CAMS Practice Exam
CAMS Practice Exam
CAMS Practice Exam
We are working hard to design the CAMS exam support material that will equip you with
appropriate knowledge, experience and tools to increase your chances to clear the exam in
least possible time.
Enjoy the sample of our work. We will update our online store with our material soon. Please
feel free to reach out to us in case if you need an assistance. STAY TUNED & KEEP VISITING
OUR WEBSITE.
We have shared some valuable information on how
1. To remain focus / motivated until you clear your CAMS exams. (WHY US).
3. follow MAP to finish your learning journey with success. (STUDY APPROACH).
4. SCORE, CRUISE & FLUKE will help you to cross the success line. (EXAM
APPROACH).
• Key Learning Points: will highlight all the points that you need to memorize with exact / key words.
It will help you to answer all the direct questions in the exam.
• Study Plan: A document that will assist you how to execute your preparation to enhance your
chances to succeed in the final exam.
• Mock Exam: Ready for your final day? It’s time to test your knowledge.
• Online Coaches: tired of books? Need to hear the topic from CAMS qualified people? Don’t worry,
they will appear on your screen soon. (in H2 2020).
• ANY COMMENTS? Please feel free to drop it on our website under contact section.
CAMS STUDY PLAN
The Backbone of success is hard work, determination, good planning & perseverance.
TO FAIL.
STUDY WEEK 2
STUDY WEEK 1
CHAPTER 1
10 MCQs
1. What are the key effects of money laundering on countries? Choose three.
A. Reputation Risk.
B. Losing control on regulatory policy.
C. Being forced into adverse fiscal policies.
D. Losing control of monetary policy.
2. Which of the following are most vulnerable to the placement stage of money laundering? Choose
two.
A. Purchasing diamonds.
B. Overpaying a credit card balance.
C. Obtaining cashier cheques.
D. Internet casinos.
3. Why are credit unions (Building societies) vulnerable to money laundering?
4. At which stages of money laundering are credit cards used? Choose two.
a. Layering
b. Structuring
c. Integration
d. Placement
5. What is wash trading?
6. Casinos & other gaming venues are attractive to money launderers for the following reasons.
Choose three.
8. Lawyers are more useful in money laundering than company formation agents because of the
following reason:
A. Ensure that they key staff are registered with the regulator.
B. Ensure segregation of duties in all the tasks.
C. Conducting initial and ongoing criminal background checks.
D. Ensure manager review staff work properly.
10. What is the major money laundering risk associated with a number of prepaid cards as opposed to
credit or debit cards.
14 MCQs
11. In the FATF 40 recommendations, the focus of AML efforts has been expended beyond Financial
Institutions. Which three businesses and / or professions are covered? Choose 3 answers.
A. Casinos, when customer engage in financial transactions equal to or above a designated threshold.
B. Real Estate agents when they are involved in transactions for clients concerning buying & selling
properties.
C. Art dealers, when they engage in any cash transactions with a customer at or above designated
threshold.
D. Trust & company service providers.
12. According to the FATF Recommendations, “Designated non-financial businesses and professions”
include
A. The “Non-Cooperative Countries and Territories” list periodically issued by the FATF.
B. “Number of Countries Combating Terrorism” list issued periodically by United Nations.
C. A group of countries, based in Paris, cooperating in fighting money laundering & terrorism financing.
D. The “Non-Cooperative Countries & Territories” list periodically issued by the Wolfsberg Group.
15. According to FATF’s Money Laundering & Terrorist Financing Typologies 2003 – 2004, money
launderers use the insurance industry to clean their fund by:
1. Early redemption of policies.
2. Refining.
3. Filing false casualty claims on nonexistent objects.
4. Policy price manipulation.
A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1 and 4
16. Which of the following is not a level of compliant in FATF technical compliance assessment?
A. Fully Compliant.
B. Not applicable.
C. Partially Compliant.
D. Largely Compliant.
17. Which of the following is not the area of FATF’s main activities?
A. Standard Setting.
B. Ensuring effective compliance with standards.
C. Penalized Governments & PEPs involved in Money laundering.
D. Identifying money laundering and terrorist financing threats.
A. A. It means that crimes that offenders attempt to conceal through financial subterfuge that should
constitute precursor offenses to Money Laundering.
B. It means offenders will be categorized as ML whenever there is any concealment.
C. It is used to empower enforcement agencies to tackle these crimes.
D. It is used for tackling ML and TF easily.
19. The Wolfberg principles for Private Banking list circumstances that would require additional due
diligence, including activities that involve which three of these choices.
A. Foreign Jurisdiction.
B. High Risk Countries, including those identified by credible sources as having inadequate Anti-Money
Laundering Standards.
C. High Risk Activities, involving clients and beneficial owners whose source of wealth originates from
activities known to be vulnerable to money laundering.
D. Public officials, including those individuals who have or had positions of public trust.
A. Private Banking.
B. Correspondent Banking.
C. Alternative remittance.
D. Trade Finance.
22. ________ is an association of 13 global banks that aims to develop standards on money laundering
controls for banks.
A. Egmont Group
B. European Union
C. GAFILAT
D. Wolfsberg Group
23. Which of the following elements of the KYC program are emphasized in the Basel Committee’s
2001 paper?
A. Risk Management.
B. Customer identification.
C. Monitoring.
D. All of the above.
24. Which of the following Section under the US Patriot Act allows the appropriate federal banking
agency to require a financial institution to produce within 120 hours (five days) records or information
related to the institution’s AML compliance or related to a customer of the institution or any account
opened, maintained, administered or managed in the US by the financial institution.
A. Section 314(a)
B. Section 319(b)
C. Section 314(b)
D. Section 311(a)
CHAPTER 3
14 MCQs
25. According to experts, what is the most effective way to prevent money laundering through
financial institutions?
A. Relates to friendly, social relationship among employees of the same financial institution.
B. Is a key tool in detecting suspicious activity because employees are often accomplices of money
launderers.
C. Means that you should consider every employee as a suspicious one unless he or she is proved the
contrary.
D. Is a concerted effort by upper management to become personally acquainted with all employees.
27. Which one do the Office of Foreign Asset Control regulations not cover?
28. An anti-money laundering specialist at a large institution is responsible for information senior
management about the status of the anti-money laundering program across the organization.
Which report is the most useful?
A. Its account status may change from higher risk to low-risk jurisdictions.
B. Its account status may change from low risk to middle-risk jurisdictions.
C. Its account status may change from low risk to higher risk jurisdictions.
D. Its account status may change from higher risk to no risk jurisdictions.
30. Which category of sanctions is aimed at key sectors of an economy to prohibit a very specific subset
of financial dealings within those sectors to impede future growth?
A. Comprehensive Sanctions.
B. Powerful sanctions.
C. Targeted Sanctions.
D. Sectoral Sanctions.
31. Select the most appropriate statement for OFAC:
A. OFAC is not a supervisory agency but works closely with supervisory agencies at both the federal and
state levels.
B. OFAC is a supervisory agency & does not work closely with other supervisory agencies at both the federal
and state levels.
C. OFAC is a secret intelligence agency that works in collaboration with the CIA.
D. OFAC is an institution developed to support terrorist financing.
32. The establishment and continual development of which of the following in a financial institution are
foundational to a successful AML/CFT program?
A. Policies.
B. Procedures.
C. Controls.
D. All of the above.
33. What should senior management do in order to promote a culture of anti-money laundering
compliance?
34. When conducting a review on a customer, the wife of a PEP might bring higher risk, which of the
following is the reason behind?
A. Her husband may use her for the illicit fund's transfer.
B. It is assumed that she will be scrutinized less than her husband.
C. She can go behind her husband back to obtain extra money.
D. She is more likely to be vulnerable to bribery than her husband.
35. A financial institution is looking to establish an online account opening service. The institution plans
to offer this product to new and existing customers within the country. Which of the following would be
the best plan of action for an AML specialist to recommend enabling the institution to verify the
customer’s identity?
A. Do not offer the product, because it is too high risk because the customers cannot be seen to verify their
identities.
B. Require all customers to send a copy of valid photo identification to the institution.
C. Ensure that the institution has a reliable third-party source that will enable verification of the customers.
D. Allow customers to enter required information but require all customers to come to the institution in
person for verification.
36. Which of the following customer type is not inherently high risk?
A. Car dealer
B. Embassies
C. Import / Export Companies
D. Travel Agencies
37. The arrangement of a compliance officer with designated compliance functions is categorized as
which line of defense?
A. First
B. Second
C. Third
D. Not a line of defense
38. What one factor could cause a financial institution not to update its existing AML program?
12 MCQs
39. What facilitates law enforcement agent obtaining evidence from authorities in a foreign country relating
to criminal activity?
40. An AML compliance officer receives notice of government update including the names of the latest
terrorists sanctioned by the United Nations Security Council. Which would be the most appropriate step to
take?
A. Ensure communication with regulatory & law enforcement authorities is conducted only through the Board of
Directors.
B. Communicate only in writing with regulatory & law enforcement authorities in line with applicable local law.
C. Communicate with regulatory & law enforcement authorities in line with applicable local laws.
D. Only provide information that is specifically & directly requested.
42. After an institution files an STR with regard to a particular account, a law enforcement agent requests
the institution to keep the account open until advised otherwise by law enforcement. What step should the
institute take?
A. Close the account in order not to be caught in the middle of the law enforcement investigation.
B. Follow the request of law enforcement agent & keep the account open.
C. Request a written letter from the law enforcement (agency signed by an appropriate authorized signature).
D. Keep the account open only if only it complies with the bank own AML procedures.
43. What is most valuable when using the internet as an investigative source?
44. In order to protect investigative materials from disclosure when conducting an internal investigation
of any employee of a financial institution, legal counsel of that financial should ____________?
A. Request formal company authorization to conduct the investigation, such authorization should be granted, if
possible, by the board of directors or audit committee.
B. Refuse to provide any records or documents to law enforcement because the bank has client privilege with its
bank customers.
C. Let the bank fire any and all contract investigators to conduct the internal investigation. That way legal is not a
party to the action and may remain independent.
D. Not mark files or documents with privileged and confidential; attorney-client privilege and/or work-product.
Those marks will only encourage law enforcement or opposing attorneys to seize those files.
45. Whenever an institution receives a subpoena, search warrant, or similar law enforcement demand,
or becomes aware of a government-related investigation involving the institution, it should conduct
which of the following?
46. Which of the following do not need to use subpoenas or search warrants or other jurisdiction-
specific legal mechanisms?
A. Auditors
B. Banking regulatory agencies
C. Government officers
D. Financial Authority Task Force
47. Which of the following are usually issued by grand juries, operating under the purview of a court
and empower a law enforcement agency to compel the production of documents and testimony?
A. Arrest warrants
B. Investigations
C. Search warrants
D. Subpoenas
48. What are the most suitable answer below for the rationale for an interview the employee ASAP when
the incident happens?
A. Economic sanctions.
B. Commission Rotaries.
C. Account Monitoring order.
D. Mutual Legal Assistant Treaty.
50. Suzy, the AML compliance officer for a large financial organization, is asked by her board of directors
to review how best to protect the confidentiality of STRs submitted by the organization and the
confidential information contained therein. What are three things she should consider?
A. Ensure that employees know how to retrieve STRs by the name of the customer quickly and efficiently.
B. Ensure training of employees so that they do not inadvertently inform, or tip off, the targeted customer of
the filing.
C. Ensure strong record-keeping procedures to segregate information pertaining to STRs and to maintain
their confidentiality.
D. Ensure that procedures are in place to promptly and appropriately respond to requests for copies of filed
STRs.
ANSWERS
1. A, C, D 11. B, C, D 21. C 31. A 41. A
The End.