡)
cosh(𝑘ℎ)

The diameter at the mean water surface line can be calculated as

DMWL = DMIN + (slope. 10)

DMWL = 0.875 m

The variation of D w.r.t ‘z’ from the mean free surface can be expressed as

D = 0.875 + (0.01875. z)

The hydrodynamic force acts on the projected are given by ‘D.L’

Hence the loading i.e force per unit length can be written as
cosh{𝑘(ℎ+𝑧)}
W= = 𝜌𝑎𝑔 cos(𝑘𝑥 − 𝜔𝑡) . 𝐷
cosh(𝑘ℎ)

cosh{𝑘(ℎ+𝑧)}
W = 𝜌𝑎𝑔(0.875 + (0.01875. 𝑧)) cos(𝑘𝑥 − 𝜔𝑡)
cosh(𝑘ℎ)

Substituting the values gives us;

W = 0.0027712 * (0.875 + 0.01875z) cosh{0.502655(30 + 𝑧)} cos(0.502655𝑥 − 2.220595𝑡)

Here x has the value of -DMWL /2

The table below gives the points for plot.


t 0 0.608277 1.216554 2.02483 2.633107
z
0 4292.490714 -1.19453E-08 -4292.37653 8.814E-07 4292.715031
-3 889.102325 -2.47423E-09 -889.078674 1.82564E-07 889.1487877
-6 183.2902664 -5.10067E-10 -183.285391 3.7636E-08 183.2998448
-9 37.58003128 -1.04579E-10 -37.5790316 7.71651E-09 37.58199514
-12 7.656162812 -2.13059E-11 -7.65595915 1.57208E-09 7.656562908
-15 1.548105896 -4.30813E-12 -1.54806472 3.17881E-10 1.548186797
-18 0.310225157 -8.63307E-13 -0.3102169 6.37002E-11 0.310241369
-21 0.06149177 -1.71122E-13 -0.06149013 1.26264E-11 0.061494984
-24 0.012048271 -3.35284E-14 -0.01204795 2.47394E-12 0.0120489
-27 0.002421592 -6.7389E-15 -0.00242153 4.97238E-13 0.002421719
-30 0.000866109 -2.41024E-15 -0.00086609 1.77843E-13 0.000866154

0 Force(t=0)
-5000 -4000 -3000 -2000 -1000 0 1000 2000 3000 4000 5000
Force(t=0.608277)
-5
Force(t=1.216554)
-10
Force(t=2.02483)

-15 Force(t=2.633107)

-20

-25

-30

-35

The ocean tower being clamped at the base can be considered as a cantilever beam.

Since we know the equation for distribution of hydrodynamic force,

W = 0.0027712* (0.875 + 0.01875z) cosh{0.502655(30 + 𝑧)} cos(0.502655𝑥 − 2.220595𝑡)

We integrate the above expression w.r.t ‘z’ to get an equation for the Shear force.

SF = 0.0027712* cos(0.502655𝑥 − 2.220595𝑡){[(1.7407+0.0373z)sinh(0.502655(30+z))]-


0.0742cosh(0.502655(30+z))} + C1

Here SF(z=0) = 0

0 = 0.0027712* cos(0.502655𝑥 − 2.220595𝑡)(570197178.3 – 20016383.89 ) + C1

SF = 0.0027712* cos(−0.22 − 2.220595𝑡){[(1.7407+0.0373z)sinh(0.502655(30+z))]-0.0742cosh(0.502655(30+z)-


2950372.50}
t 0 0.608277 1.216554 2.02483 2.633107
z
0 1.14441E-06 6.97295E-11 -1.14438E-06 4.61844E-09 1.14539E-06
-3 -6487.173828 -0.39526715 6487.001264 -26.17998129 -6492.752014
-6 -7828.557967 -0.47699844 7828.349722 -31.59334196 -7835.289582
-9 -8104.542419 -0.49381432 8104.326832 -32.70711939 -8111.511347
-12 -8160.998099 -0.4972542 8160.78101 -32.93495491 -8168.015571
-15 -8172.468851 -0.49795312 8172.251457 -32.98124689 -8179.496187
-18 -8174.780843 -0.49809399 8174.563387 -32.99057728 -8181.810167
-21 -8175.242348 -0.49812211 8175.024881 -32.99243976 -8182.272069
-24 -8175.33342 -0.49812766 8175.11595 -32.99280729 -8182.363219
-27 -8175.35129 -0.49812875 8175.13382 -32.99287941 -8182.381105
-30 -8175.355376 -0.498129 8175.137905 -32.9928959 -8182.385194

The plot obtained is as below:-

0
-10000 -8000 -6000 -4000 -2000 0 2000 4000 6000 8000 10000
SF(t=0)
-5

SF(t=0.608277)
-10

-15
SF(t=1.216554)

-20
SF(t=2.02483)

-25

SF(t=2.633107)
-30

-35

The plots at t = 0 and and t =2.633107 overlap as it is a cycle repetition. Also plot at t=0.608277 and t=2.02483 overlap.

The above equation on integration gives the Bending moment.

BM = 0.0027712* cos(−0.22 − 2.220595𝑡){[(3.463+0.0736z)cosh(0.502655(30+z))]-0.29404sinh(0.502655(30+z)-


2950372.50z – 5609130.519}
t 0 0.608277 1.216554 2.02483 2.633107
z
0 6.90214E-08 4.20552E-12 -6.90196E-08 2.78547E-10 6.90808E-08
-3 12181.57188 0.742230018 -12181.24784 49.16059479 12192.04656
-6 34161.75695 2.081495044 -34160.84823 137.8649905 34191.13194
-9 58165.59354 3.544062293 -58164.04629 234.736141 58215.60893
-12 82585.20664 5.031963038 -82583.00981 333.2852213 82656.21994
-15 107089.7329 6.52503759 -107086.8842 432.1769815 107181.8171
-18 131611.4787 8.019161341 -131607.9778 531.138234 131724.6487
-21 156136.6873 9.513496077 -156132.5339 630.1134609 156270.946
-24 180662.5852 11.00787281 -180657.7794 729.0914696 180817.9332
-27 205188.6188 12.50225782 -205183.1607 828.0700262 205365.0563
-30 229714.6799 13.9966445 -229708.5693 927.0486934 229912.2068

0
-300000 -200000 -100000 0 100000 200000 300000

-5

-10

BM(t=0)
-15 BM(t=0.608277)
Bm(t=1.216554)
-20 BM(t=2.02483)
BM(t=2.633107)

-25

-30

-35

The plots at t = 0 and and t =2.633107 overlap as it is a cycle repetition. Also plot at t=0.608277 and t=2.02483 overlap.

The maximum bending moment is around 230000 N-m which is at the base of the pile foundation and hence
the maximum bending stress can be calculated using the stress-moment relation.

𝜎= 𝑦

Hence the maximum stress comes around 3.769 N/mm^2.

Now to calculate the maximum shear stress let us use the below expression-
. .
τ=
.
The maximum shear force is F= 8200 N at the base. By substituting the relevant data,

Calculating Shear Stresses

F 8200 N
A 0.1244 m^2
z 1.00 m
I 0.061 m^4
t 0.04 m
τ 418065.6 N/m^2
0.041807 N/mm^2

τ = 0.084 N/mm^2
Answer 3

Following are the details of the TLP given

L = 10 m

B=8m

H= 5 m

T=3m

Buoyancy Force Fb = 1.1* Weight

Displacement = ρ* L*B*T = 246000 kg

Fb = 1.1* 246000*9.81 = 2654586 N

Length of tendons l = 50 m

Diameter of the tendons d = 0.2 m

Let us model the tendons as simply supported beams.

Also it is said that the velocity is sinusoidal in nature with the maximum value at the water surface and zero at
the sea bed.

Since velocity direction is from +x to –x, hence we must incorporate a negative sign to indicate the direction of
flow.
( )
So U =- 0.5* sin( )

Since there is stagnation after the current passes.

Applying Bernoulli’s principle we get

ϪP = ρ𝑈

( )
ϪP = 128.125* sin2 ( )

Hence the small force acting on the tendons over a distance dz can be written as
( )
𝑑𝐹 = ϪP.dz = 128.125* sin2 ( ) dz

Hence the loading is given as


( )
w = 128.125* sin2 ( )

Double integrating the above equation gives us


BM = 64.0625{ + ( ) cos( (53 + 𝑧))} + c1.z + c2

Applying the boundary condition BM(0) = 0 and BM(z=-53) = 0, we get

C2 = 64.0625 * ( )

C1 = 64.0625*31.89

BM = 64.0625{ + 37.24𝑧 + ( ) [cos( (53 + 𝑧)] + 1)}

z U ϪP BM
0 -0.5 128.125 0
-5 -0.49452009 125.3319 -10332.7
-10 -0.47820049 117.1963 -17543.3
-15 -0.45139891 104.4275 -21833.7
-20 -0.41470284 88.13895 -23520.8
-25 -0.36891664 69.75099 -23008.8
-30 -0.31504392 50.86699 -20754
-35 -0.25426556 33.13362 -17225.2
-40 -0.18791379 18.09719 -12862.4
-45 -0.11744302 7.068843 -8038.72
-50 -0.04439795 1.010229 -3027.96
-53 0 0 0.154372
BM 24000 N-m
z 0.000785 m^3
σ 30557749 N/m^2
30.55775 N/mm^2

We get maximum bending moment as BMmax = 23520 N-m

Let us take 24000 N-m.

So Maximum bending stress is 30.55775 N/mm2 at z=-20 m i.e 20 metres below the mean water surface.

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