Your Answer Is Correct

DIRECTIONS for questions 1 to 6: The passage given below is accompanied by a set of six questions.
Choose the best

answer to each question.
The Outer Space Treaty – written in 1967 and signed by all the major world powers – is the closest thing we have to a
constitution for space. For a document conceived before the moon landing, it’s remarkably forward-looking: it declares
“celestial bodies” like the moon and asteroids off-limits for private development and requires countries authorize and
continually supervise companies’ activities in space. It also says that space exploration should be carried out for the benefit of
all peoples.
But even with that impressive scope of vision, the treaty’s authors could never have imagined where we’d be now. Currently
there are 1,738 man-made satellites in orbit around our planet. As they become more affordable to build and launch they’ll no
doubt proliferate and vie for valuable real estate there with space stations, space tourists, space colonists, space miners,
military spacecraft, and thousands of derelict satellites and other immobile debris.
So far no one has any idea how to deal with the scientific and engineering challenges – let alone the political, legal, and
business ones – involved in sustainably managing orbital debris and mining celestial objects. That’s why Aaron Boley and at
least six other space scientists, policy experts, and legal scholars are putting together the world’s first Institute for the
Sustainable Development of Space – essentially a space-focused think tank. The experts aim to find long-term solutions so
that future generations of space explorers can continue where today’s leaves off.
With their focus on sustainable development, Boley and his team come across as a band of space environmentalists who
want to treat space like a global common, something that can be used but also must be protected, so that today’s space
activities don’t compromise future ones. Earthly analogues include conflicts over forests or oceans, where people or even
nations on their own might think they’re having a minimal impact – but their combined extractions of resources or pollution
result in overfished or threatened species. Sustainably-fished species can survive indefinitely, while some practices, like fish
trawling or proposed seafloor mining, could cause more lasting damage.
Space activities that threaten to fill up low Earth orbit could be similarly scrutinized. Boley and his colleagues believe that
orbital debris is the most pressing and formidable problem facing space development today. It will only worsen as we witness
the commercialization of low Earth orbit in the next decade or two, they say. If one day a collision begets another and another,
it could produce an impenetrable ring of debris that effectively prevents future space activities for everyone else. Until
unproven technologies for vacuuming, netting, or harpooning debris become viable, temporary solutions are needed.
Currently each satellite has to have its own debris mitigation plan, which usually means falling back to Earth within 25 years or
boosting up higher into a “graveyard orbit” (where there’s still a risk of collision, albeit a much smaller one).
Constant monitoring of so many objects seems a daunting task, with swarms of small satellites now more affordable to send
up into space than their larger, traditional counterparts.
For example, at any one time, San Francisco-based Planet Labs, a private Earth imaging company, has some 200 orbiting
satellites between the size of a shoe box and a washing machine. They generally fly at altitudes of 500 kilometers, which is
below the densest regions and makes it easier for the satellites’ orbits to naturally decay over a few years’ time, upon which
they fall and burn up in re-entry.
But what if not everyone acts in everyone’s best interest? No one has taken responsibility for a plethora of unidentified and
unmaneuverable debris already polluting the atmosphere. There’s no overarching authority. What we can do is get together
around a table.
Q1. Which of the following is the main theme of the passage?
a) To discuss the importance of the Outer Space Treaty.
b) To highlight the menace created by too many man-made satellites in orbit and the consequent orbital debris.
Your answer is correct
c) To address the scientific and engineering challenges around managing the proliferation of man-made satellites in orbit.
d) To make a case for the Institute for the Sustainable Development of Space.
Time spent / Accuracy Analysis

Time taken by you to answer this question 215
Avg. time spent on this question by all students 379
Difficulty Level M
Avg. time spent on this question by students who got this question right 378
% of students who attempted this question 52.09
% of students who got the question right of those who attempted 45.2
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DIRECTIONS for questions 1 to 6: The passage given below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose the best
all peoples.
around a table.
Q2. Which of the following is least likely to be an objective of the Institute for the Sustainable Development of Space, as can
be understood from the passage?
a) A space-focused think tank is needed to discuss the potential solutions to the ever-increasing menace of space debris.
b) A common platform is needed to bring together several parties which may have an opinion on how we deal with
the problem of space debris.
c) Too many man-made satellites shouldn’t be allowed to crowd the low Earth orbit. Your answer is correct
d) Space exploration should be a viable option in the future and not be jeopardized because of a ring of unattended debris.

Difficulty Level D
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all peoples.
around a table.
Q3. Which of the following is the likely cause behind the author’s warning in but
‘ their combined extractions of resources or
pollution result in overfished or threatened species’?
a) Fish species are disappearing because of unrestrained fishing and trawling.
b) The ‘Bystander Effect’ leads all countries to think someone else will clean up the forests or oceans.
c) Countries underestimate the cumulative effect and focus only on the individual effects of their activities
impacting the environment. Your answer is correct
d) The same rules that pertain to forests and oceans must apply to space.

Difficulty Level M
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all peoples.
around a table.
Q4. The author mentions the example of San Francisco-based Planet Labs to demonstrate which of the following points?
a) It is not just governments but also private companies which own orbiting satellites.
b) It is possible to find a feasible way of using satellites without hurting anyone’s interests. Your answer is
correct
c) Satellites cannot be designed to be self-destructive once they serve their purpose to ensure that they don’t
contribute to space debris.
d) It is possible to send small satellites into space replacing larger, traditional counterparts.

Difficulty Level D
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all peoples.
around a table.
Q5. From the evidence in the first para, which assumption is the author making in the line, ‘For a document conceived before
the moon-landing, it’s remarkably forward-looking’?
a) Not much was understood about space before the moon-landing which was the watershed moment in space
exploration. Your answer is incorrect
b) Taking responsibility of space was a particularly progressive thought before the era of moon-landing.
c) The need to worry about space debris only arose after the moon-landing.
d) Moon-landing made us rethink our responsibility towards space and keeping it clean.
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all peoples.
around a table.
Q6. Which of the following, if proven false, will negate the author’s conclusion in the line, ‘It will only worsen as we witness
the commercialization of low Earth orbit in the next decade or two, they say’?
1.
No solution to permanently clean up the space debris will be implemented in the next decade or
two.
2.
Currently, we don’t have any solution for cleaning up the space
debris.
3.
Commercialization of low earth orbit could contribute to a lot of space
debris.
4.
Debris not in the low Earth orbit doesn’t pose much of a
challenge.
a) 3, 4
b) 2, 3, 4
c) 1, 4
d) 1, 2, 3 Your answer is correct

Difficulty Level D
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Gastronomy is the science of pain. Professional cooks belong to a secret society whose ancient rituals derive from the
principles of stoicism in the face of humiliation, injury, fatigue, and the threat of illness, while being confined for most of their
waking hours in hot, airless spaces, and ruled by despotic leaders.
A good deal has changed since Orwell’s memoir of the months he spent as a dishwasher. Gas ranges and exhaust fans have
gone a long way toward increasing the life span of the working culinarian. Nowadays, most aspiring cooks come into the
business because they want to: they have chosen this life, studied for it. Today’s top chefs are like star athletes. They bounce
from kitchen to kitchen – free agents in search of more money, more acclaim.
I love the sheer weirdness of the kitchen life: the dreamers, the crackpots, the refugees, and the sociopaths with whom I
continue to work; the ever-present smells of roasting bones, searing fish, and simmering liquids; the noise and clatter, the hiss
and spray, the flames, the smoke, and the steam. Admittedly, it’s a life that grinds you down. Most of us who live and operate
in the culinary underworld are in some fundamental way dysfunctional. We’ve all chosen to turn our backs on the nine-to-five,
on ever having a Friday or Saturday night off, on ever having a normal relationship with a non-cook.
Being a chef is a lot like being an air-traffic controller: you are constantly dealing with the threat of disaster. You’ve got to be
Mom and Dad, drill sergeant, detective, psychiatrist, and priest to a crew of opportunistic, mercenary hooligans, whom you
must protect from the nefarious and often foolish strategies of owners. Year after year, cooks contend with bouncing pay-
checks, irate purveyors, desperate owners looking for the masterstroke that will cure their restaurant’s ills.
In America, the professional kitchen is the last refuge of the misfit. It’s a place for people with bad pasts to find a new family.
It’s a haven for foreigners – Ecuadorians, Mexicans, Chinese, Senegalese, Egyptians, Poles. I’ve been a chef in New York for
more than ten years, and, for the decade before that, a dishwasher, a prep drone, a line cook, and a sous-chef. I came into
the business when cooks still smoked on the line and wore headbands. A few years ago, I wasn’t surprised to hear rumours of
a study of the nation’s prison population which reportedly found that the leading civilian occupation among inmates before
they were put behind bars was “cook.” As most of us in the restaurant business know, there is a powerful strain of criminality
in the industry, ranging from the dope-dealing busboy with beeper and cell phone to the restaurant owner who has two sets of
accounting books. In fact, it was the unsavoury side of professional cooking that attracted me to it in the first place. In the
early seventies, I dropped out of college and transferred to the Culinary Institute of America. I wanted it all: the cuts and burns
on hands and wrists, the ghoulish kitchen humour, the free food, the pilfered booze, the camaraderie that flourished within
rigid order and nerve-shattering chaos. I would climb the chain of command from mal carne (meaning “bad meat,” or “new
guy”) to chefdom – doing whatever it took until I ran my own kitchen and had my own crew of cutthroats, the culinary
equivalent of “The Wild Bunch.”
Q7. Which of the following can be understood from the passage?
a) Orwell spent some of his time as a dishwasher to complete his memoir.
b) Professional chefs only work on Fridays and Saturdays.
c) Professional kitchens in America have a preponderance for foreigners.
d) Some top chefs today look for money and fame. Your answer is correct

Difficulty Level M
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a) Orwell spent some of his time as a dishwasher to complete his memoir.
b) Professional chefs only work on Fridays and Saturdays.
c) Professional kitchens in America have a preponderance for foreigners.
d) Some top chefs today look for money and fame. Your answer is correct

Difficulty Level M
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Q8. Which of the following explains the author’s purpose in mentioning rumours
‘ of a study of the nation’s prison population
which reportedly found that the leading civilian occupation among inmates before they were put behind bars was “cook”?
a) To demonstrate how being a cook is an extremely stressful profession driving one to the edge.
b) To demonstrate how there is a streak of criminality associated with people in the professional cooking industry.
c) To show that the professional cooking industry is unsavoury where only those who have criminality can thrive.
d) To show that the professional kitchen is the last refuge of misfits. Your answer is incorrect
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Q9. Which of the following can be inferred as a difference between chefs of the present age and chefs when the author had
just entered the profession?
a) Today’s chefs value money more than acclaim.
b) Today’s chefs aren’t forced to work in conditions as difficult as they were in the past. Your answer is correct
c) Today’s chefs didn’t study to become chefs.
d) Today’s chefs do not have a streak of criminality as they did in the past.

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Q10. Which of the following possibly explains the relationship the author seemed to have shared with ‘his crew’?
a) Cutthroat hostility
b) Unflinching stoicism
c) Protective mentorship
d) Professional indifference Your answer is incorrect
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Q11. Which of the following best summarises the usage of the analogy by the author: ‘Being a chef is a lot like being an air-
traffic controller’?
a) You have to don several hats at the same time.
b) You have to be responsible for the actions of your crew as parents usually are.
c) You have to deal with a wide array of problems brought by people you deal with. Your answer is incorrect
d) You have to plot constantly on how to avoid unexpectedly bad results.
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Q12. Which of the following is the author least likely to agree with about the professional cooking industry?
a) The path to becoming a top-notch chef is laced with difficulties caused by demanding employers and
purveyors.
b) There is an unsavoury side to the cooking business.
c) The professional kitchen offers misfits, with a bad history, a chance to gain solace.
d) Crackpots, refugees, dreamers and sociopaths are too weird for a professional kitchen. Your answer is correct

Difficulty Level M
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This is going to be awkward, but someone has to tell you, so it may as well be me: you're kind of a loser. You know that
feeling you sometimes have that your friends have more friends than you? You're right. They do. And you know how almost
everyone at the gym seems in better shape than you, and how everyone at your book club seems better read? Well, they are.
If you're single, it's probably a while since you dated – what with you being such a loser – but when you did, do you recall
thinking the other person was more romantically experienced than you? I'm afraid it was probably true.
The only consolation in all this is that it's nothing personal: it's a bizarre statistical fact that almost all of us have fewer friends
than our friends, more flab than our fellow gym-goers, and so on. In other words, you're a loser, but it's not your fault: it's just
maths. (I mean, it's probably just maths. You might be a catastrophic failure as a human being, for all I know. But let's focus on
the maths.)
To anyone not steeped in statistics, this seems crazy. Friendship is a two-way street, so you'd assume things would average
out: any given person would be as likely to be more popular than their friends as less. But as the sociologist Scott Feld
showed, in a 1991 paper bluntly entitled Why Your Friends Have More Friends Than You Do, this isn't true. If you list all your
friends, and then ask them all how many friends they have, their average is very likely to be higher than your friend count.
The reason is bewilderingly simple: "You are more likely to be friends with someone who has more friends than with someone
who has fewer friends," as the psychologist Satoshi Kanazawa puts it. You're more likely to know more popular people, and
less likely to know less popular ones. Some people may be completely friendless, but you're not friends with any of them.
Researchers have since observed the so-called ‘Friendship Paradox’ in a wide variety of situations. The implications of this
seeming paradox cascade through daily life. People at your gym tend to be fitter than you because you tend not to encounter
the ones who rarely go; “If your lover only had one lover," Kanazawa writes, "you are probably not him or her." This is also
why people think of certain beaches or museums or airports as usually busier than they actually are: by definition, most
people aren't there when they're less crowded. So, if you’re an active Facebook user feeling inadequate and unhappy
because your friends seem to be doing better than you are, remember that almost everybody else on the network is in a
similar position.
This takes some mental gymnastics to appreciate, but it's deeply reassuring. We're often told that comparing yourself with
others is a fast track to misery; but the usual explanation is that we choose to compare ourselves with the wrong people: we
pick the happiest, wealthiest, most talented people, and ignore how much better off we are than most.
Feld's work, though, suggests that this is only half of the problem. When it comes to those people we know well, the field from
which we're choosing our comparisons is statistically skewed against us to begin with. So next time you catch yourself feeling
self-pityingly inferior to almost everyone you know, take heart: you're right, but then, it's the same for them, too.
Q13. Which of the following best explains why the author feels that the result of the ‘mental gymnastics’ is reassuring?
a) It is more reassuring when your friends don’t do well than when they are doing well.
b) The feeling of self-pity and inferiority that comparisons lead to are not exclusive to you alone.
c) The feeling of self-pity and inferiority may result in skewed comparisons.
d) Feeling inadequate and unhappy because your friends seem to be doing better than you are, is natural. Your
answer is incorrect
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the maths.)
similar position.
Q14. Which of the following is the author’s primary point of view in the passage?
a) Friendship paradox has a wide variety of applications in the study of social networks. Your answer is
incorrect
b) Comparisons with others which breed dissatisfaction are not a universal phenomenon.
c) Each one of us is likely to be the least connected member of the network groups we are a part of.
d) Maths can prove that our comparisons are based on a statistically skewed field.
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the maths.)
similar position.
Q15. Which of the following reiterates the assumption in the line ‘Friendship is a two-way street, so you'd assume things
would average out’?
a) A could be friends with just B, but B in turn, could be friends with several others.
b) Groups of friends most probably will have connectors, those who are friends with both groups.
c) The number of people who have more friends than the average number of friends anyone has, is never the same
as those who have fewer.
d) The chances of your friends having more friends than you do are similar to your having more friends than they
do. Your answer is correct

Difficulty Level D
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the maths.)
similar position.
Q16. Which of the following needs to be proven wrong to weaken the author’s opinion in ‘You're more likely to know more
popular people…but you're not friends with any of them’?
a) Popular people are popular only because they have more friends than the average individual. Your answer is
correct
b) Fame is never an indicator of the popularity of a person.
c) The popularity of a person doesn’t reflect how many friends they actually have.
d) Popular people could be completely friendless.

Difficulty Level D
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the maths.)
similar position.
Q17. Consider the sentence, ‘Feld's work, though, suggests that this is only half of the problem’ in the last para of the
passage. Which of the following best illustrates the other half of the problem?
a) As basis for comparison, we choose those who have done better in life than we have.
b) Our choices are driven more by self-pity and a sense of inferiority than by a sense of competitiveness.
c) Talented, happy and wealthy people may not really be having the kind of amazing life we attribute to them
during our comparisons.
d) We are myopic when it comes to picking the pool from which we select people for our comparisons. Your
answer is correct

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the maths.)
similar position.
Q18. Which of the following, if true, does not demonstrate ‘Friendship Paradox’ as explained in the passage?
a) Those who share your library always seem to be reading more books than you do.
b) All your relatives seem to be earning more than you do.
c) Members of your trekking group seem to trek on more occasions than you do.
d) Members of an NGO teaching underprivileged kids often feel they aren’t as involved as others are in the NGO
activities. Your answer is incorrect
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DIRECTIONS for questions 19 to 21: The passage given below is accompanied by a set of three questions. Choose the best
A ‘Blue Ocean’, is an uncontested market space that makes competition irrelevant, sometimes a previously unknown market
space. In Blue Oceans, demand is created rather than fought over. There is ample opportunity for growth that is both
profitable and rapid. In Red Oceans – that is, in all the industries already existing – companies compete by grabbing for a
greater share of limited demand. As the market space gets more crowded, prospects for profits and growth decline. Products
turn into commodities, and increasing competition turns the water bloody.
There are two ways to create Blue Oceans. One is to launch completely new industries, as eBay did with online auctions. But
it’s much more common for a Blue Ocean to be created from within a Red Ocean when a company expands the boundaries
of an existing industry.
As market power has moved from companies to consumers, and global competition has intensified, managers in almost all
industries have come to face steep performance challenges. To turn things around, they need to be more creative in
developing and executing their competitive strategies. But long-term success will not be achieved through competitiveness
alone. Increasingly, it will depend on the ability to generate new demand and create and capture new markets.
The payoffs of market creation are huge. Just compare the experiences of Apple and Microsoft. Over the past 15 years, Apple
has made a series of successful market-creating moves, introducing the iPod, iTunes, the iPhone, the App Store, and the
iPad. From the launch of the iPod in 2001 to the end of its 2014 fiscal year, Apple’s market cap surged more than 75-fold as
its sales and profits exploded. Over the same period, Microsoft’s market cap crept up by a mere 3% while its revenue went
from nearly five times larger than Apple’s to nearly half of Apple’s. With close to 80% of profits coming from two old
businesses – Windows and Office – and no compelling market-creating move, Microsoft has paid a steep price.
I.
Apple’s market cap surge is because of the new market-creating
moves.
II.
Companies cannot register high growth in market cap indefinitely by relying on old
businesses.
III.
Market-creating moves always lead to growth and increase in
profits.
a) I, II and III
b) I and II
c) I and III
d) Only II
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Q20. All of the following are differences between Blue Oceans and Red Oceans EXCEPT?
a) Blue Oceans are uncontested whereas Red Oceans teem with competition.
b) Blue Oceans create demand whereas Red Oceans lead to tussle over limited demand.
c) Blue Oceans offer rapid growth and profits whereas Red Oceans witness declining profits.
d) In Blue Oceans companies may push the boundaries of an existing industry whereas in Red Oceans companies
squeeze more out of existing industries.

Difficulty Level M
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Q21. Which of the following explains the author’s purpose in using the example of Apple and Microsoft?
a) To highlight the advantages of creating new markets.
b) To show how Apple’s Blue Ocean strategies are better than those of Microsoft.
c) To demonstrate that brand building is a direct consequence of an increasing market cap.
d) To prove that Microsoft’s brand value is lower than that of Apple because of lack of innovation.
Difficulty Level M
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The wheel forms the basic component of any mechanized system today, be it a watch or a jet engine. The world moves on
wheels today and the inception of this technology can be traced back to 3500 BC in Mesopotamia (Sumerian civilization). The
Sumerian wheel was invented by joining planks of wood together. However, it is still a mystery as to who actually made the
first wheel. The first wheel ever made was not used for any kind of transportation. Rather, it was used by potters to spin clay
for making articles like vessels. The first wooden wheel in the world was found in Slovenia and it is more than 5000 years old.
Mesopotamians started using the wheel for transferring goods at a much later period, between 3700 and 3200 BCE. They
used it in their chariots and wagons, where four wheels and two axles were included. The Egyptians improvised the wheel
further. They made spokes in them and used them in chariots around 2000 BC. During this time, the wheel made its way into
Europe where the Greeks ideated to improve the Egyptian wheel. Researchers opine that the wheelbarrow – a hand drawn
vehicle with one wheel – was first invented in Greece between the 6th and 4th century BC. It then found its way to China 400
years later, from where it moved to medieval Europe. ... The Romans made a large variety of wheels for chariots, carts, heavy
freight wagons, passenger coaches.
In earlier days, circular stones or tree trunks were used as rollers for moving heavy objects. Then people started placing
runners below the heavy object and started dragging it like a sledge. Then they combined the sledge and the roller, enabling
the arrangement to cover larger distances. Next, the rollers were changed into wheels by cutting out the wood in between the
two grooves of the rollers and an axle-like structure was created. Special wooden pegs were used on both sides to keep the
runners fastened to the axle. Thus, as the wheel turned, the axle could also turn with it. This was how the first hand-cart was
made.
Q22. All of the following can be inferred from the passage EXCEPT?
1.
The Greeks adopted the idea of wheel-making from the Egyptians and further developed
it.
2.
The first ever wheel was used for manufacturing purpose, and not for
transportation.
3.
The earliest wheel was either made of stone or
wood.
4.
The first hand-cart had only one wheel, allowing transportation of heavy objects quickly and over long
distances.
a) 2 and 3
b) 1 and 4
c) 3 and 4
d) Only 2

Difficulty Level M
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made.
Q23. The first wheel in the world was invented in?

a) Slovenia
b) Mesopotamia
c) Egypt
d) No nation has ever been accredited for the invention of the wheel.

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made.
Q24. According to the passage, which of the following is true about the earliest wheels produced in Mesopotamia and Egypt?
a) The Sumerians used the wheel for multiple purposes while the Egyptians used it only in their chariots.
b) The Sumerians in Mesopotamia made wheels by joining together planks of wood while the Egyptians created
wheels with spokes.
c) The Sumerians made wheels with spokes while the Egyptians produced wheels by joining together planks of
wood.
d) The Sumerians used axles for their wheels and the Egyptians used wheels for their chariots for the first time.

Difficulty Level M
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Q25. DIRECTIONS for questions 25 and 26: The sentences given in each of the following questions, when properly
sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a number. Decide on the proper order for the
sentences and key in the sequence of five numbers as your answer, in the input box given below the question.
1.
Texting has habituated us to receiving a much quicker
response.
2.
An appropriate time frame varies from person to person, but it can be anywhere from 10 minutes to an hour to even
immediately, depending on the previous communication.
3.
Texting is a medium that conditions our minds in a distinctive way, and we expect our exchanges to work differently with
messages than they did with phone calls.
4.
Before everyone had a cell phone, people could usually wait a while – up to a few days, even – to call back before
reaching the point where the other person would get concerned.
5.
When we don’t get the quick response, our mind freaks
out.
Your Answer:41325 Your answer is incorrect
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Q26. DIRECTIONS for questions 25 and 26: The sentences given in each of the following questions, when properly
sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a number. Decide on the proper order for the
sentences and key in the sequence of five numbers as your answer, in the input box given below the question.
1.
The ability to improvise requires cognitive flexibility, divergent thinking and discipline-specific skills, and it improves with
training.
2.
Improvisation is a highly complex form of creative behaviour that justly inspires our awe and
admiration.
3.
A great example of flow state is found in many improvised art forms, from music to acting to comedy to poetry, also
known as “spontaneous creativity.”
4.
It’s a transportive and pleasurable experience that people seek to achieve, and that neuroscience is now seeking to
understand.
5.
During what psychologists call “flow states,” where one is completely immersed and absorbed in a mental or physical
act, people often report an altered sense of time, place, and self.
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Q27. DIRECTIONS for Questions 27 and 28: Five sentences related to a topic are given in each of the questions below. Four
of them can be put together to form a meaningful and coherent short paragraph. Identify the odd one out. Choose its number
as your answer and key it in.
1.
Synthetics have been around for more than 150 years and are responsible for modern perfume as we know it, but the
perfume industry tends to be tight-lipped about the matter.
2.
Yet low-quality naturals can smell bad, and it can be difficult to ensure the consistency of higher-grade
ingredients.
3.
Most perfumers acknowledge that synthetics, far from being inferior to natural ingredients, enable them to achieve an
olfactory complexity and staying power not possible with naturals alone.
4.
In our age of ‘green’ values, consumers, beguiled by advertising images of sunlit fields and flower-bedecked maidens,
might think that their favourite perfume is ‘all-natural’ or at least composed from a high proportion of natural ingredients.
5.
Yet nearly all modern perfumes, even if they use some natural materials, contain a large proportion of synthetic
ingredients, probably about 80 per cent in most instances.
Your Answer:2 Your answer is correct

Difficulty Level M
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Q28. DIRECTIONS for Questions 27 and 28: Five sentences related to a topic are given in each of the questions below. Four
of them can be put together to form a meaningful and coherent short paragraph. Identify the odd one out. Choose its number
as your answer and key it in.
1.
We all need time to unplug and
recharge.
2.
And yet, many of us are often hesitant to take the first step – putting up an appropriate Out of Office message that sets
clear boundaries for our time off.
3.
Using these autoresponders – whether during vacation, a conference, or the big moments in our lives like the birth of a
child – can create social connection with recipients including colleagues, clients, and vendors.
4.
Research shows that disconnecting – especially from email – can make us significantly less stressed and more
productive.
5.
I’ve personally always battled a fear that an Out of Office message could have unintended consequences, including
being perceived as a “slacker,” or leading to missed opportunities.
Show Correct Answer

Difficulty Level D
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Q29. DIRECTIONS for questions 29 and 30: Five sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3, 4, 5) are given in each of the following
questions. Four of them can be put together to form a meaningful and coherent short paragraph and one sentence is the
odd one out. Decide on the proper logical order for the sentences and key in the sequence offour numbers as your answer,
even as you omit the contextually unrelated sentence.
1.
In 2008, at the age of 40, he returned to his homeland and he was one of the most famous Chinese scholars to do so;
an emblem for the government's attempts to match its academic achievements to its economic ones.
2.
Little about his ornamentation hints at Mr. Shi's 18 years in America, where, like thousands of Chinese students, he
decamped for graduate study in the early 1990s.
3.
To lure experts to Chinese universities, the government has launched a series of schemes since the mid-
1990s.
4.
Fine porcelain, Chinese-landscape scrolls and calligraphy adorn the office of Shi Yigong, dean of the School of Life
Sciences at Tsinghua University in Beijing.
5.
Mr Shi eventually became a professor at Princeton University but he began to feel like a “bystander” as his native
country started to prosper.

Difficulty Level D
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Q30. DIRECTIONS for questions 29 and 30: Five sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3, 4, 5) are given in each of the following
questions. Four of them can be put together to form a meaningful and coherent short paragraph and one sentence is the
odd one out. Decide on the proper logical order for the sentences and key in the sequence offour numbers as your answer,
even as you omit the contextually unrelated sentence.
1.
The captive breeding of glass frogs depends on the conditions of the enclosure and the
specimens.
2.
The internal viscera, including the heart, liver, and gastrointestinal tract, are visible through the skin on the frog's
underside, as the frog jumps, hence the name 'glass frog'.
3.
Glass frogs are frogs of the amphibian family Centrolenidae and are found in the rainforests of Costa Rica, Panama,
Ecuador and Columbia.
4.
Glass frogs are arboreal, meaning they mainly live in trees, and only come out during the mating
season.
5.
While the general background coloration of most glass frogs is primarily lime green, the abdominal skin of some
members of this family is transparent.

Difficulty Level VD
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Q31. DIRECTIONS for Questions 31 and 32: Each of the questions given below has a paragraph which is followed by four
alternative summaries. Choose the alternative that best captures the essence of the paragraph.
The term ‘popular culture’ holds different meanings depending on who’s defining it and the context of use. It is generally
recognized as the vernacular or people’s culture that predominates in a society at a point in time. As Brummett explains in
Rhetorical Dimensions of Popular Culture, pop culture involves the aspects of social life most actively involved in by the
public. As the ‘culture of the people’, popular culture is determined by the interactions between people in their everyday
activities: styles of dress, the use of slang, greeting rituals and the foods that people eat are all examples of popular culture.
a) Brummett defines pop culture as an amalgamation of various cultural aspects of society.
b) Pop culture is understood as the predominant vernacular of society at a given point of time .
c) Pop culture represents the everyday activities of people such as dress, slang, rituals and foods.
d) Pop culture has several contextual meanings that change from person to person.

Difficulty Level D
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Q32. DIRECTIONS for Questions 31 and 32: Each of the questions given below has a paragraph which is followed by four
alternative summaries. Choose the alternative that best captures the essence of the paragraph.
During the last century science has been transformed by several simultaneous revolutions. In physics, relativity and quantum
theory have utterly changed our understanding of nature. Yet these twin revolutions initiated by Einstein are mutually
discordant, which tells us that they are not yet complete. Biology has also been doubly transformed by twin revolutions, each
the legacy of Darwin. The most powerful has been the neo-Darwinian synthesis, which, through molecular biology, gives a
detailed microscopic understanding of the processes of life. At the same time an ecological, systems-oriented perspective has
developed in biology, whose vanguard has been the study of complex systems. Today, systems biology attempts, with some
success, to combine the two strands. Interweaving these developments in physics and biology we have the general study of
information and computation.
a) Einstein’s twin revolutions in Physics combined with Darwin’s twin revolutions in Biology have transformed
science during the last century.
b) The general study of information and computation combines the two strands of science, physics and biology.
c) Several revolutions in physics and biology have transformed science, allowing interweaving of developments
into the general study of information and computation.
d) Several simultaneous revolutions in physics and biology have transformed science into a general study of
information and computation.

Difficulty Level D
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Q33. DIRECTIONS for questions 33 and 34: Each of the following questions has a set of five sequentially ordered
statements. Classify the statements into Facts, Inferences and Judgements based on the following criteria:
- Facts, which deal with pieces of information that one has seen, heard or read; which are known matters of direct observation
or existing reality; which are open to discovery or verification (You need to represent such a statement with the number ‘1’)
- Inferences, which are logical conclusions or deductions drawn about the unknown, on the basis of the known i.e. based on
the knowledge of facts (You need to represent such a statement with the number ‘2’)
- Judgments, which are opinions, or recommendations or estimates or anticipations of common sense or intention that imply
approval or disapproval of persons, objects, situations and occurrences in the past, the present or the future (You need to
represent such a statement with the number ‘3’)
Key in your final answer in the input box given below the question, with the correct numbers for each sentence as indicated
above and in the correct sequential order.
i.
New, highly capable 3-D printers might replace highly skilled workers, shifting entire companies and even
manufacturing-based countries into people-less production.
ii.
Once companies put a toe in the blue ocean of 3-D printing technology and experience the advantages of greater
manufacturing flexibility and as material science creates more printable substances, the companies will dive in deep,
and more manufacturers and products will follow.
iii.
Local Motors recently demonstrated that it can print a good-looking roadster, including wheels, chassis, body, roof,
interior seats and dashboard, from bottom to top in 48 hours.
iv.
The fact remains that additive manufacturing developments will change the way products are designed, made, bought,
and delivered.
v.
CEOs of companies are redesigning manufacturing systems and are making the many layers of decisions to gain
advantage in a new world of 3-D printing.

Difficulty Level VD
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Q34. DIRECTIONS for questions 33 and 34: Each of the following questions has a set of five sequentially ordered
statements. Classify the statements into Facts, Inferences and Judgements based on the following criteria:
- Facts, which deal with pieces of information that one has seen, heard or read; which are known matters of direct observation
or existing reality; which are open to discovery or verification (You need to represent such a statement with the number ‘1’)
- Inferences, which are logical conclusions or deductions drawn about the unknown, on the basis of the known i.e. based on
the knowledge of facts (You need to represent such a statement with the number ‘2’)
- Judgments, which are opinions, or recommendations or estimates or anticipations of common sense or intention that imply
approval or disapproval of persons, objects, situations and occurrences in the past, the present or the future (You need to
represent such a statement with the number ‘3’)
Key in your final answer in the input box given below the question, with the correct numbers for each sentence as indicated
above and in the correct sequential order.
i.
Every year, America spends a higher amount per person on health care than other rich countries
do.
ii.
Yet its people are not any
healthier.
iii.
One explanation given by critics is that patients wolf down too many pills and administrators churn out red
tape.
iv.
Ironically, there is also the cost of services that may be popular and legitimate but do nothing to improve medical
outcomes.
v.
Manhattan's hospitals, with their swish reception desks and menus, can be likened to hotels compared with London's
bleached Victorian structures.

Difficulty Level VD
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DIRECTIONS for questions 1 to 4: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
In an exam, the performance of each student who wrote the exam was evaluated independently by four professors, P, Q, R
and S. Each professor gives a score from 0 to 100 to each student based on his evaluation of the performance of the student.
After each student receives a score from each professor, the average (A) of the four scores given to him by the four
professors, the minimum difference (X) between any two scores given to him by the professors and the maximum difference
(Y) between any two scores given to him by the professors are calculated.
The final score of the student is provided as A + (Y – X).
Q1. DIRECTIONS for questions 1 to 4: Type in your answer in the input box provided below the question.
If the final score of a student is 40, which is the same as his average score, what is the maximum score given by any
professor for this student?

Difficulty Level D
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If the scores given by three of the four professors are 45, 49 and 52 for each of two students, Amar and Kiran, what is the
minimum possible final score of any student?

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Difficulty Level D
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If the scores given by three of the four professors are 45, 49 and 52 for each of two students, Amar and Kiran, what is the
maximum difference between the final scores of Amar and Kiran?
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Difficulty Level D
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What is the maximum final score that any candidate can receive?
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Difficulty Level D
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Five friends, A through E, has a certain number of pens with them. The five persons have pens of two different colours – Black
and Red. It is known that the number of Red pens with C is equal to the average of the number of Black pens with the five
persons, while the number of Black pens with A is equal to the average number of Red pens with the five persons. The total
number of pens with the five persons was 60 and each person has at least two black pens. The difference in the number of
Red pens between any two persons was at least 3 and the difference in the number of Black pens between any two persons
was at least 2.
Further, D has more number of Red pens than that with C and also has more number of Black pens than Red pens. Each of
A, B and C has more number of Red pens than Black pens.
What is the difference between the number of Red pens with D and the number of Black pens with B?
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Difficulty Level M
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was at least 2.
The difference between the total number of pens with any pair of persons is at most
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Difficulty Level M
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was at least 2.
The difference between the total number of pens with any pair of persons is at most
Show Correct Answer

Difficulty Level M

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was at least 2.
One of the five persons gave a certain number of pens of exactly one colour to another of the five persons. After this, the
person who gave the pens had an equal number of Red and Black pens with him; and the same was the case with the person
who received the pens.
What is the total number of pens with these two persons?

Difficulty Level M
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was at least 2.
One of the five persons gave a certain number of pens of exactly one colour to one other person. After this, the person who
gave the pens had an equal number of Red and Black pens with him; and the same was the case with the person who
received the pens.
What is the maximum possible number of pens with any of the two persons after this?
Difficulty Level M
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Farhan purchased a machine which can identify fake currency notes and genuine currency notes. Farhan can feed any
number of notes into the machine. However, the machine is not completely accurate. It sometimes misclassifies the notes as
fake even though they are genuine and sometimes misclassifies the notes as genuine even though they are fake. The
machine classifies 20% of the fake notes as genuine and 30% of the genuine notes as fake.
Q9. DIRECTIONS for questions 9 and 10: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.
If Farhan fed into the machine 300 notes, of which 100 were genuine and 200 were fake, how many notes will the machine
identify as genuine?
a) 70
b) 110 Your answer is correct

c) 40
d) 30

Difficulty Level E
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If the machine labelled 1500 notes as fake and 1200 notes as genuine, what is the number of notes correctly labelled by the
machine?
a) 924
b) 1104
c) 396
d) 2028

Difficulty Level M
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Q11. DIRECTIONS for questions 11 and 12: Type in your answer in the input box provided below the question.
Farhan had a certain number of Rs.500 notes and Rs.1000 notes with him in the ratio 2 : 1 totaling Rs.1,20,000. He fed all the
notes that he had into the machine and found that the machine identified 94 notes as fake. What is the minimum possible
number of genuine Rs.500 notes with Farhan?

Difficulty Level M
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Farhan’s friend, Rahul, gave Farhan 300 Rs.100 notes and 500 Rs.500 notes. If he fed all these notes into the machine and it
identified exactly 364 notes as fake, the genuine notes that Rahul gave Farhan must be worth (in Rs.) at least
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Difficulty Level M
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Each of five persons, A through E, participated in a running race and finished in a different position. The five persons were
ranked from first to fifth on the basis of the descending order of their weight (i.e., the heaviest person was ranked first and the
lightest, fifth). Further, it is known that no two persons whose ranks were consecutive finished consecutively, in any order.
It is known that
i.
B, who was ranked fifth, was the fourth person to finish, while the third heaviest person was not the last person to
finish.
ii.
D, who was the third heaviest person, finished immediately after C, while A was not the first to
finish.
Q13. DIRECTIONS for question 13: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.
Who was the second person to finish the race?

a) C
b) A
c) D
d) E

Difficulty Level E
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It is known that
i.
finish.
ii.
finish.
Q14. DIRECTIONS for question 14: Type in your answer in the input box provided below the question.
How many persons finished the race before the second heaviest person?

Difficulty Level E
% of students who got the question right of those who attempted 73
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It is known that
i.
finish.
ii.
finish.
What is the rank of the person who finished first?
a) 2
b) 1
c) 3
d) 4

Difficulty Level E
% of students who attempted this question
53.18
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It is known that
i.
finish.
ii.
finish.
How many persons lighter than C finished the race after him?

Difficulty Level E
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In the company outing of Audi Inc., exactly four events, Event 1 through Event 4, were conducted for the employees of the
company. The total number of employees in the company was 150 and each employee participated in at least one event.
The following information is known about the number of employees who participated in each event:
i.
For n = 1,2,3,4, any employee who participated in Eventn participated in at most one of Event (n – 1) and Event (n + 1),
provided the event exists, but not in any other event.
ii.
The number of employees who participated in Event 1 is 10 more than that in Event 4, which, in turn, is 15 less than those
who participated in Event 2.
iii.
The number of persons who participated in both Event 2 and Event 3 is the same as the number of persons who
participated in both Event 1 and Event 3, which, in turn, is the same as the number of persons who participated in both
Event 3 and Event 4.
iv.
Exactly 25 persons participated in Event 3, while exactly 50 employees participated in more than one
event.
How many employees participated in at least two events but did not participate in Event 1?

Difficulty Level M
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i.
ii.
iii.
iv.
event.
How many employees participated in Event 4 and at most one other event?

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i.
ii.
iii.
iv.
event.
In which event did the highest number of employees participate?
a) Event 1
b) Event 2
c) Event 3
d) Event 4

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i.
ii.
iii.
iv.
event.
Among the employees who participated in exactly one event, how many employees participated in either Event 2 or Event 3?
a) 15
b) 20
c) 40
d) 55

Difficulty Level M
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On a certain day, Bhargav visited six different places – Library, Park, Mall, School, Restaurant and Gym.
Given in the table below are pairs of places in parenthesis and for each pair of places in parenthesis, he did not visit the two
places one immediately after the other, in any order.
It is also known that he did not visit the Park after he visited the Restaurant.
Q21. DIRECTIONS for questions 21 to 24: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.
Which place did Bhargav visit first?
a) School
b) Mall
c) Gym
d) Cannot be determined

Difficulty Level E
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Which place did Bhargav visit immediately after he visited the Restaurant?
a) Library
b) Park
c) School

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Which is the fourth place that Bhargav visited?
a) Restaurant
b) Library
c) Park
d) Mall

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Which is the fourth place that Bhargav visited?
a) Restaurant
a) Restaurant
b) Library
c) Park
d) Mall

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Which of the following places did Bhargav visit after the he visited the Library?
a) Park
b) Mall
c) Gym
d) None of the above

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a) Park
b) Mall
c) Gym

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a) Park
b) Mall
c) Gym

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Four countries, A through D, sent a certain number of male and female delegates to a summit. The following table provides
the total number of delegates sent by each of the four countries to the summit:
It is also known that
i.
exactly one country sent an equal number of male and female
delegates.
ii.
no country sent as many male delegates as B
did.
iii.
three countries sent the same number of male delegates. Each of these three countries sent at most 13 female
delegates.
Which country sent the highest number of female delegates?
a) D
b) C
c) A
d) Cannot be determined Your answer is incorrect
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Difficulty Level E
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i.
delegates.
ii.
did.
iii.
delegates.
Which country sent the highest number of female delegates?
a) D
b) C
c) A
d) Cannot be determined Your answer is incorrect
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Difficulty Level E
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i.
delegates.
ii.
did.
iii.
delegates.
What is the difference between the number of female delegates that D sent and the number of male delegates that C sent?
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Difficulty Level E
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i.
delegates.
ii.
did.
iii.
delegates.
The total number of female delegates sent by the four countries as a percentage of the total number of male delegates sent
by them can be at most (approximately)
a) 71.8%
b) 78.4%
c) 81.1%
d) 215.4% Your answer is incorrect
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Difficulty Level E
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i.
delegates.
ii.
did.
iii.
delegates.
If the number of female delegates sent by B is at least one third the number of female delegates sent by A, what is the total
number of male delegates sent by the four countries?
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Difficulty Level E
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Eight teams, A through H, participated in a hockey tournament which comprised three rounds – Quarterfinals, Semifinals and
Finals. All the eight teams participated in the Quarterfinals such that each team played exactly one match in the Quarterfinals.
The winners of the Quarterfinals played in the semifinals and the winners of the semifinals played in the finals. The winner of
the finals was declared the winner of the tournament.
It is known that A, E, G and H played in the semifinals and A and G played in the finals. In any match, the difference between
the number of goals scored by the two teams was exactly 3.
The following table provides the total number of goals scored by each team in the tournament:
Which team played against B in the quarterfinals?
a) E
b) G
c) A
d) H

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a) E
b) G
c) A
d) H

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a) E
b) G
c) A
d) H

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Which team scored the highest number of goals in the quarterfinals?
a) A
b) E
c) G
d) H

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If the semifinals that A played was the third match of the tournament, then which of the following teams could have played in
the second match of the tournament?
a) E
b) D
c) F
d) G

Difficulty Level M
% of students who got the question right of those who attempted 73
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The sum of n terms in a GP is 6825. If the common ratio and the first term of the series are 4 and 5 respectively, find n.

Difficulty Level E
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If (x + a)(x - 2b)(x + 3b) = x³ + 5x² - 23bx - c, where a, b ≠ 0, what is the value of c?

Difficulty Level M
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If (x + a)(x - 2b)(x + 3b) = x³ + 5x² - 23bx - c, where a, b ≠ 0, what is the value of c?

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The sum of three consecutive natural numbers is 30. Find the product of the three numbers.

Difficulty Level VE
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The sum of three consecutive natural numbers is 30. Find the product of the three numbers.

Difficulty Level VE
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If x ≥ 0, the minimum value of is
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Difficulty Level D
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If x ≥ 0, the minimum value of is
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Difficulty Level D
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If a, b, c and d are natural numbers, such that the LCM of a and b is b and the LCM of b and c is c and the LCM of c and d is c,
then the LCM of a and d will NOT be
a) greater than b.
b) greater than d.
c) greater than c. Your answer is correct
d) lesser than b.

Difficulty Level E
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a) greater than b.
b) greater than d.
d) lesser than b.

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a) greater than b.
b) greater than d.

d) lesser than b.

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a) greater than b.
b) greater than d.
d) lesser than b.

Difficulty Level E
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N is a two-digit number such that the number formed by reversing the digits of N is 18 less than N. If the units digit of N is 5,
find its tens digit.

Difficulty Level E
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Difficulty Level E
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Difficulty Level M
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Time taken by you Time
to answer
spentthis question Analysis
/ Accuracy 89
Difficulty Level M
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Difficulty Level M
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Difficulty Level M
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A hollow sphere of radius 20 cm has a cylinder of height 20 cm is inside it. What is the maximum possible radius of the
cylinder?
a) 10 cm
b) 10 cm Your answer is correct
c) 20 cm
d) 10 cm

Difficulty Level M
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cylinder?
a) 10 cm
c) 20 cm
d) 10 cm

Difficulty Level M
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cylinder?
a) 10 cm
c) 20 cm
d) 10 cm

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cylinder?
a) 10 cm
c) 20 cm
d) 10 cm

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cylinder?
a) 10 cm
c) 20 cm
d) 10 cm

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cylinder?
a) 10 cm
c) 20 cm
d) 10 cm

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Four similar taps, when opened simultaneously, can fill an empty tank in 15 hours. If, when the tank is empty, one tap is kept
open for 1 hour, two taps are kept open for 4 hours, three taps are kept open for 6 hours and four taps are kept open for 8
hours, what percentage of the tank will remain empty?
a) 0.33%
b) 1.67%
c) 2%
d) 5%

Difficulty Level E
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Four similar taps, when opened simultaneously, can fill an empty tank in 15 hours. If, when the tank is empty, one tap is kept
open for 1 hour, two taps are kept open for 4 hours, three taps are kept open for 6 hours and four taps are kept open for 8
hours, what percentage of the tank will remain empty?
a) 0.33%
b) 1.67%
c) 2%
d) 5%

Difficulty Level E
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ABCD is a trapezium, where E and F are the midpoints of the non-parallel sides AD and BC respectively, with = 30 cm and
diagonal AC dividing in the ratio of 3 : 2. If XY is a line drawn parallel to AB inside the trapezium, where X and Y lie on the
sides AD and BC respectively, such that AC divides in the ratio 1 : 1, find the length of .
a) 27.6 cm
b) 28.4 cm
c) 28.8 cm
d) 29.2 cm

Difficulty Level VD
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a) 27.6 cm
b) 28.4 cm
c) 28.8 cm
d) 29.2 cm

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a) 27.6 cm
b) 28.4 cm
c) 28.8 cm
d) 29.2 cm

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a) 27.6 cm
b) 28.4 cm
c) 28.8 cm
d) 29.2 cm

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In the following figure, if PQ and RS are parallel and the measures of angle PAB and RDB are 130° and 110° respectively,
what is the measure (in degrees) of angle ABC?

Difficulty Level VE
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In the following figure, if PQ and RS are parallel and the measures of angle PAB and RDB are 130° and 110° respectively,
what is the measure (in degrees) of angle ABC?
Difficulty Level VE
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In how many distinct ways can seven identical pencils be distributed among four children, such that the difference between
the number of pencils with any two children is not greater than 2?

Difficulty Level M
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In how many distinct ways can seven identical pencils be distributed among four children, such that the difference between
the number of pencils with any two children is not greater than 2?

Difficulty Level M
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If a and b are non-zero integers, how many ordered pairs (a, b) exist, such that (a3 + b3)2 = (a2 + b2)3?

Difficulty Level D
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Difficulty Level D
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Difficulty Level D
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Difficulty Level D
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What is the least natural number that will leave a non-zero remainder when it divides 25!?

Difficulty Level E
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Difficulty Level E
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Difficulty Level E
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Difficulty Level E
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If three consecutive vertices of a rectangle are (3, 5), (3, 8) and (5, 8), find the area (in sq.units) of the rectangle.

Difficulty Level E
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Difficulty Level E
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Difficulty Level E
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Difficulty Level E
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Four men and six women working together can build a wall in 10 days, while two men and six women can build a similar wall
in 15 days. In how many days can one man and one woman build a similar wall?

Difficulty Level E
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Four men and six women working together can build a wall in 10 days, while two men and six women can build a similar wall
in 15 days. In how many days can one man and one woman build a similar wall?

Difficulty Level E
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Which of the following expressions best represents the graph shown below?
a) |x + 4| – |x – 6|
b) |x + 4| – |x + 6|
c) |x – 4| – |x – 6|
d) |x – 4| – |x + 6| Your answer is correct

Difficulty Level M
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Which of the following expressions best represents the graph shown below?
a) |x + 4| – |x – 6|
b) |x + 4| – |x + 6|
c) |x – 4| – |x – 6|
d) |x – 4| – |x + 6| Your answer is correct

Difficulty Level M
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If the sum of the first four terms of an AP is one-fifth the sum of the first nine terms of the AP, what is the ratio of the first term
of the AP to its common difference?
a) 20 : 11
b) 25 : 11
c) 50 : 11
d) 6 : 11 Your answer is correct

Difficulty Level E
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When the function f(x) = x2 – 5x + k, is divided by x – 4, the remainder is 3. Find the value ofk.

Difficulty Level E
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Two persons, A and B, have 120 apples between them. If C, their friend, gave exactly 35 apples to B, the number of apples
that B has will be a multiple of 12. If C gave exactly 26 apples to A, the number of apples that A has will be a multiple of 11.
How many apples does A have?

Difficulty Level M
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Difficulty Level E
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In a school, there are exactly five classes – Class I through Class V. If the number of students in Class V is 20 more than the
number of students in Class II, which, in turn, is 30 less than the number of students in Class I, which, in turn is 15 more than
the number of students in Class III, which, in turn, is 65 less than the number of students in Class IV, which, in turn, is twice
the number of students in Class V, how many students are there in the school?
a) 300
c) 360
d) 390

Difficulty Level E
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If f(x) and g(x) are linear functions where g(x) = f(x) + 4 and 2g(3) = 3f(2) + 6, then g(0) =
a) 6
b) 4
c) 2


Difficulty Level E
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Two persons, A and B, started running along a 400 m race track. For the first 100 m of the track, both A and B ran at the
same speed; for the next 100 m, A ran at twice the speed of B; for the next 120 m, B ran at thrice the speed of A and for the
last 80 m, A ran at four times the speed of B. If B ran at a constant speed of 2 m/s throughout, what is the difference between
the times taken by A and B to complete the race?
a) 50 seconds
b) 55 seconds
c) 60 seconds
d) 65 seconds

Difficulty Level E
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Ravi took a loan for a certain amount at a simple interest of 4% per month. Rahul took a loan for the same amount at a simple
interest of 12% per annum. If the difference in the interests that they paid in one year was Rs.180000, what is the amount of
loan that each of them took?
a) Rs.3,60,000
b) Rs.4,80,000
c) Rs.5,00,000 Your answer is correct
d) Rs.6,00,000

Difficulty Level E
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Find the remainder when 15658 – 15518 is divided by 14.

Difficulty Level VE
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a) 41 : 33
b) 31 : 33 Your answer is correct
c) 31 : 37
d) 39 : 38

Difficulty Level E
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If x2 + y2 + z2 = xy + yz + zx, and the product of x, y and z is 27, find the value of x3 + y3 + z3.

Difficulty Level E
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If x2 + y2 + z2 = xy + yz + zx, and the product of x, y and z is 27, find the value of x3 + y3 + z3.

Difficulty Level E
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The harmonic mean of 4 and k is 6. Find the value of k.

Difficulty Level E
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In the figure below, ABC is a triangle, where E is a point on BC such that BE : EC = 6 : 5 and D is a point on AE, such that AD
: DE = 2 : 3. If BD, when produced, meets AC in F, such that AF = 8 cm, find the length (in cm) of AC.

Difficulty Level M
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The birthday of Kishore when written in ddmm format forms a four-digit number which is divisible by 9, and when written in
mmdd format, forms a four-digit number which is divisible by 18. How many possibilities exist for the birthday of Kishore?

Difficulty Level D
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The birthday of Kishore when written in ddmm format forms a four-digit number which is divisible by 9, and when written in
mmdd format, forms a four-digit number which is divisible by 18. How many possibilities exist for the birthday of Kishore?

Difficulty Level D
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What is the range of x for which the inequality |3x – 5| < 2x + 7 holds true?
a) (– 10)
b) (– 12) Your answer is correct
c)
d)

Difficulty Level E
117
Avg. time spent on this question by students who got this question right
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What is the range of x for which the inequality |3x – 5| < 2x + 7 holds true?
a) (– 10)
b) (– 12) Your answer is correct
c)
d)

Difficulty Level E
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If the last four digits of a number, x, when expressed in the binary system are 1000, then the last three digits of the product
125x are
a) 100
c) 125
d) 025

Difficulty Level E
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If the last four digits of a number, x, when expressed in the binary system are 1000, then the last three digits of the product
125x are
a) 100
c) 125
d) 025

Difficulty Level E
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Difficulty Level E
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Difficulty Level E
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Difficulty Level E
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Difficulty Level E
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Difficulty Level E
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What is the angle (in degrees) between the lines 3x + 2y = 4 and 2x – 3y = 9?

Difficulty Level E
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DIRECTIONS for questions 1 to 6: The passage given below is accompanied by a set of six questions.

Choose the best

Q1. Which of the following is the main theme of the passage?

a) To discuss the importance of the Outer Space Treaty.

Time spent / Accuracy Analysis

Time spent / Accuracy Analysis

a) Fish species are disappearing because of unrestrained fishing and trawling.

Time spent / Accuracy Analysis

Time spent / Accuracy Analysis

Show Correct Answer

d) 1, 2, 3 Your answer is correct

Time spent / Accuracy Analysis

Q7. Which of the following can be understood from the passage?

a) Orwell spent some of his time as a dishwasher to complete his memoir.

b) Professional chefs only work on Fridays and Saturdays.

c) Professional kitchens in America have a preponderance for foreigners.

Time spent / Accuracy Analysis

Q7. Which of the following can be understood from the passage?

a) Orwell spent some of his time as a dishwasher to complete his memoir.

b) Professional chefs only work on Fridays and Saturdays.

c) Professional kitchens in America have a preponderance for foreigners.

Time spent / Accuracy Analysis

Show Correct Answer

a) Today’s chefs value money more than acclaim.

c) Today’s chefs didn’t study to become chefs.

Time spent / Accuracy Analysis

d) Professional indifference Your answer is incorrect

Show Correct Answer

a) You have to don several hats at the same time.

d) You have to plot constantly on how to avoid unexpectedly bad results.

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b) There is an unsavoury side to the cooking business.

Time spent / Accuracy Analysis

c) The feeling of self-pity and inferiority may result in skewed comparisons.

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Show Correct Answer

Time spent / Accuracy Analysis

b) Fame is never an indicator of the popularity of a person.

d) Popular people could be completely friendless.

Time spent / Accuracy Analysis

Time spent / Accuracy Analysis

b) All your relatives seem to be earning more than you do.

Show Correct Answer

Q19. Which of the following can be understood from the passage?

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a) To highlight the advantages of creating new markets.

c) To demonstrate that brand building is a direct consequence of an increasing market cap.

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Q23. The first wheel in the world was invented in?

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Your Answer:41325 Your answer is incorrect

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Your Answer:53214 Your answer is incorrect

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Your Answer:2 Your answer is correct

Your Answer:5 Your answer is incorrect

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