TCS 45 - Web 115 235 PDF

3 RADIOGRAPHIC TESTING (RT)
3.1 Radiographic Testing Level 1 (RT-1)
3.1.1 Radiographic Testing Level 1 (RT-1) General Examination
1. Which of the following types of intensifying screens are not used in industrial
radiography?
(a) Lead
(b) Fluorescent
(c) Silver halide
(d) All of the above
2. Betatrons are used to produce X rays in what range?
(a) Several MeV
(b) 50-500 keV
(c) 500-1000 keV
(d) 0-50 keV
3. Which of the following is an isotope not artificially produced for industrial use:
(a) Ir-192
(b) Ra-226
(c) Co-60
4. One half value layer of lead for Iridium-192 is approximately:
(a) 12 mm
(b) 4 mm
(c) 2 mm
(d) 25 mm
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5. One half value layer of lead for Cobalt-60 is approximately:
(a) 12 mm
(b) 6 mm
(c) 2 mm
(d) 25 mm
6. The film processing step in which the undeveloped silver bromide is removed from
the film emulsion is called:
(a) Development
(b) Stop bath
(c) Fixing
(d) Rinsing
7. A radiation producing device which emits radiation of one or a few discreet

wavelengths is:
(a) An X ray machine
(b) A linear accelerator
(c) A gamma ray source
(d) A betatron
8. The intensifying action of lead screens is caused by:
(a) Secondary X ray emission
(b) Secondary gamma ray emissions
(c) Fluorescence of lead screens
(d) Electron emission
9. Most of the energy applied to an X ray tube is converted into:
(a) X rays
(b) Light
(c) Heat
(d) Ultraviolet radiation
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10. Radiography of tubular sections using a double wall, double viewing technique is
mainly applicable to sections:
(a) Over 38 mm in diameter
(b) 88 mm in diameter or less
(c) 125 mm in diameter and less
(d) Under 25 mm in diameter
11. Which of the following is the most common method of packaging film?
(a) Individual sheets for use in cassettes
(b) Rolls
(c) Pre-packaged (‘day-pack’)
12. Which of the following types of radiation is particulate?
(a) X
(b) Gamma
(c) Alpha
(d) None of the above
13. Most scattered radiation which adversely affects the radiographic image quality
originates:
(a) From floors and walls adjacent to the test piece
(b) From other nearby objects
(c) From the test piece itself
(d) From the lead intensifying screens
14. An effect of scattered radiation is to:
(a) Decrease required exposure time
(b) Diminish contrast, detail and clarity of radiographic image
(c) Decrease film density
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15. What is the most important factor in determining the archival quality of radiographic
film?
(a) Film density
(b) Image quality
(c) Degree of removal of fixer residues during washing
(d) Degree of removal of developer residues during washing
16. Radiographic enlargement to distinguish small defects is possible:
(a) Only with a very small source or focal spot size radiation source
(b) Routinely
(c) With most sources
(d) Never
17. A detrimental effect of fluorescent screens might be:
(a) High definition
(b) Screen mottle
(c) Non-linear attenuation
(d) Displaced core effect
18. The penetrating power of an X ray machine is indicated by:
(a) Milliamperage
(b) Tube voltage
(c) Filament current
(d) Anode current
19. Reticulation may be the result of:
(a) Inadequate agitation of the film during development
(b) Inadequate water rinse during processing
(c) Using exhausted stop bath solution
(d) Developing solutions not maintained at the same temperatures.
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20. The main advantage of having small focal spot on an X ray tube is:
(a) Heat is conducted away more efficiently than with a large focal spot
(b) A smaller focal spot is unlikely to be damaged from the required tube currents
(c) Longer tube life
(d) A smaller focal spot allows sharper radiographic images than does a larger
focal spot
21. Cobalt-60 is produced by:
(a) Fission of Uranium-235
(b) Neutron capture by Cobalt-59
(c) Radioactive decay
22. For a particular isotope, gamma radiation intensity is determined by:
(a) Type of isotope used
(b) Energy level of gamma rays in source
(c) Source strength in curies
23. Which of the following statements should be true to achieve the highest level of
radiographic sharpness (definition)?
(a) The focal spot should be as small as practicable
(b) The focal spot to test piece distance should be as large as practicable
(c) The film to test piece distance should be as small as practicable
24. Which of the following correctly expresses the inverse square law if I1=dose rate
nearest source, I2=dose rate furthest from the source, D1=distance nearest to source
and D2=distance furthest from the source:
(a) I1/I2 = D12/D22
(b) I12/I22 = D1/D2
(c) I1/I2 = D22/D12
(d) I12/I22 = D2/D1
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25. Thicker materials would normally be inspected using:
(a) Lower kV X rays
(b) Higher mA X rays
(c) Higher kV X rays
(d) Lower mA X rays
26. Another name for a penetrameter is:
(a) Radiographic shim
(b) Image quality indicator
(c) Density standard
(d) Acceptance standard
27. The silver nitrate spot test can be used to:
(a) Check the film for film quality
(b) Check for under developed films
(c) Check for film artifacts
(d) All the above answers are correct
28. The difference in densities seen on a radiograph due to section changes in an item is:
(a) Film contrast
(b) Radiographic contrast
(c) Subject contrast
(d) Radiographic sensitivity
29. Which type of film would exhibit the coarsest grain?
(a) Slow
(b) Medium
(c) Fast
(d) No difference in the grain sizes
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30. An advantage of a gamma ray source is:
(a) Radiation may be turned on or off at will
(b) Outside power is normally not required
(c) Less shielding is required than for X ray
31. Higher X ray tube voltages result in:
(a) Shorter wavelengths X rays
(b) Less penetrating X rays
(c) Fewer X rays in the primary beam
32. A casting flaw which is formed when two masses of molten metal flowing from
different directions flow together, but fail to fuse, is called:
(a) A hot tear
(b) Shrinkage
(c) A cold crack
(d) A cold shut
33. X rays are produced by:
(a) Radioactive isotopes
(b) The rapid deceleration of electrons
(c) Ultraviolet radiation of unstable atoms
34. Which of the following is a function of lead screens?
(a) To reduce geometric unsharpness
(b) To increase scatter
(c) To reduce exposure time
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35. A silver nitrate spot test might be used to:
(a) Check for archival film quality
(b) Check for out of date film
(c) Check for single versus double emulsion film
(d) Any of the above
36. A linear accelerator is used to produce X rays having energy in the range of:
(a) Several MeV
(b) 50-500 keV
(c) 500-1000 keV
(d) 0-50 keV
37. How is the wavelength of scattered radiation compared to the primary beam?
(a) Longer than the wavelength of the primary beam
(b) Shorter than the wavelength of the primary beam
(c) Same as the wavelength of the primary beam
(d) Not related
38. Which of the following viewing conditions is most desirable for interpreting
radiographic film?
(a) Brightness of surroundings approximately the same as the area of interest on

the radiograph
(b) Totally dark viewing room
(c) Well lit viewing room
39. Pinhole radiography would be used to:
(a) Make high quality radiographs for critical inspection
(b) Determine focal spot size
(c) Construct exposure charts
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40. A straight, dark line in the centre of the film of a weld cap would probably be:
(a) Porosity
(b) Undercut
(c) Tungsten inclusions
(d) A linear crack
41. Which one of the following steps is necessary to dissolve the undarkened silver salt
crystals in the film emulsion:
(a) Developing
(b) Fixing
(c) Washing
42. Approximately what energy X ray machine would be required to have penetrating
power equivalent to a Cobalt-60 source:
(a) 600 keV
(b) 1.2 MeV
(c) 2 MeV
43. The normal range of steel that is radiographed using Ir-192 is:
(a) 5 mm–20 mm
(b) 25 mm – 75 mm
(c) 0.5 mm – 5 mm
(d) 75 mm – 150 mm
44. The focal spot size of an X ray machine must be known in order to determine:
(a) The geometric unsharpness
(b) Kilovoltage peak output
(c) Required mA setting
(d) Exposure time
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45. X ray intensity is a function of :
(a) Cathode current
(b) Step down ratio of the filament transformer
(c) The distance from the test piece
(d) Size of the anode (target)
46. What is the minimum age in years at which a person may perform radiography :
(a) 15
(b) 18
(c) 21
(d) 30
47. A densitometer is an instrument that measures:
(a) Radiographic contrast
(b) Radiographic sensitivity
(c) Radiographic density
(d) Radiographic resolution
48. Which of the following is the correct formula to use for calculating geometric
unsharpness if F=source size, T=specimen thickness, D=source to object distance and
Ug=geometric unsharpness:
(a) Ug = FD/T
(b) Ug = DT/F
(c) Ug = FT/D
(d) Ug = FTD
49. A wetting agent is used in film processing to:
(a) More closely control development
(b) Prevent formation of water marks during the drying stage
(c) Reduce formation of air bubbles in the developer solution
(d) Reduce formation of air bubbles in the fixer
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50. Film intensifying screens are normally used to:
(a) Decrease exposure time
(b) Increase grain size
(c) Shield film from stray light
51. A radiation producing device which emits a broad spectrum of wavelengths is:
(a) A gamma ray source
(b) An X ray machine
(c) A Geiger-Müeller tube
(d) A curie tube
52. Which of the following represent types of radiation stemming from radioactive decay :
(a) Alpha, beta, gamma
(b) Alpha, gamma, delta
(c) X, rho, sigma
(d) Sigma, gamma, beta
53. Explain the difference between X and gamma rays:
(a) They are both types of electromagnetic radiation
(b) X rays are naturally occurring; gamma rays are man made
(c) X rays are produced electrically; gamma rays are emitted by disintegrating
atomic nuclei
(d) There is no difference
54. Most industrial X ray machines contain targets made of:
(a) Beryllium
(b) Magnesium
(c) Lead
(d) Tungsten
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55. The effects of scattered radiation may be lessened by:
(a) Using a lead mask around the test piece
(b) Using a lead or copper filter between the X ray tube and the test piece
(c) Using lead screens
56. A reaction which occurs when a radiation beam of 500 keV is partially absorbed by a
test piece would probably be:
(a) The Compton effect
(b) The photoelectric effect
(c) Pair production
57. The term used to describe the reaction of human cells, other than reproductive cells, to
ionizing radiation is:
(a) Genetic effects
(b) Somatic effects
(c) Corpuscular effects
(d) Hematological effects
58. A low density image of the letter ‘B’ on a radiographic film would probably be caused
by:
(a) Under exposure
(b) Excessive exposure
(c) Excessive backscatter
(d) Insufficient backscatter
59. A term which refers to the sharpness of the radiographic image is:
(a) Sensitivity
(b) Halo effect
(c) Shadow effect
(d) Definition
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60. A dark, irregular indication which is located adjacent to the toe of the weld would
probably be:
(a) Undercut
(b) Incomplete penetration
(c) Porosity
(d) Tungsten inclusions
61. A term which refers to the smallest detail visible in a radiograph is called:
(a) Radiographic sensitivity
(d) Film contrast
62. Which type of gamma ray source would be used to radiograph a weld in 150 mm thick
steel plate?
(a) Ir-192
(b) Co-60
(c) Tm-170
(d) Cs-137
63. The radiation quality of a gamma ray source is determined by:
(a) The size of the source
(b) The type of isotope to be used
(c) Can be varied by the operator
(d) Ci strength of the source
64. Generally, X ray output is changed by changing the:
(a) Atomic number of the anode
(b) Tube current of the unit
(c) Supply voltage to the unit
(d) Atomic weight of the cathode
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65. Deep scratches on lead intensifying screens will cause?
(a) Selective image enhancement
(b) Irregular light lines on the film
(c) Dark lines on the film
(d) Unacceptable blockage of the primary radiation beam
66. Which of the following is classified as electromagnetic radiation?
(a) Visible light
(b) X rays
(c) Infrared radiation
67. The main disadvantage of having a small focal spot on an X ray tube is:
(a) Heat is conducted away too fast
(b) Sharper radiographic images may be achieved with a larger focal spot
(c) A smaller focal spot is limited to lower tube currents because of the potential
damage from overheating
68. Exposure of whole body to moderate radiation doses of 500 – 2000 mSv (50 to
200 rem) would probably cause which of the following effects?
(a) Blood cell changes
(b) Swelling
(c) Possible nausea
69. A reaction which occurs when a radiation beam of 90 keV is totally absorbed by a test
piece would probably be:
(c) Pair production
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70. The term used to describe the reaction of human reproductive cells, to ionizing
radiation is:
(a) Genetic effects
(b) Somatic effects
(c) Corpuscular effects
(d) Hematological effects
71. Explain the difference between X and gamma rays:
(a) They are both types of electromagnetic radiation
(b) X rays are naturally occurring; gamma rays are man made
(c) X rays are produced electrically; gamma rays are emitted by disintegrating
atomic nuclei
(d) There is no difference
72. Which of the following is classified as electromagnetic radiation?
(a) Visible light
(b) X rays
(c) Infrared radiation
73. The intensifying action of lead screens is caused by:
(a) Secondary X ray emission
(b) Secondary gamma ray emissions
(c) Fluorescence of lead screens
(d) Electron emission
74. How is the wavelength of scattered radiation related to the primary beam?
(a) Longer
(b) Shorter
(c) Same
(d) Not related
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75. X rays are produced by:
(a) Radioactive isotopes
(b) The rapid deceleration of electrons
(c) Ultraviolet radiation of unstable atoms
76. Most of the energy applied to an X ray tube is converted into:
(a) X rays
(b) Light
(c) Heat
(d) Ultraviolet radiation
77. Higher X ray tube voltages result in:
(a) Shorter wavelengths X rays
(b) More penetrating X rays
(c) Higher intensity X ray beam
78. Betatrons are used to produce X rays having energy in the range of:
(a) Several MeV
(b) 50-500 keV
(c) 500-1000 keV
(d) 0-50 keV
79. A linear accelerator is used to produce X rays in what range?
(a) Several MeV
(b) 50-500 keV
(c) 500-1000 keV
(d) 0-50 keV
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80. For a particular isotope, gamma radiation intensity is determined by:
(a) Type isotope used
(b) Energy level of gamma rays in source
(c) Source strength in curies
81. A term used to describe the range of radiation intensities falling on the film during
exposure is:
(a) Film contrast
(d) Radiographic sensitivity
82. An expression which is used to describe the slope of a film characteristic curve is:
(b) Film latitude
(c) Film contrast
(d) Film sensitivity
(e) Film gradient
83. Which of the following factors affect film graininess?
(a) Wavelengths of radiation
(b) Film processing conditions
(c) Film speed
84. The amount of radioactivity which corresponds to 3.7 × 1010 disintegrations per second
is called:
(a) 0.01 gray (1 rad)
(b) 1 Farad
(c) 37 GBq (1 curie)
(d) 10 mSv (1 roentgen)
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85. The result of filtering the X rays is to produce:
(a) More geometric unsharpness
(b) Less geometric unsharpness
(c) Softer radiation
(d) Harder radiation
86. Which of the following actions is performed by lead screens?
(a) Absorbs a portion of the primary radiation beam
(b) Preferentially absorbs soft X rays
(c) Emits electrons under gamma and X ray fields
87. The total radiation dose received equals:
(a) The radiation intensity
(b) The source size in curies
(c) Radiation intensity times time of exposure
(d) Radiation intensity divided by the square of the distance from the source
88. Which of the following is the most common type of X ray tube?
(a) Bipolar
(b) Unipolar
(c) Long anode
89. A reaction which occurs when a radiation beam of 15 MeV is partially absorbed by a
test piece would probably be:
(c) Pair production
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90. A reaction which occurs when a radiation beam of 50 keV is partially absorbed by a test
piece would probably be:
(c) Pair production
91. A lethal dose of complete body radiation is normally considered to be:
(a) 1-2 Sv (100-200 rem)
(b) 250-500 mSv (25-50 rem)
(c) 6-8 Sv (600-800 rem)
(d) 500 mSv (50000 mrem)
3.1.2 Radiographic Testing Level 1 (RT-1) Specific Examination
1. Almost all gamma radiography today is done with artificially activated:
(a) Particles
(b) Isotopes
(c) Radium
(d) X ray machines
2. A Curie (37 gigabecquerel)of radioactive material will disintegrate at the rate of:
(a) 37 million (3.7 × 107) disintegrations per second
(b) 37 billion (3.7 × 1010) disintegrations per second
(c) 37 trillion (3.7 × 1013) disintegrations per second
3. The specific activity of radioactive isotopes is measured in:
(a) MeV (million electron volts)
(b) R/h (roentgens per hour) or gray per hour
(c) Ci/g (curies per gram) or Becquerel per gram
(d) Counts per minute (c/min)
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4. What is the primary difference between X rays and gamma rays of the same energy?
(a) Wavelength
(b) Frequency
(c) Velocity
(d) Origin
5. Screens should be:
(a) Separated from the film by a sheet of clean white paper
(b) Separated from the film by at least 3.125 mm
(c) In direct contact with the film
(d) Separated from the film by its cardboard backing
6. Lead foil in direct contact with the film in a cassette absorbs:
(a) All radiation to protect the film from exposure
(b) Light rays that might otherwise expose the film
(c) Long wave length radiation more than short wavelength
(d) Short wavelength radiation more than long wavelength
7. Lead screens improve mainly the _______________________ of the final radiograph:
(a) Density
(b) Contrast
(c) Exposure
(d) Definition
8. Lead foil is placed behind the films to:
(a) Absorb as much side scatter as possible
(b) Reduce non image forming back-scatter
(c) Reduce the quality of image-forming primary rays
(d) Limit the amount of light striking the film.
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9. A filter will reduce the amount of _______________ in the primary radiation beam:
(a) Scatter
(b) Electrons
(c) High energy radiation
(d) Low energy radiation
10. A filter is placed:
(a) Between the source and the specimen
(b) Between the specimen and the film
(c) Around the specimen
(d) Behind the film
11. The tube current in milliamps multiplied by the time in seconds or minutes equals:
(a) Density
(b) Intensity
(c) Exposure
(d) Kilovoltage
12. If we were to maintain the same exposure but decrease the source to film distance, we
must ________________ the time of exposure:
(a) Increase
(b) Decrease
13. Lead screens act as intensifiers at voltage above:
(a) 1000 kV
(b) 150 kV
(c) 325 kV
(d) 2000 kV`
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14. Use of a slower speed film improves the definition of the radiograph because the
slower film:
(a) Requires more exposure
(b) Is more sensitive to X rays
(c) Requires less voltage
(d) Has finer grains
15. The penetrameter is a tool used to check the ________________ of a radiograph:
(a) Contrast
(b) Definition
(c) Sensitivity
(d) Emulsion
16. When using a radioactive isotope in making a radiograph, we can express the equation
for exposure as Ci × T. In this equation , Ci stands for:
(a) Current through tube
(b) Intensity in curies or becquerels
(c) Degree of contrast
(d) Coarseness of the film
17. In the radiographic analysis procedure that is used to prepare an exposure chart, the
first step is to:
(a) Make a series of radiographs of a step wedge
(b) Radiograph several objects of known thickness
(c) Convert the densities read from the radiographs to a standard density
(d) Plot the exposures on a graph
18. Which exposure factors are recorded in the process of making a step wedge analysis?
(a) Voltage and exposure
(b) Source-to-film distance and film
(c) Film density and materials
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19. After the step wedge radiographs have been made, the ____________ of the image of
each step is recorded on chart:
(a) Sharpness
(b) Contrast
(c) Density
(d) Length
20. The process of loading more than one film into a cassette is known as the
___________ technique:
(a) Single film technique
(b) Multiple film technique
21. Which of the following isotopes are commonly used for radiographic purposes?
(a) Iridium-192
(b) Osmium-188
(c) Cobalt-87
(d) Rubidium
22. The process of being radioactive is called (Choose one):
(a) Heating
(b) Decaying
(c) Bremsstrahlung
(d) Rectification
23. Which of the following types of radiation is commonly used in radiographic testing?
(Choose one):
(a) Alpha particles
(b) Neutrons
(c) gamma rays
(d) Beta rays
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24. The amount of X radiation or gamma radiation is often spoken of as the
____________ of the radiation:
(a) Wavelength
(b) Energy
(c) Intensity
(d) Frequency
25. The speed at which X and gamma rays travel is: (choose one)
(a) The speed of light
(b) The speed of sound
(c) It varies with the wavelength
(d) Depends on the source
26. A beam of radiation consisting of a single wavelength is known as: (choose one)
(a) Microscopic radiation
(b) Monochromatic radiation
(c) Heterogeneous radiation
(d) Fluoroscopic radiation
27. What governs the penetrating ability of an X ray beam?
(a) Kilovoltage
(b) Time
(c) Activity
(d) Milliamperage
28. The shorter the wavelength of X or gamma rays:
(a) The higher their energy
(b) The faster they travel
(c) The greater their intensity
(d) The closer they are to becoming radio waves
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29. ‘Photoelectric effect’ refers to:
(a) An electric camera
(b) Complete absorption of a photon
(c) The visible electromagnetic spectrum
(d) Scatter of neutrons
30. When a tissue cell in human body is damaged by radiation:
(a) The cell may lose its ability to reproduce
(b) The cell may die
(c) Damage is caused by knocking an electron out of the orbit of its parent atom.
31. Lead intensifying screens are used to:
(a) Decrease exposure time
(b) Increase grain size
(c) Shield film from stray light
32. An effect of scattered radiation is to:
(a) Decrease required exposure time
(b) Diminish contrast, detail and clarity of radiographic image
(c) Decrease film density
33. The effects of scattered radiation may be lessened by:
(a) Using a lead mask around the test piece
(b) Using a lead or copper filter between the X ray tube and the test piece
(c) Using lead screens
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34. Radiographic film speed can be increased by using:
(a) A higher mA setting
(b) A lower mA setting
(c) A double emulsion versus a single emulsion film
(d) Lead screens versus fluorescent screens
35. An advantage of a gamma ray source is:
(a) Radiation may be turned on or off at will
(b) Outside power is normally not required
(c) Less shielding is required than for X ray
36. A radiation producing device which emits radiation of one or a few discreet
wavelengths is:
(a) An X ray machine
(b) A linear accelerator
(c) A gamma ray source
(d) A betatron
37. A radiation producing device which emits a broad spectrum of wavelengths is:
(a) A gamma ray source
(b) An X ray machine
(c) A Geiger Mueller tube
(d) A curie tube
38. The primary effect of an increase in the milliamperage at which a X ray tube is being
operated would be to:
(a) Increase the radiation intensity
(b) Increase penetrating power
(c) Increase primary beam wavelengths
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39. The primary effect of an increase in the kilovoltage at which a X ray tube is being
operated would be to:
(a) Increase the radiation intensity
(b) Increase penetrating power
(c) Increase penetrating power and radiation intensity
(d) Increase primary beam wavelength
40. Which of the following types of intensifying screens are used in industrial radiography?
(a) Lead
(b) Fluorescent
(c) Lead oxide
41. Which of the following expressions correctly describe the relation between
milliamperage (M) and focus-to-film distance (D)?
(a) M1/M2 = (D12)/(D22)
(b) M2/M1 = (D12)/(D22)
(c) M1/M2 = D1/D2
(d) M1/M2 = D2/D1
42. Which of the following expressions correctly describes the relation between exposure
time (T) and focus-film distance (D)?
(a) T1/T2 = (D12)/(D22)
(b) T2/T1 = (D12)/(D22)
(c) T1/T2 = D1/D2
(d) T1/M2 = D2/D1
43. Which of the following expressions correctly describes the relation between
milliamperage (M) and exposure time (T)?
(a) M1/M2 = T1/T2
(b) M2/M1 = T12/T22
(c) M1/M2 = T22/T12
(d) M1/M2 = T2/ T1
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44. A change in which of the following parameters would necessitate the construction of a
new X ray exposure chart?
(a) X ray machine used
(b) Film type
(c) Focal spot to film distance
45. The ASTM penetrameter for a 25 mm thick test piece contains holes of what sizes?
(a) T, 2T, 3T
(b) 2T, 3T, 4T
(c) T, 2T, 4T
(d) T, 3T, 4T
46. The minimum size hole in an ASTM penetrameter is:
(a) 0.127 mm (0.005 inches)
(b) 0.254 mm (0.010 inches)
(c) 0.508 mm (0.020 inches)
(d) 0.762 mm (0.030 inches)
47. A radiographic sensitivity level of 2-2T means that:
(a) The #2 hole in a #2 penetrameter must be visible on the film
(b) The 2T hole in a penetrameter which is 2% of the test piece thickness must be
visible on the film
(c) The 2T hole in a #2 penetrameter must be visible on the film
(d) Two penetrameters which are each 2% of the test piece thickness must be used
48. What is the most desirable temperature for manual developer solutions?
(a) 15.5oC (60oF)
(b) 20oC (68oF)
(c) 22.2oC (72oF)
(d) 26.6oC (80oF)
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49. What is the longest period of time which should elapse between complete changes of
developer solution?
(a) 1 week
(b) 2 weeks
(c) 1 month
(d) 3 months
50. A possible result of failing to use a stop bath during manual development is:
(a) Streaking of the film
(b) Underdevelopment of the film
(c) Contamination of the developer solution
(d) Developer solution drag-out
51. Mottled film may result from:
(a) Inadequate agitation of the film during development
(b) Inadequate water rinse during processing
(c) Using exhausted stop bath solution
52. Radiography of tubular sections using a double wall, double viewing technique is
mainly applicable to sections:
(a) Over 38 mm in diameter
(b) 88 mm in diameter or less
(c) 125 mm in diameter and less
(d) Under 25 mm in diameter
53. A thin, white line within the film image of a weld crown might be:
(a) A hair between the lead screen and the film
(c) A crack
(d) Undercut
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3.1.3 Radiographic Testing Level 1 (RT-1) Answers to questions
Radiographic Testing Level 1 Answers to Questions

General Examination Specific Examination
1 c 35 a 69 b 1 b 35 b
2 a 36 a 70 a 2 b 36 c
3 b 37 a 71 c 3 c 37 b
4 c 38 a 72 d 4 d 38 a
5 a 39 b 73 d 5 c 39 b
6 a 40 d 74 a 6 c 40 a
7 c 41 b 75 b 7 b 41 a
8 d 42 b 76 c 8 b 42 b
9 c 43 b 77 d 9 d 43 d
10 b 44 a 78 a 10 a 44 a
11 d 45 a 79 a 11 c 45 c
12 c 46 b 80 c 12 b 46 b
13 a 47 c 81 b 13 b 47 b
14 b 48 c 82 d 14 d 48 b
15 c 49 b 83 d 15 c 49 d
16 a 50 a 84 c 16 b 50 a
17 b 51 b 85 d 17 a 51 d
18 b 52 a 86 d 18 d 52 c
19 d 53 c 87 c 19 c 53 a
20 d 54 d 88 a 20 b
21 b 55 d 89 c 21 a
22 c 56 a 90 b 22 b
23 d 57 b 91 c 23 c
24 c 58 c 24 c
25 c 59 d 25 a
26 b 60 a 26 b
27 a 61 a 27 a
28 c 62 b 28 a
29 c 63 29 b
30 b 64 b 30 d
31 a 65 b 31 a
32 d 66 d 32 b
33 b 67 c 33 d
34 c 68 d 34 d
135
3.2 Radiographic Testing Level 2 (RT-2)
3.2.1 Radiographic Testing Level 2 (RT-2) General Examination
1. Increasing the kV setting on an X ray machine increases the:
(a) Penetrating power
(b) Short wavelength components of the X ray beam
(c) Radiation intensity
2. During the manufacturing of a casting, the purpose of a riser is:
(a) To introduce molten metal into the mould
(b) To provide additional molten metal to allow for shrinkage during solidification
(c) To allow excess heat to escape during solidification
(d) To provide a vent for excess steam to escape
3. An effective method of recognising a film artifact is:
(a) Viewing a film in daylight
(b) Viewing film in reflected light from a viewer
(c) Comparing both film shot with a double film technique
4. The main reason for using a casting is that:
(a) Castings are stronger than other metal product forms
(b) Castings are normally of higher quality than other metal product forms
(c) Complex shapes of minimum weight are easily manufactured
5. A change in which of the following parameters would require a new X ray exposure
chart?
(a) kV
(b) Required film density
(c) Test piece thickness
136
6. Static marks on radiographic film are caused by:
(a) An improperly grounded X ray tube
(b) Scratches on the lead screens
(c) Poor film handling technique
(d) Old film
7. Of the following radiographic sources, which emits the most penetrating radiation?
(a) Co-60
(b) Ra-226
(c) Cs-137
(d) Ir-192
8. Which of the following techniques would probably reduce the amount of back
scattered radiation reaching the film during a radiographic exposure?
(a) Using a finer grained film
(b) Backing the cassette with a sheet of lead
(c) Removing lead screens
9. Radiographic contrast is dependant on:
(a) Density
(b) Processing
(c) Radiation energy
10. A plot of film density versus log of relative exposure is called:
(a) An H&D curve
(b) A sensitometric curve
(c) A characteristic curve
137
11. The most common material used for targets in X ray tubes is:
(a) Tungsten
(b) Copper
(c) Silver
(d) Beryllium
12. A dark crescent shaped spot, clearly in the base metal adjacent to a weld would
probably be:
(a) Burn through
(b) Film crimp mark
(c) A crack
(d) A water spot on the film
13. Which of the following are potential sources of scattered radiation?
(a) Test piece
(b) Cassette
(c) Floor
14. If the required exposure time for a 2220 GBq (60 curie) Ir-192 source is 2 minutes,
what exposure time would be required at 1110 GBq (30 curie) source:
(a) 2/3 minutes
(b) 60 minutes
(c) 2 minutes
(d) 4 minutes
15. An advantage of a larger grain film is:
(a) It has higher speed
(b) It has better definition
(c) It has lower speed
138
16. How does radiation intensity change with increasing distance from the source?
(a) Inversely with distance
(b) Inversely with the square of distance
(c) Directly with distance
(d) Directly with the square of distance
17. A weld discontinuity which consists of unmelted joint surfaces at the root, and which
may be caused by poor fit- up, is called:
(a) Hot short cracking
(b) A slag inclusion
(c) Incomplete penetration
(d) Burn through
18. Mottling due to X ray diffraction can be identified by:
(a) Noting a large change between two successive exposures with the test piece
rotated slightly about the beam axis
(b) Noting a slight change between two successive exposures with the test piece
rotated slightly about the beam axis
(c) Noting a characteristic pattern corresponding to the lattice spacing
19. Which of the following welding discontinuities would be considered the most serious?
(a) Porosity
(c) Crack
(d) Slag inclusions
20. A depression at the edge of a weld where the base metal has been melted during
welding is called:
(a) Burn through
(b) Undercut
(c) Root concavity
(d) Root convexity
139
21. Which of the following would not be considered a film artifact?
(a) Sugar
(b) Chemical streaks
(c) PI lines
(d) Pressure marks
22. Gamma ray or high voltage X ray radiography, using film without lead screens, is
likely to result in:
(a) Mottling of the film
(b) Increased geometric unsharpness
(c) No apparent difference, but increased exposure time
(d) No apparent difference, but decreased exposure time
23. Which of the following would be detrimental to radiographic image sharpness?
(a) Small focal spot
(b) Small film focal distance
(c) Small object to film distance
24. A change in which the following parameters would require a new X ray exposure
chart?
(a) kV
(b) X ray machine
(c) Test piece thickness
25. If the required exposure time for a 1850 GBq (50 curie) Ir-192 source is 4 minutes,
what exposure time would be required for 925 GBq (25 curie) source:
(a) 4 minutes
(b) 8 minutes
(c) 2 minutes
(d) 16 minutes
140
26. A radiograph is made using film X with an exposure of 10 mA-min. Film density
obtained in the area of interest is 1.0. If it is desired to achieve a density of 2.0 in the
area of interest, what exposure is required? (Log relative exposure = 1.1 for a density
of 1.0 and 1.62 for a density of 2.0)
(a) 41.67 mA-min
(b) 10 mA-min
(c) 12.6 mA-min
(d) 33.1 mA-min
27. The least offensive of the following welding discontinuities would probably be:
(a) Incomplete penetration
(b) Lack of fusion
(c) Slag inclusions
(d) Porosity
28. A quantity calculated by the formula, 0.693/(decay constant), is called:
(a) Half value layer
(b) Mass attenuation constant
(c) Half-life
(d) Specific activity
29. The density difference displayed from one area of a film radiograph to another is
called:
(a) Subject contrast
(c) Film contrast
(d) Film latitude
30. The half-life of Co-60 is approximately:
(a) 74 days
(b) 129 days
(c) 5.3 years
(d) 30.1 years
141
31. Increasing the mA setting on an X ray machine:
(a) Decreases exposure time
(b) Increases exposure time
(c) Increases the short wavelength components of the X ray beam
(d) Decreases the short wavelength components of the X ray beam
32. Which of the following would be considered a film artifact?
(a) Excessive film density
(b) Light leaks
(c) Inadequate penetration
(d) Sugar
(b) Large film focal distance
(c) Small object to film distance
34. The half-life of Ir-192 is approximately:
(a) 74 days
(b) 129 days
(c) 5.3 years
(d) 30.1 years
35. A dark crescent shaped mark in the centre of a weld bead radiographic image would
probably be:
(a) A film artifact
(b) Porosity
(c) A tungsten inclusion
(d) Root concavity
142
36. A photon-nuclear interaction in which energy is converted into sub-atomic particles is
called:
(a) The photoelectric effect
(b) The Compton effect
(c) Pair production
(d) Bremsstrahlung
37. An interaction in which radiation is produced by the rapid deceleration of an electron

is called:
(c) Pair production
(d) Bremsstrahlung
38. The gamma factor of Tm-170 is:
(a) 1.37 R·h-1·Ci-1 at one metre
(b) 0.59 R·h-1·Ci-1 at one metre
(c) 0.0062 R·h-1·Ci-1 at one metre
(d) 0.38 R·h-1·Ci-1 at one metre
39. An exposed radiographic film which transmits 1% of the light incident on it has what
density:
(a) 1.0
(b) 2.0
(c) 99.0
(d) 0.5
40. If the radiation intensity is 5 Gy/h (500 R/h) at a distance of 152.4 cm (5 feet) from a
source, what is the intensity at 1524 cm (50 feet)?
(a) 0.5 Gy/h (50 R/h)
(b) 1.0 Gy/h (100 R/h)
(c) 0.1 Gy/h (10 R/h)
(d) 0.05 Gy/h (5 R/h)
143
41. The average energy of a Cs-137 source is approximately:
(a) 60-80 keV
(b) 660 keV
(c) 400 keV
(d) 1.2 MeV
42. Which of the following is an advantage of X ray over gamma ray sources for
radiography?
(a) Portability
(b) Required maintenance
(c) Variable radiation energy
43. The basic purpose of a penetrameter is to:
(a) Indicate quality of the radiographic technique
(b) Indicate the smallest discontinuity which can be shown by the radiographic
technique being used
(c) Serve as a comparison standard for evaluating discontinuity size
44. When a casting is being non destructively examined for critical service, and the
possibility of cracks exists, which of the following techniques would be best?
(a) X ray radiography at 200 kV or less
(b) Magnetic Particle or Liquid Penetrant testing
(c) Radiography (X or gamma ray, depending on the thickness)
(d) Radiography and either Magnetic Particle or liquid Penetrant testing
45. Which of the following is an advantage of X ray over gamma ray sources for
radiography?
(a) Safety
(b) Variable radiation intensity
(c) Variable radiation energy
144
46. The average energy of a T3-170 source is approximately:
(a) 60-80 keV
(b) 660 keV
(c) 400 keV
(d) 1.2 MeV
47. The gamma factor of Co-60 is:
48. The intensifying effect of lead screens is mainly caused by:
(a) X ray generated by the lead screens
(b) Fluorescence of the lead screens
(c) Excited electrons
(d) The Maxwell effect
49. Which of the following expressions correctly determines radiographic density?
(a) Io/It
(b) Log (Io/It)
(c) Log (Io-It)
(d) Io-It
50. The most significant difference in two X ray beams produced at different kV settings
is:
(a) Beam intensity
(b) Exposure
(c) Wavelength distribution
(d) Beam divergence
145
51. Most significant difference in two X ray beams produced at different mA settings is:
(a) Penetrating power
(b) Wavelength distribution
(c) X ray quality
(d) Beam intensity
52. Which of the following would be considered a film artifact?
(a) Excessive film density
(b) Insufficient film density
(c) Insufficient definition (penetrameter holes)
(d) Static marks
53. Natural discontinuities comparable in size to the penetrameter holes shown on a

radiograph may not be detected because:
(a) Natural discontinuities may contain less dense material than the penetrameter
holes
(b) Natural discontinuities may be thicker than the penetrameter holes
(c) Natural discontinuities do not necessarily have as sharp edges as the

penetrameter holes
source, what is the intensity at 610 cm (20 feet)?
(a) 0.0625 Gy/h (6.25 R/h)
(b) 0.25 Gy/h (25 R/h)
(c) 16 Gy/h (1600 R/h)
(d) 4 Gy/h (400 R/h)
55. Fluorescent screens are seldom used in industrial radiography because:
(a) Light leaks degrade the film image
(b) Film fogging can result if used in the vicinity of fluorescent lights
(c) Poor definition and screen mottle can result
146
56. Calculate geometric unsharpness for the following conditions: Source size = 2 mm × 2
mm; SFD = 700 mm; test piece thickness = 25 mm
(a) 0.6 mm
(b) 0.06 mm
(c) 6,0 mm
(d) 0.15 mm
57. The gamma factor of Ir-192 is:
58. A test piece with large differences in thickness would have:
(a) High film contrast
(b) High subject contrast
(c) Low subject contrast
(d) Low film contrast
59. A quantity expressed by the formula, 0.693/(absorption co-efficient) is called:
(a) Half value layer
(b) Mass attenuation constant
(c) Half-life
(d) Specific activity
60. Which of the following techniques would probably reduce the amount of scattered
radiation reaching the film during a radiographic exposure?
(b) Using a filtered X ray beam
147
61. A radiographic indication in a weld, characterised by two parallel dark lines in the film
image, would probably be caused by:
(b) Lack of fusion
(c) Slag inclusions
(d) Tungsten inclusions
62. To produce the sharpest image, which of the following should be true?
(a) The radiographic source should be small
(b) The radiographic source should be as close as possible to the test piece
(c) The planes of the test piece and the film should be at oblique angles to each
other
63. ‘Undercut’ or ‘burned out’ edges of the test piece film image are caused by:
(a) Geometric unsharpness
(b) Scattered radiation
(c) Inadequate source to film distance
(d) Old film
64. Which of the following is an advantage of gamma ray over X ray sources for
radiography?
(a) Portability
(b) No external power supply needed
(c) Ruggedness
65. The intensifying effects of fluorescent screens are caused by:
(a) Electron emission
(b) Light emission
(c) Secondary X rays
148
66. If the required X ray exposure time for a 225 kV, 5 mA exposure is 3 minutes,
approximately what exposure time would be required at 10 mA?
(a) 1/2 minute
(b) 1 minute
(c) 1.5 minutes
(d) 3 minutes
67. The half-life of Cs-137 is approximately:
(a) 74 days
(b) 129 days
(c) 5.3 years
(d) 30.1 years
68. Unacceptable radiographic film quality would be indicated by:
(a) Artifacts of known origin in the film's area of interest
(b) Use of a smaller penetrameter than required
(c) H & D density less than 2.0
69. Which of the following welding discontinuities would be most difficult to image
radiographically:
(a) Porosity
(b) Lack of side wall fusion
(c) Undercut
(d) Slag inclusions
70. The most important factor in limiting radiation exposure is:
(a) Time
(b) Distance
(c) Shielding
149
71. The threshold energy below which pair production cannot occur is approximately:
(a) 100 keV
(b) 1 MeV
(c) 10 MeV
(d) 20 MeV
72. A photon-electron interaction in which a photon gives up all its energy to an electron
is called:
(c) Pair production
(d) Bremsstrahlung
73. An acceptable quality radiograph should include:
(a) Proper identification
(b) Correct penetrameter and visible holes
(c) Location markers
74. For gamma ray sources, radiographic intensity is proportional to source activity in
gigabecquerels or curies for:
(a) All sources
(b) Large sources
(c) Small sources
75. Poor contact between lead screens and film is likely to cause:
(a) An indistinct or ‘fuzzy’ image
(b) A mottled appearance on the film
(c) ‘Undercut’ of the test piece image
(d) Increased geometric unsharpness
150
76. Which of the following conditions might cause mottling of a radiographic film?
(a) Test piece with thickness equal to an integral multiple of the primary beam
wavelength
(b) Back scatter from aged fluorescent screens
(c) Test piece with thickness of the same order of magnitude as the grain size
(d) Test piece with thickness equal to an integral multiple of the average grain size
77. A photon-electron interaction in which a photon gives up a portion of its energy to an

electron is called:
(c) Pair production
(d) Bremsstrahlung
78. If the radiation intensity is 5.9 Gy/h (590 R/h) at a distance of 30.5 cm (1 foot) from a
source, how far is it to the point where the radiation intensity is 0.02 Gy/h (2 R/h)?
(a) 518 cm (17 feet)
(b) 16551 cm (543 feet)
(c) 8291 cm (272 feet)
(d) 17983 cm (590 feet)
79. It is important to initiate the welding arc within the weld groove because:
(a) Starting a weld bead outside the groove may overheat the base metal
(b) Too rapid heating and cooling of the base metal can cause hard spots which are
potential failure initiation sites
(c) Starting a weld bead outside the groove results in excessively wide welds
source, how far is it to the point where the radiation intensity is 0.05 Gy/h (5 R/h)?
(a) 1676.4 cm (55 feet)
(b) 1981 cm (65 feet)
(c) 1524 cm (50 feet)
(d) 762 cm (25 feet)
151
81. Which of the following techniques would probably reduce the amount of scattered
radiation reaching the film during a radiographic exposure?
(b) Masking the test piece
82. The lights in a high intensity viewer are typically:
(a) Fluorescent
(b) Normal incandescent bulbs
(c) Photoflood bulbs
(d) Mercury vapour lamps
83. The gamma factor of Cs-137 is:
84. If the required X ray exposure time for a 150 kV, 5 mA exposure is 2 minutes,
approximately what exposure time would be required at 10 mA?
(a) 1/2 minute
(b) 1 minute
(c) 2 minutes
(d) 4 minutes
85. A thin, jagged, dark line inside the weld image on a radiographic film is probably:
(b) Lack of fusion
(c) Burn through
(d) A crack
152
86. A straight, dark line in the centre of a weld bead image on film would be suspected of
being:
(a) Lack of fusion
(b) A crack
(d) Root concavity
87. ‘Undercut’ or ‘burned out’ edges of the test piece in film image can usually be reduced
by:
(a) Increasing source to film distance
(b) Decreasing the thickness of the lead screens
(c) Placing a thin sheet of lead behind the cassette
(d) Masking the test piece
(b) Large film focal distance
(c) Large object to film distance
3.2.2 Radiographic Testing Level 2 (RT-2) Specific Examination
1. Contrast and definition are the two major factors that determine the _____________ of
the radiograph:
(a) Density
(b) Sensitivity
(c) Graininess
(d) Intensity
2. Scatter radiation:
(a) Is not controllable
(b) Is controllable to some extent, but cannot be completely eliminated
(c) Can be eliminated completely by changing the kV
(d) Can be eliminated completely by using lead intensifying screens
153
3. Which of the following factors will affect the definition of the radiographic image?
(a) Intensity of radiation
(b) Film density
(c) Tube current
(d) Focal spot size
4. Slow films:
(a) Give better definition than fast films
(b) Are faster than fast films
(c) Require shorter exposure times than fast films
(d) Usually have less contrast than fast films
5. Contrast is defined as the comparison between _______________ on different areas of

the radiograph:
(a) Density
(b) Sensitivity
(c) Sharpness
(d) Latitude
6. Definition is defined as the measure of the _______________ of the outline of the

image in the radiograph.
(a) Density
(b) Sensitivity
(c) Sharpness
(d) Latitude
7. As radiation (X ray or gamma ray) energy is lowered:
(a) Radiation of longer wavelength and better penetration is produced
(b) Radiation of shorter wavelength and better penetration is produced
(c) Radiation of shorter wavelength and less penetration is produced
(d) Radiation longer wavelength and less penetration is produced
154
8. Dark crescent-shaped indications on a radiographic film are most likely caused by:
(a) Crimping film after exposure
(b) Crimping film before exposure
(c) Sudden extreme temperature change while processing
(d) Warm or exhausted fixer
9. Lead screen are primarily used to:
(a) Improve the quality of the radiography by increasing the effect of scatter
radiation
(b) Intensify the primary beam
(c) Decrease film graininess
(d) Reduce density of film
10. Static marks are most often caused by:
(a) Film bent when inserted in a cassette or holder
(b) Foreign material or dirt imbedded in screens
(c) Scratches on lead foil screens
(d) Improper film handling techniques
11. When radiographic energy is decreased:
(a) The subject contrast decreases
(b) The film contrast decreases
(c) The subject contrast increases
(d) The film contrast decreases
12. The major cause for poor definition is:
(a) A source-to-film distance which is too long
(b) Screens which are too thin
(c) Film graininess
(d) Too small a source size
155
13. In order to increase latitude so that thick and thin portions may be radiographed at
reasonable viewing densities simultaneously:
(a) Fluorescent screen should be employed
(b) Led screens should be at least 5 mm thick
(c) The cassette may be loaded with two separate films of different speeds
(d) Radiograph the object at low energy
14. A dark circle type indication appearing on a radiograph that is the result of the failure
of a core support to completely melt is called:
(a) A hot tear
(b) A gas hole
(c) An unfused chaplet
(d) A spongy shrink
15. Dark rounded indications with rather smooth edges appear on the radiograph of
casting made in sand mould. These indications would be interpreted as:
(a) Slag inclusions
(b) Misrun
(c) Shrinkage
(d) Gas holes
16. A dark, sharply defined, straight line in the centre of the weld, and running parallel
with the length of the weld should be interpreted as:
(a) Porosity
(c) A slag inclusion
(d) Lack of fusion
17. A dark, jagged, linear indication appears on a radiograph of a casting. The area is a
transition area between a thick and a thin section. This indication should be interpreted
as:
(a) A hot tear
(b) A gas hole
(c) An unfused chaplet
(d) A spongy shrink
156
18. In a radiograph of a weld there is an indication appearing at the end of the weldbead. It
appears as a dark rounded indication with fine small tails coming from around the
rounded indication giving it some what of a star-shaped appearance. This would
probably be:
(a) A crater crack
(c) Root concavity
(d) A star crack
19. The density of the radiograph through the weld area is 3.2 while the density in the
base metal is 2.9. This would probably indicate:
(a) Too high a kV was used
(b) Too low a kV was used
(c) There is excessive weld reinforcement
(d) Weld underfill
20. When radiographing a part which contains a crack, it will appear on the radiograph as:
(a) A dark continuous line
(b) A light, irregular line
(c) Either a dark or light line
(d) A dark linear indication which could be continuous or intermittent
21. If it were necessary to radiograph 18 cm (7 in.) thick steel product, which of the
following gamma ray sources would most be used?
(a) Cs–137
(b) Tm–170
(c) Ir–192
(d) Co–60
22. Almost all gamma radiography is performed with:
(a) Tm-170
(b) Natural isotopes
(c) Radium
(d) Ir-192 or Co-60
157
23. The half value layer of lead for Co-60 is approximately 13 mm (0.5 in). If the
radiation level on the source side of a 38 mm (1.5 in) lead plate is 0.64 Gy/h (64 R/h):,
the radiation level on the opposite side is:
(a) 0.08 Gy/h (8 R/h).
(b) 0.213 Gy/h (21.33 R/h).
(c) 0.107 Gy/h (10.67 R/h).
(d) 0.32 Gy/h (32 R/h).
24. The degree of concentration of the radioactive material in gamma ray sources is
referred to as the:
(a) Atomic weight of the source
(b) Half-life of the source
(c) Quality of the source
(d) Specific activity of the source
25. If 37 GBq (1 Ci), of Ir-92 produces dose rate of 0.59 Gy/h (59000 mR/h) at 30.5 cm
(1 foot), how much dose in Gy/h (R/h) will 370 GBq (10 Ci) produce at the same
distance?
(a) 0.59 Gy/h (59000 R/h)
(b) 0.0059 Gy/h (590 R/h)
(c) 5.9 Gy/h (590,000 R/h)
(d) 0.00059 Gy/h (59 R/h)

26. Co-59 becomes Co-60 when it is placed in a nuclear reactor where it captures:
(a) A proton
(b) Contamination
(c) Neutron
(d) An electron
27. Approximately how long would it take for a 370 GBq (10 Ci) Co-60 source to decay
to 92.5 GBq (2.5 Ci)?
(a) 5.3 days
(b) 5.3 years
(c) 10.6 days
(d) 10.6 years
158
28. An NDT technician is using a 740 GBq (20 Ci) source of Ir-192, he is standing at a
distance of 305 cm (10 feet). What dose rate will he receive? (Show your working)
29. In the above question, at what distance from the source the technician be to receive 20
mSv/h (2R/h)?
30. The dose rate for a technician standing 610 cm (20 ft), from a 1295 GBq (35 Ci) Ir-
192 source is 5.16 mSv (516.25 mR/h). If he continues standing at his location, how
much lead shielding will be required to reduce the dose rate to 0.02 mSv (2mR/h)?
31. The specific activity of radioactive isotope is expressed in:
(a) MeV (million electron-volts)
(b) Ci/g (Curies per gram) or Becquerel per kg
(c) R/h (Roentgens per hour or gray per hour
(d) Counts per minute
32. The general method of producing X rays involves the sudden deceleration of high
velocity electrons in a solid body called a:
(a) Focus cup
(b) Filament
(c) Target
(d) Cathode
33. The velocity of electrons striking the target in an X ray tube is a function of:
(a) The atomic number of the cathode material
(b) The atomic number of the filament material
(c) The voltage applied
(d) The current flow in the tube
34. The primary form of energy conversion when an X ray tube is energized results in the
production of:
(a) Primary X rays
(b) Secondary X ray
(c) Short wavelength X ray
(d) Heat
159
35. The radiation from 37 GBq (1 Ci) of Co-60 (0.145 Gy or 14.5R at 30.5 cm or 1 foot)
is attenuated in air to approximately 5mR/h at a distance of approximately:
(a) 914.5 cm (30 feet)
(b) 1524 cm (50 feet)
(c) 3048 cm (100 feet)
(d) 6096 cm (200 feet)
36. The standard dose rate of a radioactive isotope is expressed in:
(a) Roentgens per hour per curie at any standardised distance not exceeding 75
feet
(b) Roentgens per hour per curie per foot
(c) Roentgens per hour at a distance of one foot
(d) Curies per hour
(e) Distance required to 2 mR/h
37. Tick the items that are characteristic of X or gamma radiation:
is a particle has mass
ionizes matter travels at the speed of light
harmful to humans has high frequency
38. Tick the items that are characteristic of X or gamma radiation:
is electromagnetic penetrates matter
has odour is visible
causes fluorescence is non-destructive to

in some materials humans
39. At 61 cm (two feet) from a radiation source, radiation intensity is 3 Gy/h (300 R/h).
What is the Intensity at 244 cm (8 feet) from the source?
(a) 0.12 Gy/h (12 R/h)
(b) 1.2 Gy/h (120 R/h)
(c) 0.1875 Gy/h (18.75 R/h)
(d) 0.28 Gy/h (28 R/h)
160
40. Define the following by selecting appropriate numbers from the second column:
curie 1. Million electron volts
roentgen 2. Unit of absorbed dose of radiation
Half value layer 3. Geometric unsharpness
kVp 4. Milliampere × minute
MeV 5. Time required for a radioactive isotope to

lose half of its original activity
Ug 6. Rate of disintegration of a radioactive

isotope
rad 7. Curie per gram
mA-min 8. Kilovolt peak
Half-life 9. Thickness of material which reduces the

radiation to half of its original intensity
definition 10. Degree of image sharpness
41. Number these radiographic film processing steps in their correct sequence:
Stop Bath Fixing
Wetting Agent Washing
Developing Drying
42. Source to film distance for first exposure is 91.5 cm (36 inches) and is changed to 122
cm (48 inches) for the second exposure. Time #1 was 900 mA-sec. How many mA-
min will the second exposure require?
Answer: ___________________________________________________________
161
43. A good Cobalt-60 shot is made on a 7.6 cm (3 inches) steel casting using an exposure
time of 10 minutes and a source-to-film distance of 91.5 (36 inches). If it is necessary
to change the source-to-film distance to 61 cm (24 inches), what exposure time would
produce a similar radiograph if all other conditions remain the same?
(a) 1.6 minutes
(b) 4.4 minutes
(c) 6.4 minutes
(d) 8.8 minutes
44. A radiographic exposure with 3700 GBq (100 Ci) source of Ir-192 using source to
film distance of 60 cm results in a radiation intensity of 0.12 Gy/h (11.8 R/h) and a
radiographic density of 2.5. The intensity of radiation needed to obtain the same
density when the source to film distance is changed to120 cm is:
(a) 0.472 Gy/h (47.2 R/h)
(b) 0.118 Gy/h (11.8 R/h)
(c) 0.029 Gy/h (2.9 R/h)
(d) 0.236 Gy/h (23.6 R/h)
45. A 7.6 cm (3 inches) thick test specimen is radiographed with a source having size of
1.3 cm (1/2 inch), the film is placed in contact with the test specimen. The source to
film distance is 40.6 cm (16 inches).The geometric unsharpness obtained is:
(a) 0.1 cm
(b) 0.3 cm
(c) 0.5 cm
(d) 1.0 cm
46. Radiographic equivalence factors for Inconel and 304 stainless steel are 1.4 and 1.0
respectively. What is the approximate equivalent thickness of Inconel requiring the
same exposure as 1.27 cm (½ inch) thickness of 304 stainless steel?
(a) 1.27 cm (0.50 inches)
(b) 1.78 cm (0.70 inches)
(c) 0.9 cm (0.36 inches)
(d) 3.55 cm (1.40 inches)
162
47. The approximate radiographic equivalence factors for steel and copper at 220 kV are
1.0 and 1.4 respectively. If it is desirable to radiograph a 1.27 cm (0.5 inch) piece of
copper, what thickness of steel would require about the same exposure characteristics?
(a) 1.78 cm (0.7 inches)
(b) 0.9 cm (0.35 inches)
(c) 3.55 cm (1.4 inches)
(d) 2.54 cm (1.0 inch)
48. If an exposure time of 60 seconds and source to film distance of 365.7 m (1200 feet) is
necessary for a particular exposure, what exposure time would be needed for an
equivalent exposure if the source- to-film distance is changed to 457.2 m (1500 feet)?
(a) 75 seconds
(b) 94 seconds
(c) 48 seconds
(d) 38 seconds
49. The technique requires 2500 mA-sec exposure. How long would the exposure time be
in minutes using:
(a) 5 mA Answer: _______________________________
(b) 10 mA Answer: _______________________________
50. Using a 250, kV 10 mA X ray unit, the technique chart indicates an exposure time of
1200 mA-sec. Using maximum mA, how many minutes should be used?
Answer: ___________________________________________________________
51. Source to film distance for first exposure is 91.5 cm (36 inches) and is changed to 60.1
cm (24 inches) for the second exposure. Time #1 was 900 mA-sec. How many
minutes will the second exposure require at the same mA?
Answer: ___________________________________________________________
52. Subject contrast and film contrast are the two factors that comprise radiographic:
(a) Definition
(b) Distortion
(c) Contrast
(d) Graininess
163
53. Scatter ___________________ radiographic contrast.
(a) Reduces
(b) Increases
(c) Does not affect
54. ‘Film contrast’ is the inherent ability of a film to show ___________________ for a
given change in film exposure.
(a) No appreciable change in density
(b) Graininess
(c) A difference in density
(d) No graininess
55. The range of the specimen thickness that can be adequately recorded on a radiograph
is known as the ___________________ of the radiograph.
(a) Sensitivity
(b) Latitude
(c) Accuracy
(d) Intensity
56. Source-to-object distance, object-to-film distance, and source size are the three factors
that control the ___________________ of the radiograph.
(a) Density
(b) Exposure
(c) Film size
(d) Unsharpness
57. The ‘multi-film’ technique may be used when one radiograph film does not have
enough ___________________ to produce a satisfactory radiograph of a specimen.
(a) Latitude
(b) Definition
(c) Graininess
(d) Activity
164
58. When a fast film and a slow one are loaded in the same cassette (multi-film
technique), the slow film can be expected to record adequately the
___________________ (thinner) or (thicker) sections of a specimen.
59. What governs the penetrating power of an X ray beam?
(a) Kilovoltage
(b) Time
(c) Activity
(d) Milliamperage
60. The shorter the wavelength of X or gamma rays:
(a) The higher their energy
(b) The faster they travel
(c) The smaller their penetrating power
(d) The closer they are to becoming radio waves
61. A large source size can be compensated for by:
(a) Increasing source-to-specimen distance
(b) Addition of lead screens
(c) Increasing specimen-to-film distance
(d) Increasing penumbra
62. The maximum film density to which the radiograph should be exposed is dependent
upon:
(a) The quality of the film viewer
(b) The variation in thickness of the specimen
(c) The speed of the film
(d) The graininess of the film
63. The selection of the proper source-to-film distance is a primary factor in controlling:
(a) Contrast
(b) Unsharpness
(c) Graininess
(d) Scatter
165
64. When the penumbra on a radiograph measures less than 0.5 mm (0.020 inches), the
image will appear to unaided eye of the film interpreter as:
(a) Fuzzy
(b) Sharp
(c) Distorted
(d) Dark
65. Two X ray machines operating at same nominal kilovoltage and milliamperage
settings:
(a) Will produce the same intensities and energies of radiation
(b) Will produce the same intensities but produce different energies of radiation
(c) Will produce the same energies but may produce different intensities of
radiation
(d) May give not only different intensities, but also different energies of radiation
66. The fact that gases, when bombarded by radiation, ionise and become electrical
conductors make them useful in:
(a) X ray transformers
(b) X ray tubes
(c) Masks
(d) Radiation detection equipment
67. An acceptable quality radiograph should include:
(a) Proper identification
(b) Correct penetrameter and visible holes
(c) Location markers
68. A weld discontinuity which consists of unmelted joint surfaces at the root, and which
may be caused by poor fit-up, is called:
(a) Hot short cracking
(d) Burn through
166
69. Which of the following welding discontinuities would be most difficult to image
radiographically:
(a) Planar lack of fusion
(c) Undercut
(d) Slag inclusions
70. The average energy of a Ir-192 source is approximately:

(a) 60-80 keV
(b) 660 keV
(c) 400 keV
(d) 1.2 MeV
72. The half-life of Th-170 is approximately:

(a) 74 days
(b) 129 days
(c) 5.3 years
(d) 30.1 years
73. If the required exposure time for a 50 Curie Ir-192 source is 4 minutes, what exposure
time would be required at 25 Curie source:
(a) 4 minutes
(b) 8 minutes
(c) 2 minutes
(d) 16 minutes
74. Which of the following is not a function of the lead screen placed around radiographic
film?
(a) Increase the photographic action on the film
(b) Selectively absorbs scattered radiation
(c) Intensifies effects of the primary radiation beam
(d) To mask the test piece
75. Which of the following is a function of the lead screen placed around radiographic film?
(a) Masks the test piece
(b) Improves geometric unsharpness
(c) Intensifies effects of the primary radiation beam
167
76. What is the best advantage achieved in exposure time, using front and back lead
screens, as compared to exposure time without screens?
(a) About the same, but less scatter
(b) About twice as great, but less scatter
(c) 1/2 to 1/3
(d) Not related
77. Gamma ray or high voltage X ray radiography, using film without lead screens, is likely
to result in:
(a) Mottling of the film
(b) Increased geometric unsharpness
(c) No apparent difference, but increased exposure time
(d) No apparent difference, but decreased exposure time
78. Fluorescent screens are seldom used in industrial radiography because:
(a) Light leaks degrade the film image
(b) Film fogging can result if used in the vicinity of fluorescent lights
(c) Poor definition and screen mottle can result
79. An advantage of a double versus a single emulsion film is:
(a) It is higher speed
(b) It is finer grained
(c) It is lower speed
80. A radiograph is made using film X with an exposure of 10 mA-min. Film density in the
area of interest is 1.0. If it is desired to achieve a density of 2.0 in the area of interest,
what exposure is required? (Log relative exposure = 1.1 for a density of 1.0 and 1.62 for
a density of 2.0)
(a) 41.67 mA-min
(b) 10 mA-min
(c) 12.6 mA-min
(d) 33.1 mA-min
168
3.2.3 Radiographic Testing Level 2 (RT-2) Answers to questions
Radiographic Testing Level 2 Answers to Questions

1 a 35 a 69 b 1 b 35 b 69 a
2 b 36 c 70 d 2 b 36 c 70 d
3 b 37 d 71 b 3 d 37 * 71 b
4 d 38 c 72 a 4 a 38 * 72 b
5 b 39 c 73 d 5 a 39 c 73 b
6 c 40 d 74 a 6 c 40 * 74 b
7 a 41 b 75 a 7 d 41 * 75 c
8 b 42 c 76 b 8 a 42 * 76 c
9 d 43 a 77 b 9 b 43 b 77 a
10 d 44 b 78 a 10 d 44 c 78 c
11 a 45 d 79 d 11 c 45 b 79 a
12 b 46 a 80 c 12 c 46 c 80 d
13 d 47 a 81 b 13 c 47 a
14 d 48 c 82 c 14 c 48 b
15 a 49 b 83 d 15 d 49 *
16 b 50 c 84 b 16 b 50 *
17 c 51 d 85 d 17 a 51 *
18 b 52 d 86 c 18 d 52 c
19 c 53 c 87 d 19 d 53 a
20 b 54 a 88 c 20 d 54 c
21 a 55 c 21 d 55 b
22 a 56 d 22 d 56 d
23 b 57 b 23 d 57 a
24 b 58 b 24 a 58 *
25 b 59 a 25 c 59 a
26 a 60 b 26 c 60 a
27 d 61 b 27 d 61 a
28 c 62 a 28 * 62 a
29 b 63 b 29 * 63 b
30 c 64 d 30 * 64 b
31 a 65 b 31 b 65 d
32 b 66 c 32 c 66 d
33 b 67 d 33 c 67 d
34 a 68 d 34 c 68 c
169
4 ULTRASONIC TESTING (UT)
4.1 Ultrasonic Testing Level 1 (UT-1)
4.1.1 Ultrasonic Testing Level 1 (UT-1) General Examination
1. The divergence of an ultrasonic beam is dependant on:
(a) Transducer wavelength and diameter
(b) Test specimen density
(c) The sound wave's angle of incidence
(d) The degree of damping of the ultrasonic transducer
2. When a longitudinal wave is incident upon an inclined interface between zero degrees
and the first critical angle:
(a) The sound beam is totally reflected
(b) Only shear waves are produced in the second material
(c) Shear waves and longitudinal waves are produced in the second material
(d) Only longitudinal waves are produced in the second material
3. The piezoelectric material in a search unit which vibrates to produce ultrasonic waves
is called:
(a) A backing material
(b) A lucite wedge
(c) A transducer element or crystal
(d) A couplant
4. When a longitudinal wave is incident upon an inclined interface and is refracted at

ninety degrees, the angle of the incident longitudinal wave is called:
(a) The Snell constant
(b) The Snell angle
(c) The mode conversion constant
(d) The first critical angle
170
5. When a longitudinal wave sound beam passes through an acoustic interface at some
angle other than zero degrees:
(a) Surface waves are generated
(b) Plate waves are generated
(c) Reflection, refraction and mode conversion will occur
(d) The first critical angle is reached
6. Which of the following can be a source of spurious ultrasonic signals?
(a) Surface roughness of the test piece
(b) Mode conversion within the test piece
(c) Shape or contour of the test piece
7. A noisy base line, or hash may result in:
(a) Laminations in the test piece
(b) Discontinuities at an angle to the test piece surface
(c) Large grain size
(d) Fatigue cracks
8. Sound waves which travel on the surface of a solid in a manner similar to waves on a
water surface are called:
(a) Rayleigh waves
(b) Shear waves
(c) Primary waves
(d) Compression waves
9. Lamb waves are formed in a part which has:
(a) A thickness greater that about ten wavelengths
(b) A thickness approximately equal to the wavelength
(c) Low acoustic impedance compared to the transducer crystal material
(d) A thickness of about four wavelengths
171
10. Which type(s) of sound wave modes will propagate through liquids?
(a) Longitudinal
(b) Shear
(c) Surface
11. When the motion of the particles of a medium is transverse to the direction of
propagation, the wave being transmitted is called a:
(a) Longitudinal wave
(b) Shear wave
(c) Surface wave
(d) Lamb wave
12. Which of the following test frequencies would generally provide the best penetration
in a 12 inch thick specimen of coarse-grained steel?
(a) 1.0 MHz
(b) 2.25 MHz
(c) 5.0 MHz
(d) 10 MHz
13. An oscilloscope display in which the screen base line is adjusted to represent the one
way distance in a test piece is called a:
(a) A scan display
(b) B scan display
(c) C scan display
(d) D scan display
14. A common use of ultrasonic testing is:
(a) Cleaning
(b) Detecting of sub-surface indications
(c) Determination of the test piece ductility
(d) Communications
172
15. Sound waves of a frequency beyond the hearing range of the human ear are referred
to as ultrasonic waves or vibrations, and the term embraces all vibrational waves of
frequency greater than approximately:
(a) 20 kHz
(b) 2 MHz
(c) 2 kHz
(d) 200 kHz
16. Y cut crystals produce:
(a) Longitudinal waves
(b) Shear waves
(c) Lamb waves
(d) Surface waves
17. The cable that connects the ultrasonic instrument to the search unit is specially
designed so that one conductor is centred inside another. The technical name for such
a cable is:
(a) BX cable
(b) Conduit
(c) Coaxial cable
(d) Ultrasonic conductor cable grade 20
18. As ultrasonic frequency increases:
(a) Wavelength increases
(b) Wavelength decreases
(c) Sound velocity increases
(d) Sound velocity decreases
19. In an A scan presentation, the amplitude of vertical indications on the screen

represents the:
(a) Amount of ultrasonic sound energy returning to the search unit
(b) Distance travelled by the search unit
(c) Thickness of material being tested
(d) Elapsed time since the ultrasonic pulse was generated
173
20. Loss of the test piece back wall echo during scanning may be caused by:
(a) An abnormally homogeneous material structure
(b) A smooth entry surface on the test piece
(c) A discontinuity which is not parallel to the entry surface
(d) An opposite surface which is parallel to the entry surface
21. When a sound beam is reflected:
(a) The angle of reflection is found using Snell's law
(b) The angle of reflection equals the angle of incidence
(c) All the sound energy is reflected unless the acoustic impedance is zero
(d) Beam spread is decreased
22. Which of the following circuits converts electrical energy to ultrasonic energy?
(a) The pulse generator
(b) The transducer
(c) The transformer
(d) The power supply
23. An instrument display in which the horizontal base line represents elapsed time and
the vertical deflection represents signal amplitudes is called:
(a) A scan
(b) B scan
(c) C scan
(d) A time line display
24. Which of the following circuits provides short duration, high energy pulses which are
used to excite the transducer?
(b) The amplifier
(c) The transducer
(d) The clock
174
25. A cross section view of a test piece is produced by which of the following?
(a) A scan
(b) B scan
(c) C scan
26. Echo amplitude losses may be caused by:
(a) Entry surface roughness
(b) Coarse grain size
(c) Discontinuity orientation
27. Which of the following is an advantage of using a focused transducer?
(a) The useful range of the transducer is decreased
(b) The useful range of the transducer is increased
(c) Sensitivity to the effects of a rough surface is increased
(d) Greater sensitivity is achieved in the transducer's useable range
28. Which of the following circuits provide current to operate the ultrasonic instrument?
(b) The amplifier
(c) The power supply
(d) The sweep generator
29. Which of the following is a true statement?
(a) Higher frequencies produce lower sensitivity
(b) Higher frequencies produce longer wavelengths
(c) Thicker crystals produce lower frequency transducers
(d) Longer wavelengths produce higher sensitivity
175
30. Which type(s) of sound wave modes will propagate through solids?
(a) Longitudinal
(b) Shear
(c) Surface
31. The longitudinal wave incident angle at which the refracted shear wave angle equals
ninety degrees is called:
(a) The Snell angle
(b) The Snell constant
(c) The first critical angle
(d) The second critical angle
32. The amount of beam divergence from a crystal is primarily dependent on

the:
(a) Type of test
(b) Tightness of crystal backing in the search unit
(c) Frequency and crystal size
(d) Pulse length
33. In ultrasonic testing, a liquid coupling medium between the crystal surface and the
part surface is necessary because :
(a) Lubricant is required to minimize wear on the crystal surface
(b) An air interface between the crystal surface and the part surface would almost
completely reflect the ultrasonic vibrations
(c) The crystal will not vibrate if placed directly in contact with the surface of the
part being inspected
(d) The liquid is necessary to complete the electrical circuit in the search unit
34. X cut crystals produce:
(b) Shear waves
(c) Lamb waves
(d) Surface waves
176
35. Lower frequency transducers are normally used:
(a) In contact testing applications
(b) In angle beam testing applications
(c) In immersion testing applications
(d) Where deeper penetration is required
36. All other factors being equal, which of the following modes of vibration has the
greatest velocity?
(a) Shear wave
(b) Transverse wave
(c) Surface wave
(d) Longitudinal wave
37. In immersion testing, the position of the search unit is often varied to transmit sound
into the test part at various angles to the front surface. Such a procedure is referred to
as:
(a) Angulation
(b) Dispersion
(c) Reflection testing
(d) Refraction
38. The angle of a refracted shear wave generated as a sound wave passes at an angle
through an acoustic interface is dependant on:
(a) The acoustic impedances of the materials of each side of the interface
(b) The frequency of the incident sound wave
(c) The wavelength of the incident sound wave
(d) The hardness of the materials on each side of the interface
39. Which of the following is a likely effect of a rough test piece surface?
(a) An improved ultrasonic signal to noise ratio
(b) A more penetrating sound beam
(c) Loss of discontinuity signal amplitude
(d) Higher test reliability
177
40. Wavelength is:
(a) The distance from the crest to the next trough of a sound wave
(b) The time required for a sound wave to propagate from a trough to the next
trough of a sound wave
(c) The distance a sound wave travels in one second
(d) The distance from trough to trough or from peak to peak of a sound wave
41. The velocity of surface waves is approximately _______________ the velocity of

shear waves in the same material.
(a) Two times
(b) Four times
(c) One half
(d) Nine-tenths
42. An ultrasonic instrument control which allows moving an A scan display to the left or
right without changing the distance between any echoes displayed is called:
(a) The sweep length or range control
(b) The damping control
(c) The sweep delay
(d) The pulse length control
43. A disadvantage of using natural quartz crystals in a search unit is that:
(a) It will dissolve in water
(b) It is the least effective generator of ultrasonic energy of all commonly used
materials
(c) It easily loses it operating characteristics as it ages
(d) None of the above is correct
44. The formula Sin A/Sin B = VA/VB is known as:
(a) The Fresnell relationship
(b) Snell's law
(c) The law of sines
(d) The critical velocity ratio
178
45. A 25 MHz search unit would most likely be used during:
(a) Straight beam contact testing
(b) Immersion testing
(c) Angle beam contact testing
(d) Surface wave contact testing
46. A technique in which two transducers are used, one on each side of the test piece, is
called:
(a) Angle beam testing
(b) Modified immersion testing
(c) Through transmission testing
(d) Twinning
47. Sound beam intensity is irregular in the area called:
(a) The near field
(b) The far field
(c) The beam spread
(d) The delay line
48. A more highly damped transducer crystal results in:
(a) Better resolution
(b) Better sensitivity
(c) Lower sensitivity
(d) Poorer resolution
49. The process of comparing an instrument or device with a standard is called:
(a) Angulation
(b) Calibration
(c) Attenuation
(d) Correlation
179
50. Scattering of an ultrasonic beam is most pronounced when:
(a) Material grain size and wavelength are comparable
(b) Low frequency transducers are used
(c) Large wavelengths are used for ultrasonic testing
51. Ultrasonic testing is:
(a) Mechanical energy with a speed of propagation faster than the speed of sound
(b) Sound which has a frequency or pitch above the range of the human ear
(c) The science of discontinuity detection using ultrasonic sound
(d) Mechanical vibrations below the frequency of human hearing
52. Which technique would most likely be used to examine a weld, with the weld cap still
in place?
(a) Through transmission testing
(b) Angle beam testing
(c) Straight beam testing
53. The maximum frequency usually used for contact testing is:
(a) 1 MHz
(b) 5 MHz
(c) 10 MHz
(d) 25 MHz
54. Higher frequency transducers are normally used:
(a) In contact testing applications
(b) In angle beam testing applications
(c) In immersion testing applications
(d) Where deeper penetration is required
180
55. Typical ultrasonic testing frequencies are:
(a) 50 kHz to 1 MHz
(b) 200 kHz to 25 MHz
(c) 10 MHz to 100 MHz
(d) 1 MHz to 5 MHz
56. ‘25 million cycles per second’ can also be stated as:
(a) 25 kHz
(b) 2500 kHz
(c) 25 MHz
(d) 25 Hz
57. A disadvantage of using a high frequency ultrasonic transducer is:
(a) It provides a smaller beam angle and better resolving power
(b) It provides a larger beam angle and poorer resolving power
(c) It is scattered more by coarse grained material
(d) It is scattered less by coarse grained material
58. Which of the following circuits provides timing signals to the pulser?
(a) The clock
(b) The amplifier
(c) The pulse generator
(d) The sweep generator
59. Which of the following search units would contain the thinnest quartz crystal?
(a) A 1 MHz search unit
(b) A 5 MHz search unit
(c) A 15 MHz search unit
(d) A 25 MHz search unit
181
60. With longitudinal wave incident at angles between the first and second critical angles:
(a) The sound beam is totally reflected
(b) Only shear waves are produced in the second material
(c) Shear waves and longitudinal waves are produced in the second material
(d) Only longitudinal waves are produced in the second material
61. Sound velocity is described by which of the following relationships?
(a) Wavelength times frequency
(b) Wavelength divided by frequency
(c) Wavelength divided acoustic impedance
(d) Acoustic impedance divided by density
62. The relationship between the longitudinal wave incident angle and the refracted shear
wave angle is defined by:
(a) Snell's law
(b) Snell's constant
(c) The law of acoustics
(d) Fraunhofer’s law
63. Acoustic impedance is defined by which of the following relations?
(a) Material density/wavelength
(b) Material density × velocity
(c) Velocity/wavelength
(d) Velocity × wavelength
64. The upper limit of human hearing is normally considered to be about:
(a) 12 kHz
(b) 16 kHz
(c) 20 kHz
(d) 30 kHz
182
65. Reference standards containing a series of flat bottom holes of the same diameter at
different depths in each block are called?
(a) Area-amplitude blocks
(b) Distance-amplitude blocks
(c) IIW blocks
(d) Sizing blocks
66. During ultrasonic testing by the immersion method, it is frequently necessary to

angulate the search unit when a discontinuity is located at an angle in order to:
(a) Avoid a large number of back reflections that could interfere with a normal test
pattern
(b) Obtain a maximum response if the discontinuity is not originally oriented

perpendicular to the ultrasonic beam
(c) Obtain a discontinuity indication of the same height as the indication from the
flat bottomed hole in a reference block
(d) Obtain the maximum number of entry surface reflections
67. Which of the following transducer materials is the most efficient receiver of
ultrasonic energy?
(a) Lead metaniobate
(b) Quartz
(c) Lithium sulphate
(d) Barium titanate
68. An ultrasonic wave in which particle displacement is 90 degrees to the direction of

wave propagation is called a:
(b) Shear wave
(c) Compressional wave
(d) Plate wave
69. An advantage of using lithium sulphate in search units it that:

(a) It is one of the most efficient generators of ultrasonic energy
(b) It is one of the most efficient receivers of ultrasonic energy
(c) It is insoluble
(d) It can withstand temperatures as high as 700ºC
183
70. Moving a search unit over a test surface either manually or automatically is referred
to as:
(a) Scanning
(b) Attenuating
(c) Angulating
(d) Resonating
4.1.2 Ultrasonic Testing Level 1 (UT-1) Specific Examination
1. Which of the following materials of the same alloy is most likely to produce the
greatest amount of sound attenuation over a given distance?
(a) A hand forging
(b) A coarse grained casting
(c) An extrusion
(d) The attenuation is equal in all materials
2. The ability to separate echos from reflectors close together in depth is called:
(a) Resolution
(b) Attenuation
(c) Accuracy
(d) Sensitivity
3. Greater depth of penetration in coarse grained material may be achieved using:
(a) More sweep delay
(b) Higher frequencies
(c) Less sweep delay
(d) Lower frequencies
4. Lower frequency transducers produce:
(a) Deeper penetration, greater attentuation and less beam spread
(b) Deeper penetration, less attentuation and greater beam spread
(c) Greater beam spread but higher sensitivity and resolution
(d) Less beam spread but lower sensitivity and resolution
184
5. Spurious indications might be caused by which of the following?
(a) Mode conversion from beam spread in a long specimen
(b) Surface waves generated during straight beam testing
(c) A test piece with a smooth machined surface
6. The portion of a test piece which is represented by the CRT screen area from zero to
the rightmost edge of the initial pulse is called:
(a) The dead zone
(b) The near field
(c) The near zone
(d) The far zone
7. The depth of penetration of surface waves is approximately:
(a) One wavelength
(b) Three wavelengths
(c) 1/2 wavelength
(d) The total part thickness
8. An ultrasonic test using a straight beam contact search unit is being conducted
through the thickness of a flat part such as a plate. This test should detect:
(a) Laminar-type flaws with major dimensions parallel to the rolled surface
(b) Transverse-type flaws with major dimensions at right angles to the rolled
surface
(c) Radial flaws with major dimensions along length but radially oriented to the
rolled surface
9. The first critical angle is defined as the longitudinal wave incident angle which results
in:
(a) A refracted longitudinal wave of ninety degrees
(b) A refracted shear wave of ninety degrees
(c) Complete reflection of the shear wave
185
10. The number of complete waves which pass a given point in a given period of time
(usually one second) is referred to as the:
(a) Amplitude of a wave motion
(b) Pulse length of a wave motion
(c) Frequency of a wave motion
(d) Wavelength of a wave motion
11. The speed of sound in a given material depends on:
(a) The specific acoustic impedance of the material
(b) The acoustic impedance and density of the material
(c) The density and elasticity of the material
(d) The piezo-electric resistance of the material
12. A screen pattern containing a large number of low-level indications (often reffered to
as ‘hash’) could be caused by:
(a) A crack
(b) A large inclusion
(c) Coarse grained material
(d) Fine grained material
13. In an A scan presentation, the horizontal base line represents the:
(a) Amount of refracted ultrasonic sound energy
(b) Distance traveled by the search unit
(c) Elapsed time or distance
14. An ultrasonic instrument control which is used to expand or contract the horizontal
base line of an A scan display is called:
(c) The sweep delay
186
15. In a basic ultrasonic test pattern (A scan) for contact testing, the initial pulse (assume
no sweep delay is used):
(a) Is the high indication on the extreme left side of the screen that represents the
entry surface of the inspected part
(b) Is the first pulse that occurs near the right side of the screen and represents the
opposite boundary of the inspected part
(c) Is an indication that appears and disappears during screening
(d) Is always the second pulse from the left on the viewing screen
16. A term used in ultrasonics to express the rate at which sound waves pass through
various substances is:
(a) Frequency
(b) Velocity
(c) Wave length
(d) Pulse length
17. Transducer focal lengths are normally specified as:
(a) Distance in steel
(b) Distance in aluminium
(c) Distance in air
(d) Distance in water
18. The second critical angle is defined as the longitudinal wave incident angle which
results in:
(a) A refracted longitudinal wave of ninety degrees
(b) A refracted shear wave of ninety degrees
(c) Complete reflection of the sound beam
19. Spurious or nonrelevant indications might be suspected if:
(a) Indications are unusually consistent in amplitude and appearance
(b) There are strong indications in localised areas
(c) The indications are localised and repeatable
187
20. A disadvantage of lithium sulfate as a transducer material is that:
(a) It is an inefficient receiver of ultrasonic energy
(b) It is soluble in water
(c) It is not piezoelectric
(d) It has extremely coarse grain structure
21. An advantage of using a ceramic transducer in search units is that:
(a) It is one of the most efficient generators of ultrasonic energy
(b) It is one of the most efficient receivers of ultrasonic energy
(c) It has a very low mechanical impedance
(d) It can withstand temperatures as high as 700oC
22. The three most common modes of sound vibration are:
(a) Longitudinal, compressional, and transverse waves
(b) Longitudinal, transverse and rayleigh waves
(c) Transverse, longitudinal and shear waves
(d) Transverse, shear waves and rayleigh waves
23. A larger diameter crystal results in:
(a) Greater beam spread
(b) Lower penetrating power
(c) Less beam spread
(d) Greater penetrating power
24. Entry surface resolution is a characteristic of an ultrasonic testing system which

defines its ability to:
(a) Detect discontinuities oriented in a direction parallel to the ultrasonic beam
(b) Detect discontinuities located in the center of a forging containing a fine

metallurgical structure
(c) Detect minute surface scratches
(d) Detect discontinuities located just beneath the entry surface in the part being
tested
188
25. Higher frequency transducers produce which of the following?
(a) Greater beam spread, sensitivity and resolution
(b) Greater sensitivity, resolution and penetration
(c) Greater penetration, attenuation and resolution
(d) Greater sensitivity, resolution and attenuation
26. In immersion testing, verification that the search unit is normal to a flat entry surface
is indicated by:
(a) Maximum reflection from the entry surface
(b) Proper wavelength
(c) Maximum amplitude of the initial pulse
(d) Elimination of water multiples
27. Which of the following is true?
(a) Velocity = frequency/wavelength
(b) Frequency = velocity × wavelength
(c) Velocity = wavelength/frequency
(d) Wavelength=velocity/frequency
28. Most commercial ultrasonic testing is accomplished using frequencies between:
(a) 1 and 25 kHz
(b) 0.2 and 25 MHz
(c) 1 and 1 000 kHz
(d) 15 and 100 MHz
29. The longitudinal wave incident angle which results in formation of a rayleigh wave is
called:
(a) Normal incidence
(b) The first critical angle
(c) The second critical angle
(d) Any angle above the first critical angle
189
30. An ultrasonic testing technique in which the transducer element is not parallel to the
test surface is called:
(a) Angle beam testing
(b) Immersion testing
(c) Contact testing
(d) Through-transmission testing
31. In the same material, shear wave velocity is:
(a) Approximately 1/2 longitudinal wave velocity
(b) Approximately twice longitudinal wave velocity
(c) Approximately 1/4 longitudinal wave velocity
(d) Approximately four times longitudinal wave velocity
32. Another name for a compression wave is a:
(a) Lamb wave
(b) Shear wave
(c) Longitudinal wave
(d) Transverse wave
33. Under most circumstances, which of the following frequencies would result in the
best resolving power?
(a) 1 MHz
(b) 5 MHz
(c) 10 MHz
(d) 25 MHz
34. The most useful range of incident longitudinal wave angles for ultrasonic testing is:
(a) Normal incidence to the first critical angle
(b) First critical angle to the second critical angle
(c) Second critical angle to the third critical angle
(d) Above the third critical angle
190
35. Ultrasonic testing of material where the search unit is in direct contact with the
material being tested may be:
(a) Straight beam testing
(b) Surface wave testing
(c) Angle beam testing
36. The echo on the cathode ray tube (CRT) which represents the far boundary of the
material being tested is called:
(a) Hash
(b) The initial pulse
(c) The ‘main bang’
(d) The back wall echo
37. A standard block which can be used to calibrate an instrument for an angle beam
range calibration is:
(a) Area-amplitude blocks
(b) Distance-amplitude blocks
(c) V1/A2 block
(d) Beam spread block
38. The ability to detect echos from small reflectors is called:
(a) Resolution
(b) Attenuation
(c) Accuracy
(d) Sensitivity
39. When the motion of the particles of a medium is parallel to the direction of
propagation, the wave being transmitted is called a:
(b) Shear wave
(c) Surface wave
(d) Lamb wave
191
40. In contact testing, the entry surface indication is sometimes referred to as:
(a) The initial pulse
(b) The ‘main bang’ or transmitter pulse
(c) Both (a) and (b)
41. A second name for Rayleigh waves is:
(a) Shear waves
(b) Longitudinal waves
(c) Transverse waves
(d) Surface waves
42. Sound beam intensity decreases expontentially with distance in the area called:
(a) The near field
(b) The far field
(c) The dead zone
(d) The delay line
43. A test method employing two seperate search units on opposite surfaces of the
material being tested is called:
(a) Contact testing
(b) Surface wave testing
(c) Through-transmission testing
(d) Lamb wave testing
44. Which of the following is not (!) a requirement of a couplant?
(a) Easy application
(b) Highly penetrating
(c) Harmless both to the test piece and transducers
(d) Excludes all air between transducer and test piece
192
45. A plan view representation of a test piece is produced by which of the following?
(a) A scan
(b) B scan
(c) C scan
46. A widening of the front surface indication, when testing a rough surface, is caused by:
(a) Defects in the test piece
(b) A coarse grain structure
(c) A partial reflection of ultrasonic beam side lobe energy
(d) Ultrasonic instrument malfunction
47. When a vertical indication has reached the maximum signal height which can be
displayed or viewed on the CRT of an ultrasonic instrument, the indication is said to
have reached its:
(a) Distance-amplitude height
(b) Absorption level
(c) Vertical level
(d) Limit of resolution
48. A material used between the face of a search unit and the test surface to permit or
improve the transmission of ultrasonic vibrations from the search unit to the material
being tested is called:
(a) A wetting agent
(b) A couplant
(c) A acoustic transmitter
(d) A lubricant
49. When an ultrasonic beam passes through the interface between two dissimilar
materials at an angle, a new angle of sound travel is formed in the second material
due to:
(a) Attenuation of ultrasound
(b) Transmission of ultrasound
(c) Compression of ultrasound
(d) Refraction
193
50. The velocity of sound waves is primarily dependent on:
(a) The pulse length
(b) The frequency
(c) The material in which the sound is being transmitted and the mode of vibration
51. Piezoelectric ability is the property of a material to:
(a) Become electrically conductive when heated above its critical temperature
(b) Generate sound when heated above its critical temperature
(c) Vibrate at high frequency when subjected to a temperature gradient
(d) Produce an electric current when deformed and vice versa
52. The boundary between two different materials which are in contact with each other is
called:
(a) A rarefactor
(b) A refractor
(c) An interface
(d) A marker
53. An ultrasonic insrument control which is used to adjust the sharpness of the CRT
screen display is called:
(a) Astigmatism or focus
(b) Pulse repetition rate
(c) Pulse energy
(d) Gain
54. A disadvantage of using a low frequency ultrasonic transducer is:
(a) It provides better penetration in most materials
(b) It provides poorer penetration in most materials
(c) It provides a smaller beam angle and poorer resolving power
(d) It provides a larger beam angle and poorer resolving power
194
55. As transducer crystal thickness decreases:
(a) Transducer wavelength increases
(b) Frequency decreases
(c) Frequency increases
56. On the area-amplitude ultrasonic standard test blocks, the flat-bottomed holes in the
blocks are:
(a) All of the same diameter
(b) Different in diameter, increasing by 1/64 inch increments from the No. 1 block
to the No. 8 block
(c) Largest in the No. 1 block and smallest in the No. 8 block
(d) Drilled to different depths from the front surface of the test block
57. An ultrasonic instrument control which is used to expand or contract the horizontal
base line of an A scan display is called:
(c) The sweep delay
58. Greater depth of penetration in coarse grained material may be achieved using:
(a) More sweep delay
(b) Higher frequencies
(c) Less sweep delay
(d) Lower frequencies
59. A disadvantage of using a low frequency ultrasonic transducer is:
(a) It provides better penetration in most materials
(b) It provides poorer penetration in most materials
(c) It provides a smaller beam angle and poorer resolving power
(d) It provides a larger beam angle and poorer resolving power
195
60. A disadvantage of using a high frequency ultrasonic transducer is:
(a) It provides a smaller beam angle and better resolving power
(b) It provides a larger beam angle and poorer resolving power
(c) It is scattered more by coarse grained material
(d) It is scattered less by coarse grained material
61. When a longitudinal wave sound beam passes through an acoustic interface at some
angle other than zero degrees:
(a) Surface waves are generated
(b) Plate waves are generated
(c) Reflection, refraction and mode conversion occur
(d) The first critical angle is reached
62. The angle of a refracted shear wave generated as a sound wave passes at an angle
through an acoustic interface is depentant on:
(a) The acoustic impedances of the materials on each side of the interface
(b) The frequency of the incident sound wave
(c) The wavelength of the incident sound wave
(d) The hardness of the materials on each side of the interface
63. The purpose of the couplant is to:
(a) Match impedances between the transducer and test piece
(b) Absorb stray reflectors
(c) Clean the test piece so a more efficient test may be continued
(d) Lock the ultrasonic scanner into place prior to testing
64. Which of the following can be a source of spurious ultrasonic signals?
(a) Surface roughness of the test piece
(b) Mode conversion within the test piece
(c) Shape or contour of the test piece
196
65. When a sound beam is reflected:
(a) The angle of reflection is found using Snell's law
(b) The angle of reflection equals the angle of incidence
(c) All the sound energy is reflected unless the acoustic impedanmce is zero
(d) Beam spread is decreased
66. Sound beam intensity decreases expontentially with distance in the area called:
(a) The near field
(b) The far field
(c) The dead zone
(d) The delay line
67. The ability to detect echoes from small reflectors is called:
(a) Resolution
(b) Attenuation
(c) Accuracy
(d) Sensitivity
68. The ability to separate echoes from reflectors close together in depth is called:
(a) Resolution
(b) Attenuation
(c) Accuracy
(d) Sensitivity
69. Which of the following transducer materials is the most efficient receiver of
ultrasonic energy?
(a) Lead metaniobate
(b) Quartz
(c) Lithium sulfate
(d) Barium titanate
197
70. A display which shows the initial pulse and the front surface echo superimposed
would be considered:
(a) An immersion test
(b) An A scan
(c) A contact test
(d) A B scan
71. A display which shows the initial pulse and the front surface echo with a fairly wide
space between the two would be considered:
(a) An immersion test
(b) An A scan
(c) A contact test
(d) A B scan
72. When conducting an immersion test, the water path distance must be controlled so
that:
(a) Spurious signals are not created by surface waves on the test piece
(b) The (water path distance)/(diameter) ratio does not result in asymmetric
standing waves
(c) The test piece discontinuity indications appear between the first front and first
back surface echos
(d) The second front surface echo does not appear on the CRT screen between the
first front and first back surface echos
73. Bubblers and wheel transducers are considered:
(a) Immersion techniques
(b) Modified immersion techniques
(c) Contact techniques
(d) Offset techniques
198
4.1.3 Ultrasonic Testing Level 1 (UT-1) Answers to Questions
Ultrasonic Testing Level 1 Answers to Questions

General Specific
1 a 35 d 69 b 1 b 35 d 69 c
2 c 36 d 70 a 2 a 36 d 70 b
3 c 37 a 3 d 37 c 71 a
4 d 38 a 4 b 38 d 72 c
5 c 39 c 5 a 39 a 73 b
6 d 40 d 6 b 40 c
7 c 41 d 7 a 41 d
8 a 42 c 8 a 42 b
9 b 43 b 9 a 43 c
10 a 44 b 10 c 44 b
11 b 45 b 11 c 45 c
12 a 46 c 12 c 46 c
13 b 47 a 13 c 47 c
14 b 48 a 14 a 48 b
15 a 49 b 15 a 49 d
16 b 50 a 16 b 50 c
17 c 51 b 17 a 51 d
18 b 52 b 18 b 52 c
19 a 53 b 19 a 53 a
20 c 54 c 20 b 54 d
21 b 55 d 21 a 55 c
22 b 56 c 22 b 56 b
23 a 57 c 23 c 57 a
24 a 58 a 24 d 58 d
25 b 59 d 25 d 59 c
26 d 60 b 26 a 60 c
27 d 61 a 27 d 61 c
28 c 62 a 28 b 62 a
29 c 63 b 29 c 63 a
30 d 64 c 30 a 64 d
31 d 65 b 31 a 65 b
32 c 66 b 32 c 66 b
33 b 67 c 33 d 67 d
34 a 68 b 34 a 68 a
199
4.2 Ultrasonic Testing Level 2 (UT-2)
4.2.1 Ultrasonic Testing Level 2 (UT-2) General Examination
1. Most commercial ultrasonic testing is performed at frequencies between:
(a) 1 MHz and 10 MHz
(b) 1 MHz and 100 MHz
(c) 10 MHz and 50 MHz
(d) 1 MHz and 25 MHz
2. For a transducer with any given Q, resolution increases with:
(a) Sensitivity
(b) Frequency
(c) Wavelength
(d) Crystal thickness
3. Resolving power of a transducer is directly proportional to its:
(a) Wavelength
(b) Crystal thickness
(c) Bandwidth
(d) Q
4. The term is used to refer to the product of wave velocity and density is:
(a) Acoustic impedance
(b) The velocity-density ratio
(c) Index of refraction
(d) Reflection co-efficient
5. For an ultrasonic beam with normal incidence, the reflection coefficient is given by:
(a) [(Z1+Z2)2]/[(Z1-Z2)2]
(b) (Z1+Z2)/(Z1-Z2)
(c) [(4) (Z1)(Z2)]/[(Z1+Z2)2]
(d) [(Z1-Z2)2]/[Z1+Z2)2]
200
6. For an ultrasonic beam with normal incidence the transmission coefficient is given
by:
(a) [(Z1+Z2)2]/[(Z1-Z2)2]
(b) (Z1+Z2)/(Z1-Z2)
(c) [(4) (Z1)(Z2)]/[(Z1+Z2)2]
(d) [(Z1-Z2)2]/[Z1+Z2)2]
7. Snell's law is given by which of the following:
(a) (Sin A)/(Sin B) = VB/VA
(b) (Sin A)/(Sin B) = VA/VB
(c) (Sin A)/ VB = V(Sin B)/VA
(d) (Sin A)[VA] = (Sin B)[ VB]
8. Snell's law is used to calculate:
(a) Angle of beam divergence
(b) Angle of diffraction
(c) Angle of refraction
9. Calculate the refracted shear wave angle in steel [VS = 0.323cm/microsec] for an
incident longitudinal wave of 37.9 degrees in Plexiglas [VL = 0.267cm/microsec]
(a) 26 degrees
(b) 45 degrees
(c) 48 degrees
(d) 64 degrees
10. Calculate the refracted shear wave angle in steel [VS = 0.323cm/microsec] for an
(a) 64 degrees
(b) 45.7 degrees
(c) 60 degrees
(d) 70 degrees
201
11. Calculate the refracted shear wave angle in aluminium [VS = 0.31cm/microsec] for an
(a) 53 degrees
(b) 61 degrees
(c) 42 degrees
(d) 68 degrees
12. Calculate the refracted shear wave angle in aluminium [VS = 0.31cm/microsec] for an
incident longitudinal wave of 53 degrees in Plexiglas [VL = 0.267cm/microsec]
(a) 53 degrees
(b) 61 degrees
(c) 42 degrees
(d) 68 degrees
13. Lithium sulphate, barium titanate and lead metaniobate are examples of:
(a) Magnetostrictive elements
(b) Piezoelectric elements
(c) Rochelle salts
(d) Y cut crystals
14. The particle motion for compression waves is:
(a) Parallel to wave propagation
(b) Transverse to wave propagation
(c) Elliptical
(d) Circular
15. Shear waves for ultrasonic testing are usually produced:
(a) X cut crystals
(b) Y cut crystals
(c) Modulated R-F conversion
(d) Mode converted longitudinal waves
202
16. Near surface resolution can be improved by:
(a) Using a narrow band transducer
(b) Using a focused transducer
(c) Using a high Q transducer
17. The most important requirement for paintbrush transducer is:
(a) Uniform beam intensity across the transducer
(b) A pinpoint focal spot
(c) Good horizontal linearity characteristics
(d) Prescribed vertical and horizontal linearity characteristics
18. Which of the following is an advantage of a focused transducer?
(a) Extended useful range
(b) Reduced sensitivity in localised area
(c) Improved signal to noise ratio over an extended range
(d) Higher resolution over a limited range
19. Which of the following is intended to be a ‘first cut’ or rough inspection device to be
followed by more precise evaluation of any discontinuities found?
(a) Wheel transducer
(b) Focused transducer
(c) Paintbrush transducer
(d) Ball transducer
20. A wider entry surface indication or pulse may result from:
(a) Side lobes of the sound beam being reflected from a rough surface
(b) Using a lower energy pulser
(c) Using a higher amplifier attenuation setting
(d) Huygen's principle
203
21. Which of the following methods might be used to reduce attenuation losses in an
ultrasonic test?
(a) Use a shorter wavelength
(b) Use a lower frequency transducer
(c) Change from longitudinal waves to shear waves
(d) Change to a coarser grained test piece
22. When comparing discontinuity echoes to equivalent flat bottom hole echoes in
materials with similar impedance, surface finish and attenuation:
(a) The flaw is never larger than the flat bottom hole
(b) The flaw is never smaller than the flat bottom hole
(c) The flaw is always smaller than the flat bottom hole
23. An advantage of immersion testing is that:
(a) Large parts are easily inspected
(b) Most test systems are easily transported in the field
(c) High test frequencies may be used
(d) Most test systems are not easily transported in the field
24. An advantage of immersion testing is that:
(a) Large parts may be easily inspected
(b) Most test systems are easily transported in the field
(c) Low test frequencies may be used
(d) Irregularly shaped test pieces can be virtually completely examined
25. An ultrasonic data display which shows a plan view presentation of the data is called:
(a) A scan
(b) B scan
(c) C scan
(d) Orthogonal view
204
26. An ultrasonic display which shows a cross section of the test piece and any flaws
which are found are called:
(a) A scan
(b) B scan
(c) C scan
(d) Orthogonal view
27. An ultrasonic display which shows echo locations and amplitude is called:
(a) A scan
(b) B scan
(c) C scan
(d) Orthogonal view
28. An advantage of using lower frequencies during ultrasonic testing is that:
(a) Near surface resolution is improved
(b) Sensitivity to small discontinuities is improved
(c) Beam spread is reduced
(d) Sensitivity to unfavourable oriented flaws is improved
29. A method of compensating for the ‘dead zone’ or near surface resolution problems is
to:
(a) Inspect all areas of the test piece twice to assure repeatability of indications
(b) Re-inspect from the opposite side of the test piece if geometry permits
(c) Re-inspect using a higher energy pulse
(d) Re-inspect using a higher frequency transducer that does not have a ‘dead
zone’
30. When testing a test piece with parallel front and back surfaces, no back wall echo can
be obtained. Which of the following actions might enable you to obtain a back wall
echo?
(a) Use a wetter transducer
(b) Use a lower frequency transducer
(c) Use a transducer with a narrower bandwidth
(d) Use a higher frequency transducer
205
31. Materials which can readily be inspected with frequencies of 1 to 5 MHz are:
(a) Steel, cast iron and concrete
(b) Titanium, wood and aluminium
(c) Magnesium, titanium and steel
32. When variations are noticed in the front surface reflection, the test piece should be
inspected for possible near surface discontinuities by:
(a) Using a lower frequency transducer
(b) Using a higher pulse energy
(c) Inspecting from the opposite side
(d) Calibrating on a smaller diameter flat bottom hole
33. Forging bursts are most often orientated:
(a) Parallel to the surface
(b) Perpendicular to the surface
(c) In a random manner
(d) At an angle of 45 degrees to the surface
34. The purpose of adding a wetting agent to an immersion bath is:
(a) To make sure the bath is wet
(b) To reduce corrosive properties of the bath
(c) To eliminate air bubbles in the bath
(d) To prevent rust
35. During immersion testing of pipe or tubing the incident longitudinal wave angle must
be limited to a narrow range. The reason for the upper limit is:
(a) To avoid complete reflection of ultrasound from the test piece
(b) To prevent formation of Rayleigh waves
(c) To prevent formation of shear waves
(d) To avoid saturating the test piece with ultrasound
206
36. A calibration for immersion ultrasonic testing of pipe or tubing should establish a
transducer position such as:
(a) I.D. and O.D. notches produce equal responses for equivalent metal path
distances
(b) Rayleigh waves are generated through the entire pipe or tubing wall
(c) All ultrasound enters the test piece
(d) Only longitudinal waves are generated in the test piece
37. One way of identifying spurious echoes in an ultrasonic test is:
(a) Re-test the test piece to verify that the echoes are repeatable
(b) Clean and re-test the teat piece to determine if the echoes can be eliminated
(c) Use the reject control to eliminate unwanted echoes
(d) Decrease the gain to see if the echoes can be eliminated
38. During immersion ultrasonic testing of pipe or tubing, spurious echoes may be caused
by:
(a) Dirt on the test piece
(b) Grease on the test piece
(c) Air bubbles on the test piece
39. Typical frequencies which might be used to perform ultrasonic testing of concrete
are:
(a) 25 to 100 kHz
(b) 200 to 5 MHz
(c) 1 MHz to 5 MHz
(d) 2.25 MHz to 10 MHz
40. Typical frequencies which might be used to perform ultrasonic testing of ferrous and
non-ferrous welds are:
(a) 25 to 100 kHz
(b) 200 to 5 MHz
(c) 1 MHz to 5 MHz
207
41. Which of the following materials would probably require testing at the lowest
frequency?
(a) Small grained mild steel
(b) Mild steel castings
(c) Mild steel forgings
(d) Cast iron
42. Which of the following is an advantage of contact testing over immersion?
(a) Ability to maintain uniform coupling on rough surface
(b) Longer dead time near the front surface of the test piece
(c) Ease of field use
(d) Ability to continuously vary incident wave angle during test
43. Which of the following is a disadvantage of contact testing?
(a) Ability to maintain uniform coupling on rough surface
(b) Ease of field use
(c) Greater penetrating power than immersion testing
(d) Less penetrating power than immersion testing
44. A typical application for a through transmission technique is:
(a) Flaw depth sizing
(b) Flaw depth location
(c) Thickness gauging
(d) Bond/unbond testing
45. An ultrasonic technique in which two transducers are used, in a constant position
relative to each other, is:
(a) Through transmission
(b) Contact testing
(c) Pulse echo
(d) Continuous wave
208
46. Which of the following cast materials could most likely be successfully ultrasonically
tested?
(a) Low carbon steel
(b) Stainless steel
(c) Iron
(d) Pure lead
47. Which of the following product forms would probably be tested at the lowest
frequency?
(a) Forgings
(b) Hot rolled plate
(c) Castings
(d) Extrusions
48. Addition of approximately 6% antimony as an alloying element could be expected to

increase the ultrasonic inspectability of which of the following materials?
(a) Low carbon steel
(b) Stainless steel
(c) Iron
(d) Pure lead
49. Strong signals which travel across the horizontal time base of an A scan presentation
while the transducer is motionless on the test piece are probably:
(a) Randomly oriented flaws
(b) Electrical interference
(c) Grain noise
(d) Loose wedge on transducer
50. Excessive ringing of the transducer could be caused by:
(a) Electrical interference
(b) Loose crystal
(c) Test piece with large grain size
(d) Test piece with small grain size
209
51. When inspecting a long bar with a longitudinal wave from one end, a series of
additional echoes are seen immediately after the bottom surface reflection. these are
most likely:
(a) Refracted shear and longitudinal waves caused by beam spread
(b) Flaw indications
(c) Multiples of the back surface reflection
52. One of the most apparent characteristics of a discontinuity echo, as opposed to a non-
relevant indication is:
(a) Lack of repeatability
(b) Sharp, distinct signal
(c) Stable position with fixed transducer position
(d) High noise level
53. Typical immersion test frequencies for wrought aluminium are:
(a) 10 MHz and up
(b) 5 MHz and below
(c) 500 MHz to 1 MHz
(d) Above 25 MHz
54. Choice of ultrasonic test frequency depends upon which of the following?
(a) Surface condition
(b) Minimum size discontinuity to be detected
(c) Level of grain noise
55. Polished, flat surfaces are undesirable for ultrasonic testing consideration because:
(a) Coupling losses are greater
(b) Scan speeds tend to be too rapid
(c) Spurious lamb waves are prevalent
(d) The probe sticks to the surface because of suction
210
56. The most effective liquid ultrasonic couplant (highest acoustic impedance) is:
(a) SAE 30 motor oil
(b) Glycerine
(c) Water
(d) Grease
57. When using a straight beam technique to examine a thick test piece what change(s)
would you expect to see in back wall echo size as you approach the side of the test
piece? (Transducer remains completely on test piece)
(a) No change
(b) Increase
(c) Decrease
(d) Depends on material acoustic velocity
58. What useful purpose may be served by maintaining grass on the baseline?
(a) To estimate casting grain size
(b) To provide a reference for estimating signal to noise ratio
(c) To verify adequate coupling to the test piece
59. Which of the following describes the sound field propagating in a piece of steel bar
stock which is being tested from one end with longitudinal waves?
(a) Non uniform, containing maxima and minima because of the focusing effect
of laterally reflected waves
(b) Increasing to a peak, then decreasing throughout the far field
(c) Uniformly decreasing along the length of the bar
(d) Decreasing according to the inverse square law
60. When a probe is coupled to a solid, strong surface waves may be produced:
(a) If a high frequency probe is used
(b) If the probe has only incomplete contact with the surface
(c) If the probe is large in diameter
211
61. To avoid interfering surface waves, low frequencies should only be used on:
(a) Polished surfaces
(b) Castings
(c) Flat surfaces
(d) Non-polished surfaces
62. Which of the following conditions would be most likely to cause strong, interfering
surface waves?
(a) High frequency transducers
(b) Testing on a small diameter surface
(c) Testing on a flat surface
(d) Testing on a curved surface with a contoured wedge and transducer
63. Flaw sizing by the 6 dB drop technique is applicable to:
(a) Large flaws relative to the sound beam
(b) Small flaws relative to the sound beam
(c) Any flaws
64. How many decibels of attenuation correspond to an ultrasonic signal loss of from
100% to 25% on full screen height?
(a) 6
(b) 10
(c) 12
(d) 14
65. An increase in gain of how many decibels corresponds to a 5:1 increase in flaw echo
amplitude?
(a) 10
(b) 14
(c) 6
(d) 20
212
66. A focused sound beam is produced by a:
(a) Convex mirror
(b) Concave transducer
(c) Convex lens
67. A divergent sound beam is produced by:
(a) Concave mirror
(b) Convex mirror
(c) Convex lens
68. A type of cast iron which has ultrasonic properties similar to steel is:
(a) White
(b) Gray
(c) Lamellar
(d) Ductile
69. What effect does hardening have on acoustic velocity in steel?
(a) Increases
(b) Decreases
(c) No effect
70. Variation in acoustic velocity from one type of steel to another is usually less than:
(a) 1%
(b) 2%
(c) 5%
(d) 10%
213
71. In general, which of the following materials would have the least ultrasonic
attenuation?
(a) Aluminium
(b) Silver
(c) Lead
(d) Tungsten
72. The velocity of lamb waves depends on:
(a) Elastic constants of test material
(b) Plate thickness
(c) Frequency
73. Which of the following is the most durable piezoelectric material?
(a) Barium titanate
(b) Quartz
(c) Dipotassoium tartrate
(d) Rochelle salt
74. Which of the following methods are used to produce ultrasonic waves?
(a) Magnetostrictive methods
(b) Magnetoinductive methods
(c) Piezoelectric elements
75. Spurious indications may be caused by which of the following?
(a) Test piece edges
(b) Mode conversions
(c) Multiple reflections from a single interface
214
76. A reason for using a dual element search unit is:
(a) Improving near surface resolution
(b) Improving penetration
(c) Eliminating wear on the crystal faces
77. A wheel transducer is normally considered:
(a) A contact method
(b) A dynamic scanning method
(c) An immersion method
(d) A static scanning method
78. Which of the following is not an advantage of a focused transducer?
(a) High sensitivity to small flaws
(b) Deep penetration
(c) High resolving power
(d) Not much affected by surface roughness
79. What type of search unit allows the greatest resolving power with standard ultrasonic
testing equipment?
(a) Delay tip
(b) Focused
(c) Highly damped
(d) High Q
80. The 50 mm diameter hole in an IIW block is used to:
(a) Determine the beam index point
(b) Check resolution
(c) Calibrate angle beam distance
(d) Check beam angle
215
81. The 100 mm radius in an IIW block is used to:
(a) Calibrate sensitivity level
82. Which of the following is a disadvantage of immersion test units?
(a) Inspection speed
(b) Ease of controlling sound beam direction
(c) Portability
(d) Application to automatic scanning techniques
4.2.2 Ultrasonic Testing Level 2 (UT-2) Specific Examination
1. Which of the following may result in a long narrow rod if the beam divergence results
in a reflection from a side of the test piece before the sound wave reaches the back
surface?
(a) Multiple indications before the first back reflection
(b) Indications from multiple surface reflections
(c) Conversion from the longitudinal mode to shear mode
(d) Loss of front surface indications
2. Acoustic energy propagates in different modes. Which of the following represent a

mode?
(b) Shear wave
(c) Surface wave
3. Which of the following would be considered application(s) of ultrasonic testing?
(a) Determination of a material’s elastic modulus
(b) Study of a material’s metallurgical structure
(c) Measurement of a material’s thickness
216
4. Waves whose particle displacement is parallel to the direction of propagation are
called:
(b) Shear waves
(c) Lamb waves
(d) Rayleigh waves
5. Sound waves with particle displacement transverse to the direction of wave travel are
known as:
(b) Shear waves
(c) Rayleigh waves
(d) Plate waves
6. The only sound waves which travel in liquids are:
(b) Shear waves
(c) Rayleigh waves
(d) Plate waves
7. In steel, the velocity of sound is greatest in which of the following modes of

vibration?
(a) Longitudinal
(b) Shear
(c) Surface wave
(d) Sound velocity is identical in all modes, in a given material
8. The scattering of the rays of an ultrasonic beam due to reflection from a highly
irregular surface is called:
(a) Angulation
(b) Dispersion
(c) Refraction
(d) Diffraction
217
9. Acoustic impedance is a material's:
(a) (Density)/(velocity)
(b) (Density) × (velocity)
(c) Refractive index
(d) (Density)/(refractive index)
10. When a sound beam is incident on an acoustic interface at some angle other than
normal incidence, which of the following occurs?
(a) Reflection
(b) Refraction
(c) Mode conversion
11. The angle formed by an ultrasonic wave as it enters a medium of different velocity
than the one from which it came and a line drawn perpendicular to the interface
between the two media is called:
(a) The angle of incidence
(b) The angle of refraction
(c) The angle of diffraction
(d) The angle of reflection
12. Which of the following frequencies would probably result in the greatest ultrasonic
attenuation losses?
(a) 1 MHz
(b) 2.25 MHz
(c) 10 MHz
(d) 25 MHz
13. Attenuation is made up of:
(a) Diffusion and absorption
(b) Scatter and reflection
(c) Absorption and scatter
(d) Reflection at grain boundaries
218
14. The most important factor required for the proper interpretation of ultrasonic test
results is:
(a) The ultrasonic signal amplitude
(b) A knowledge of the test specimen material and its construction
(c) A knowledge of the ultrasonic instruments operating characteristics
(d) The ultrasonic signal location
15. A significant limitation of a lower frequency, single element transducer is:
(a) Scatter of sound beam due to microstructure of test object
(b) Increased grain noise or ‘hash’
(c) Less beam spread
(d) Impaired ability to display discontinuities just below the entry surface
16. Which of the following is the least efficient generator of ultrasonic waves:
(a) Quartz
(b) Lithium sulphate
(c) Lead metaniobate
(d) Barium titanate
17. Which of the following is the least efficient receiver of ultrasonic Energy?
(a) Quartz
(b) Lithium sulphate
(c) Lead metaniobate
(d) Barium titanate
18. The length of the zone adjacent to a transducer in which fluctuations in sound
pressure occur is mostly affected by:
(a) The frequency of the transducer
(b) The diameter of the transducer
(c) The length of transducer cable
(d) Both (a) and (b)
219
19. An advantage of using a transducer with a large beam spread is:
(a) Higher sensitivity to small discontinuities
(b) Less likelihood of spurious echoes
(c) Greater likelihood of spurious echoes
(d) Greater likelihood of detecting randomly oriented discontinuities
20. Resolution is inversely proportional to:
(a) Wavelength
(b) Crystal thickness
(c) Bandwidth
(d) Mechanical losses
21. Of the piezoelectric materials listed below, the most efficient sound transmitter is:
(a) Lithium sulphate
(b) Quartz
(c) Barium titanate
(d) Silver oxide
22. Other factors being equal, which of the following transducers would have the greatest
beam spread?
(a) A larger diameter transducer
(b) A smaller diameter transducer
(c) A higher frequency transducer
(d) None of the above has any effect
23. The fundamental frequency of a piezoelectric crystal is primarily a function of:
(a) The length of the applied voltage pulse
(b) The amplifying characteristics of the pulse amplifier in the instrument
(c) The thickness of the crystal
220
24. In which zone does the amplitude of an indication from a given discontinuity
diminish exponentially as the distance increases?
(a) Far field zone
(b) Near field zone
(c) Dead zone
(d) Fresnel zone
25. A typical application for a through transmission technique is:
(a) Flaw depth sizing
(b) Flaw depth location
(c) Thickness measuring
(d) Bond/lack of bond testing
26. An advantage of a dual crystal search unit is that:
(a) There is no ‘dead zone’
(b) There is no near surface resolution
(c) There is no near field
(d) All of the above are true
27. Most contact testing is performed by which of the following techniques?
(a) Through transmission
(b) Pitch-catch
(c) Pulse-echo
(d) Continuous wave
28. When contouring an angle beam wedge for a convex surface, an undesirable result of
a wedge which is contoured too well might be:
(a) Production of unwanted surface waves
(b) Greater beam divergence due to larger contact area
(c) Lower beam divergence due to larger contact area
(d) Overly efficient coupling of sound beam into test part
221
29. It is possible for a discontinuity smaller than the transducer to produce indications of
fluctuating amplitude as the search unit is moved laterally if testing is being
performed in the:
(a) Fraunhofer zone
(b) Near field
(c) Snell field
(d) Shadow zone
30. A smooth flat discontinuity whose major plane is not perpendicular to the direction of
sound propagation may be indicated by:
(a) An echo amplitude comparable in magnitude to the back surface reflection
(b) A complete loss of back surface reflection
(c) An echo amplitude larger in magnitude than the back surface reflection
31. An effective method of testing for air bubbles in a pipe is to:
(a) Measure pipe back wall echo amplitude
(b) Analyze the frequency spectrum of pipe back wall echo
(c) Transmit sound across pipe diameter and look for echo loss
(d) Transmit sound across pipe diameter and look for echoes from air bubbles
32. The ultrasonic test method in which finger damping is most effective in locating a
discontinuity is:
(a) Shear wave
(b) Longitudinal wave
(c) Surface wave
(d) Compression wave
33. Inspection of castings is often impractical because of:
(a) Extremely small grain structure
(b) Coarse grain structure
(c) Uniform flow lines
(d) Uniform velocity of sound
222
34. One of the most common applications of ultrasonic tests employing shear waves is
the:
(a) Detection of discontinuities in welds, tube and pipe
(b) Determination of elastic properties of metallic products
(c) Detection of laminar discontinuities in heavy plate
(d) Measurement of thickness of thin plate
35. The 2 mm wide notch in the IIW block is used to:
(a) Determine beam index point
36. A primary purpose of a reference standard is:
(a) To provide a guide for adjusting instrument controls to reveal discontinuities

that are considered harmful to the end use of the product
(b) To give the technician a tool for determining exact discontinuity size
(c) To provide assurance that all discontinuities smaller than a certain specified
reference reflector are capable of being detected by the test
(d) To provide a standard reflector which exactly simulates natural discontinuities

of a critical size
37. Laminations would most likely be encountered in which of the following product
forms?
(a) Forgings
(b) Hot rolled plate
(c) Castings
(d) Welds
38. A 50 percent decrease in echo amplitude is equal to a loss of how many decibels?
(a) 2
(b) 6
(c) 10
(d) 14
223
39. Typical frequencies which might be used to perform ultrasonic testing of concrete
are:
(a) 25 to 100 kHz
(b) 200 kHz to 5 MHz
(c) 1 MHz to 5 MHz
40. Compared to the echo returned from a smooth reflector, the echo returned from a
natural flaw of the same area and orientation is:
(a) The same
(b) Greater
(c) Smaller
(d) Not related to
41. Which of the following is least likely to be a source of false indications?
(a) Discontinuities oriented at an angle to the entry surface
(b) Contoured surfaces
(c) Edge effects
(d) Surface condition
42. Abnormally large grain size in the test material may be indicated by:
(a) High levels of baseline noise, or hash
(b) High amplitude reflections between front and back surface echoes
(c) High amplitude, spurious echoes which are not repeatable
(d) Abnormally high back surface echo
43. The coated inside surface of the large end of a cathode ray tube which becomes
luminous when struck by an electron beam is called:
(a) An electron gun
(b) An electron amplifier
(c) A CRT screen
(d) An electron counter
224
44. In a basic pulse-echo ultrasonic instrument, the component that produces the time
base line is called a:
(a) Sweep circuit
(b) Receiver
(c) Pulser
(d) Synchroniser
45. Gas discontinuities are reduced to flat discs or other shapes parallel to the surface by:
(a) Rolling
(b) Machining
(c) Casting
(d) Welding
46. Reflection indications from a weld area being inspection by the angle beam technique
may represent:
(a) Porosity
(b) Cracks
(c) Weld bead
225
4.2.3 Ultrasonic Testing Level 2 (UT-2) Answers to Questions
Ultrasonic Testing Level 2 Answers to Questions

1 d 33 c 65 b 1 c 33 b
2 b 34 c 66 b 2 d 34 a
3 c 35 a 67 c 3 d 35 b
4 a 36 c 68 a 4 a 36 c
5 d 37 69 c 5 b 37 b
6 c 38 d 70 a 6 a 38 b
7 b 39 a 71 a 7 a 39 a
8 c 40 c 72 d 8 d 40 c
9 b 41 d 73 b 9 b 41 d
10 c 42 c 74 d 10 d 42 a
11 a 43 a 75 d 11 b 43 c
12 d 44 d 76 a 12 d 44 a
13 b 45 a 77 c 13 c 45 a
14 a 46 a 78 b 14 b 46 d
15 b 47 c 79 b 15 d
16 b 48 d 80 d 16 a
17 a 49 b 81 c 17 d
18 d 50 b 82 c 18 d
19 c 51 d 19 d
20 a 52 b 20 b
21 b 53 a 21 c
22 d 54 d 22 b
23 c 55 d 23 c
24 d 56 b 24 a
25 c 57 c 25 d
26 b 58 c 26 a
27 a 59 d 27 c
28 d 60 d 28 a
29 b 61 b 29 b
30 b 62 d 30 b
31 c 63 a 31 d
32 c 64 c 32 c
226

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3 RADIOGRAPHIC TESTING (RT)

3.1 Radiographic Testing Level 1 (RT-1)

3.1.1 Radiographic Testing Level 1 (RT-1) General Examination

(c) Silver halide

(d) All of the above

2. Betatrons are used to produce X rays in what range?

(a) Several MeV

(b) 50-500 keV

(c) 500-1000 keV

(d) 0-50 keV

(d) All of the above

4. One half value layer of lead for Iridium-192 is approximately:

(b) Stop bath

7. A radiation producing device which emits radiation of one or a few discreet

(a) An X ray machine

(b) A linear accelerator

(c) A gamma ray source

8. The intensifying action of lead screens is caused by:

(a) Secondary X ray emission

(b) Secondary gamma ray emissions

(c) Fluorescence of lead screens

(d) Electron emission

9. Most of the energy applied to an X ray tube is converted into:

(d) Ultraviolet radiation

(a) Over 38 mm in diameter

(b) 88 mm in diameter or less

(c) 125 mm in diameter and less

(d) Under 25 mm in diameter

(a) Individual sheets for use in cassettes

(c) Pre-packaged (‘day-pack’)

(d) All of the above

12. Which of the following types of radiation is particulate?

(d) None of the above

(a) From floors and walls adjacent to the test piece

(b) From other nearby objects

(c) From the test piece itself

(d) From the lead intensifying screens

14. An effect of scattered radiation is to:

(a) Decrease required exposure time

(b) Diminish contrast, detail and clarity of radiographic image

(c) Decrease film density

(d) All of the above

(a) Film density

(b) Image quality

(c) Degree of removal of fixer residues during washing

(d) Degree of removal of developer residues during washing

16. Radiographic enlargement to distinguish small defects is possible:

(c) With most sources

17. A detrimental effect of fluorescent screens might be:

(a) High definition

(b) Screen mottle

(c) Non-linear attenuation

(d) Displaced core effect

18. The penetrating power of an X ray machine is indicated by:

(b) Tube voltage

(c) Filament current

(d) Anode current

19. Reticulation may be the result of:

(a) Inadequate agitation of the film during development