Paper-Mat & Sat-02

MOCK TEST-1213-ELEVATE-CC-NTSE-STAGE-I-(TEST NO.
-02)-MAT & SAT-2
MAT SECTION – I
Straight Objective Type
This Section contains 100 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 100. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
Directions: (Q.1 to 8) In the following questions, four items (figures, letter clusters or numbers) are given.
Three of them are alike in a certain way. Find the one which is different from others.
1.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4. (A) Ink (B) Paper (C) Pen (D) Sharpener
Space for rough work
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MOCK TEST-1213-ELEVATE-CC-NTSE-STAGE-I-(TEST NO.-02)-MAT & SAT-3
5. (A) 2468 (B) 2648 (C) 8462 (D) 3528
6. (A) 3 - 28 (B) 5 - 125 (C) 1 - 2 (D) 2 - 9
7. (A) Haryana (B) Maharashtra (C) Kerala (D) Tamil Nadu
8. (A) BDW (B) DFU (C) FHS (D) GIQ
9. Which figure is the odd one out?
1 2 3 4 5
(A) 1 (B) 3 (C) 5 (D) 4
Directions: (Q.10 to 11) The figures in each of the following questions follow a series. Select the figure
from the given alternatives which would continue the series.
10.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
11.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Directions: (Q.12 to 13) In the following questions, find the one that does not fit in the sequence
established by the six figures given.
12.
(A) (B) (C) (D)

13.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Directions: (Q.14 to 16) The following questions are based on letters sequence. In each sequence some
letters are missing. Find the correct alternative in each question to fill the blanks.
14. _ abbb_b_babb
(A) aba (B) bba (C) aab (D) bab
15. _ xyyzxx _ _ z _ x
(A) xzyyz (B) yzyyx (C) xzyyx (D) xyzzx
16. A _ BBC _AAB _ CCA _BBCC

(A) BACB (B) ABBA (C) CABA (D) ACBA
Directions: (Q.17 to 19) In each of the following questions a number series is given. Find out the missing
term of the series.
17. 20, __, 110, 182, 272

(A) 56 (B) 72 (C) 90 (D) 96
18. 5, 11, 17, __, 37, 51

(A) 19 (B) 25 (C) 23 (D) 27
19. 3, 8, 35, 48, __, 120.

(A) 64 (B) 72 (C) 99 (D) 96
Directions: (Q.20 to 27) In each of the following questions, there is some relationship between the two
terms (figures, letters clusters or numbers) on the left of the sign (: :). The same relationship exists
between the two terms on the right of the sign (: :) of which one is missing. Find the missing one from the
four alternatives.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(A) (B) (C) (D)
23. PALE : LEAP : : POSH : ?

(A) HOSP (B) POHS (C) SHOP (D) POSH
24. BUCKET : ACTVBDJLDFUV : : BONUS : ?

(A) ACMNMOTVRT (B) SUNOB (C) ACNPMOTVRT (D) ACMNMOTURT
25. AF : KP : : FK : ?
(A) GL (B) OX (C) TY (D) PU
26. 2836 : 13 ; 9423 : 14; 7229 : ?

(A) 16 (B) 18 (C) 20 (D) 12
27. 4322 : 48; 4172 : 56; 7615 : ?

(A) 110 (B) 210 (C) 140 (D) 180
Directions: (Q. 28 to 30) In the following questions numbers are arranged in the form of a pyramid. Form
this pyramid four sets of numbers are selected based on certain logic. Two of these are given on the left
and two on the right of the sign (: :). One set of the numbers one the right goes missing. Choose that set
of numbers from the alternative which carries the same logic.
1
2 3 4
9 8 7 6 5
10 11 12 13 14 15 16
25 24 23 22 21 20 19 18 17
26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
49 48 47 46 45 44 43 42 41 40 39 38 37
28. 2812 : 765 : : 91123 : ?

(A) 121110 (B) 121314 (C) 122132 (D) 303132
29. 129 : 145 : : 3811 : ?

(A) 3713 (B) 328 (C) 346 (D) 3615
30. 49, 26, 47 : 27, 46, 29 : : 37, 36, 39 : ?

(A) 38, 35, 40 (B) 35, 40, 33 (C) 39, 40, 41 (D) 39, 34, 41
Directions: (Q.31 to 32) In the following questions a pattern is given with a part missing. Find out the part
which will complete the pattern.
A B C D
A B C D
Directions: (Q.33 to 34) In each of the following questions a problem figure is given. Study the figure
carefully and then answer the questions given under it.
33. How many triangles and squares are there in the given figure?
(A) 44 triangles, 10squares
(B) 14 triangles, 16 squares
(C) 24 triangles, 6 squares
(D) 24 triangles, 9 squares
34. How many triangles and parallelograms are there in the figure given
below?
(A) 16, 22 (B) 18, 16
(C) 14, 20 (D) 15, 21
Directions: (Q.35 to 37) In each of the following questions, two statements are given followed by two
conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take two given statements to be true even if they seem to be
at variance from the commonly known facts. Read the conclusions and then decide which of the given
conclusions logically follows. Find the correct answer from the given alternatives.
35. Statements: I. Some students are brilliant.

II. Sushma is a student.
Conclusions: I. Some students are dull.
II. Sushma is brilliant.
III. Sushma is dull
IV. Students are usually brilliant.
(A) Only I follows (B) Only I and II follow
(C) Only II follow (D) None follows
36. Statements: I. All envelopes are umbrellas.

II. All umbrellas are chalks.
Conclusions: I. Some chalks are envelopes.
II. Some umbrellas are not envelopes
(A) Only conclusion I follow (B) Only conclusions II follow
(C) Both I and II follow (D) Neither I nor II follows
37. Statements: I. Some tables are curtain.

II. Some tables are toys.
Conclusions: I. All tables which are not curtains are toys.
II. Some curtains are toys.
III. There are some tables which are neither curtains nor toys.
IV. All tables are either curtains or toys.
(A) Only conclusion I follow (B) Only conclusions II follow
(C) Both II and III follow (D) Neither I nor II follows
38. Father’s age is 6 years more than three times his son’s age. If after 4 years the father’s age
would be 12 years more than two times the son’s age, find the present age of the father.
(A) 30 yr (B) 35 yr (C) 36 yr (D) 37 yr
39. The length of a rectangle is 10cm more than its breadth. If its perimeter is 84cm, then what is the
length of the rectangle?
(A) 20 cm (B) 24 cm (C) 28 cm (D) 26 cm
40. I have a few sweets to be distributed. If I keep 2, 3, or 4 in a pack, I am left with one sweet. If I
keep 5 in a pack, I am left with none. What is the minimum number of sweets I can pack and
distribute?
(A) 54 (B) 25 (C) 37 (D) 65
41. Given the following addition problem, find the number NET in digits.
N O T
+ T O N E
9 0 0 0
(A) 6, 2, 8 (B) 2, 6, 8 (C) 8, 5, 3 (D) 2, 1, 6
42. In how many ways a cube can be painted with two colours Red and Blue such that each face gets
exactly one colour.
(A) 26 (B) 62 (C) 10 (D) none of these
43. The given questions is based on the following diagram.
Cricket 1 2 5 Hockey
3
4 6
7
Football
Which numeral represents the set of persons, who play cricket and Hockey but not Football?
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 1 (D) 4
44. If ‘South – East ‘ is called ‘East’, ‘North – West’ is called ‘West’, ‘South – West’ is called ‘South’
and so on, what will ‘North’ be called?
(A) East (B) North – East (C) North – west (D) South – West
45. Lalit walks 8 km East, turns South – West and walks together 8 km. He again takes a turn
towards North – West and walks another 8 km. In which direction, from his starting point is he
standing now?
(A) North – East (B) South – East (C) West (D) East
46. Mohan starts from his house and walks 4 km straight. He then turns towards his right and walks 2
km. He turns again to his right and walks 2 km. If he is North – West now, then in which direction
did he start in the beginning?
(A) North (B) South (C) East (D) West
47. A dog is taken out every evening by the owner whose house faces East. They walk 200m West,
then 500 m in South direction. Which direction should they take to reach home?
N
House
200 m W E
NE
500 m
(A) North – East (B) North (C) North – West (D) South – East
48. Indu walked 25 m towards South. Then, turning to his right he walks 30m. Then turning to his left,
he walks 20m. Again, he turns to his left and walks 30 m. How far is she from his initial position?
(A) 20 m (B) 30 m (C) 45 m (D) 80 m
49. Three positions of the dice are shown below. What number will be at top, when 2 is at bottom?
6 1 3
4 6 5
2 5 4
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 5
50. If the total number of dots on opposite faces of a dice is 7 find the correct figure among the
following.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
51. If  stands for ,  stands for +, + stands for  and  stands for , which one of the following
equations is correct?
(A) 15  5  5  20 + 10 = 6 (B) 8  10  3 + 5  6 = 8
(C) 6  2 + 3  12 – 3 = 15 (D) 3  7  5  10 + 3 = 10
52. In the following equation two signs need to be interchanged to make it correct. Choose the signs
from the given alternatives.
10 + 10  10  10  10 = 10
(A) + and  (B) + and  (C) + and  (D)  and +
53. If R = +, S = , T = x, U = , V = = , W = > and X = <, then which one of the following is true
alternatives
(A) 20U4R4X2T3 (B) 20S4U4V2T3 (C) 20T4U4U2X3 (D) 20R4U4S2W3
54. If interchanges are made in signs and numbers, which one of the four equations given in the
alternatives would be correct?
Given interchanges : signs + and x and numbers 4 and 5
(A) 5  4 + 20 = 40 (B) 5  4 + 20 = 85
(C) 5  4 + 20 = 104 (D) 5  4 + 20 = 95
55. If  stands for the operation “Add and triple the sum” i.e. a  b = 3(a + b); and  stands for
“multiply and double” i.e.a  b = 2(ab), find the value of (5  3)  (2  5).
(A) 120 (B) 80
(C) 200 (D) 150
56. If every alternate letters of English alphabets from B onwards are written in lower case and the
remaining letters are written in capital, then how will the 1 st month of the second half of the year
be written?
(A) JuLy (B) AgGuST (C) jUlY (D) AugUst
57. In a certain language, SIGHT is coded as FVTUG. How is REVEAL written in the same
language?
(A) YNRIRE (B) DQHQMX (C) FSJSOZ (D) ERIRNY
Directions: (Q.58 to 60) The capital letters in each of the following words are coded and written in greek
letters, but not in the same order as the letters in the word. Find the codes for letters and answer the
questions.
CLEAR : 
VIEW : 
TURN : 
BUTTER : 
OILY : 
WRITE : 
VOWEL : 
58. What will be the correct code for LIVER?

(A)  (B)  (C)  (D) 
59. How will be the word TROUBLE coded?

(A)  (B)  (C)  (D) 
60. How will the word BROWN be coded?

(A)  (B)  (C)  (D) 
Directions: (Q.61 to 63) The figures given in each problem is folded to form a box. Choose the box that
is similar to the box formed from the given alternatives.
61.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
62.
+
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(X)
(A) a only (B) a, b and c only
(C) a and c only (D) a, b, c and d
63.
(X) (a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) a and b only (B) b and c only
(C) b and d only (D) a, b, c and d only
Directions: (Q.64 to 66) Study the information carefully and then choose the correct alternative to
answer the questions.
(i) A, B, C, D, E, F and G sitting around a circle and are facing the centre.
(ii) G is second to the left of C, who is to the immediate left of F.
(iii) A is third to the left of E.
(v) B is between D and E.
64. Which of the following is false?

(A) A is forth to the right of E (B) G is to the immediate right of D
(C) F is third to the right of D (D) B is to the immediate left of D
65. Which of the following is true?

(A) C is fourth to the left of B (B) A is immediate to right of G
(C) D is second to the left of E (D) B is second to the right of G
66. Which of the following pairs has the first person sitting to the immediate left of the second
person?
(A) BE (B) CA (C) GD (D) DG
Directions: (Q.67 to 70) The following questions are based upon the information given below. Study the
information carefully and then choose the correct alternative to answer the questions.
There are six persons A, B, C, D, E and F. C is the sister of F, B is the brother of E’s husband. D is the
father of A and grandfather of F. There are two fathers, three brothers and a mother in the group.
67. Who is the mother?

(A) A (B) B (C) D (D) E
68. Who is E’s husband?

(A) B (B) C (C) A (D) F
69. How many male members are there in the group?

(A) one (B) two (C) three (D) four
70. How is F related to E?

(A) uncle (B) husband (C) son (D) daughter
71. Which of the option can be obtained by rotating the figure x.
+
+
 +
+
(X) A B C D
Directions: (Q.72 to 73) In each of the following question, find out which of the figures (A), (B), (C), and
(D) can be formed from the pieces given in figure (X).
(x) A B C D
(x) A B C D
Directions: (Q.74 to 78) In the following questions, a set of figures carrying some numbers is given. The
numbers in each figure follow some specific principle. Study the figures to find out the principle on the
basis of which the missing number can be derived. Then choose the correct alternative which contains
the missing number.
74. 2 4 3 9 1 7
20 90 ?
(A) 20 (B) 25 (C) 50 (D) 75
75.
?
1
12 4 2 5
3
8
(A) 15 (B) 13 (C) 10 (D) 18
76.
56 22 46 10 34 14
41 39 ?
15 8 9 6 11 6
(A) 30 (B) 25 (C) 35 (D) None of these
77.
5 6 6 7 4 8
12 21 ?
4 5 10
(A) 22 (B) 23 (C) 32 (D) none of these
78. 18 24 32
12 14 16
3 ? 4
72 112 128
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
79. If the English letters A to Z are written in the reverse order then what is the 5 th letter to the left of
18th letter from your left?
(A) D (B) V (C) N (D) X
80. If the first and third letters in the word NECESSARY were interchanged, also the fourth and the
sixth letters, and the seventh and the ninth letters, which of the following would be the seventh
letter from the left?
(A) A (B) Y (C) R (D) E
81. If the letters in the word POWERFUL are rearranged as they appear in the English alphabet, the
position of how many letters will remain unchanged after the rearrangement?
(A) three (B) one (C) two (D) none
Directions: (Q.82 to 83) In the following questions, find out which of the figures (A) (B) (C) and (D) given
in the alternatives is embedded in the figure given on the top.
A B C D
(x) A B C D
Directions: (Q.84 to 86) In the following questions a set of figures is given. Find out the figure which will
complete the blank space from the given alternatives.
84.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
85.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
86.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Directions: (Q.87 to 88) There is a figure to the left of the vertical parallel lines. Examine the figures
given in the alternatives and find the one which is the exact mirror image of the figure given to the left of
the vertical lines.
M
N
(A) (B) (C) (D)

(x)
M
N
(x) (A) (B) (C) (D)
Directions: (Q.89 to 90) In each of the following, a question is followed by two statements marked I and
II. Decide which of the statements are sufficient to answer the questions. Choose your answer from the
given alternatives.
89. Who among D, F, J, P and A reached the office last

I. F and J reached office together.
II. Only D and P reached office ahead of J
(A) Only I is sufficient (B) only II is sufficient
(C) Both I and II are required (D) Both I and II are not sufficient
90. On which day in April is Gautam’s birthday?

I. Gautam was born exactly 28 years after his mother was born.
II. His mother will be 55 years 4 months and 5 days on August 18 this year.
(A) Only I is sufficient (B) Only II is sufficient
(C) Both I and II are required (D) Both I and II not sufficient
Directions: (Q.91 to 93) Study the given diagram and answer the following questions if the triangle
represents women in village the square represent the unemployed women and the circle represents the
educated women.
A
C G
E D
F
B
91. Educated employed women in village are represented by

(A) D (B) E (C) F (D) G
92. Educated unemployed women in village are represent by

(A) A (B) B (C) D (D) E
93. Educated unemployed women are represented by

(A) B and C (B) Only E (C) E and F (D) Only F
Directions: (Q.94 to 96) Study the given diagrams and find which diagram is the most appropriate for the
following questions.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
94. Water, Atmosphere, Hydrogen
95. Professor, Author, Children
96. Females, Mothers, Doctors
Directions: (Q.97 to 98) Study the number series given below and answer the questions that follow.
7897653428972459297 6 47
97. How many 7s are preceded by 9 and followed by 6?

(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
98. Which figures have equal frequency?

(A) 2, 5, 3 (B) 2, 4, 5 (C) 3, 7, 5 (D) 8, 6, 5
99. Given below are two dices. By studying them answer the questions
What will the number of dots on the opposite face having 2 dots?
(A) 1 (B) 3 (C) 6 (D) none
100. How many dots lie opposite the face having three dots, when the given figure is
folded to form a cube?
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6
SAT SECTION – II
Straight Objective Type
This Section contains 100 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 100. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. Through the tube of radius R, 10,000 a-particles pass per minute. The value of electric current
through the tube is (approximately)
(A) 0.5 ´ 10-12 A (B) 2 ´ 10-12 A (C) 0.5 ´ 10-16 A (D) 2 ´ 10-18 A
2. When a wire of length 50 cm and cross section area 1 mm 2 is connected with a battery of 2 volt, a
current of 4 Amp flows in it. The resistivity of the wire is
(A) 2 ´ 10-7 ohm m (B) 5 ´ 10-7 ohm m (C) 4 ´ 10-6 ohm m (D) 1 ´ 10-6 ohm m
3. Two circular coils of radii 10 cm and 40 cm are connected in series to a battery. The ratio of
magnetic fields at their centres is
(A) 1 : 4 (B) 4 : 1 (C) 2 :1 (D) 1 : 2
4. A rectangular block of glass (R.I. = 3/2) is kept in water (R.I. = 4/3). The critical angle for total
internal reflection between glass and water is
(A) sin-1(2/3) (B) sin-1(3/4) (C) sin-1(8/9) (D) sin-1(1/2)
5. Among the hydrocarbon,____________ has the maximum calorific value.

(A) Butane (B) Ethane (C) Propane (D) Methane
6. The deviation production by a prism

(A) Same for all wavelengths (B) Greatest for red and least for violet
(C) Greatest for violet and least for red (D) Not possible
7. Four resistances are connected in a circuit as shown in the adjacent 4 6

figure. The values of the currents, in ampere, in the 4 W and 6 W
4 6
resistances are
(A) 2 and 4 (B) 1 and 2
 
(C) 1 and 1 (D) 2 and 2 20V
8. Two thin long parallel wires separated by a distance b are carrying a current i amp. each. The
magnitude of the force per unit length exerted by one wire on the other is
 i2  i2 i oi
(A) o2 (B) o (C) o (D)
b 2b 2b 2b2
9. A parachutist steps from an aircraft, falls freely for two second, and then opens his parachute.
Which of the following acceleration–time (a–t) graphs best represents his downward acceleration
a during the first 5 second?
a a
t t
a a
t t
10. Two masses A and B of 10 kg and 5 kg respectively are connected C

with a string passing over a frictionless pulley fixed at the corner of a
A
table as shown. The coefficient of static friction of A with table is 0.2.
The minimum mass of C that may be placed on A to prevent it from B
moving is
(A) 15 kg (B) 10 kg
(C) 5 kg (D) 12 kg
11. Three equal weights A, B and C of mass 2 kg each are hanging on a

string passing over a fixed frictionless pulley as shown in the figure.
The tension in the string connecting weights B and C is
(A) zero (B) 13 N
(C) 3.3 N (D) 19.6 N A B
12. A wooden object floats in water kept in a beaker. The object is near a side
of the beaker in the figure. Let P 1, P2, P3 be the pressure at the three
points A, B and C of the bottom as shown in the figure.
(A) P1 = P2 = P3 (B) P1 < P2 < P3
A B C
(C) P1 > P2 > P3 (D) P2 = P3 ¹ P1
13. Two solids A and B having same volume float in water. It is observed that A floats with half its
volume immersed and B floats with 2/3 of its volume immersed. Compare the densities of
A and B.
(A) 4:3 (B) 2:3 (C) 3:4 (D) 1:3
14. If the amplitude of waves at a distance r from a point source is A, the amplitude at a distance 2r
will be:
(A) 2A (B) A (C) A/2 (D) A/4
15. Which of the following reaction will not take place?

(A) Zn + FeSO4   ZnSO 4 + Fe (B) 2KI  Cl2  2KCl  I2
(C) Zn + MgSO 4 
 ZnSO 4 + Mg (D) Mg + CuSO 4 
 MgSO 4 + Cu
16. The equation

Cu + XHNO3  Cu  NO3  2 + YNO2 + 2H2O , the value of X and Y are
(A) 3 and 1 (B) 8 and 6 (C) 4 and 2 (D) 7 and 1 respectively
17. In electrolysis of NaCl solution for the manufacture of NaOH, the ion discharged at cathode is:
(A) Na+ (B) Cl- (C) H+ (D) O2-
18. Which of the following is not correct pair of conjugate acid and base?
 
(A) CH4 and CH3 (B) H3PO2 and H2PO2
 2
(C) NH4 and NH3 (D) H2SO 4 and SO4
19. Tyndall effect is shown by

(A) CuSO4 solution (B) sugar solution
(C) salt solution (D) mixture of water and milk
20. Which of the following substances acts as a basic fluxes?

(A) MgCO3 (B) CaCO3 (C) Fe2O3 (D) All of the above
21. An isomer of ethanol is

(A) Methanol (B) Dimethyl ether
(C) Diethyl ether (D) Ethylene glycol
22. 2- methylbutan-2-ol is a
(A) Primary alcohol (B) Secondary alcohol
(C) Tertiary alcohol (D) Glycol
23. Calculate total number of s and p electrons in benzene ring.
(A) 12s, 3p (B) 6s, 3p (C) 3s, 6p (D) 3s, 3p
24. Which of the following properties generally decrease along a period?

(A) ionization energy (B) electron affinity (C) metallic character (D) valency
25. The element with highest electron affinity in the periodic table is
(A) iodine (B) chlorine (C) fluorine (D) oxygen
26. The electronic configuration of the element which maximum affinity is

(A) 1s2, 2s22p3 (B) 1s2, 2s22p5 (C) 1s2, 2s22p6, 3s23p5 (D) 1s2, 2s22p6, 3s23p3
27. The number of neutrons in the three isotopes of hydrogen are

(A) 1, 1, 1 (B) 1, 2, 3 (C) 2, 1, 0 (D) 0, 1, 2
28. Which of the following samples contains 2.0 ´ 1023 atoms?

(A) 8.0 g O2 (B) 3.0 g Be (C) 8.0 g C (D) 19.0 g F2
29. Four students (A – D), independently observed parenchyma under the microscope and labelled
the parts, marked I, II, III, IV, V, as per the record given below.
Student I II III IV V
A Cell membrane Nucleus Cell wall Vacuole Cytoplasm
B Cytoplasm Cell membrane Vacuole Cell wall Nucleus
C Vacuole Cell wall Nucleus Cell membrane Cytoplasm
D Cell wall Intercellular space Nucleus Cytoplasm Vacuole
The labelling has been done correctly by student:
(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D
30. Which of the following diseases would not normally be spread by a common source?
(A) Measles (B) Typhoid fever (C) Dysentery (D) Cholera
31. All the following terms (given in column I) relate to specific characteristic given in column II. Match each
term with its specific character and select the correct answer by using the codes given below.
Column – I Column – II
(a) Collenchyma (i) Thick walled tissues having deposition of lignin
(b) Complex tissues (ii) Water conducting tissues
Thick walled sclerenchymatous cells, providing mechanical
(c) Parenchyma (iii)
support
(d) Sclerenchyma (iv) Thick walled cells having thickenings of cellulose and pectin
(e) Phloem fibres (v) Storage of food
(A) (a  v), (b  ii), (c  iv), (d  i), (e  iii) (B) (a  i), (b  ii), (c  v), (d  iv), (e  iii)
(C) (a  ii), (b  i), (c  v), (d  iv), (e  iii) (D) (a  iv), (b  ii), (c  v), (d  i), (e  iii)
32. The structure liver, duodenum, appendix, colon and ileum are labelled respectively on the
figure as
(A) 5, 10, 1, 7, 9 (B) 13, 11, 8, 4, 5 (C) 13, 8, 11, 5, 4 (D) 10, 1, 7, 5, 9
33. Pesticides are sprayed regularly in fields. These are leached into water sources where they are
taken up by different aquatic plants and fish at each trophic level. The correct figure representing
pesticides at each trophic level is
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
34. Match the plant hormones listed in column-I with their major role listed in column-II and mark your
answer from codes given below the list :
Column–I Column–I
A. Auxin 1 Fruit ripening
B. Cytokinins 2 Phtototropism
C. Abscisic acid 3 Stomression of cell division
D. Ethylene 4 Stomatal opening and closing
5 Growth of lateral buds
Codes:
(A) (A  5), (B  3), (C  4), (D  2) (B) (A  3), (B  2), (C  4), (D  1)
(C) (A  2), (B  5), (C  4), (D  3) (D) (A  2), (B  3), (C  5), (D  1)
35. In which part of sperm mitochondria is present :

(A) Head (B) Tail (C) Neck (D) Middle piece
36. Which of the following statements regarding the given figure of human brain are correct?
(i) Labelled part ‘a’ is involved in control of blood pressure, salivation and vomiting
(ii) Labelled part ‘b’ is responsible for precision of voluntary actions and maintaining the posture
and balance of the body
(iii) The part labelled ‘c’ is responsible for change in size of the pupil and activity like walking in a
straight line
(iv) The secretions of part labelled ‘d’ are responsible for functioning of hypothalamus
(v) The part labelled ‘e’ receives and integrates signals from spinal cord.
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (i), (ii) and (iii) (C) (i) and (v) (D) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
37. The diagram illustrates the relationships between the organisms in a certain pond. In this pond
community, which organisms are secondary consumers?
Raccoons
(a nocturnal and opportunistic
omnivore with a strong attraction of
water)
Ducks
Carnivorous fish Minnows

(Often called bait fish)
Aquatic Crustaceans
Algae and Floating plants
(A) Aquatic crustaceans and raccoons (B) Carnivorous fish and aquatic crustaceans
(C) Ducks and minnows (D) Ducks and carnivorous fish
38. The fact that all seven of the garden pea traits studied by Mendel obeyed the principle of
independent assortment means that ________
(A) Seven pairs of alleles determining these traits are on the same pair of homologous
chromosomes
(B) Seven pairs of alleles determining these traits behave as if they are on different
chromosomes.
(C) Diploid number of garden pea is 7
(D) Formation of gametes in plants is by mitosis only
39. Which of the following organism belong to that phylum which shows radial symmetry in adult form
and bilateral symmetry in larval form?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
40. Growing two or more crops in definite pattern is

(A) Mixed farming (B) Mixed cropping (C) Inter cropping (D) Crop rotation
41. 248 – 1 is divisible by two numbers between 60 and 70 the sum of two numbers is:
(A) 125 (B) 126 (C) 127 (D) 128
42. ABC is an equilateral  in which three circles of radii one are A

inscribed as shown in the figure, the area of ABC =
(A) 6 + 4 3 sq. unit
(B) 6 + 3 sq. unit
(C) 4 + 3 sq. unit
(D) 6 + 2 3 sq. unit
B C
43. ABCD is a rectangle of area 100cm 2. Let P, Q, R and S are the D R C

mid points of AB, BC, CD and DA respectively. Find the area of T
TSP
S Q
(A) 30 cm2
(B) 25 cm2
(C) 20 cm2
A P B
(D) 15 cm2
 x 7
44. log32, log3(2x – 5) and log3  2   are in A.P. then x =
 2
(A) 1 (B) 0 (C) 3 (D) 2
45. The area enclosed by the lines x = 0, x = 2, y = x and y = 3 is:

(A) 2 sq. unit (B) 4 sq. unit (C) 8 sq. unit (D) 16 sq. unit
46. Let f(x) be a fourth degree polynomial with co-efficient of x 4 is 1 such that f(– 1) = – 1, f(2) = – 4,
f(– 3) = – 9 and f(4) = – 16 then f(1) is
(A) – 1 (B) – 24 (C) 23 (D) 0
47. If , ,  are the real roots of the equation x3 – 3ax2 + 3bx – 1 = 0 then the centroid of the triangle
 1   1  
whose vertices are the points  .  ,  ,  and  ,  is the point
     
(A) (a, b) (B) (a, – b) (C) (– a, b) (D) (– a, – b)
48. The value of sin6 + cos6 + 3sin2cos2 is

(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3
49. If a = log1025 and b = log1036 then the value of 6a/b + 5b/a =

(A) 11 (B) 13 (C)  (D) none of these
50. Following frequency distribution gives the weight of 38 students of a class.

61 – 65 66 – 70 71 – 75
2 1 1
find the probability that weight of a student in the class is at most 60kg
17 29 31
(A) (B) (C) (D) none of these
19 38 38
51. ABC is an acute angle , CD is  from C on AB. If CD = 6 cm and AB = 8 cm. The distance
between mid point of AD and mid point of BC is:
(A) 4 units (B) 5 units (C) 6 units (D) 7 units
52. The number of real roots of the equation (x – 1)2 + (x – 2)2 + (x – 3)2 = 0 is
(A) 2 (B) 1 (C) 0 (D) 3
53. If AB and CD are two chords of a circle, intersecting at O, such that C

AO = 2x + 1, OB = 3x – 2, CD = 9, OD = 10 then x = A
9
(A) 1 (B) 2
2x + 1
(C) 3 (D) 4
O
10
3x – 2
D
B
54. In what ratio should two varieties of tea, one costing Rs 27 per kg and other costing Rs 32 per kg
be mixed to produce a mixture of tea worth Rs 30 per kg
(A) 1 : 3 (B) 2 : 3 (C) 3 : 1 (D) 3 : 2
55. The percentage change in the area of a rectangle whose length is increased by 24% and breadth
decreased by 17%.
(A) 2.92% (B) 3.00% (C) 1.92% (D) 2. 50%
56. In a convex regular polygon of n sides, total number of diagonals is 35, each exterior angle of the
regular polygon is:
(A) 72° (B) 140° (C) 36° (D) 108°
57. The length, breadth and height of a cuboid are 12cm, 15cm and 6cm respectively. Find the
longest possible iron-rod that can be kept inside the cuboid is:
(A) 6 5 cm (B) 9 5 cm (C) 5 cm (D) 3 5 cm
58. The value of sin10° + sin20° + ….. + sin360° =

(A) 1 (B) 0 (C) – 1 (D) none of these
59.  3  38 74 3 

(A) 1 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 0
60. ABCD is a parallelogram, AP, BR, CR. DP are the bisectors of A, B, A D
C and D respectively, the PQRS is a R
(A) Rhombus (B) Trapezium S
Q
(C) Rectangle (D) Parallelogram
P
B C
61. Sri Lanka is separated from India by:

(i) Gulf of Mannar
(ii) Palk Strait
(iii) Suez Canal
(iv) Indira Point
(A) (ii) and (iv) (B) (i) and (ii) (C) (iii) and (iv) (D) (i) and (iv)
62. Which of the following is the highest mountain peak in India?

(A) Annapurna (B) Namcha Barwa (C) Gurla Mandhata (D) Kanchenjunga
63. At which place do Satluj, Beas, Ravi, Chenab and Jhelum rivers join together to enter the river
Indus?
(A) Ambala (B) Mithankot (C) Pathankot (D) Haridwar
64. Which one of the following areas is associated with Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone?
(A) Temperate Regions (B) Equatorial latitudes
(C) The North Pole (D) The South Pole
65. Which one of the following is different from the other three, with reference to the steps taken by
government to protect the flora and fauna?
(A) 14 biosphere reserves, 89 national parks, 49 wildlife sanctuaries and set up
(B) Financial and technical assistance is given to Botanical gardens
(C) Irrigation facilities are provided at low cost
(D) Project tiger, Project Rhino, etc have been introduced
66. Which one of the following was the population density of India in the year 2001?
(A) 333 person per sq. km (B) 423 persons per sq. km
(C) 324 persons per sq. km (D) 234 persons per sq. km
67. Which of the following statement(s) is true for black soil?

(i) It has larger proportion of clay
(ii) It can retain moisture for a long time
(iii) It develops cracks during summer which helps in aeration
(iv) Cotton grows best in the this soil
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (iii) and (iv) (C) (i) and (iv) (D) all of the above
68. The Buxa Tiger Reserve in West Bengal has been threatened about the loss of habitat of many
species due to
(A) Industrial development (B) Agricultural expansion
(C) Port activities (D) Mining
69. Mettur Dam is located on

(A) R. Krishna (B) R. Mahanadi
(C) R. Narmada (D) R. Kaveri
70. Jhumming refers to

(A) Primitive subsistence farming in Brazil
(B) Slash and burn agriculture in North-Eastern states of India
(C) Primitive farming in Malaysia
(D) Commercial farming in Punjab
71. KG-D6 basin, which has been in the new since April 2009 has large reserves of
(A) Coal (B) Crude oil (C) Gas (D) Uranium
72. Which state in India is the leading producer of sulphur?

(A) Assam (B) Maharashtra (C) Punjab (D) Tamil Nadu
73. Match list I with List II and select the correct answer from the codes given below
List I List II
(a) Bhilwara (i) Cement
(b) Salem (ii) Paper
(c) Dwarka (iii) Textile
(d) Ballarpur (iv) Iron and Steel
(A) (a ® iii), (b ® i), (c ® iv), (d ® ii) (B) (a ® i), (b ® iv), (c ® ii), (d ® iii)
(C) (a ® iv), (b ® ii), (c ® i), (d ® iii) (D) (a ® iii), (b ® iv), (c ® i), (d ® ii)
74. On which coast of India is Mumbai Port situated?

(A) Eastern coast of India (B) Western Coast of India
(C) Northern Coast of India (D) None of these
75. Who among the following proposed the Social Contract Theory?
(A) Locke (B) Rousseau (C) Montesquieu (D) Thomas Paine
76. What did the All Russian Congress of Soviets become later?
(A) The Parliament of Russia (B) The Executive Organ of Russia
(C) The Judiciary of Russia (D) The recognised party of Russia
77. Which of the following groups of countries formed the Central Power during the First World War?
(A) England, Germany, Italy (B) Austria, Germany, Turkey
(C) Turkey, Germany, France (D) France, England, Russia
78. After the end of the 2nd World War, why was a tribunal set up at Nuremburg:
(A) To try Hitler and his family members
(B) To try the leaders of Allied Powers
(C) To persecute the Nazi war criminals
(D) To try the Jews who were involved in conspiracy against Hitler
79. Who was the first Inspector General of Forests in India?

(A) Foster (B) Brandis (C) Rangnathan (D) Clark
80. Which of the following factors does not have a dramatic effect on the lives of pastoralists?
(A) Developing plantation crops
(B) Transformation of grazing lands into cultivated farms
(C) Enactment of forests Acts
(D) Need of increasing revenue resources by imposing new taxes
81. How were the Indian cultivators made to cultivate opium?

(A) By giving them money in advance to produce opium
(B) Land revenue was cut down
(C) They were given modern equipments
(D) They were not allowed to produce pulses
82. Why was the 19th Century indenture described as a system of slavery? Mark the most suitable
statement.
(A) Lots of slaves worked in the plantation
(B) The living and working condition of the indentured labourers were harsh
(C) The indentured labourers did not have any rights and lived like slaves
(D) The indentured labourers were not paid any salary
83. In 20th century handloom cloth production expanded steadily because:

(A) handloom material was cheaper
(B) Indians preferred handloom material
(C) intricate design of handloom cloth could not easily be copied by the mills
(D) All the above
84. Why was Johann Haussmann well-known?

(A) For beautifying the city of London
(B) For making the garden city of New Earswick
(C) For rebuilding the city of Paris
(D) For making a planned city of Singapore
85. “Amar Jiban” is the autobiography of which of the following woman author?
(A) Rash Sundari Devi (B) Rokeya Hossein
(C) Kailash Bashini Devi (D) Pandit Ramabai
86. Writing Hindi novels reached its excellence under:

(A) Srinivas Das (B) Bharatendu Harishchandra
(C) Premchand (D) Devakinandan Khatri
87. The term “Kissagoi” refers to

(A) traditional art of story telling (B) traditional art of writing poetry
(C) traditional art of writing folktales (D) none of the above
88. Who wrote 'Hind Swaraj?

(A) Subhas Chandra Bose (B) Jawaharlal Lal Nehru
(C) Mahatma Gandhi (D) Sardar Patel
89. Which statements are relevant to the Expansion of Democracy?

(i) Democracy has expanded throughout the twentieth century
(ii) Democracy has spread evenly in all parts of the world
(iii) A majority of countries are democratic today
(iv) Democracy was first established in Saharan Regions
(A) (i) and (iii) (B) (ii) and (iii) (C) (i) and (iv) (D) (i) and (ii)
90. Which of the following are the features of a democracy?

(i) Elections do not offer the people a choice and take a fair opportunity
(ii) The rulers are elected by the people and take all the major decisions
(iii) Universal Adult Franchise
(A) (i), (iii) and (iv) (B) (i), (ii) and (iii) (C) (ii) and (iv) (D) (ii) and (iii) only
91. Which statement is irrelevant to the making of a new Constitution of South Africa?
(A) The oppressor and oppressed in this new democracy were planning to live together as equals
(B) The whites did not agree to the principles of majority rule and that of one person one vote
(C) The black agreed that the majority would take away the property of the white minority
(D) They also agreed to accept some basic rights for the poor and workers
92. System of “Checks and Balances” means:

(A) horizontal distribution of powers
(B) separation of powers
(C) Judiciary can check the functioning of executive or laws made by the legislatures
(D) federal division of powers
93. Which of the following subjects is not included in the State List?
(A) Law and order (B) National Defence (C) Education (D) Agriculture
94. In the recent times a European country that has been worst affected by social differences is
(A) Sri Lanka (B) Zimbabwe (C) Yugoslavia (D) France
95. Which of the following is not fixed capital?

(A) Agricultural land (B) Tube well
(C) Fertilisers and pesticides (D) Farm machinery
96. Reduction in infant mortality involves:

(A) Preventing infants from dying
(B) Protecting expectant mothers from infection
(C) Protection of children from infection, ensuring nutrition alongwith care for mother and child
(D) Providing health services for children
97. A multinational company which had contracted to dispose the toxic waste from its shop was
dealing in
(A) Wood (B) Chemicals
(C) Petroleum and Metals (D) Aluminium
98. Government owns most of the assets and provides all the services
(A) Private Sector (B) Public Sector (C) Organised Sector (D) Tertiary Sector
99. Which of the following statements is not correct?

(A) It is but natural that in a calamity the community comes together and shows its spirit of
oneness
(B) The community members know exactly what the resources and how they can be used
(C) They also know who lives where and how they may have been affected
(D) But the community does not know what local herbs and medicinal plants can be used to cure
common ailments
100. It was fun going round in the question. Which room looked the safest to the ‘task force’?
(A) The chemistry laboratory (B) The physics laboratory
(C) The geography room (D) None of these
FIITJEE MOCK TEST

(TEST NO. – 02)
ELEVATE
Crash Course for NTSE Stage-I
(MAT)
ANSWERS & SOLUTIONS
1. B 2. C 3. D 4. D
5. D 6. B 7. A 8. D
9. D 10. B 11. C 12. D
13. D 14. D 15. C 16. D
17. A 18. D 19. C 20. B
21. B 22. C 23. C 24. C
25. D 26. A 27. B 28. B
29. D 30. 31. D 32. B
33. A 34. A 35. D 36. C
37. C 38. C 39. D 40. B
41. A 42. C 43. A 44. C
45. C 46. D 47. A 48. C
49. D 50. C 51. B 52. C
53. D 54. C 55. D 56. C
57. D 58. B 59. A 60. C
61. D 62. D 63. B 64. C
65. B 66. D 67. D 68. C
69. D 70. C 71. B 72. A
73. B 74. C 75. B 76. B
77. C 78. B 79. C 80. B
81. B 82. D 83. A 84. A
85. D 86. C 87. C 88. D
89. C 90. C 91. D 92. D
93. C 94. A 95. C 96. B
97. A 98. D 99. B 100. D
FIITJEE MOCK TEST

(TEST NO. – 02)
ELEVATE
Crash Course for NTSE Stage-I
(SAT)
ANSWERS & SOLUTIONS
1. C 2. D 3. B 4. C
5. D 6. C 7. D 8. B
9. C 10. A 11. B 12. A
13. C 14. C 15. C 16. C
17. C 18. D 19. D 20. D
21. B 22. C 23. A 24. C
25. B 26. C 27. D 28. B
29. D 30. A 31. D 32. B
33. B 34. D 35. D 36. A
37. D 38. B 39. B 40. C
41. D 42. A 43. B 44. C
45. B 46. C 47. A 48. B
49. A 50. A 51. B 52. C
53. D 54. B 55. A 56. C
57. B 58. B 59. C 60. C
61. B 62. D 63. B 64. B
65. C 66. C 67. D 68. D
69. D 70. B 71. C 72. D
73. D 74. B 75. B 76. A
77. B 78. C 79. B 80. A
81. A 82. C 83. C 84. C
85. A 86. C 87. A 88. C
89. A 90. D 91. B 92. C
93. B 94. C 95. C 96. C
97. C 98. B 99. D 100. A

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MOCK TEST-1213-ELEVATE-CC-NTSE-STAGE-I-(TEST NO.

-02)-MAT & SAT-2

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(A) (B) (C) (D)

4. (A) Ink (B) Paper (C) Pen (D) Sharpener

Space for rough work

5. (A) 2468 (B) 2648 (C) 8462 (D) 3528

6. (A) 3 - 28 (B) 5 - 125 (C) 1 - 2 (D) 2 - 9

7. (A) Haryana (B) Maharashtra (C) Kerala (D) Tamil Nadu

8. (A) BDW (B) DFU (C) FHS (D) GIQ

9. Which figure is the odd one out?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Space for rough work

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Space for rough work

16. A _ BBC _AAB _ CCA _BBCC

17. 20, __, 110, 182, 272

18. 5, 11, 17, __, 37, 51

19. 3, 8, 35, 48, __, 120.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Space for rough work

(A) (B) (C) (D)

23. PALE : LEAP : : POSH : ?

24. BUCKET : ACTVBDJLDFUV : : BONUS : ?

26. 2836 : 13 ; 9423 : 14; 7229 : ?

27. 4322 : 48; 4172 : 56; 7615 : ?

28. 2812 : 765 : : 91123 : ?

Space for rough work

29. 129 : 145 : : 3811 : ?

30. 49, 26, 47 : 27, 46, 29 : : 37, 36, 39 : ?

Space for rough work

35. Statements: I. Some students are brilliant.

36. Statements: I. All envelopes are umbrellas.

37. Statements: I. Some tables are curtain.

Space for rough work

43. The given questions is based on the following diagram.

Space for rough work

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 5

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Space for rough work

Space for rough work

58. What will be the correct code for LIVER?

59. How will be the word TROUBLE coded?

60. How will the word BROWN be coded?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Space for rough work

(X) (a) (b) (c) (d)

64. Which of the following is false?

65. Which of the following is true?

Space for rough work

67. Who is the mother?

68. Who is E’s husband?

69. How many male members are there in the group?

70. How is F related to E?

71. Which of the option can be obtained by rotating the figure x.