DSSSB Je Environment Paper Key

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Participant ID
Participant Name
Test Center Name
Test Date 20/10/2019
Test Time 8:30 AM - 10:30 AM
Subject Junior Environment Engineer
Section : Mental Ability
Q.1 Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the English dictionary.
1. Same
2. Sample
3. Satisfy
4. Some
5. Salad
Ans 1. 15243
2. 15324
3. 12345
4. 51234
Question ID : 54592762512
Q.2 A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given
ones that will complete the series.
AB3, CE8, EH13, GK18, ?

Ans 1. IN23
2. IN22
3. IM23
4. IM21
Q.3 A is the husband of B’s father’s only child. C is the grandson of A’s father. How is B
related to C?
Ans 1. Aunt
2. Mother
3. Sister in law
4. Niece
Q.4 In the following question, select the odd word from the given alternatives.
Ans 1. Lily
2. Tree
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3. Jasmine
4. Rose
Q.5 In the following question, select the number which can be placed at the sign of
question mark (?) from the given alternatives.
Ans 1. 33
2. 36
3. 43
4. 34
Q.6 In the following question below are given some statements followed by some
conclusions based on those statements. Taking the given statements to be true even if
they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and
then decide which of the given conclusion logically follows the given statements.
Statements:
I. All dogs are birds.
II. All birds are parrot.
III. No parrot is crow.
Conclusions:
I. All dogs are parrot.
II. No dog is crow.
III. Some birds are crow.
Ans 1. Both conclusion I and III follows।
2. Neither conclusion follows।
3. Both conclusion I and II follows.
4. Both conclusion II and III follows.
Q.7 In the following question below are given some statements followed by some
conclusions based on those statements. Taking the given statements to be true even if
they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and
then decide which of the given conclusion logically follows the given statements.
Statements:
I. All trucks are iron.
II. No iron is copper.
Conclusions:
I. No truck is copper.
II. Some copper are truck.
Ans 1. Neither conclusion follows.
2. Only conclusion I follows.
3. Both conclusion I and II follows.
4. Only conclusion II follows.
Q.8 If a mirror is placed on the line AB, then which of the answer figures is the right image
of the given figure?
Ans
1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.9 Eleven students P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z are sitting in the first row of the class
facing the teacher. S sits to the immediate left of R. P sits second to the right of T. T is
at one of the ends. Y is the immediate neighbour of P and Q. S sits third to the right of
Q. U sits to the immediate left of S. W sits to the immediate right of Q and fourth to the
left of X. Who is sitting in the middle of the row?
Ans 1. W
2. Y
3. Q
4. U
Q.10 In the following question, select the missing number from the given series.
1, 2, 6, 15, 31, ?
Ans 1. 55
2. 54
3. 56
4. 57
Q.11 In a certain code language, ‘MORNING’ is written as ‘GNINROM’. What is the code for
‘NIGHT’ in that code language?
Ans 1. TGHIN
2. THGIN
3. THIGN
4. TIHGN
Q.12 In the following question, select the wrong figure from the given series.
Ans
1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.13 Mahesh walks 12 km towards West. He then takes a right turn and walks 6 km. He then
takes a left turn and walks 8 km. He then takes a right turn and walks 4 km. He again
takes a right turn and walks 20 km. In which direction is he now from his initial
position?
Ans 1. North East
2. South West
3. North West
4. North
Q.14 In the following question, select the related word pair from the given alternatives.
Parrot : Bird :: ? : ?
Ans 1. Axe : Cutting
2. Football : Playing
3. Earth : Planet
4. Pen : Drawing
Q.15 Arun is to the south east of Ajay. Aman is to the east of Arun. Abhay is to the south of
Aman. Aakash is to the east of Abhay. In which direction is Ajay from Aakash?
Ans 1. North West
2. South
3. North
4. South West
Q.16 In the following question, select the odd figure from the given alternatives.
Ans
1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.17 Identify the diagram that best represents the relationship among the given classes.
Bird, Parrot, Elephant

Ans
1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.18 How many Quadrilaterals are there in the given figure?
Ans 1. 7
2. 5
3. 4
4. 3
Q.19 A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a circular table. A sits third to the right of B. C is
not the neighbour of A. D sits to the immediate right of B. E is the neighbour of C. Who
sits between A and D?
Ans 1. F
2. B
3. E
4. C
Q.20 In the following question, select the related letters from the given alternatives.
SUNNY : URPKA :: RAINY : ?

Ans 1. TXKKB
2. TYKKA
3. TXKLA
4. TXKKA
Section : General Awareness
Q.1 Which Indian was conferred the ‘Grand Collar of the State Palestine’?
Ans 1. Rajnath Singh
2. Manmohan Singh
3. Shashi Tharoor
4. Narendra Modi
Q.2 Who was the first Indian Governor-General of free India?

Ans 1. C. Rajagopalachari
2. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
3. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
4. Lord Mountbatten
Q.3 Who wrote the book, “Stri-purush tulna” criticising the social differences between men
and women?
Ans 1. Tarabai Shinde
2. Ishwarchandra Vidyasagar
3. Begum Rokeya Sakhawat Hossain
4. Pandita Ramabai
Q.4 Mount Abu hill station is located in ______.

Ans 1. Western Ghats
2. Aravallil
3. Satpuras
4. Himalayas
Q.5 Kathakali, a classical dance, belongs to which state of India?

Ans 1. Tamil Nadu
2. Kerala
3. Odisha
4. Andhra Pradesh
Q.6 Vimal Vasahi Temple belongs to which of the following religion?

Ans 1. Hinduism
2. Buddhism
3. Judaism
4. Jainism
Q.7 Who won Wimbledon Tennis Championship in Women’s doubles category in 2019?
Ans 1. Gabriela Dabrowski and Xu Yifan
2. Barbora Krejčíková and Kateřina Siniaková
3. Barbora Strýcová and Hsieh Su – wei
4. Serena Williams and Venus Williams
Q.8 The Interest rate at which RBI absorbs liquidity, on an overnight basis, from banks
against the collateral of eligible government securities under Liquidity Adjustment
Facility is known as ______.
Ans 1. Bank Rate
2. Reverse Repo Rate
3. Repo Rate
4. Marginal Standing Facility
Q.9 An electric Tubelight of 120W is used for 12 hours per day. How many units of energy
does the tubelight consume in one day?
Ans 1. 1.44 units
2. 10 units
3. 144 units
4. 0.144 units
Q.10 ‘X’ is an organism having bilateral symmetry and are segmented. There is an open
circulatory system and coelomic cavity is blood – filled. It has jointed legs. Identify ‘X’.
Ans 1. Echinodermata
2. Arthropoda
3. Annelida
4. Nematoda
Q.11 Who has been appointed as the governor of West Bengal in July 2019?
Ans 1. Anandiben Patel
2. Jagdeep Dhankar
3. Keshari Nath Tripathi
4. Lal ji Tandon
Q.12 Gandhi Sagar Dam is located in ______.

Ans 1. Maharashtra
2. Gujarat
3. Madhya Pradesh
4. Haryana
Q.13 Nayanars were saints devoted to ______.

Ans 1. Buddha
2. Shiva
3. Vishnu
4. Durga
Q.14 Which article of the Constitution provides for the adjudication of inter – state water
disputes?
Ans 1. Article 272
2. Article 266
3. Article 270
4. Article 262
Q.15 Butter is a/an ______.

Ans 1. Aerosol
2. Foam
3. Sol
4. Gel
Q.16 Chindwin river in Manipur is a tributary of ______.

Ans 1. Ganga
2. Irrawady
3. Brahmaputra
4. Meghna
Q.17 Which of the following is the nodal central agency of government of India for
procurement of Wheat and Paddy under price support scheme?
Ans 1. FCI
2. NASSCOM
3. NAFED
4. IFPRI
Q.18 Who became the first Indian to be elected as a FIFA council member?
Ans 1. Sunil Chhetri
2. Gurpreet Singh Sandhu
3. Subrata Dutta
4. Praful Patel
Q.19 Emergency Provisions are given in which part of the constitution?

Ans 1. Part XV
2. Part XVII
3. Part XX
4. Part XVIII
Q.20 Which launch vehicle was used to carry Chandrayaan-2 to the moon?
Ans 1. GSLV Mk – II
2. PSLV C – 44
3. PSLV C – 46
4. GSLV Mk – III
Section : Arithmetic Ability
Q.1 A train passes two platforms of length 400 metres and 200 metres in 40 seconds and
30 seconds respectively. What is the length of the train?
Ans 1. 600 metres
2. 300 metres
3. 400 metres
4. 500 metres
Q.2 In what ratio rice costing Rs 60/kg should be mixed with rice costing Rs 90/kg so that
on selling the mixture at Rs 80/kg there is a profit of 25 percent?
Ans 1. 11 : 2
2. 1 : 2
3. 13 : 2
4. 3 : 2
Q.3 A sum of Rs 20000 is invested in a scheme of compound interest. The interest rate is
40 percent. If the interest is compounded half yearly, then what will be the interest after
2 year?
Ans 1. Rs 20876
2. Rs 21472
3. Rs 28476
4. Rs 19866
Q.4 A, B and C alone can do a work in 20, 24 and 30 days respectively. A leaves the work
10 days before it is complete and B leaves the work 4 days after A leaves the work. If C
completes the remaining work alone, then how many days will it take for the total work
to get completed?
Ans 1. 12 days
2. 45/4 days
3. 14 days
4. 15 days
Q.5 Which among 11/13, 6/7, 7/9 and 5/6 is second largest fraction?
Ans 1. 5/6
2. 11/13
3. 6/7
4. 7/9
Q.6 Which of the following is in descending order?

Ans 1. 3/5, 5/8, 5/7, 7/9
2. 7/9, 5/7, 5/8, 3/5
3. 5/7, 7/9, 5/8, 3/5
4. 5/7, 5/8, 3/5, 7/9
Q.7 What is the value of 20 percent of 50 percent of 3/4 of 2400?

Ans 1. 200
2. 180
3. 240
4. 160
Q.8 From the below options choose the greatest 3 digit number which is exactly divisible
by 35?
Ans 1. 970
2. 990
3. 945
4. 980
Q.9
Ans 1. 7/6
2. 8/7
3. 1
4. 6/7
Q.10
Ans
1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.11 The table given below shows the milk (in litres) sold by 2 milkman in different cities.
What is the difference in the average milk sold by the two milkmen per city?
Ans 1. 4 litre
2. 1 litre
3. 2 litre
4. 3 litre
Q.12 The line graph given below shows the number of employees present in a company on
different days of a week.
The number of employees present on day D4 is how much percent more than the
number of employees present on day D2?
Ans 1. 77.5 percent
2. 47.5 percent
3. 67.5 percent
4. 57.5 percent
Q.13 Average of 6 observations is 60. Average of first three is thrice the average of other
three. What is the sum of first three observations?
Ans 1. 270
2. 280
3. 320
4. 240
Q.14 80 percent of the cost price of an article is equal to the 50 percent of its selling price.
What is the profit percentage?
Ans 1. 75 percent
2. 60 percent
3. 50 percent
4. 30 percent
Q.15 Smaller diagonal of a rhombus is equal to length of its sides. If length of each side is 4
cm, then what is the area of an equilateral triangle whose side is equal to the bigger
diagonal of the rhombus?
Ans
1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.16 A bus travels at a speed of 30 m/s. for 6 hours. What is the distance travelled by the
bus?
Ans 1. 50 km
2. 648 km
3. 30000 km
4. 180 km
Q.17 Rs 3600 is divided among Ram, Mohan and Shyam in the ratio of 2 : 5 : 9 respectively.
What is the difference between the share of Mohan and Shyam?
Ans 1. Rs 600
2. Rs 800
3. Rs 700
4. Rs 900
Q.18 If the diameter of a sphere is 7 cm, then what is the surface area of the sphere?
Ans
1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.19 Two numbers are more than the third number by 20 percent and 60 percent
respectively. First number is what percent of the second number?
Ans 1. 50 percent
2. 40 percent
3. 75 percent
4. 25 percent
Q.20 The line graph given below shows the number of cars parked in parking area on
different days of a week.
What is the percentage increase in number of cars parked on day D1 to day D5?
Ans 1. 153.63 percent
2. 163.63 percent
3. 183.63 percent
4. 173.63 percent
Section : General English

Q.1 Choose the word that can substitute the given sentence.
One who is hard to please (very selective in his habits)

Ans 1. Heretic
2. Mercenary
3. Narcissist
4. Fastidious
Q.2 Improve the bracketed part of the sentence.
Shiv died (from) tuberculosis.

Ans 1. by
2. of
3. No Improvement
4. with
Q.3 Find the part of the given sentence that has an error in it. If there is no error, choose
‘No error’.
She could see in the open square (1)/ under her house the tops of the trees (2)/ that
were all aquiver with the new spring life (3)/. No error (4)
Ans 1. 2
2. 1
3. 3
4. 4
Q.4 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the alternative
which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase.
A PENNY FOR YOUR THOUGHTS

Ans 1. Paying someone for their advice
2. Asking for money after advising someone
3. A way of asking what someone is thinking
4. Wasting time in useless effort or task
Q.5 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the alternative
which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase.
A CHIP ON ONE’S SHOULDER

Ans 1. At one’s disposal
2. Talking nonsense
3. A feeling of resentment
4. Praising someone
Q.6 A sentence has been given with a blank to be filled with an appropriate word. Choose
the correct alternative.
The goods shall arrive ______ a week.

Ans 1. within
2. into
3. on
4. by
Q.7 Rearrange the parts of the sentence in correct order.
It’s hard to please every

P: feminism, you can sometimes run
Q: into enormous, raucous disagreement
R: perspective, and with the realm of
Ans 1. RPQ
2. RQP
3. QRP
4. PQR
Q.8 Improve the bracketed part of the sentence.
He (were going) to the school.

Ans 1. were gone
2. was going
3. have going
4. No Improvement
Q.9 A sentence has been given with a blank to be filled with an appropriate word. Choose
the correct alternative.
The ladder was placed ______ the wall.

Ans 1. against
2. with
3. by
4. off
Q.10 In the given question, four words are given out of which one word is correctly spelt.
Choose the correctly spelt word.
Ans 1. Tearor
2. Teror
3. Terror
4. Tearror
Q.11 Rearrange the parts of the sentence in correct order.
I’d prefer we
P: both digital and analog
Q: dedicate our conversations
R: to far thornier questions
Ans 1. RQP
2. PQR
3. QPR
4. RPQ
Q.12 Choose the word that means the same as the given word.
Challenge
Ans 1. Abide
2. Embrace
3. Support
4. Confront
Q.13 Find the part of the given sentence that has an error in it. If there is no error, choose
‘No error’.
Modern workplaces often feel like theaters (1)/ which we pretend to work rather (2)/
than get actual work done (3)/. No error (4)
Ans 1. 2
2. 4
3. 3
4. 1
Q.14 In the given question, four words are given out of which one word is correctly spelt.
Choose the correctly spelt word.
Ans 1. Reelise
2. Realise
3. Realice
4. Relies
Q.15 Choose the word that is opposite in meaning to the given word.
Noisy
Ans 1. Clamorous
2. Moderate
3. Talkative
4. Harsh
Comprehension:
Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
The Alps are the youngest and highest mountain system in Europe. They stretch across the
western and southern part of the continent in a broad arc. The mountain range starts near the
Mediterranean Sea on the border between Nice, France and Italy to Lake Geneva. Then it
curves north and eastward through northern Italy, Switzerland Liechtenstein, southern
Germany, Austria and Slovenia. There they touch the Danube River and meld with the
adjacent plain. The Alps are about 1,000 km long, the broadest section over 260 km wide.
The highest peak, Mont Blanc, situated on the border between France, Italy and Switzerland,
rises 4807 meters above sea level. Other famous peaks are the Monte Rosa, the Matterhorn,
the Grossglockner and the Zugspitze. Some 750 miles long and more than 125 miles wide at
their broadest point between Garmisch-Partenkirchen, Germany, and Verona, Italy, the Alps
cover more than 80,000 square miles. They are the most prominent of Western Europe’s
physiographic regions. The Alpine crests isolate one European region from another and are
the source of many of Europe’s major rivers, such as the Rhône, Rhine, Po, and numerous
tributaries of the Danube. Thus, waters from the Alps ultimately reach the North,
Mediterranean, Adriatic, and Black seas. The Alps emerged during the Alpine orogeny that
began about 65 million years ago as the Mesozoic Era was drawing to a close. At the end of
the Paleozoic Era, about 250 million years ago, eroded Hercynian mountains, similar to the
present Massif Central in France and Bohemian Massif embracing parts of Germany, Austria,
Poland, and the Czech Republic, stood where the Alps are now located. From the
Mediterranean to Vienna, the Alps are divided into Western, Central, and Eastern segments,
each of which consists of several distinct ranges.
SubQuestion No : 16
Q.16 Choose the word from the passage that means the same as ‘attrition’.
Ans 1. Segment
2. Erosion
3. Physiography
4. Region
Comprehension:
SubQuestion No : 17
Q.17 How far do The Alps stretch?
Ans 1. Nice to Danube
2. Italy to Slovenia
3. France to Slovenia
4. Geneva to Danube
Comprehension:
SubQuestion No : 18
Q.18 How many rivers are affected by The Alps?
Ans 1. 4
2. 3
3. 6
4. 5
Comprehension:
SubQuestion No : 19
Q.19 Where are The Alps located?
Ans 1. Eastern Europe
2. Black Sea
3. Mediterranean Sea
4. Western Europe
Comprehension:
SubQuestion No : 20
Q.20 What does the term ‘Orogeny’ in the passage mean?
Ans 1. A geological process
2. A time period
3. An event that took place on The Alps
4. A point of contact
Section : General Hindi
Q.1 दए गए वा य म कस कार के वराम च न का उपयोग कया जाएगा ात क िजए।
म य सारा काय क ँ
Ans 1. ,
2. ;
3. ?
4. !
Q.2 दए गए श द के प क पहचान क िजए।
मग
ु ा
Ans 1. एकवचन
2. शु वचन
3. बहुवचन
4. ववचन
Q.3 दए गए वा यांश के लए उ चत श द का चयन क िजए।
िजसम कसी काय करने का साम य हो

Ans 1. सौरभ
2. समथ
3. सांमरण
4. सौ य
Q.4 दए गए वा य म रे खां कत भाग कस कार का सवनाम है ात क िजए।
बाहर दरवाजे पर कोई खड़ा है ।

Ans 1. न चयवाचक
2. अ न चयवाचक
3. नवाचक
4. पु षवाचक
Q.5 न न ल खत म से कौन सा वा य शु है ?
Ans 1. द ल संगीता क बहन गई है ।
2. वह लौट आये।
3. अनेक लोग ने खाना खाया।
4. ग रश को काटकर सेब दो।
Q.6 दए गए वा य म रे खां कत भाग कस कार क या है ात क िजए।
च ड़या चहचहाती है ।
Ans 1. सकमक
2. ेरणाथक
3. कृदं त
4. अकमक
Q.7 दए गए वा य म कस कार का कारक है ात क िजए।
महक ने राम को शरबत शरबत पलाया।

Ans 1. अ धकरण
2. स दान
3. कम
4. करण
Q.8 न न ल खत म से शु वतनी का चयन क िजए।

Ans 1. अन त
2. अनरु त
3. अनरू त
4. अनरु कत
Q.9 दए गए श द के समह
ू म कस कार का वशेषण है ात क िजए।
दो कलो सेब
Ans 1. समह
ू बोधक
2. संकेतवाचक
3. प रमाणवाचक
4. गण
ु वाचक
Q.10 दए गए श द का पयायवाची ात क िजए।
सरु भी
Ans 1. गीता
2. पपीहा
3. भ ा
4. करण
Q.11 दए गए श द का ी लंग ात क िजए।
बाज
Ans 1. बाघी
2. बाजनी
3. बाजी
4. मादा बाज
Q.12 दए गए श द के समह
ू का उ चत अथ ात क िजए।
खालाजी का घर
Ans 1. सदा पढ़ने म लगा रहना।
2. चप
ु के चप
ु के बात करना।
3. चग
ु ल करना।
4. अ यंत आसान काम।
Q.13 दए गए श द का वलोम श द ात क िजए।
संगम
Ans 1. मलन
2. बछुड़न
3. दे ह
4. द ड
Q.14 दए गए वा य म रे खां कत भाग के पद का भेद ात क िजए।
वनीत ने क ा म शोर मचाया।

Ans 1. भाववाचक
2. जा तवाचक
3. समह
ू वाचक
4. यि तवाचक
Q.15 दए गए वा य के लए सह लोकोि त का चयन क िजए।
आ य दाता से बैर
Ans 1. ऊँची दक
ु ान फ का पकवान।
2. जल म रहकर मगर से बैर।
3. खोदा पहाड़ नकल चु हया।
4. छोटा मँह
ु और बड़ी बात।
Comprehension:
ग यांश को यानपव
ू क पढ़ तथा येक न म चार वक पो म से सह वक प चन
ु े।
“खश
ु ी” इस श द का शाि दक अथ होता है । रमजान के 1 माह के बाद आने वाला यह योहार सबके दल म
खु शयाँ बखेर दे ता है । इ लाम म येक मस

ु लमान के लए पांच कत य का पालन करना अ याव यक है ।
उनम से एक रोजा रखना मख
ु कत य म आता है । रोजे के दौरान दनभर ना तो कुछ खाना होता है , ना ह
पीना। फतर श द का अथ होता है पु य करना। इस दन अ धक से अ धक पु य के काम कए जाते ह। इसके
लए कुछ वधान भी बनाए जाते ह प रवार के येक सद य क ओर से पौने दो सेर आटा गेहूं या इसक क मत
के बराबर पया पैसा गर ब अपा हज लोग को वत रत कया जाता है । उ ह करते समय दे ने वाले के दय म
जवाब नह ं होना चा हए क म दे रहा हूं यह ईद रमजान के 30 दन के बाद आती है इसको मीठ ईद भी कहते
ह।
SubQuestion No : 16
Q.16 उपयु त ग यांश का उ चत शीषक या होगा?
Ans 1. रोजा
2. रमजान
3. ईद का योहार
4. मीठ ईद
Comprehension:
ु े।
“खश
ह।
SubQuestion No : 17
Q.17 ईद का शाि दक अथ या है ?
Ans 1. पव
2. खश
ु ी
3. योहार
4. मीठ
Comprehension:
ु े।
“खश
ह।
SubQuestion No : 18
Q.18 इ लाम म मिु लम वग के लए कुल कतने कत य का ावधान है ?
Ans 1. तीन
2. छः
3. पाँच
4. चार
Comprehension:
ु े।
“खश
ह।
SubQuestion No : 19
Q.19 दए गए श द से या अ भ ाय है ात क िजए।
फतर
Ans 1. पु य करना
2. उमंग
3. ईद
4. खु शयाँ
Comprehension:
ु े।
“खश
ह।
SubQuestion No : 20
Q.20 ईद कब आती है ?
Ans 1. रमजान म।
2. रमजान के एक माह बाद।
3. रमजान के दस
ू रे दन।
4. कभी भी।
Section : Discipline1
Q.1 Which of the following is NOT a method of drilling tube wells?

Ans 1. Water jet boring method
2. Cable tool method
3. Hydraulic rotary method
4. Darcy’s method
Q.2 The depletion of the groundwater level in bore wells during summer is due to:
Ans 1. both availability of water in the nearest water body and high water level in aquifers
2. availability of water in the nearest water body
3. insufficient knowledge of sub-surface geological conditions of the region during

drilling
4. high water level in aquifers
Q.3 In a lined open well, the entry of water is from the _______.
Ans 1. sides
2. inclines
3. both sides and bottom
4. bottom
Q.4 Identify the INCORRECT statement.

Ans 1. Contamination of ground water can result in high costs for alternative water supplies
2. Contamination of ground water can result in loss of water supply
3. Contamination of ground water can result in better drinking water quality
4. Contamination of ground water can result in potential health problems
Q.5 Which method is used to solve problems where the interval in which the optimum is
known to lie is finite?
Ans 1. Exorbitant search
2. Intensive search
3. Finite search
4. Exhaustive search
Q.6 In constant level pumping test, when the depression head is kept equal to half of the
critical head, such a head is known as:
Ans 1. equilateral head
2. constant head
3. yield head
4. working head
Q.7 Interactions between the abiotic aspects of nature and specific living organisms
together form:
Ans 1. the ecosystem
2. the atmosphere
3. nature
4. the biosphere
Q.8 Which of the following is NOT a source of ground water pollution?

Ans 1. Water supply lines
2. Septic tanks and soak pits
3. Improper disposal of hazardous waste
4. Use of pesticide and fertilizers
Q.9 Which among the following is the world’s single largest contributor of greenhouse
gases and is one of the most important causes of global warming?
Ans 1. Wood
2. Biogas
3. Coal
4. Oil
Q.10 Which of the following CANNOT be considered as elimination methods for

optimisation techniques to solve environmental problems?
Ans 1. Golden section method
2. Direct root method
3. Dichotomous search
4. Fibonacci method
Q.11 When the rate of the reaction is proportional to the square of the concentration of one
of the reactants or to the product of the concentrations of two different reactants, then
it is:
Ans 1. first order reaction
2. second order reaction
3. complex order reaction
4. zero order reaction
Q.12 The liquid from a landfill containing contaminants which ultimately pollute ground
water is called:
Ans 1. run off
2. percolate
3. filtrate
4. leachate
Q.13 The Brownian movement was invented by:

Ans 1. Robert Brown
2. Robert John
3. Robert Thomas
4. Robert Bean
Q.14 The substances in a solution that offer resistance to changes in pH as acids or bases
are added to or formed within the solution are called:
Ans 1. enzymes
2. buffers
3. retarders
4. catalysts
Q.15 The federal law which established three drinking water source protection programs:
the Wellhead Protection Program, Sole Source Aquifer Program and the Source Water
Assessment Program is:
Ans 1. Ground Water Protection Act
2. The Water Act
3. Resource Conservation and Recovery Act
4. Safe Drinking Water Act
Q.16 गलत कथन क पहचान क िजए:
Ans 1. यब
ू वेल के लए े म बजल क आपू त क उपल धता होनी चा हए
2. यब
ू वेल का चयन ऐसे थल पर कया जाना चा हए जहाँ बड़े भू मगत जल का भंडार मौजद
ू हो
3. यब
ू वेल के आस-पास के े म खेती होनी चा हए और नलकूप को क म ि थत होना चा हए
4. यब
ू वेल उस जगह नह ं लगाना चा हए जहां घाट म यन
ू ता हो
Q.17 A unimodal function is one that has only:
Ans 1. one peak (minimum) or valley (maximum) in a given interval
2. one peak (maximum) or valley (minimum) in a given interval
3. one peak (minimum) or valley (minimum) in a given interval
4. one peak (maximum) or valley (maximum) in a given interval
Q.18 वेल के पाइप और जलभत

ृ म ी के बीच बजर और मोट रे त जैसे मोटे पदाथ को जोड़ने क या को _____
कहा जाता है ।
Ans 1. कुआ उमड़ना (वेल सरिजंग)
2. कुआ कतन (वेल शीय रंग)
3. कुआ कतरन (वेल े डंग)
4. कुआ ढकना (वेल ॉ डंग)
Q.19 The Zoological Survey of India was established in:

Ans 1. 1913
2. 1926
3. 1923
4. 1916
Q.20 Perched aquifer is a special type of:

Ans 1. confined aquifer
2. unconfined aquifer
3. transit aquifer
4. artesian aquifer
Q.1 Who are the causative agents of typhoid and paratyphoid fever?
Ans 1. Species of Yersinia
2. Species of Shigella
3. Species of Salmonella
4. Species of Vibrio
Q.2 Which is the valve which allows water to flow in one direction only?
Ans 1. Reflux valve
2. Sluice valve
3. Air relief valve
4. Scour valve
Q.3 The fecal test requires precise incubation temperatures of:

Ans 1. 45.5 °C ± 0.2 °C
2. 45.5 °C ± 0.5 °C
3. 44.5 °C ± 0.2 °C
4. 44.5 °C ± 0.5 °C
Pipe corrosion can be prevented by:

Ans 1. anodic protection
2. providing protective linings and coatings
3. treatment of water
4. proper selection of material

Ans 1. Thickening is a procedure used to increase the solid content of sludge by removing
a portion of liquid fraction.
2. MLSS content is generally taken as an index of the mass of micro-organisms in the
aeration tank
3. Constant aeration is achieved in trickling filters
4. In aerobic-anaerobic processes, stabilisation of waste is brought about only by

facultative bacteria
Q.6 The combustion of sludge in a reactor under high temperature, along with auxiliary
fuels (if needed) is called:
Ans 1. congestion
2. polarisation
3. gasification
4. incineration
Q.7 In the biological nitrification, ammonia is oxidised to nitrite by:

Ans 1. Nitrobacter
2. Nitrosomonas
3. Nycelium
4. Nicotineamide
Q.8 पारं प रक पाचक म उ चत म ण का अभाव _____ कहलाता है ।
Ans 1. प रतोषण
2. ठोसीकरण
3. तरल करण
4. तरण
Q.9 The physical washing operation that is used to reduce chemical conditioning
requirements is:
Ans 1. eluviation
2. elutriation
3. heat treatment
4. elution
Q.10 What is the hydraulic mean depth from a circular sewer running half full?
Ans 1. R = D/2
2. R = D/4
3. R = D/6
4. R = D/8
Q.11 The digestion of settled sludge in a septic tank is carried out by:
Ans 1. Both aerobic decomposition process and anaerobic decomposition process
2. claustrophobic process
3. aerobic decomposition process
4. anaerobic decomposition process
Q.12 The maximum velocity of flow at which scouring action takes place is known as:
Ans 1. Baldwin velocity
2. non-scouring velocity
3. scouring velocity
4. hydraulic velocity
Q.13 Identify the INCORRECT statement with respect to water supply pipes.
Ans 1. Plastic pipes are good insulators
2. Plastic pipes are more prone to damage due to freezing and thawing of water in
closed pipes
3. Plastic pipes are highly resistant to acidic waters
4. Plastic pipes are free from corrosion
Q.14 The flexible joints in sewers are made flexible by using:

Ans 1. polycarbonate
2. rubber rings
3. bitumen
4. cement mortar
Q.15 वह आइसोथम, िजसम एक एकल अवशोषक एकल साइट पर बंधा होता है और वह सभी सतह पर समान होता
है , _____ कहलाता है ।
Ans 1. BET आइसोथम
2. लग यरू आइसोथम
3. ड लच आइसोथम
4. रे खीय आइसोथम
Q.16 Pressure surge caused when the velocity of water in the pipe is checked suddenly by
sudden closure of a valve is called:
Ans 1. water hammer
2. water surge
3. water thrust
4. water buckling
Q.17 The biological process developed for the removal of phosphorous from treated
wastewater effluent is:
Ans 1. Bardenpho process
2. Elution process
3. both Bardenpho process and Phosstrip process
4. Phosstrip process
Q.18 Wastewater from bathrooms, kitchens, washing places and wash basins is called:
Ans 1. sewerage
2. sullage
3. sewage
4. garbage
Q.19 Which bacteria is used as an indicator of fecal pollution?

Ans 1. Escherichia coli
2. Excellospora
3. Eubacterium
4. Eubacteriales
Q.20 Which organism is seen in many inland, standing bodies of water and can often be
seen forming a surface scum or bloom?
Ans 1. Cyanobacteria
2. Campylobacter
3. Cyclospora
4. Cryptosporidium
Q.1 The Ministry of Environment & Forests (MoEF) guideline of 1991 has suggested:
Ans 1. a single liner system with synthetic or clay liner for landfill
2. a double liner system with PVC liner for landfill
3. a double liner system with synthetic or clay liner for landfill
4. a single liner system with PVC liner for landfill
Q.2 Which of the following is NOT an effect of concentration polarisation?

Ans 1. Increase in the viscosity of the solution
2. Decrease in osmotic pressure of the solution
3. Formation of gel over the membrane surface
4. Solute enters into the pores and the pores are blocked partially or completely
Q.3 Let A be a real 4x4 matrix. Consider the following statements: S1: A has 4 linearly
independent vectors; S2: A has 4 distinct eigenvalues; S3: A is invertible. Which of the
following is true?
Ans 1. S1 implies S3
2. S3 implies S2
3. S1 implies S2
4. S2 implies S1
Q.4 Which of the following is a part of the Central Processing Unit?

Ans
1. Arithmetic and logic unit
2. Key board
3. Printer
4. Mouse
Q.5 A computer cannot 'boot' if it does NOT have a/an:

Ans 1. assembler
2. linker
3. compiler
4. operating system
Q.6 Identify the INCORRECT statement with respect to wetlands.

Ans 1. Wetlands prevent potentially extensive and costly floods by temporarily storing flood
waters
2. Wetlands recharge groundwater supplies
3. Wetlands protect water quality by assimilating water pollutants and removing

sediments containing heavy metals
4. Wetlands lead to soil erosion
Q.7 Which of the following is NOT a hazardous characteristic of a waste?

Ans 1. Corrosivity
2. Compressibility
3. Ignitability
4. Reactivity
Q.8 Which device is required for an internet connection?

Ans 1. Joystick
2. CD drive
3. Modem
4. NIC card
Q.9 A program that performs a useful task while simultaneously allowing destructive acts
is a:
Ans 1. Virus
2. Worm
3. Trojan horse
4. Macro virus
Q.10 Gauss-Seidel iterative method can be used for solving a set of:
Ans 1. both linear and nonlinear algebraic equations
2. both linear and nonlinear differential equations
3. linear differential equations
4. linear algebraic equations
Q.11 Identify the INCORRECT statement. Gel electrophoresis:

Ans 1. can be polymerised in a variety of pore sizes
2. is difficult to polymerise in place
3. has little residual charge on the polymer
4. is an excellent anti-convective gel
Q.12
Ans 1. 1
2. -0.5
3. e
4. 0
Q.13 Which legislative law has to be followed by health care centres to ensure that their
waste is handled and managed without causing any adverse health effects to human
beings and the environment?
Ans 1. Biomedical Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 1997
2. Biomedical Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 1998
Q.14 Which of the following executes programming codes line-by-line, rather than the
whole programme?
Ans 1. Interpreter
2. Executer
3. Translator
4. Compiler
Q.15
Ans 1. 4a = b
2. 2a = b
3. a = 4b
4. a = 2b
Q.16 The process involving the complete coating or enclosure of a toxic particle or waste
agglomerate with a new substance is called:
Ans 1. encapsulation
2. simplification
3. macro-encapsulation
4. amplification
Q.17 The distillation process which involves the removal of volatile organic matter from
wastewater is called:
Ans 1. steam stripping
2. thermal stripping
3. thin film extraction
4. fractionation
Q.18 One byte consists of _____ bits.

Ans 1. 16
2. 12
3. 8
4. 4
Q.19 CAD stands for:

Ans 1. Computer Analogue Design
2. Computer Algorithm for Design
3. Computer Application in Design
4. Computer Aided Design
Q.20 Wastes produced by hospitals, nursing homes, clinics, research laboratories and
diagnostic centres are called:
Ans 1. commingled waste
2. bioinfer waste
3. biomedical waste
4. radioactive waste
Q.1 Which of the following is NOT an environmental factor that affects health?
Ans 1. Climate change
2. Consuming expired medicine
3. Natural and technological disasters
4. Exposure to hazardous substances in the air, water and soil
Q.2 The term ‘centroid’ is:

Ans 1. the point of application of the resultant of all the forces tending to cause a body to
rotate about a certain axis
2. same as centre of gravity
3. the point of dissection of forces
4. the point of suspension
Q.3 When was Chandrayaan - 2, India's second lunar exploration mission launched?
Ans 1. 22nd July 2019
2. 18th July 2019
3. 15th July 2019
4. 16th July 2019
Q.4 Which is the standard unit for measuring carbon footprints?

Ans 1. Carbon monoxide equivalent
2. Carbon dioxide equivalent
3. Carbon oxide equivalent
4. Carboxyl equivalent
Q.5 Identify the unsustainable energy component from the following.

Ans 1. Natural gas
2. Hydroelectricity
3. Land wind turbines
4. Geothermal energy
Q.6
Ans 1. square of R
2. square root of R
3. logarithm of R
4. reciprocal of R
Q.7 Which is the recognised Green Building Rating System in India?

Ans 1. Leadership in Energy and Environmental Development
2. Leadership in Energy and Ecological Design
3. Leadership in Energy and Economical Design
4. Leadership in Energy and Environmental Design
Q.8 ______ has published guidelines for different sectors, which outline the significant
issues to be addressed in the EIA studies.
Ans 1. Federal Reserve Board
2. Ministry of Environment and Forests
3. State Pollution Control Board
4. Central Pollution Control Board
Q.9 World Health day is celebrated on:

Ans 1. 8th April
2. 8th August
3. 7th April
4. 7th August
Q.10 When temperature is increased beyond a certain degree in an aqueous solution of a

non-ionic surfactant, the solution separates into two phases and the temperature is
known as:
Ans 1. cloud point
2. minimum temperature
3. breakpoint
4. threshold temperature
Q.11 The energy derived from a wide variety of material of plant or animal origin is called:
Ans 1. bioenergy
2. living energy
3. passive energy
4. active energy
Q.12 Which of the following is NOT an effect of climate change?

Ans 1. Afforestation
2. Disappearance of species
3. Rising sea levels
4. Extreme weather events
Q.13 In GIS, a matrix of cells (or pixels) organised into rows and columns (or a grid) is
called:
Ans 1. vector data
2. imaginary data
3. processed data
4. raster data
Q.14 The unit of moment of inertia of an area is:

Ans 1. kg-m-s2
2. m4
3. kg-m2
4. kg/m2
Q.15
Ans 1. 2
2. 4
3. 3
4. 1
Q.16 Remote sensing methods that provide their own source of electromagnetic radiation
to illuminate the terrain is called:
Ans 1. active remote sensing
2. passive remote sensing
3. adhesive remote sensing
4. cohesive remote sensing
Q.17 EPA has classified Environmental Tobacco Smoke (ETS) as:

Ans 1. class C carcinogen
2. class B carcinogen
3. class A carcinogen
4. class D carcinogen
Q.18 Choose the correct answer from the options:
A. Green buildings are energy efficient

B. Initial cost of green buildings are higher than those of traditional buildings
C. Green buildings have poor indoor environment quality
Ans 1. Only A is correct
2. Only C is correct
3. Only B is correct
4. Both A and B are correct
Q.19 The unit of force in the SI system of units is:

Ans 1. Kilogram
2. Dyne
3. Newton
4. Watt
Q.20 The primary scientific tools to evaluate transformation and transport processes in the
environment are:
A. direct field observations

B. laboratory scale tests and physical modelling studies
C. mathematical modelling
D. Passive data collection
Ans 1. B, C and D
2. A and B
3. A, B and C
4. A and D
Q.1 The deformation per unit length is called:

Ans 1. tensile stress
2. shear stress
3. compressive stress
4. strain
Q.2 A Pelton wheel is a/an:

Ans 1. inward flow reaction turbine
2. tangential flow impulse turbine
3. outward flow impulse turbine
4. inward flow impulse turbine
Q.3 How many types of frame structures are there?

Ans 1. 2
2. 5
3. 3
4. 4
Q.4 In a frame structure, which of the following transfers the load to columns?
Ans 1. Foundation
2. Slabs
3. Beams
4. Roof
Q.5 The process in which the impeller of a centrifugal pump will get fully submerged in a
liquid without any air trap inside is called _______.
Ans 1. lifting
2. gauging
3. pumping
4. priming
Q.6 In the neutral axis of the cross-section a beam is that axis at which the bending stress
is:
Ans 1. minimum
2. zero
3. maximum
4. infinity
Q.7 The error in measured length due to incorrect holding of the chain is:
Ans 1. compensating error
2. cumulative error
3. instrumental error
4. negative error
Q.8 The variation in the volume of a liquid with the variation of pressure is called:
Ans 1. compressibility
2. capillarity
3. surface tension
4. viscosity
Q.9 In order to determine natural features such as valleys, rivers, lakes etc., the surveying
preferred is:
Ans 1. city surveying
2. cadastral surveying
3. topographical surveying
4. location surveying
Q.10 The ratio of specific weight of a liquid to specific weight of pure water at standard
temperature is called:
Ans 1. specific gravity of a liquid
2. density of a liquid
3. compressibility of a liquid
4. surface tension of a liquid
Q.11 The indentation marks left on bricks during the process of moulding are known as:
Ans 1. projections
2. fillets
3. marks
4. frogs
Q.12 Hooke’s Law holds good up to:

Ans 1. elastic limit
2. yield point
3. plastic limit
4. breaking point
Q.13 The fixed support in the real beam becomes a _____ in the conjugate beam.
Ans 1. roller support
2. hinged support
3. free end
4. fixed support
Q.14 In a jet of water striking at the centre of the curved vane moving with a uniform
velocity in the direction of the jet, for the maximum efficiency, the vane velocity is
______ of the jet velocity.
Ans 1. one – third
2. one – half
3. three – fourth
4. two – third
Q.15 The ratio of linear stress to linear strain is called:

Ans 1. modulus of elasticity
2. Poisson’s ratio
3. bulk modulus
4. modulus of rigidity
Q.16 In a truss structure, _________ bear tension.

Ans 1. bottom chords
2. top chords
3. bases
4. joints
Q.17 The degree of static indeterminacy of a rigid - jointed plane frame having 15 members,
3 reaction components and 14 joints is:
Ans 1. 3
2. 2
3. 8
4. 6
Q.18 Gypsum is added in the manufacture of Portland cement in order to:

Ans 1. lengthen the setting time of cement
2. shorten the setting time of cement
3. decrease the grinding time
4. decrease the burning temperature
Q.19 The rocks formed due to solidification of molten mass lying below or above the earth’s
surface are called:
Ans 1. metamorphic rocks
2. sedimentary rocks
3. igneous rocks
4. aqueous rocks
Q.20 The mass per unit volume of a liquid at standard temperature and pressure is called:
Ans 1. mass density
2. specific weight
3. specific gravity
4. specific volume

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10/28/2019 https://cdn.digialm.

Section : Mental Ability

AB3, CE8, EH13, GK18, ?

2. Neither conclusion follows।

3. Both conclusion I and II follows.

4. Both conclusion II and III follows.

2. Only conclusion I follows.

3. Both conclusion I and II follows.

4. Only conclusion II follows.

Bird, Parrot, Elephant

Q.18 How many Quadrilaterals are there in the given figure?

SUNNY : URPKA :: RAINY : ?

Section : General Awareness

Q.2 Who was the first Indian Governor-General of free India?

3. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

3. Begum Rokeya Sakhawat Hossain

Q.4 Mount Abu hill station is located in ______.

Q.5 Kathakali, a classical dance, belongs to which state of India?

Q.6 Vimal Vasahi Temple belongs to which of the following religion?

2. Barbora Krejčíková and Kateřina Siniaková

3. Barbora Strýcová and Hsieh Su – wei

4. Serena Williams and Venus Williams

2. Reverse Repo Rate

4. Marginal Standing Facility

3. Keshari Nath Tripathi

Q.12 Gandhi Sagar Dam is located in ______.

Q.13 Nayanars were saints devoted to ______.

Q.15 Butter is a/an ______.

Q.16 Chindwin river in Manipur is a tributary of ______.

2. Gurpreet Singh Sandhu

Q.19 Emergency Provisions are given in which part of the constitution?

Section : Arithmetic Ability

Q.6 Which of the following is in descending order?

2. 7/9, 5/7, 5/8, 3/5

3. 5/7, 7/9, 5/8, 3/5

4. 5/7, 5/8, 3/5, 7/9

Q.7 What is the value of 20 percent of 50 percent of 3/4 of 2400?

Section : General English

One who is hard to please (very selective in his habits)

Q.2 Improve the bracketed part of the sentence.

Shiv died (from) tuberculosis.

A PENNY FOR YOUR THOUGHTS

2. Asking for money after advising someone

3. A way of asking what someone is thinking

4. Wasting time in useless effort or task

A CHIP ON ONE’S SHOULDER

The goods shall arrive ______ a week.

Q.7 Rearrange the parts of the sentence in correct order.

It’s hard to please every

Q.8 Improve the bracketed part of the sentence.

He (were going) to the school.

The ladder was placed ______ the wall.

Q.11 Rearrange the parts of the sentence in correct order.

3. An event that took place on The Alps

Section : General Hindi

Q.1 दए गए वा य म कस कार के वराम च न का उपयोग कया जाएगा ात क िजए।

Q.2 दए गए श द के प क पहचान क िजए।

Q.3 दए गए वा यांश के लए उ चत श द का चयन क िजए।

िजसम कसी काय करने का साम य हो