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Mock Test - 2 - SA

This document appears to be a mock test for the KVPY exam for class 11 students. It contains instructions for the test format and sections for mathematics, physics, chemistry, and biology questions. The test has two parts - part 1 contains 1 mark questions and part 2 contains 2 mark questions. There are a total of 52 questions across the four subjects. Calculators are not permitted and students should attempt all questions. Sample questions are provided for mathematics and physics.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
144 views7 pages

Mock Test - 2 - SA

This document appears to be a mock test for the KVPY exam for class 11 students. It contains instructions for the test format and sections for mathematics, physics, chemistry, and biology questions. The test has two parts - part 1 contains 1 mark questions and part 2 contains 2 mark questions. There are a total of 52 questions across the four subjects. Calculators are not permitted and students should attempt all questions. Sample questions are provided for mathematics and physics.

Uploaded by

07 maths
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
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FIITJEE

KVPY MOCK TEST


CLASS – XI (SA)
PAPER CODE : 720148.0
Time : 2 Hr. Date : 31-10-14 Max Mark :64
Instructions :

i) The question paper consists of 52 question divided into two parts (part – I & II).
Part
Part – I
Part – I contains 10 questions of Math
Part – I contains 10 questions of Physics
Part – I contains 10 questions of Chemistry
Part – I contains 10 questions of Biology
Part
Part – II
Part – II contains 3 questions of Math
Part – II contains 3 questions of Physics
Part – II contains 3 questions of Chemistry
Part – II contains 3 questions of Biology
ii) Marking Scheme for each section :
each question in Part – I Carries + 1 & Each question in Part – II carries +2 marks

iii) There is NO NEGATIVE marking.


iv) Attempt All questions.
v) Use of Calculator is NOT PERMITTED
PERMITTED.
TED
vi) All symbols have their usual meanings, if not mentioned in the question.

Part – I (1 marks)
MATHEMATICS
1. The number of pairs of reals (x, y) such that x = x2 + y2 and y = 2xy is
(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 1
2. Let (1 + 2x)20 = a0 + a1x + a2x2 + ….+a20x20. Then, 3a0 + 2a1 + 3a2 + 2a3 + 3a4 + 2a5 + 3a4 + 2a5+…2a19 + 3a20
equals to
5.320 − 3 5.320 + 3 5.320 +1 5.320 −1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
2 2 2 2
45 54
3. What will be the last digit of 23 − 23
(a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 4 (d) 2

1 π2 ∞
1 + 3 + 5 + .... + ( 2n −1)
4. Given ∑n
n =1
2
=
6
: the value of ∑1 +2
n =1
3 3
+ 33 + ...... + n 3
is

2π 2 4π 2  π2  π2
(a) (b) (c) 4  −1 (d)
3 3  6  6

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KVPY_MT_2_Class XI_2

5. The triangle formed by x – axis, y – axis and the line 3x + 4y + c = 0 has inradius 1. Then the value of |c| is
(a) 12 (b) 7 (c) 5 (d) 1

6. The number of solutions of the equation : 3cos 2 x sin 2 x − sin 4 x − cos 2 x = 0 in the interval [ 0,2π] is
(a) 8 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 3

7. A fair coin is tossed five times. If the out comes are 2 heads and 3 tails (in some order), then what is the
probability that the fourth toss is a head?
1 2 1 3
(a) (b) (c) (d)
4 5 2 5

8. Let x, y and z be positive integers such that gcd(x, y, z) = 1 : x < y < z and x2 + y2 = z2. Then which of the
following is always true?
(a) 2 does not divide x (b) 2 does not divide z(x + y)
(c) 4 divides x + y + z (d) 8 does not divides x + y + z

9. If a, b, and c are nonzero real numbers such that ab = 2 (a + b), bc = 3 (b + c) and ca = 4 (c + a) then the
value of 5a + 7b + c is
(a) 18 (b) 72 (c) 108 (d) 120

10. Let ABCD be a square. E and F be points on AC such that AE = EF = FC = AC/3. Then tan ( ∠EBF ) equals
1
(a) 3/4 (b) (c) 1/2 (d) 1/3
3
Part – II (2 marks)
11. Let P1 be the set of all prime numbers, i.e., P1 = {2, 3, 5, 7, 11, …..}, let Pn = {np| p∈P1 |} ,i.e., the set of all
prime multiples of n. Then which of the following sets is non empty?
(a) P1 ∩ P23 (b) P7 ∩ P21 (c) P12 ∩ P20 (d) P20 ∩ P24

B C
12. In ∆ABC,3a = b + c, then value of cot cot is
2 2
(a) 2 (b) 1/2 (c) 1/3 (d) 3

13. ab and cd are two 2 – digit natural numbers and 4b + a = 13k1 and 5d – c = 17 k2, where k1 and k2 are natural
numbers. Then find the largest number that will always divide product of ab and cd.
(a) 221 (b) 312 (c) 124 (d) 241

Part – I (1 marks)
PHYSICS

1. A 220 volt, 100 watt bulb is connected across a 110 volt mains supply. The power consumed will be
(a) 100 W
(b) 50 W
(c) 25 W
(d) The bulb will not consume any power since it will not glow at this voltage.

2. A wire of given length carries a steady current. It is first bent to form a circular loop of one turn. The same
length is now bent to have a double loop of smaller radius. The magnetic moment of the second loop is
(a) Decreased four times (b) Decreased to half of its previous value
(c) Doubled (d) Left unchanged.

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KVPY_MT_2_Class XI_3

3. The figure shows a wire carrying a current i; AB and DE are long, BCD
is a semicircular arc of radius r. A particle of charge q is kept at O, the
centre of the arc. If the velocity of this charge is V0 iˆ , the force that it E D
exerts on the wire is:
O r C
qVµ 0 i  1 1  ˆ
(a) Zero (b)  + j
r  4 2π  A i B
qVµ 0 i  1 1  ˆ qVµ 0 i  1 1  ˆ
(c) +  − j (d)  + j
r 2 π  r  4π 2 
4. Five equal resistance each of 2 ohm connected as shown in figure. Find Α
C Β
the equivalent resistance.
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 4 (d) 8 10V

5. Given that mass of 11 H = 1.007825 amu; mass of neutron = 1.008665 amu, mass of 4
2 He atom = 4.00260
amu and 1 amu = 931 MeV / c2, what is the binding energy of an α − particle?

(a) 24.5 MeV (b) 28.3 MeV (c) 17.8 MeV (d) 32.6 MeV

6. A rays of light is incident on a glass slab of refractive index 1.62. if the reflected and refracted rays
are mutually perpendicular to each other , then if angle of incident is x , then
(a) tan x =1.62 (b) cot x =1.62
(c) sin x =1.62 (d) cos x =1.62
7. A particle starts from origin with an initial velocity uiˆ and constant acceleration − aiˆ. Find the
3u
distance covered by the particle in time
2a
3u 2 u2 5u 2 9u 2
(a) (b) (c) (d)
8a 2a 8a 8a
8. The speed v of a particle moving along a straight line, when it is at a distance x from a fixed point
on the line v2 = 144 − 9x2. Select the correct alternative (s)

(a) the motion of the particle is SHM with time period T = units
3
(b) the maximum displacement of the particle from the fixed point is 5 units
(c) the magnitude of acceleration at a distance 3 units from the fixed point is 28 units
(d) the motion of the particle is periodic but not simple harmonic
9. For production of X-rays of wavelength 0.1 Å, the minimum potential difference between the cathode and
anode is
(a) 12.4 kv (b) 24.8 kv (c) 124 kv (d) 248 kv
10. A equi-convex lens and a equi-concave lens are fitted as shown in
the figure. The powers of the convex lens is +5 D. What is the
power of the combination? (Both having same µ )
(a) +5 D (b) +2.5 D
(c) +10 D (d) zero

Part – II (2 marks)

11. A box of mass 8 kg is placed on a rough inclined plane of inclination θ. Its downward motion can
be prevented by applying an upward pull F and it can be made to slide upwards by applying a force
2F. The coefficient of friction between the box and the inclined plane is:

1 1
(a) tan θ (b) 3 tan θ (c) tan θ (d) 2 tan θ
3 2

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KVPY_MT_2_Class XI_4

12. A uniform sphere is supplied heat electrically at the centre at a constant rate. In the steady state,
steady temperatures are established at all radial locations r, heat flows outwards radially and is
ultimately radiated out by the outer surface isotropically. In this steady state, the temperature
gradient varies with radial distance r according to
(a) r−1 (b) r−2 (c) r−3 (d) r−3/2

13. ( )
For the electric field E = K x iˆ compute the total charge confined z

in the cube shown in the figure. (side = 1 m)

(a) ε 0 K (b) 2ε 0 K
ε K 1 1 y
(c) 0 (d) 2 (ε 0 K )
2 1
1
x

Part – I (1 marks)
CHEMISTRY
1. The structure of trans – 3 – hexene is

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

2. The number of 2o carbon atom (s) in the following compound


HC
CH2
O , is
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 7
3. The number unpaired electrons in an atom with electric configuration [Ar]4s23d7
(a) 0 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 7
4. Which of the following molecules has highest dipole moment?
(a) CH3Cl (b) CHCl3 (c) CH2Cl2 (d) CCl4

5. When calcium carbide is added to water, the gas that is evolved is -


(a) carbon dioxide (b) hydrogen (c) acetylene (d) methane

The number of possible structural isomers of C3H4 is :


6. (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

7. For the redox reaction:


MnO4− + C2O24− + H+ 
→ Mn2+ + CO2 + H2O
The correct coefficients of the reactants for the balanced reaction are
MnO−4 C2O24− H+
(a) 2 5 16
(b) 16 5 2
(c) 5 16 2
(d) 2 16 5
8. The types of bonds present in CuSO4.5H2O are only
(a) electrovalent and covalent
(b) electrovalent and coordinate covalent
(c) electrovalent, covalent, coordinate covalent and hydrogen bond
(d) covalent and coordinate covalent

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KVPY_MT_2_Class XI_5

9. A compound that gives a positive iodoform test is


(a) 1-pentanol (b) 2-pentanone (c) 3-pentanone (d) pentanal
10. The compound that is most reactive towards electrophilic nitration is:
(a) toluene (b) benzene (c) benzoic acid (d) nitrobenzene

Part – II (2 marks)
11. The pH values of
(i) 0.1 M HCl aq (ii) 0.1 M KOH (iii) tomato juice and (iv) pure water
follow the order -
(a) (i) < (iii) < (iv) < (ii) (b) (iii) < (i) < (iv) < (ii)
(c) (i) < (ii) < (iii) < (iv) (d) (iv) < (iii) < (ii) < (i)
12. For an endothermic reaction where ∆H represents the enthalpy of the reaction in kJ/mole the
minimum value for the energy of activation will be
(a) less than ∆H (b) zero (c) more than ∆H (d) equal to ∆H
13. Total number of aromatic compound from the following

N
, , , , , , , ,
H
O

(a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 7 (d) 9

Part – I (1 marks)
BIOLOGY
1. Which one of the following about sponges (phylum Porifera) is correct?
(a) Their body consists of epithelial tissues only
(b) All the four types of tissues are found in them
(c) Only epithelial & connective tissue are present
(d) Structurally organized tissues are absent in sponges
2. The increase in complexity of the vertebrate circulatory system is represented by which of the following
combinations?
(a) Toad – Rabbit – Alligator – shark (b) Shark – Frog – Alligator – Rabbit
(c) Shark – Crocodile – Rabbit – Frog (d) Crocodile – dog – shark – Toad
3. Smooth Endoplasmic reticulum is specialized for the synthesis of lipids and steroids. These organelles are
found predominantly in
(a) Pancreas (b) Blood (c) Ovary (d) Reticular cells
4. 18% of the bases in Mycobacterium tuberculosis was found to be adenine. What is the [G] + [C] content?
(a) 64% (b) 32 % (c) 36% (d) 18%
5. Albinism is caused by a recessive autosomal allele. A man and a woman, both normal pigmented have an
albino child together. What is the probability of the second child to be an albino?
(a) 0 % (b) 50% (c) 25% (d) 75%
6. The living tissue that provides support to the growing parts of the plant, is
(a) Sclerenchyma (b) Parenchyma (c) Collenchyma (d) Xylem vessels
7. In ripening fruit, photosynthetic chloroplast becomes non – photosynthetic
(a) Chromoplast (b) Leucoplast (c) Apoplast (d) Symplast
8. Moh’ls half leaf experiment is performed to prove _____________ is necessary for photosynthesis
(a) Chlorophyll (b) O2 is released during photosynthesis
(c) Organic substance is produced during photosynthesis (d) CO2 is necessary for photosynthesis
9. Common indicator of water pollution is
(a) Escherichia coli (b) Vibrio cholerae
(c) Entamoeba histolytica (d) Salmonella typhi

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KVPY_MT_2_Class XI_6

10. When an individual sacrifices its own welfare for the benefit or welfare of another animal of its group, it is
known as
(a) Commensalism (b) Dominance (c) Ammensalism (d) Altruism
Part – II (2 marks)
11. Consider the following statements.
1. In the brain, grey matter surrounds white matter.
2. In the Spinal cord, grey matter surrounds white matter.
3. In the brain, white matter surrounds grey matter.
4. In the spinal cord, white matter surrounds grey matter.
Of these statements,
(a) Only 1 is correct (b) 1 & 3 are correct (c) 1&4 are correct (d) 4 alone is correct

12. A pathogenic bacterium has been engulfed by a phagocytic cell as part of the nonspecific (innate) immune
response. Which of the following illustrations best represents the response?

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

13. Both myoglobin and hemoglobin are proteins that bind reversibly with molecular oxygen. The graph below
show the oxygen binding saturation of each protein at different concentrations of oxygen.

Which of the following statements is correct?


(a) At 10 mm Hg partial pressure, hemoglobin binds oxygen but myoglobin does not
(b) At 20 mm Hg partial pressure, myoglobin and hemoglobin bind oxygen in equal amounts
(c) At 40 mm Hg partial pressure, myoglobin has a greater affinity for oxygen than hemoglobin has
(d) At 80 mm Hg partial pressure, myoglobin binds twice as much oxygen as hemoglobin binds

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KVPY_MT_2_Class XI_7

ANSWER KEY
KVPY MOCK TEST – 2
SA - CLASS XI
PAPER CODE : 720148.0

MATHEMATICS
1. C 2. C 3. C 4. C 5. A 6. B
7. B 8. B 9. B 10. A 11. C 12. A
13. A
PHYSICS
1. B 2. B 3. B 4. A 5. B 6. A
7. C 8. A 9. C 10. D 11. A 12. B
13. A
CHEMISTRY
1. D 2. C 3. B 4. A 5. C 6. C
7. A 8. C 9. B 10. A 11. A 12. C
13. C
BIOLOGY
1. D 2. B 3. C 4. A 5. C 6. B
7. A 8. D 9. A 10. D 11. C 12. C
13. C

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