Biochem Questions
Biochem Questions
Biochem Questions
1. Which of the following amino acids is purely 10. One of the most frequently mutated gene in human
ketogenic? cancers is –
A. Phenylalanin a) p21 gene
B. Leucine b) P27 gene
C. Proline c) P53 gene
D. Tyrosine d) Gene for Rb protein
2. The normal daily excretion of uric acid ranges from
A. 10-30 mg 11. Lipid–soluble signal molecules, such as
B. 50-70 mg testosterone, cross the membranes of all cells but
C. 100-300 mg affect only target cells because
D. 500-700 mg A. Only target cells retain the appropriate DNA segments.
B. Intracellular receptors are present only in target cells.
3. Mental retardation is NOT a feature of the one of C. Most cells lack the Y chromosome required.
the mucopolysaccharidosis D. Only target cells possess the cytosolic enzymes that
A. Hurler MPS-I transduce the testosterone.
B. Huner MPS-II
C. Sanfillipo MPS-III 12. Phosphorylation cascades involving a series of
D. Morquio MPS-IV protein kinases are useful for cellular signal
4. Mutation that results in premature termination of transduction because
incorporation of amino acid into a peptide chain is A. They are species specific.
A. Nonsense mutation. B. They always lead to the same cellular response.
B. Transversion. C. They amplify the original signal manyfold.
C. Silent mutation. D. They counter the harmful effects of phosphatase
D. Frameshift mutation.
13. Which of the following reactions is unique to
5. The following chemical mediator is a product of
gluconeogenesis?
arachidonic acid metabolism by cyclo oxygenase
A. Lactate Pyruvate
pathway
B. Phosphoenol pyruvate
A. LxA4
C. Oxaloacetate phosphoenol pyruvate
B. LxB4
D. Glucose-6-phosphate Fructose-6-phosphate
C. 5 HETA
D. PGH2 14. The synthesis of glucose from pyruvate by
gluconeogenesis
6. Which is untrue for cholesterol synthesis? A. Requires the participation of biotin
A. Mevalonate inhibits HMG CoA reductase B. Occurs exclusively in the cytosol
B. Statins inhibit HMG CoA reductase C. Is inhibited by elevated level of insulin
C. Insulin increases HMG CoA reductase activity D. Requires oxidation/reduction of FAD
D. Thyroid homones decrease HMG CoA reductase activity 15. The conversion of pyruvate to acetyl coA and CO2
A. Is reversible
7. Gyrate atrophy of retina is related to abnormal B. Involves the participation of lipoic acid
metabolism of – C. Depends on the coenzyme biotin
A. Arginine and ornithine D. Occurs in the cytosol
B. Proline and hydroxy praline
C. Lysine 16. Parents with normal pigmentation bring their
D. Histidine newborn daughter to you for consultation about
diagnosis and management. Their first two
8. Xanthine is chemically – children,a boy and a girl, have a complete form of
a) 6 – Oxopurine albinism with pink irides, blond hair, and pale skin.
b) 2,6 Dioxopurine Which of the following representsthe best advice
c) 2,6,8 – Trixypurine concerning the newborn child?
d) 1 – Oxopurine a. A one-eighth risk for albinism and skin cancer from
DNA deletions
9. Which cyclin is responsible for transit from O2 phase b. A one-eighth risk for albinism and skin cancer from
M phase in cell DNA cross-linkage
a) Cyclin – D c. A one-fourth risk for albinism and skin cancer from
b) Cycline – C DNA point mutations
c) Cyclin – B d. A one-fourth risk for albinism and skin cancer from
d) Cyclin – A DNA cross-linkage
1. Fee paid in cash is not accepted
2. Fee should be paid by student himself /herself in Axis bank and deposit slip given by bank should be produced
for enrollment .
3. No student is admitted without Institute identity card.
41. An infant born appears healthy at birth but A. Muscle Glycogen to Glucose 1 Phosphate
develops transfusion-dependent hemolytic anemia B. Glucose 1 Phosphate to Glucose 6 Phosphate
by the age of 6 months. His erythrocytes contain C. Glucose 6 Phosphate to Glucose
insoluble aggregates of hemoglobin subunits. The D. Glucose 6 Phosphate to Fructose 6 Phosphate
child developed normally in utero because at that
time he produced high quantities of 47. An agent that specifically blocks the interaction
A. α-globin of inositol triphosphate with its intracellular
B. β-globin receptor would most likely decrease the activity
C. γ-globin of
D. δ-globin A. Phospholipase C
42. A 22-year-old male develops recurrent skin B. Lipoxygenase
blistering and prefers to work as nocturnist. C. Protein kinase C
Laboratory evaluation shows elevated total D. Phosphodiesterase
plasma porphyrins. Which of the following enzymes
is most likely deficient in this patient? 48. A 17-year-old female is being evaluated for short
A. ð -Aminolevulinate synthase stature and primary amenorrhea Chromosomes in
B. ð -Aminolevulinate dehydrase her epithelial cells contain regions with heavily
C. HMB synthase methylated DNA. The latter finding is most likely
D. Uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase associated with
A. Histone acetylation
43. The DNA replication process in eukaryotic cells B. Low transcription activity
closely mimics that in prokaryotic cells, but the C. Impaired mismatch repair
volume of genetic material to be replicated is D. DNA supercoil accumulation
typically much greater in eukaryotic cells Which
of the following ensures fast DNA replication in 49. A 71-year-old male hospitalized with severe
eukaryotic cells’? abdominal pain and hypotension begins to
A. Energy-independent DNA unwinding hyperventilate. Laboratory testing reveals
B. Multiple origins of replication metabolic acidosis, an increased anion gap and a
C. No RNA primers synthesized during replication high plasma lactate level. This patient’s findings
D. No proofreading by DNA polymerase (pol ð) are best explained by a low activity of:
A. Pyruvate kinase
44. A group of investigators studies the mechanism B. Lactate dehydrogenase
of catecholamine synthesis regulation In animal C. Pyruvate dehydrogenase
experiments, hypophysectomy induced a decrease D. Pyruvate carboxylase
in epinephrine secretion by the adrenals.
Decreased activity of which of the following 50. An infant who is apparently healthy at birth is
enzymes is most likely responsible for the effect diagnosed with aldolase B deficiency two weeks
observed? later. Which of the following should be removed
A. Phenylalanine hydroxylase from this patient’s diet?
B. Tyrosine hydroxylase A. Lactose
C. Dopa decarboxylase B. Sucrose
D. Phenylethanolamin-N-methyltransferase C. Maltose
D. Amylose
45. Ce lls obtain ed from a 73-year-old male
demonstrate a high activity of an enzyme that has 51. A patient is found to have a rare hemoglobin
reverse transcriptase activity. It adds TTAGGG abnormality that decreases P 50 for hemoglobin
repeats to the 3'-ends of chromosomes. Which of from 26 mmHg. This patient is most likely to develop
the following cells were most likely obtained from which of the following’?
the patient? A. Hypoxia-induced hemolysis
A. Epidermal basal cells B. Oxidant-induced hemolysis
B. Pancreatic islet p-cells C. Increased osmotic susceptibility of RBC
C. Neurons D. Polycythemia
D. Erythrocytes 52. A 34-year-old male who is accidentally exposed
46. A 12-year-old male presents complaining of poor to nitrites at work presents with anxiety,
exercise tolerance. He describes muscle cramps weakness, dyspnea, and headaches. Physical
on physical activity, especially after intense examination reveals cyanosis that is not corrected
straining. He also describes urine discoloration that by oxygen supplementation. Which of the following
happens after strenuous activities. Further testing is most likely to be normal in this patient?
reveals that exercise tolerance can be greatly A. Oxygen content of the arterial blood
improved in this patient if glucose solution is B. Oxygen carrying capacity of the arterial blood
infused during exercise. Which of the following C. Partial pressure of oxygen in the arterial blood
substrate flow pathways is most likely deficient in D. Bound fraction of oxygen in the arterial blood
this patient?
53. Which of the following sites is responsible for 60. It has been determined in healthy volunteers that
amino acid binding in tRNA? the chloride content of erythrocytes is much lower
A. 3'-end of tRNA in arterial blood than in venous blood. The action
B. 5' end of tRNA of which of the following is mostly responsible for
C. TψC arm the observed difference?
D. D Loop A. Spectrin
B. Na/K ATPase
54. Pantothenic acid is necessary for which of the C. Carbonic anhydrase
following conversions in metabolism? D. 2,3-biphosphoglycerate mutase
A. Glucose to pyruvate
B. Glucose to ribose-5-phosphate 61. The four pyrole rings in Hemoglobin molecule are
C. Alanine to glucose joined together by?
D. Oxaloacetate to citrate A. Disulphide bridges
B. Methylene bridges
55. A sample of liver parenchyma is homogenized and C. Hydrogen bonds
centrifuged to remove membrane components and D. Alpha bonds
organelles leaving only the cytosol and the proteins
it contains. Which of the following enzyme 62. Menkes Kinky hair syndrome is characterized by
activities is most likely present in the homogenate. congenital deficiency of
A. Pyruvate carboxylase A. Serum ceruloplasmin
B. Omithine transcarbamoylase B. Serum copper
C. Transketolase C. Ferochelatase
D. 3-Hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl-CoA lyase D. Copper bindings ATPase
56. Which of the following is true about thyroid 63. Maximum pH regulation is seen with?
hormones’? A. Histidine
A. They act by activation of tyrosine kinase B. Tryptophan
B. They act primarily by activation of adenylyl cyclase C. Proline
C. They have a nuclear receptor D. Glycine
D. They act by increasing the activity of phospholipase
64. Zinc is cofactor for the following except?
57.Which of the following is the most likely cause of A. Carboxy peptidase
HbC that moves more slowly than both HbA and B. Alkaline phosphatase
HbS on hemoglobin gel electrophoresis. ? C. Pyruvate dehydrogenase
A. Trinucleotide expansion D. Carbonic anhydrase
B. Nonsense mutation
C. Frameshift mutation 65. Hydroxylation of proline of collagen fibers is helped
D. Missense mutation by
A. Nicotinamide
58. The rate of glycogen degradation in skeletal B. Ascorbic acid
muscles increases several hundred-fold after the C. Cholecalciferol
onset of contraction compared to the resting D. Pyridoxine
state. This finding reflects enzyme activation by
66. Which of the following has fastest electrophoretic
which of the following substances’?
mobility and highest triglyceride content?
A. ADP
A. Chylomicrons
B. cAMP
B. LDL
C. Ca2+
C. IDL
D. Lactate
D. HDL
59. A 12-year-old male is evaluated for ataxia 67. Vitamin deficiency associated with increase
accompanied by episodic erythematous and xanthurenic acid excretion in urine?
pruritic skin lesions and loose stools. Laboratory A. Thiamine
evaluation reveals loss of neutral aromatic ammo B. Pyridoxine
acids in the urine. This patient’s symptoms would C. Ascorobic acid
most likely respond to which of the following D. Niacin
supplements’? 68. Mechanism by which pyruvate from cytosol is
A. Thiamine transported to mitochondria is
B. Riboflavin A. Chloride antiport
C. Pyridoxine B. Proton symport
D. Niacin C. ATP dependent antiport
D. Facilitated uniport
88. Trans fatty acids are known to form during 98. DNA double helix is maintained by:
A. Hydrogenation of oils a) Hydrogen bond
B. Beta oxidation of palmitate b) Vanderwaal forces
C. Rancidity of fats c) Disulfide linkage
D. Prostalandin biosynthesis d) Covalentbond
89. Which one of the following reactions has FM (flavin 99. Anticoagulant added to blood for estimation of
mononucleotide) as coenzyme? prothrombin time is:
A. Aminoacid oxidation reaction a) Heparin
B. Conversion of xanthine to uric acid b) Oxalate
C. Conversion of succinate to fumarate c) Sodium citrate
D. Conversion of pyruvate to acetyl CoA d) EDTA
90. All of the following are sulfur containing amino 100.Which of the following is the radiosensitive stage
acids EXCEPT of cell cycle:
A. Threonine a) GO
B. Cystine b) Gl
C. Methionine c) G2
D. Cysteine d) S
101. Chitin is a:
91. Reducing agent used in Hpogenesis is derived from a) Polypeptide
a) Pentose phosphate pathway b) Fatty ester
b) Glycolysis c) Polysacchride
c) TCA cycle d) None
d) Gluconeogenesis 102.Watson’s DNA model is :
a) Right handed, parallel
92. Prostaglandins are derived from : b) Left handed, anti parallel
A. Corticosteroids c) Left handed, parallel
B. Oleic acid d) Right handed, anti parallel
C. Linoleic acid
D. Arachidonic acid 103. Northern blotting technique is used for the
separation of:
93. Ketone bodies are synthesised in: a) DNA
A. Muscle b) Protein
B. Liver c) RNA
C. Kidney d) Protein DNA interaction
D. Brain
104. Which is seen in RNA but not seen in DNA:
94. Free fatty acids are transported by : a) Adenosine
a) Ceruloplasmin b) Guanine
b) Pre-albumin c) Uracil
c) Albumin d) Thymine
d) Transthyretin
105. DNA has:
95. Building block for fatty acid biosynthesis is: A. Ribose sugar
A. NADH B. Deoxyribose sugar
B. Acetyl-CoA C. Both
C. Acyl-CoA D. None
D. Acetate
106. Type of collagen found in cartilage:
96. In DNA structure, maximum number of bonds are A. Type I
seen amongst which of the following pair: B. Type II
a) A-T C. Type III
b) G-C D. Type IV
c) A-G
d) C-T 107. The L or D form of a sugar is determined by its
relation to:
97. New DNA material is synthesized in which phase: A. Fructose
a) Prophase B. Glycogen
b) Metaphase C. Glyceraldehyde
c) Telophase D. Glucose
d) Interphase
108. Western blotting is done for identifying: 116. Allopurinol works through which one of the
A. Protein following mechanisms?
B. Lipids (A) Suicide inhibition
C. RNA (B) Noncompetitive inhibition
D. DNA (C) Allosteric interaction with the enzyme that increases
109. Sodium fluoride is added to blood, as it inhibit: Vmax
A. Hexokinase (D) Feedback inhibition
B. Glucokinase
C. Glucose-6-phosphatase 117. What type of inhibition is being displayed by
D. Enolase organophosphate poisoning ?
(A) Competitive
110. Which of the following statement if false (B) Noncompetitive
regarding mitochondria:
(C) Irreversible
A. Guanine rich strand is referred to as ‘the heavy strand
(D) Allosteric
B. Each DNA molecule consists of 15,000-17,000 KIM.-
pairs
118. Which of the following substances can directly
C. Single stranded straight DNA reactivate acetylcholinesterase after exposure to
D. Transmitted by maternal nonmendelian inheritance
a toxin?
111. What is true about the nature of the molecular (A) Pralidoxime chloride
mutation of Huntington disease? (B) Atropine
(A) A point mutation in a single gene (C) Scopolamine
(B) A nucleotide deletion in a single gene (D) Ipratropium
(C) A triplet repeat expansion within a gene
(D) A frameshift mutation within a gene, creating a 119. which one of the following statements is true
truncated protein concerning physostigmine?
112. A 2-week-old infant is febrile and jaundiced and (A) Use of the drug will decrease the Km of the targeted
has extensive, reddened skin. Labs have shown enzyme.
sig nificant neutrop enia and (B) Physostigmine can easily cross the bloodbrain barrier..
hypergammaglobulinemia. What is the most likely (C) Physostigmine will increase the Vmax of the targeted
diagnosis? enzyme.
(A) DiGeorge syndrome (D) Physostigmine will decrease the Vmax of the targeted
(B) Severe combined immunodeficiency disease enzyme.
(C) Chediak-Higashi syndrome
(D) Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome 120. Acetazolamide is a inhibitor of carbonic
anhydrase and, therefore, will lead to which of the
113. What is true of the oxygen saturation curve following concerning the kinetic constants of
during carbon monoxide toxicity? carbonic anhydrase?
(A) The oxygen saturation curve is shifted to the left. (A) An increase in the apparent Km
(B) The oxygen saturation curve is shifted to the right. (B) A decrease in the apparent Km
(C) The effect of carbon monoxide on hemoglobin is similar (C) An increase in Vmax
to that of ha vi ng i ncr ea se d lev el s of 2,3 (D) A decrease in Vmax
bisphosphoglycerate. 121. Which one of the following statements best
(D) The effect of carbon monoxide on hemoglobin is similar describes the relationship between an enzyme,
to that of a low pH state. substrate, and product?
(A) Enzyme–product complexes enhance substrate binding.
114. Although several different proteins are (B) All the active sites of the enzyme are saturated with
precursors to amyloid deposition, all amyloid fibrils substrate at high substrate concentrations.
share an identical secondary structure that is which (C) At high substrate concentrations, substrate–substrate
of the following? interactions interfere with enzyme activity.
(A) a-Helix (D) At low substrate concentrations, none of the enzyme
(B) beta-Pleated sheet is found in the ES complex.
(C) Triple helix
(D) Helix-turn-helix 122. A 42-year-old man gets bloated and has episodes
of diarrhea after eating his favorite ice cream. It
115. Which class of intracellular proteins will not be also occurs when he consumes yogurt, cheese, and
specifically degraded as a result of taking other milk-containing products. The patient lacks
Bortezomib? the ability to cleave which one of the following
(A) Proteins with PEST sequences glycosidic bonds?
(B) Amyloid proteins (A) Glucose-a(1,4) glucose
(C) Polyubiquitinated proteins (B) Glucose-a(1,2) fructose
(D) Immunoglobulin light chains (C) Galactose-b(1,4) glucose
(D) Glucose-a(1,6) glucose
123. Which statement is true concerning the intestinal 131. Why is hydrochloric acid secretion within the
brush border membrane? stomach important in digestion?
(A) Amylase is only found in the brush border. (A) It stimulates the cleavage of trypsinogen to trypsin.
(B) Disaccharides cross the brush border. (B) It is required for the activity ofa-amylase.
(C) Insulin is required for the uptake of glucose. (C) It drives secondary active transport of amino acids.
(D ) Fructos e re qui re s a sod iu m-ind ep endent (D) It converts pepsinogen to pepsin.
monosaccharide transporter.
132. Which one of the following correctly describes
124. A 28-year-old woman from New Delhi presents an action of Arsenic as a toxin?
with a chief complaint of ‘‘difficulty eating dairy (A) It inhibits pyruvate dehydrogenase.
products.’’ The patient states that she develops (B) It activates pyruvate dehydrogenase.
bloating, abdominal pain, diarrhea, and excessive (C) It reduces the concentration of pyruvate.
flatulence. Which one of the following statements (D) It increases glutathione production.
is true about this patient’s condition?
(A) She lacks beta 1,4 endoglucosidase activity. 133. which one of the tissues indicated below will be
(B) She cannot obtain galactose and glucose from a most affected if there is problem at the level of
disaccharide. the glucose transporter, GLUT-4, ?
(C) She has an inability to emulsify dietary lipids. (A) RBCs
(D) She is exhibiting an autosomal dominant condition. (B) Small intestine
(C) Muscle
125. What type of transport mechanism does glucose (D) Brain
utilize for gastrointestinal absorption?
(A) Passive 134. In which one of the following scenarios would
(B) Facilitated one expect to observe an increase in liver fructose
(C) Active and facilitated 2,6-bisphosphate levels?
(D) Passive and facilitated (A) After the release of epinephrine
(B) In a patient with kwashiorkor
126. Carbohydrate digestion is initiated in the mouth (C) In a patient exhibiting diabetic ketoacidosis
through the action of ? (D) After the consumption of a large bowl of AAloo Biryani
(A) Amylase followed by Vanilla icecream
(B) Sucrase
(C) Lactase 135. Which of the following proteins enables the
(D) Maltase Glucose taken up by cell to remain in the cell?
(A) PFK-1
127. orlistat, will directly inhibit which one of the (B) GLUT-4
following steps in fat digestion? (C) GLUT-1
(A) Bile salt formation (D) Hexokinase
(B) Micelle formation
(C) Pancreatic and gastric lipase 136. Which of the following is a significant
(D) Absorption of free fatty acids characteristic of glucokinase?
(A) The Km is above the fasting concentration of glucose
128. all of the following are consequences of complete in the blood
pancreatectomy except for which one? (B) It is expressed in many tissues
(A) Failure to convert pepsinogen into pepsin (C) Its activity is stimulated in response to fructose 2,6-
(B) Diabetes bisphosphate
(C) Increased likelihood of duodenal ulcer formation (D) Its activity is inhibited by glucose 6-phosphate
(D ) De creas ed s ynt he si s of tr yp sin og en and
chymotrypsinogen 137. Which one of the following statements is correct
concerning the formation of muscle lactate during
129. Which of the following glycosidic bonds prevents exercise?
humans from completely digesting fiber? (A) Lactate formation occurs when the NADH/ NAD+ ratio
(A) Glucose alpha (1,4) glucose is high.
(B) Glucose alpha (1,6) glucose (B) The liver preferentially converts lactate into carbon
(C) Glucose beta (1,4) glucose dioxide and water.
(E) Galactose beta (1, 4) glucose (C) The heart preferentially converts lactate into glucose.
(D) Lactate formation is less likely to be found in the eye,
130. enterokinase.normally activates which zymogen? testes, and RBCs than in other tissues.
(A) Procolipase
(B) Procarboxypeptidase 138. By avoiding anaerobic muscle glycolysis, the
(C) Trypsinogen pyruvate produced in the muscle does not
(D) Chymotrypsinogen accumulate because it is converted to which one
of the following?
169. Which of the following results would lead to a 177. I-cell disease is due to enzymatic defect in
diagnosis of diabetes? (A) Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase
(A) A single random glucose level of 190 mg/dL (B) Galactose 1-phosphate uridylyltransferase
(B) The presence of a reducing sugar in his urine (C) N-acetylglucosamine 1-phosphate transferase
(C) A single fasting blood glucose level of 160 mg/dL (D) Galactokinase
(D) A 2-hour oral glucose tolerance test with a blood
glucose level of 210 mg/dL 178. A 12-month-old, otherwise healthy male has
170.metformin works by which of the following cataracts and galactosemia.
mechanisms? (A) Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase
(A) Inhibiting hepatic gluconeogenesis (B) Galactose 1-phosphate uridylyltransferase
(B) Increasing glucagon levels (C) N-acetylglucosamine 1-phosphate transferase
(C) Increasing cellular responsiveness to circulating insulin (D) Galactokinase
(D) Stimulating the release of preformed insulin
179. primaquine induced hemolytic anemiais due to
171. Which of the following is the most likely cause of deficient?
hyperglycemia in Cushing syndrome? (A) Fructokinase
(A) A pancreatic adenoma secreting adrenocorticotropic (B) Aldolase B
hormone (ACTH) and glucagon (C) Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase
(B) Glucocorticoid-enhanced transcription of PEPCK (D) Galactokinase
(C)Increased substrates for gluconeogenesis due to excess
fatty acid degradation 180. Lysosomal proteins are mistargeted in In I-cell
(D)Cortisol inhibition of insulin secretion diseases. Rather than being targeted to the cell’s
172. which of the following s lysosomal storage lysosomes, lysosomal proteins in this disease are
disorders occur due to lac of lack of a-L- found in which of the following?
iduronidase? (A) In the endoplasmic reticulum (ER)
(A) Hurler syndrome (MPS type I) (B) In the Golgi apparatus
(B) Morquio syndrome (MPS type IV) (C) In the mitochondria
(C) Hunter syndrome (MPS type II) (D) Exported from the cell
(D) Sanfilippo A syndrome (MPS type III)
181. Which of the following converts glucose to
173. What food product in the baby’s diet leads to sorbitol?
cata racts, an enlarged liver, and mental (A) Hexokinase
retardation in galactosemia ? (B) Aldose reductase
(A) Fructose (C) Aldose mutase
(B) Lactose (D) Sorbitol dehydrogenase
(C) Phenylalanine
(D) Glucose 182. To form triacylglycerol from diacylglycerol, which
of the following compounds is also required?
174. An 4-mon th-old child p resents w ith (A) Glycerol
hepatomegaly, jaundice, hypoglycemia, and (B) Glycerol 3-phosphate
convulsions and sepsis. Most likely enzymatic (C) Fatty acyl CoA
defect is. (D) Acetyl CoA
(A) Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase
(B) Galactose 1-phosphate uridylyltransferase 183. In which cell or tissue does triacylglycerol
(C) N-acetylglucosamine 1-phosphate transferase packaging into chylomicrons occur?
(D) Galactokinase (A) Intestinal epithelial cell
(B) Liver cell
175. A patient pres ents with jaun dice and (C) Muscle cell
splenomegaly after eating fava beans. A blood (D) Heart cell
smear reveals hemolysis. Most likely enzymatic
defect is 184. Which one of the following statements is true
(A) Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase concerning fat metabolism ?
(B) Galactose 1-phosphate uridylyltransferase (A) The thoracic duct carries a substantial volume of lymph
(C) N-acetylglucosamine 1-phosphate transferase and triglycerides from the enteric circulation to the
(D) Galactokinase venous system.
(B) Triacylglycerol is primarily stored in the liver.
176. A healthy, well-appearing child with no pertinent (C) In the intestinal cell, glucose is converted to
medical history has 3+ glucose on a urine dipstick. triacylglycerol by phosphatidic acid.
Most likely enzymatic defect is (D) In adipose cells, triacylglycerol is converted to VLDL.
(A) Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase
(B) fructokinase 185. Which of the following statements correctly
(C) N-acetylglucosamine 1-phosphate transferase describes lipogenesis?
(D) Galactokinase
(A) The primary source of carbons for fatty acid synthesis 193. The major carriers of triacylglycerols are which
is glycerol. of the following?
(B) Fatty acids are synthesized from acetyl CoA in the (A) Chylomicrons and VLDL
mitochondria. (B) IDL and LDL
(C) Fatty acid synthesis and esterification to glycerol to (C) VLDL and LDL
form triacylglycerols occurs primarily in muscle cells. (D) HDL and LDL
(D) The fatty acyl chain on the fatty acid synthase complex
is elongated two carbons at a time. 194. Which of the following is an example of a bile
salt?
186. Which of the following compounds should be a (A) HMG-CoA
component of TPN? (B) Chenocholic acid
(A) Palmitate (C) Squalene
(B) Linoleate (D) Lanosterol
(C) Phosphatidic acid
(D) Glycerol 195. Which of the following statements best describes
(E) Glucose HDL?
(A) It is produced in liver but not in skeletal muscle.
187. Before being oxidized, fatty acids are activated (B) It activates ACAT.
in the cytosol to form which of the following? (C) Its major protein is apo E.
(A) ATP (D) It is formed when VLDL is digested by lipoprotein lipase.
(B) Malonyl CoA
(C) Fatty acyl CoA 196. HMG-CoA reductase, converts HMG-CoA to which
(D) Carnitine of the following?
(A) Mevalonate
188. The initiating substrate for fatty acid oxidation (B) Isopentenyl pyrophosphate
is which of the following? (C) Geranyl pyrophosphate
(A) Long-chain fatty acid (D) Farnesyl pyrophosphate
(B) Fatty acyl carnitine
(C) Fatty acyl CoA 197. Which of the following statements correctly
(D) beta-Hydroxyacyl CoA describes bile salts?
(A) They can act as detergents, aiding in lipid digestion.
189. What type of fatty acid would you expect to (B) They are stored in the intestines.
accumulate in patients with Zellweger syndrome? (C) Ninety-five percent of bile salts are excreted in the
(A) Short-chain fatty acids feces, and 5% are recycled back to the liver.
(B) Very-long-chain fatty acids (D) Bile salts are synthesized in the intestines.
(C) Dicarboxylic acids
(D) Long-chain fatty acids 198. High serum HDL levels are protective against the
development of atherosclerosis because HDL does
190. A 6-month-old infant presents with a seizure.The which of the following?
infant is found to be profoundly hypoglycemic and (A) Inhibits cholesterol production by the liver
have low ketones. Short-chain dicarboxylic acids (B) Brings cholesterol esters back to the liver
are found to be elevated in the serum. The most (C) Increases VLDL production
likely enzyme deficiency is which of the following? (D) Increases LDL production
(A) Medium-chain acyl CoA dehydrogenase (MCAD)
(B) Carnitine acyltransferase I 199. Which of the following statements best describes
(C) Hormone-sensitive lipase patients with type II familial hypercholesterolemia?
(D) Pyruvate carboxylase (A) After LDL binds to the LDL receptor, the LDL is degraded
extracellularly.
191. What is the primary role of carnitine IN fatty (B) The number of LDL receptors on the surface of
acid oxidation? hepatocytes increases.
(A) Activates long-chain fatty acids in the cytosol (C) Cholesterol synthesis by hepatocytes increases.
(B) Transport of acyl groups across the inner mitochondrial (D) Excessive cholesterol is released by LDL.
membrane
(C) Is converted to enoyl CoA 200. Which of the following would result from type II
(D) Is converted to b-hydroxyacyl CoA familial hypercholesterolemia?
(A) Cellular HMG-CoA reductase activity is not inhibited.
192. Which of the following apoproteins is an activator (B) The triglycerides in chylomicrons cannot be degraded.
of lipoprotein lipase? (C) The VLDL level in the serum increases.
(A) Apo A (D) The HDL level in the serum increases.
(B) Apo B
(C) Apo C-II
(D) Apo E