Mat & Sat-08

MOCK TEST-1213-ELEVATE-CC-NTSE-STAGE-I-(TEST NO.
-08)-MAT & SAT-2
MAT SECTION – I
Straight Objective Type
This Section contains 100 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 100. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. In this series 357, 363, 369, ….., what will be the 10th term?
(A) 405 (B) 411 (C) 413 (D) 417
2. How many terms are there in the series 201, 208, 215, ….., 369 ?
(A) 23 (B) 24 (C) 25 (D) 26
3. In the series 7, 14, 28, ……., what will be the 10 th term?

(A) 1792 (B) 2456 (C) 3584 (D) 4096
4. In the series 10, 17, 24, 31, 38, ……which of the following will be a number of the series?
(A) 48 (B) 346 (C) 574 (D) 1003
5. Which of the following will not be a number of the series 1, 8, 27, 64, 125, ….?
(A) 256 (B) 512 (C) 729 (D) 1000
6. In the series 3, 9, 15, ……., what will be the 21st term?

(A) 117 (B) 121 (C) 123 (D) 129
7. In the series 2, 6, 18, 54, …., what will be the 8th term?
(A) 4370 (B) 4374 (C) 7443 (D) 7434
8. Which term of the series 5, 8, 11, 14, …. is 320?

(A) 104th (B) 105th (C) 106th (D) 64th
9. Which term of the series 5,10, 20, 40, …..is 1280 ?

(A) 10th (B) 9th (C) 8th (D) Can’t be determined
Direction (10-15): Find the wrong term in the following series.
10. 1, 2, 5, 10, 17, 28

(A) 5 (B) 28 (C) 10 (D) 17
Space for rough work
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MOCK TEST-1213-ELEVATE-CC-NTSE-STAGE-I-(TEST NO.-08)-MAT & SAT-3
11. 1, 5, 11, 19, 29, 55

(A) 55 (B) 11 (C) 29 (D) 19
12. 2, 3, 5, 8, 13, 34
(A) 5 (B) 8 (C) 13 (D) 34
13. 0, 3, 8, 15, 24, 33

(A) 8 (B) 15 (C) 24 (D) 33
14. 1, 5, 14, 30, 55, 93

(A) 30 (B) 55 (C) 93 (D) 14
15. 1CV, 5FU, 9IT, 15LS, 17OR

(A) 5FY (B) 15LS (C) 9IT (D) 17OR
Direction (16-23): Find the missing term in following series.
16. A, CD, GHI, ?, UVWXY

(A) LMNO (B) MNO (C) MNOP (D) NOPQ
17. AYBZC, DWEXF, GUHVI, JSKTL, ?

(A) MQORN (B) MQNRO (C) NQMOR (D) QMONR
18. PERPENDICULAR, ERPENDICULA, RPENDICUL,?

(A) PENDICUL (B) PENDIC (C) ENDIC (D PENDICU
19. ATTRIBUTION, TTRIBUTIO, RIBUTIO, IBUTI, ?

(A) IBU (B) UT (C) UTI (D) BUT
20. ADVENTURE, DVENTURE, DVENTUR, ?, VENTU

(A) DVENT (B) VENTURE (C) VENTUR (D) DVENTU
21. Q1F, S2E, U6D, W21C, ?

(A) Y44B (B) Y66B (C) Y88B (D) Z88B
22. 2A11, 4D13, 12G17, ?

(A) 36I19 (B) 36J21 (C) 48J21 (D) 48J23
23. J2Z, K4X, I7V, ?, H16R, M22P

(A) I11T (B) L11S (C) L12T (D) L11T
Direction (24-28): Which sequence of letter when placed at the blanks one after another will complete
the given letter series ?
24. ccbab _ caa _ bccc _ a _

(A) babb (B) bbba (C) baab (D) babc
25. a _ c _ abb _ a _ bc _ bc _ ab
(A) cbcaaa (B) bcccab (C) bccaac (D) acbabc
26. b _ b _ bb _ bbb _ _ bb _ b
(A) bbbbba (B) bbaaab (C) ababab (D) aabaab
27. a _ bc _ c _ abb _ bca _

(A) cccbc (B) cbbac (C) accba (D) abbba
28. _c _ bd _ cbcda _ a _ db _ a
(A) adabcd (B) cdbbca (C) daabbc (D) bdbcba
Direction (29 - 33): In each of the following questions, there are two words/set of letters/ number to the
left of the sign :: which are connected in some way. The same relationship obtains between the third
words/set of letters/numbers and one of the four alternatives under it. Find the correct alternative in each
question.
29. Ludhiana : Hosiery :: Surat : ?

(A) Silk (B) Textile (C) Pottery (D) Wool
30. Dettol : Antiseptic :: Phenyl : ?

(A) Deodorant (B) Preservative (C) Antidote (D) Detergent
31. Current : Circuit :: Earth : ?

(A) Planet (B) Solar system (C) Orbit (D) Path
32. Circus : Entertainment :: Temple : ?

(A) Deity (B) Worship (C) Divotion (D) Donation
33. Chanakya : Politician :: Kalidasa : ?

(A) Literature (B) Sanskrit (C) Vikramaditya (D) Dramatist
Direction (34 - 38): In each of the following questions, there are two set of letters which are connected in
some way. The same relationship obtains between the third & fourth set of letters. Find the correct set in
each question from given four set of alternatives.
34. BC : FG :
(A) PQ : ST (B) HI : LM (C) AD : PQ (D) JK : LM
35. OT : PS :
(A) TV : SW (B) IL : HK (C) PN : QM (D) BE : FC
36. MN : OP
(A) AD : GH (B) AB : PQ (C) QR : ST (D) RS : TV
37. CEH : IKN

(A) ACD : FHJ (B) CDF : IJK (C) EFH : KMN (D) OQT : UWZ
38. LLAMS : SMALL

(A) SRENID : DINERS (B) CHART : TRACH
(C) BARK : KRAB (D) TREE : EERT
Directions (39-43): In each of the following questions, four pairs of words are given, out of which the
words in three pairs bear a certain common relationship. Choose the pair in which the words are
differently related.
39. (A) Shoe : Leather (B) Iron : Axe (C) Table : Wood (D) Jewellery : Gold
40. (A) Mason : Wall (B) Cobbler : Shoe (C) Farmer : Crop (D) Chef : Cook
41. (A) Daring : Tamid (B) Beautiful : Pretty (C) Clear : Vague (D) Youth : Adult
42. (A) See : Eye (B) Hear : Ears (C) Smell : Nose (D) Taste : Teeth
43. (A) Bottle : Wine (B) Cup : Tea (C) Pitcher : Water (D) Ball : Bat
Direction (44-48): The hundred cells in the square below have been filled with letters. The columns and
the rows are identified by the numbers 0 to 9. A letter in a cell is represented first by its column number
and then by its row number e.g., G in column 3 and row 1 is represented by 31. In each of the following
questions, a word has been given which is represented by one of the four alternatives given under it. Find
the correct alternative.
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
0 I L B P K N H S A E
1 M A Q G T V I O N U
2 H R W J A X B E C I
3 T Y A I U U O N J F
4 F O B M E G U K W R
5 A C L J X R A A X T
6 P S U E Z K V W D L
7 Z D Y V F O H Y I O
8 M I Z Q E A U E I S
9 P E O D E U Q O C G
44. MIND
(A) 01, 61, 73, 36 (B) 08, 61, 55, 44 (C) 34, 33, 50, 17 (D) 73, 33, 61, 17
45. JAIL
(A) 32, 05, 25, 44 (B) 32, 05, 87, 96 (C) 35, 23, 26, 33 (D) 83, 65, 25, 44
46. BLOT
(A) 20, 10, 71, 22 (B) 24, 10, 26, 48 (C) 34, 35, 63, 03 (D) 62, 25, 57, 95
47. JOKE
(A) 32, 14, 56, 44 (B) 35, 14, 37, 78 (C) 83, 63, 40, 59 (D) 83, 71, 25, 36
48. OMIT
(A) 14, 34, 88, 95 (B) 63, 44, 88, 03 (C) 79, 09, 61, 41 (D) 97, 34, 62, 95
Direction (49-52): These questions are based on the following information : In a certain code language
I. ‘sti nro kti’ stands for ‘clouds pour down’;
II. ‘nro bsi mit’ stands for ‘down he goes’; and
III. ‘bsi nro zpi’ stands for ‘died down he’.
In each of the following questions, a word is given. Find out which of the above statements is/are
required to find the exact code of the given word.
49. Goes
(A) I and II (B) II and III (C) I, II and III (D) II only
50. He
(A) I and II (B) II and III (C) I and III (D) I, II and III
51. Down
(A) I and II (B) I and III (C) II and III (D) Either (A) or (B)
52. Died
(A) I and II (B) II and III (C) I and III (D) I, II and III
Direction (53-55): Read the following information and answer the questions given below :
A is the son of B. C, B’s sister, has a son D and a daughter E. F is the maternal uncle of D.
53. How is A related to D?

(A) Cousin (B) Nephew (C) Uncle (D) Brother
54. How is E related to F?

(A) Sister (B) Daughter (C) Niece (D) Wife
55. How many nephews does F have?

(A) Nil (B) One (C) Two (D) Three
Direction (56-57): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below :
‘P # Q’ means ‘P is the father of Q’
‘P + Q’ means ‘P is the mother of Q’
‘P – Q’ means ‘P is the brother of ‘Q’
‘P * Q’ means ‘P is the sister of Q’.
56. If A + B # C – D, then A is D’s :

(A) Aunt (B) grand mother (C) grand father (D) uncle
57. Which of the following shows that A is the aunt of E?

(A) A + B – C * D # E (B) A # B * C + D – E
(C) A * B # C *D – E (D) A – B + C # D * E
Direction (58-61): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below :
Six persons A,B,C,D,E and F are sitting in two opposite rows, there in each three persons.
E is not at the end of any row.
D is second to the left of F.
C the neighbour of E, is sitting diagonally opposite to D.
B is the neighbour of F.
58. Which of the following are sitting diagonally opposite to each other?
(A) F and C (B) D and A (C) A and C (D) A and F
59. Which of the following are in the same row?

(A) A and E (B) E and D (C) C and B (D) A and B
60. Which of the following are in one of the two rows?

(A) FBC (B) CEB (C) DBF (D) AEF
61. After interchanging seat D with E, who will be the neighbours of D in the new position.
(A) C and A (B) F and B (C) Only B (D) Only A
Direction (62-66): In the figure given below, there are three intersecting circles each representing certain
section of people. Different regions are marked a to g. Read the statements in each of the following
questions and choose the letter of the region which correctly represents the statement.
62. Chinese who are painters but not musicians :

(A) b (B) c (C) d (D) g
63. Painters who are neither Chinese nor musicians :

(A) b (B) c (C) f (D) g
64. Chinese who are musicians but not painters :

(A) d (B) c (C) b (D) a
65. Chinese who are painters as well as musicians :

(A) a (B) b (C) c (D) d
66. Musicians who are painter but not Chinese :

(A) b (B) e (C) f (D) g
Direction (67-69): Answer these questions based on the set of numbers given below :
738, 429, 156, 273, 894
67. Which of the following will be the last digit of the second highest number after the positions of the
digits in each number is reversed?
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 7
68. What will be the difference between the first digit of the highest number as well as of the lowest
number after the positions of the first two digits in each number are reversed?
(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 7
69. Which of the following will be the second digit of the third number from the top when they are
arranged in descending order, after the first digit in each number is changed to its next higher
digit?
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 5 (D) 7
Directions (70-74): Each of the following questions consists of four figures marked 1, 2, 3 and 4 which
constitute the Problem Set followed by four other figures marked A, B, C and D which constitute the
answer Set. Figures (1) and (2) are related in a particular manner. Establish a similar relationship
between figures (3) and (4) by choosing a figure from the Answer Set that would best substitute fig. (4) in
the problem set.
PROBLEM FIGURES ANSWER FIGURES

70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
Direction (75-79): A cube painted red on two adjacent faces and black on the faces opposite to the red
faces and green on the remaining faces, is cut into sixty-four smaller cubes of equal size.
75. How many cubes are there which have no face painted ?
(A) 0 (B) 4 (C) 8 (D) 16
76. How many cubes have only one face painted ?

(A) 8 (B) 16 (C) 24 (D) 32
77. How many cubes have less than three faces painted ?
(A) 56 (B) 24 (C) 28 (D) 48
78. How many cubes are there with three faces pained ?
(A) 4 (B) 8 (C) 16 (D) 24
79. How many cubes have one face green and only one of the adjacent faces black or red ?
(A) 8 (B) 16 (C) 24 (D) 28
Direction (80-82): Six dices with their top faces erased have been given. The opposite faces of the dices
have dots which add up to thirteen. Work out the number of dots on the top faces, according to the
question and spot your answer from amongst the given alternatives.
80. If the odd numbered dices have even number of dots at their bottom faces, what would be the
total number of dots ?
(A) 20 (B) 22 (C) 24 (D) 18
81. If even numbered dices have odd number of dots at their top faces, what would be the total
number of dots?
(A) 19 (B) 18 (C) 16 (D) 21
82. If dices II, V and VI have even number of dots at their bottom faces, what would be the total
number of dots?
(A) 18 (B) 20 (C) 16 (D) 24
Direction (83 - 87): Find the missing character in each of the following questions.
83.
(A) 5 (B) 19 (C) 27 (D) 89
84.
(A) 11E (B) 28G (C) 35L (D) 48F
85.
(A) 4 (B) 10 (C) 6 (D) 7
86.
(A) 28 (B) 36 (C) 48 (D) 42
87.
(A) 12 (B) 25 (C) 48 (D) 52
Direction (88 – 91): In the following questions :

 means ‘is equal to’
 means ‘is not equal to’
+ means ‘is greater than’
– means ‘is less than’
× means ‘is not greater than’
 means ‘is not less than’
Now select the correct alternative in each of the following questions :
88. a – b – c implies :
(A) a – b + c (B) b + a – c (C) c × b + a (D) b + a  c
89. a + b  c implies :
(A) b – c – a (B) c – b + a (C) c + b – a (D) c × b – a
90. a × b  c implies that :

(A) a – b + c (B) c × b  a (C) a  b  c (D) b  a  c
91. a + b + c does not imply :

(A) b – a + c (B) c – b – a (C) c – a + b (D) b – a – c
92. If ’20 – 10’ means 200, ‘8  4’ means 12, ‘6 × 2’ means 4 and ’12 + 3’ means 4, then
100 – 10 × 1000  1000 + 100 × 10 = ?
(A) 1090 (B) 0 (C) 1900 (D) 20
Direction (93 – 97): The following five questions are based on the following diagram in which, the triangle
represents female graduates, small circle represents self-employed females and the big circle represents
self-employed females with bank loan facility. Number are shown in the different sections of the diagram,
which represent number of females lies in different sections. On the basis of these numbers, answer the
questions :
93. How many female graduates are self-employed ?

(A) 12 (B) 13 (C) 15 (D) 20
94. How many female graduates are not self-employed ?

(A) 4 (B) 10 (C) 12 (D) 15
95. How many non-graduate females are self-employed ?

(A) 9 (B) 11 (C) 12 (D) 21
96. How many self-employed female graduates are with bank loan facility ?
(A) 5 (B) 7 (C) 12 (D) 20
97. How many non-graduate self-employed females are with bank loan facility ?
(A) 3 (B) 8 (C) 9 (D) 12
Directions (98 – 100): Six products U, V W, X, Y and Z are to be placed in display windows of a shop.
There are six display windows – numbered 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and one produced is to be put in one window.
Morecover, U cannot be immediately to the left or immediately to the right of V. W must be immediately to
the left of X. Z cannot be in window number 6 :
98. Which of the following products cannot be placed in window no. 1 ?

(A) U (B) V (C) W (D) X
99. If X is placed in window no. 3, then W must be placed in which window ?

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 5
100. If U is placed in window no. 5, then which of the following products must be placed in window
no. 6 ?
(A) V (B) W (C) X (D) Y
SAT SECTION – II
Straight Objective Type
This Section contains 100 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 100. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. A stone is attached to one end of a string and rotated in a vertical circle. If

string breaks at the position of maximum tension, it will break at :
(A) A (B) B
(C) C (D) D
2. An object is magnified 10 times using a lens of focal length f when the image is projected on the
screen. The distance of the screen from the lens is :
10 f
(A) f (B) (C) 11 f (D) 10 f
11 10
3. A beam of electrons moving at a speed of 10 6 m/s along a line produces a current of 1.6 × 10 –6 A.
The number of electrons in 1 metre of the beam is :
(A) 106 (B) 107 (C) 1013 (D) 1019
4. The variation of speed of sound in a gas with its pressure is best represented by curve :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
5. A is singing a note and at the same time B is singing a note with exactly one-eighth the frequency
of note of A. The energies of two sounds are equal, the amplitude of note of B is :
(A) same as that of A (B) twice as that of A
(C) four times as that of A (D) eight times as that of A
6. Elevation of a cloud is 60º above the horizon. A thunder is heard 8 sec. after the observations of
lightning. The speed of sound is 330 m/s. The vertical height of cloud from the ground is :
(A) 8 ´ 330 m (B) 8 ´ 330 sin 60º m
(C) 8 ´ 330 cos 60º m (D) 8 ´ 330 tan 60º m
7. One face of a rectangular glass plate of thickness 6 cm is silvered. An object is placed at a

distance of 8 cm in front of the unsilvered face. Its image is formed 10 cm behind the silvered
face. The refractive index of glass plate is :
(A) 5/3 (B) 4/3 (C) 7/6 (D) 1.5
8. A photo-slide containing a picture of a triangle ABC is to be projected on

a screen by means of a convex lens. The vertex A is at the top (fig). The
mount containing the slide must be placed with its side facing the
projector as shown :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
9. A body is projected vertically upward from point A, the top of the tower. It reaches the ground in t 1
seconds. If it is projected vertically downwards from A with the same velocity, it reaches the
ground in t2 sec. If it falls freely from A, it would reach the ground in :
t t t t
(A) 1 2 sec (B) 1 2 sec (C) t1t2 sec (D) (t1t 2 ) sec
2 2
10. Two masses of 10 kg and 40 kg respectively are tied together

by a massless spring. A force of 400 N is applied on a 40 kg
mass as shown in the fig. At the instant shown the acceleration
of 10 kg mass is 20 m/s2, the acceleration of 40 kg mass is :
(A) 0 (B) 10 m/s2 (C) 5 m/s2 (D) 20 m/s2
11. A machine, which is 75% efficient uses 12 J of energy in lifting up a 1 kg mass through a certain
distance. The mass is then allowed to fall through that distance. The velocity of the ball at the end
of its fall is :
(A) (24) m / s (B) (32) m / s (C) (18) m / s (D) 3 m/s
12. As we go from the equator to the poles, the value of g :

(A) remains the same (B) decreases
(C) increases (D) decreases upto a latitude of 45º
13. Two cubes each weighing exactly 20 g are taken-one of iron (density = 8 ´ 103 kg/m3) and other of
marble (density = 3 ´ 103 kg/m3). If they are immersed in alcohol and weighed again :
(A) both will still weigh the same
(B) weight of both will decrease by an equal amount
(C) iron cube will weigh more than the marble cube
(D) iron cube will weigh less than the marble cube
12
14. The minimum energy needed to break carbon 6 C into three -particles :
Mass of 12
6 C =12.0000, mass of -particle 4.0038.
(A) 10.6 MeV (B) 1.06 MeV (C) 5.3 MeV (D) 3.53 MeV
15. A dilute ferrous sulphate solution was gradually added to the beaker containing acidified
permanganate solution. The light purplecolour of the solution fades and finally disappears. Which
of the following is the correct explanation for the observation?
(A) KMnO4 is an oxidising agent, it oxidises FeSO4
(B) FeSO4 acts as an oxidising agent and oxidises KMnO4
(C) The colour disappears due to dilution; no reaction is involved
(D) KMnO4 is an unstable compound and decomposes in presence of FeSO 4 to a colourless
compound.
16. Which among the following statement(s) is (are) true? Exposure of silver chloride to sunlight for a
long duration turns grey due to :
(i) the formation of silver by decomposition of silver chloride
(ii) sublimation of silver chloride
(iii) decomposition of chlorine gas from silver chloride
(iv) oxidation of silver chloride
(A) (i) only (B) (i) and (iii) (C) (ii) and (iii) (D) (iv) only
17. An aqueous solution turns red litmus solution blue. Excess addition of which of the following
solution would reverse the change?
(A) Baking powder (B) Lime
(C) Ammonium hydroxide solution (D) Hydrochloric acid
18. During the preparation of hydrogen chloride gas on a humid day, the gas is usually passed
through the guard tube containing calcium chloride. The role of calcium chloride taken in the
guard tube is to
(A) Absorb the evolved gas (B) Moisten the gas
(C) Absorb moisture from the gas (D) Absorb Cl– ions from the evolved gas
19. If copper is kept open in air, it slowly loses its shining brown surface and gains a green coating. It
is due to the formation of
(A) CuSO4 (B) CuCO3 (C) Cu(NO3)2 (D) CuO
20. Oils on treating with hydrogen in the presence of palladium or nickel catalyst form fats. This is an
example of
(A) Addition reaction (B) Substitution reaction
(C) Displacement reaction (D) Oxidation reaction
21. Ethanol reacts with sodium and forms two products. These are
(A) Sodium ethanoate and hydrogen
(B) Sodium ethanoate and oxygen
(C) Sodium ethoxide and hydrogen
(D) Sodium ethoxide and oxygen
22. Which of the following acids does not give hydrogen gas on reacting with metals (except Mn
and Mg)?
(A) H2SO4 (B) HCl (C) HNO3 (D) All of these
23. Arrange the following elements in the order of their decreasing metallic character Na, Si, Cl,
Mg, Al
(A) Cl> Si >Al > Mg >Na (B) Na >Mg >Al >Si >Cl
(C) Na > Al > Mg >Cl> Si (D) Al > Na> Si >Ca> Mg
24. The element with atomic number 14 is hard and forms acidic oxide and a covalent halide. To
which of the following categories does the element belong?
(A) Metal (B) Metalloid
(C) Non-metal (D) Left-hand side element
25. A student heats a beaker containing ice and water. He measures the temperature of the content
of the beaker as a function of time. Which of the following figure would correctly represent the
result?
26. A mixture of sulphur and carbon disulphide is :

(A) Heterogeneous and shows Tyndall effect
(B) Homogeneous and shows Tyndall effect
(C) Heterogeneous and does not show Tyndall effect
(D) Homogeneous and does not show Tyndall effect
27. Which of the following would weigh the highest?

(A) 0.2 mole of sucrose (C12 H22 O11) (B) 2 moles of CO2
(C) 2 moles of CaCO3 (D) 10 moles of H2O
28. Rutherford’s –particle scattering experiment showed that :

(i) electrons have negative charge
(ii) the mass and positive charge of the atom is concentrated in the nucleus
(iii) neutron exists in the nucleus
(iv) most of the space in atom is empty
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) (i) and (iii) (B) (ii) and (iv) (C) (i) and (iv) (D) (iii) and (iv)
29. Name the connective tissue found in bone marrow ?

(A) Ligament (B) Cartilage (C) Areolar tissue (D) Tendon
30. Which of these is not stored in the leucoplast ?

(A) Carbohydrates (B) Coloured pigments (C) Proteins (D) Fats
31. Why female anopheles mosquito feeds on human blood ?

(A) Because it requires proteins from human blood for maturation of its eggs
(B) Because it derives nutrition from human blood
(C) Because human blood is rich source of iron for it
(D) None of them
32. Characteristics given in the following table represent which of the following pair of families?
Character Family 1 Family 2
1. Skin Smooth and moist Keratinised & Hairy
2. Heart Three chambered Four chambered
3. Fertilization External Internal
(A) Mammalia, Amphibia (B) Amphibia, Mammalia
(C) Reptilia, Aves (D) Aves, Reptilia
33. Which of the following statements is wrong ?

(A) Phloem possess mainly living cells
(B) Prokaryotic cells contain single chromosome
(C) Ribosomes are found both in eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells
(D) Robert Hooke gave the phrase “Omnis cellula - e - cellula”.
34. The budding in yeast is illustrated by the diagram?
I II III IV
(A) I (B) II (C) III (D) IV
35. A cross between two individuals results in the ratio of 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 for four possible phenotypes of
progeny. This is an example of a :
(A) Dihybrid cross (B) Monohybrid cross
(C) Test cross (D) None of these
36. In the given food chain suppose the amount of energy at fourth trophic level is 5KJ, what will be
the energy available at the producer level?
Grass  Grasshopper  Frog  Snake  Hawk
(A) 5 KJ (B) 50 KJ (C) 500 KJ (D) 5000 KJ
37. If a person has lost most of its intelligence, memory and judgment, which part of his brain is likely
to have been operated for a tumour?
(A) Cerebellum (B) Cerebrum
(C) Medulla Oblongata (D) Diencephalon
38. Unlike cabbage, sunflower plant has long internode with leaves that are far apart, possible reason
for this is:
(A) It produces sufficient amount of Gibberallins during its growing period
(B) Due to elongation of stem cells by the production of cytokinins
(C) Suppression of growth of auxillary buds by Auxins
(D) All of them
39. Given below are a few statements related to biodiversity. Pick those that correctly describe the
concept of biodiversity.
(A) Biodiversity refers to the different species of flora and fauna present in an area.
(B) Biodiversity refers to only the flora of a given area
(C) Biodiversity is lowest in a forest
(D) Biodiversity refers to the total number of individuals of a particular species living in an area
40. Find the correct option which correctly represent the match of column I with column II.
Column-I Column-II
(A) Plastic (P) A. K. Banerjee
(B) Protection of khejri trees (Q) Chipko Andolan
(C) Protection of sal forest (R) Recycle
(D) Hug the trees movement (S) Amrita Devi
(A) A - R, B - S, C - P, D - Q (B) A - S, B - R, C - P, D - Q
(C) A - Q, B - P, C - S, D - R (D) A - P, B - Q, C - R, D – S
*41. The least number which is a perfect square and is divisible by each of 16, 20 and 24 is :
(A) 240 (B) 160 (C) 2400 (D) 3600
42. The number 313 – 310 is divisible by :

(A) 2 and 3 (B) 3 and 10 (C) 2, 3 and 10 (D) 2, 3 and 13
43. Lowest value of x2 + 4x + 2 is :

(A) 2 (B) –2 (C) 1 (D) 4
44. Maximum value of 2 – 4x – x2 is :

(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 8
45. x & y are 2 different digits. If the sum of the two digit numbers formed by using both the digits is a
perfect square, then value of x + y is :
(A) 10 (B) 11 (C) 12 (D) 13
46. In a number of two digits, unit’s digit is twice the tens digit. If 36 be added to the number, the
digits are reversed. The number is :
(A) 36 (B) 63 (C) 48 (D) 84
a b
47. The value of m for which the equation  = 1 has roots equal in magnitude but
x am x bm
opposite in sign is :
ab a–b 2(a – b)
(A) (B) 0 (C) (D)
a–b ab ab
48. The ratio of the roots of lx2 + nx + n = 0 is p : q, then :

q p l p q n
(A)   0 (B)   0
p q n q p l
q p l p q n
(C)   0 (D)   0
p q n q p l
49. If a, b, c, d, e, f are in A.P. then e – c is equal to :

(A) 2(c – a) (B) 2(d – c) (C) 2(f – d) (D) (d – c)
50. * The number of two digit numbers which are divisible by 3 is :

(A) 33 (B) 31 (C) 30 (D) 91
51. An isosceles triangle has a 10 inch base and two 13 inch sides. What other value can the base
have and still yield a triangle with the same area :
(A) 18” (B) 19” (C) 24” (D) 27”
52. The area of the a right angled isosceles triangle whose hypotenuse in equal to 270 m is :
(A) 19000 m2 (B) 18225 m2 (C) 17256 m2 (D) 18325 m2
53. The ratio in which the point (2, y) divides the join of (–4, 3) and (6, 3) and hence the value of y :
(A) 2 : 3, y = 3 (B) 3 : 2, y = 4 (C) 3 :2, y = 3 (D) 3 : 2, y = 2
54. The point on the X-axis which is equidistant from the points A(–2, 3) and B(5, 4) is :
(A) (0, 2) (B) (2, 0) (C) (3, 0) (D) (–2, 0)
55. If x = p sec q and y = q tan  then :

(A) x2 – y2 = p2q2 (B) x2q2 – y2p2 = pq
1
(C) x2q2 – y2p2 = 2 2 (D) x2q2 – y2p2 = p2q2
p q
56. cot x – tan x =
(A) cot 2x (B) 2 cot2 x (C) 2 cot 2x (D) cot2 2x
57. An aeroplane flying horizontally 1 km. above the ground is observed at an elevation of 60° and
after 10 seconds the elevation is observed to be 30°. The uniform speed of the aeroplane in km/h
is :
(A) 240 (B) 240 3 (C) 60 3 (D) None of these
58. If the length of the shadow of a tower is 3 times that of its height, then the angle of elevation of
the sun is :
(A) 15° (B) 30° (C) 45° (D) 60°
59. In the diagram, O is the centre of the circle and D, E and F are mid points of AB, BO and OA
respectively. If DEF = 30°, then ACB is :
(A) 30° (B) 60° (C) 90° (D) 120°
60. In the adjoining figure, PT is a tangent at point C of the circle. O is the circumcentre of ABC. If
ACP = 118°, then the measure of x is :
(A) 28° (B) 32° (C) 42° (D) 38°
61. Match list I with list II and select the correct answer using the codes given below :
List I List II
1. Biotic A. Water
2. Renewable resources B. Flora and Fauna
3. Stock C. Picnic sports
4. Community owned resources D. Wind energy
(A) 1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C (B) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
(C) 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A (D) 1-C, 2-A, 3-B, 4-D
62. Which of the following soil is ideal for growing cotton?

(A) Alluvial soil (B) Black soil (C) Red soil (D) Laterite soil
63. In which one of the following states is the terrace cultivation practised?
(A) Punjab (B) Haryana (C) Plains of U.P. (D) J & K
64. When was the “Project Tiger” launched?

(A) 1970 (B) 1973 (C) 1976 (D) 1979
65. Rearing of silk worms for the production of silk is known as....:
(A) Horti-culture (B) Seri-culture (C) Pisci-culture (D) Agri-culture
66. Which of the following known as the golden fibre?

(A) Cotton (B) Jute (C) Rubber (D) Silk
67. Slash and burn agriculture is known as ........... in North-Eastern states.
(A) Jhumming (B) Pamlou (C) Milpa (D) Bewar
68. ..................is the basic mineral and the backbone of industrial development :
(A) Iron ore (B) Bauxite ore (C) Limestone (D) Manganese
69. Which of the following is a conventional source of energy?

(i) Fire wood (ii) Coal
(iii) Petroleum (iv) Solar
(A) Only (i) and (ii) (B) Only (i), (ii) and (iii)
(C) Only (iii) and (iv) (D) All of the above
70. Which of the following energy can be produced from ocean?

(A) Tidal energy (B) Bio gas
(C) Solar energy (D) Geo-thermal energy
71. Which of the following state is the largest producer of cement?

(A) Assam (B) Gujarat (C) Goa (D) Andhra Pradesh
72. Golden quadrilateral is related to............:

(A) Roadways (B) Airways (C) Waterways (D) Railways
73. In which city Mahatma Gandhi launched a Satyagrah in 1918?

(A) Amritsar (B) Kheda (C) Ahmedabad (D) Champaran
74. The Jallianwala bagh incident took place on.........:

(A) 13th April, 1920 (B) 13th April, 1921 (C) 13th April, 1922 (D) 13th April, 1919
75. Who was the author of the book “Hind Swaraj”?

(A) Mahatma Gandhi (B) Jawaharlal Nehru
(C) Subhash Chandra Bose (D) Rabindranath Tagore
76. The Poona Pact was signed between..................and.....................:

(A) Jawaharlal Nehru – Motilal Nehru (B) Mahatma Gandhi – Lord Irwin
(C) Mahatma Gandhi – B.R. Ambedkar (D) Mahatma Gandhi – Lord Mountbatten
77. Who was the writer of ‘Vande Matram’?

(A) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay (B) Subhash Chandra Bose
(C) Rabindranath Tagore (D) Raja Ravi Verma
78. When was the First World War fought?

(A) 1910-1914 (B) 1914-1918 (C) 1918-1922 (D) 1922-1926
79. What is I.M.F. ?

(A) International Money Fund (B) International Monetary Fund
(C) International Monetary Finance (D) Indian Monetary Fund
80. Who invented the steam engine?

(A) James Watt (B) Newcomen
(C) Richard Arkwright (D) None of the above
81. Who wrote Anandmath?

(A) Rokeya Hossein (B) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay
(C) Devaki Nandan Khatri (D) Tarabhai Shindey
82. The French revolution occurred in............:

(A) 1788 (B) 1789 (C) 1790 (D) 1791
83. When did Napoleon Bonaparte crown himself as the Emperor of France?
(A) 1812 (B) 1804 (C) 1809 (D) 1800
84. Vietnam was a colony of......:

(A) Britain (B) Spain (C) Dutch (D) France
85. How many languages are included in the “Scheduled Languages”?

(A) 24 Languages (B) 22 Languages (C) 21 Languages (D) 18 Languages
86. Belgium is a small country in ____.

(A) Asia (B) Europe (C) South Africa (D) North America
87. Untouchability is abolished and its practice is forbidden by :

(A) Article 121 (B) Article 15 (C) Article 16 (D) Article 17
88. In which year, Sinhala was recognized as the official language?

(A) 1957 (B) 1956 (C) 1966 (D) 1967
89. Which of the following is provided in our Constitution for checks and balance of power between
different state functionaries ?
(A) Parliamentary form of Government (B) Federalism
(C) Secular state (D) Separation of powers
90. Federalism means :

(A) More than one level of government (B) Only one level of government
(C) Powers are in the hands of president (D) Powers are in the hands of Prime Minister
91. In 2001, the Scheduled Castes were ____% and the Scheduled Tribes were ____% of the
country’s population.
(A) 16.2, 8.2 (B) 18.2, 10.2 (C) 15.6, 20.6 (D) 10%, 8%
92. Which subject is included in Concurrent List?

(A) Foreign affairs (B) Marriage (C) Irrigation (D) Currency
93. When was Indian National Congress founded?

(A) 1885 (B) 1886 (C) 1887 (D) 1888
94. On which of the issues most of the democracies have failed?

(i) Corruption (ii) Removal of poverty
(iii) Political equality (iv) Right to vote
(A) Only (i) and (ii) (B) Only (ii) and (iii)
(C) Only (iii) and (iv) (D) All of the above
95. SPA was a ______:

(A) Seven Party Alliance of India (B) Seven Party Alliance in Nepal
(C) Separate Party Alliance in Nepal (D) Socialist Party Alliance in Nepal
96. In Barter System :

(A) Commodities were exchange (B) Money is exchange
(C) Books are exchange (D) None of these
97. Who supervises the functioning of formal sources of loans?

(A) Reserve Bank of India (B) State Bank of India
(C) Punjab National Bank (D) Yes Bank
98. Full form of W.T.O :
(A) World Tax Organisation (B) World Trade Organisation
(C) Wood Transport Organisation (D) World Transport Organisation
99. In which year, United Nations adopted the UN guidelines for consumer Protection?
(A) 1986 (B) 1985 (C) 1960 (D) 1970
100. The district level current deals with the cases involving claims upto :
(A) Rs. 20 Lakhs (B) Rs. 30 Lakhs (C) Rs. 50 Lakhs (D) Rs. 60 Lakhs
FIITJEE MOCK TEST

(TEST NO. – 08)
ELEVATE
Crash Course for NTSE Stage-I
(MAT)
ANSWERS
1. B 2. C 3. C 4. B
5. A 6. C 7. B 8. C
9. B 10. B 11. A 12. D
13. D 14. C 15. B 16. C
17. B 18. D 19. C 20. C
21. C 22. D 23. D 24. A
25. C 26. C 27. C 28. A
29. B 30. A 31. C 32. B
33. D 34. B 35. C 36. C
37. D 38. A 39. B 40. D
41. B 42. D 43. D 44. C
45. B 46. D 47. A 48. A
49. B 50. D 51. D 52. D
53. A 54. C 55. C 56. B
57. C 58. D 59. A 60. C
61. A 62. A 63. C 64. A
65. C 66. B 67. D 68. D
69. A 70. D 71. D 72. C
73. A 74. C 75. C 76. C
77. A 78. B 79. B 80. A
81. D 82. C 83. D 84. B
85. B 86. D 87. B 88. B
89. D 90. B 91. D 92. B
93. D 94. A 95. D 96. C
97. C 98. D 99. B 100. D
FIITJEE MOCK TEST

(TEST NO. – 08)
ELEVATE
Crash Course for NTSE Stage-I
(SAT)
ANSWERS
1. B 2. C 3. B 4. D
5. D 6. B 7. D 8. C
9. D 10. C 11. C 12. C
13. C 14. A 15. A 16. A
17. D 18. C 19. B 20. A
21. C 22. C 23. B 24. B
25. D 26. D 27. C 28. B
29. C 30. B 31. A 32. B
33. D 34. D 35. A 36. D
37. B 38. A 39. A 40. A
41. D 42. D 43. B 44. C
45. B 46. C 47. B 48. B
49. B 50. C 51. C 52. B
53. C 54. B 55. D 56. C
57. B 58. B 59. B 60. A
61. A 62. B 63. D 64. B
65. C 66. B 67. A 68. A
69. B 70. A 71. B 72. A
73. C 74. D 75. A 76. C
77. A 78. B 79. B 80. A
81. B 82. B 83. B 84. D
85. B 86. B 87. D 88. B
89. D 90. A 91. A 92. B
93. A 94. A 95. B 96. A
97. A 98. B 99. B 100. A

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MOCK TEST-1213-ELEVATE-CC-NTSE-STAGE-I-(TEST NO.

-08)-MAT & SAT-2

3. In the series 7, 14, 28, ……., what will be the 10 th term?

6. In the series 3, 9, 15, ……., what will be the 21st term?

8. Which term of the series 5, 8, 11, 14, …. is 320?

9. Which term of the series 5,10, 20, 40, …..is 1280 ?

Direction (10-15): Find the wrong term in the following series.

10. 1, 2, 5, 10, 17, 28

Space for rough work

11. 1, 5, 11, 19, 29, 55

13. 0, 3, 8, 15, 24, 33

14. 1, 5, 14, 30, 55, 93

15. 1CV, 5FU, 9IT, 15LS, 17OR

Direction (16-23): Find the missing term in following series.

16. A, CD, GHI, ?, UVWXY

17. AYBZC, DWEXF, GUHVI, JSKTL, ?

18. PERPENDICULAR, ERPENDICULA, RPENDICUL,?

19. ATTRIBUTION, TTRIBUTIO, RIBUTIO, IBUTI, ?

20. ADVENTURE, DVENTURE, DVENTUR, ?, VENTU

21. Q1F, S2E, U6D, W21C, ?

22. 2A11, 4D13, 12G17, ?

Space for rough work

23. J2Z, K4X, I7V, ?, H16R, M22P

24. ccbab _ caa _ bccc _ a _

27. a _ bc _ c _ abb _ bca _

29. Ludhiana : Hosiery :: Surat : ?

30. Dettol : Antiseptic :: Phenyl : ?

31. Current : Circuit :: Earth : ?

32. Circus : Entertainment :: Temple : ?

Space for rough work

33. Chanakya : Politician :: Kalidasa : ?

37. CEH : IKN

38. LLAMS : SMALL

Space for rough work

Space for rough work

53. How is A related to D?

54. How is E related to F?

55. How many nephews does F have?

Space for rough work

56. If A + B # C – D, then A is D’s :

57. Which of the following shows that A is the aunt of E?

59. Which of the following are in the same row?

60. Which of the following are in one of the two rows?

62. Chinese who are painters but not musicians :

63. Painters who are neither Chinese nor musicians :

64. Chinese who are musicians but not painters :

65. Chinese who are painters as well as musicians :

66. Musicians who are painter but not Chinese :

PROBLEM FIGURES ANSWER FIGURES

Space for rough work

76. How many cubes have only one face painted ?

Space for rough work

(A) 5 (B) 19 (C) 27 (D) 89

Space for rough work

(A) 11E (B) 28G (C) 35L (D) 48F

(A) 4 (B) 10 (C) 6 (D) 7

(A) 28 (B) 36 (C) 48 (D) 42

(A) 12 (B) 25 (C) 48 (D) 52

Direction (88 – 91): In the following questions :