Insights April 2020 Current Affairs Quiz Compilation 1

INSTA CURRENT AFFAIRS
QUIZ
APRIL 2020
WWW.INSIGHTSONINDIA.COM WWW.INSIGHTSACTIVELEARN.COM
Table of Contents
1. ECONOMY .........................................................................................................................................2
2. ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT ........................................................................................................ 11
3. GOVERNMENT SCHEMES AND PROGRAMMES ................................................................................. 26
4. SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY............................................................................................................. 32
5. INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS AND ORGANISATIONS .......................................................................... 42
6. POLITY ............................................................................................................................................. 53
7. HISTORY, ART AND CULTURE............................................................................................................ 56
8. MAPS / PLACES ................................................................................................................................ 57
9. MISCELLANEOUS.............................................................................................................................. 67
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1. Economy
1) The Prompt corrective action (PCA) Framework deems banks as risky if they slip below certain norms based on
which of the following parameters
1. Capital to risk weighted assets ratio
2. Net non-performing assets
3. Return on Assets
Select the correct answer code:
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 1, 2, 3
d) 2, 3
Solution: c)
The Reserve Bank has specified certain regulatory trigger points, as a part of prompt corrective action (PCA)
Framework, in terms of three parameters, i.e. capital to risk weighted assets ratio (CRAR), net non-performing
assets (NPA) and Return on Assets (RoA), for initiation of certain structured and discretionary actions in respect of
banks hitting such trigger points. The PCA framework is applicable only to commercial banks and not extended to
co-operative banks, non-banking financial companies (NBFCs) and FMIs.
Source
2) Consider the following statements regarding Currency and Gold Revaluation Account (CGRA).
1. Currency and Gold Revaluation Account comprises unrealised gains or losses on foreign currency assets
and gold due to fluctuations in exchange rate and prices of gold.
2. The CGRA can be used to compensate RBI’s loss in the value of gold and foreign exchange reserve
holdings.
3. Bimal Jalan committee recommended RBI to transfer the funds in the CGRA to the Central
Government.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: a)
The Central Board of the Reserve Bank of India has decided not to transfer any amount from the CGRA (currency
and gold revaluation account), which has Rs 730,000 crore of unrealised gains, to the government as
recommended by the Bimal Jalan committee.
CGRA comprises unrealised gains or losses on foreign currency assets and gold due to movement in exchange rate
and prices of gold. There will be no distribution of unrealised revaluation balances. This effectively means bulk of
the RBI’s Rs 10 lakh crore surplus — mostly lying in CGRA — can’t be touched. The contention of the RBI Board as
well as the Jalan committee is that central bank doesn’t have the money in its CRGA account as it’s unrealised
balance.
The CGRA can be used not only for meeting the risks of USD-INR, cross-currency and gold price movements, but
also for interest rate risks. Similarly, the Investment Revaluation Account-Rupee Securities and IRA-FS Investment
Revaluation Account-Foreign Securities can meet currency and gold price risks in addition to the interest rate
risks.
Source
3) Which of the following are the possible implications when a country adopts negative rate policy.
1. Increases borrowing costs.
2. Help weaken a country’s currency rate by making it a less attractive investment than that of other
currencies.
3. Boosts Inflation
a) 1, 2
b) 2 only
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 3
Solution: c)
What is negative interest rate?

Negative interest rates refer to a scenario in which cash deposits incur a charge for storage at a bank, rather than
receiving interest income. Instead of receiving money on deposits in the form of interest, depositors must pay
regularly to keep their money with the bank. This environment is intended to incentivise banks to lend money
more freely.
How does the negative interest rate policy work?

Under a negative rate policy, financial institutions are required to pay interest for parking excess reserves with
the central bank. That is, any surplus cash beyond that which regulators say banks must keep on hand. That way,
central banks penalise financial institutions for holding on to cash in the hope of prompting them to boost lending
to businesses and consumers.
How do negative interest rates stimulate an economy?

Negative central bank rates also lower borrowing costs on a whole range of instruments, meaning that businesses
and households get even cheaper loans. Aside from lowering borrowing costs, advocates of negative rates say
they help weaken a country's currency rate by making it a less attractive investment than that of other currencies.
A weaker currency gives a country's export a competitive advantage and boosts inflation by pushing up import
costs.
Which countries have negative interest rates?

Interest rates in a few countries in Europe, including Sweden and Denmark, have been in negative territory.
What are the cons of negative rates?

Negative rates narrow the margin that financial institutions earn from lending. If prolonged ultra-low rates hurt
the health of financial institutions too much, they could stop lending and damage the economy.
4) Consider the following statements regarding Advisory Board for Banking Frauds (ABBF).
1. Advisory Board for Banking Frauds (ABBF) is been constituted by the RBI to examine bank fraud of over
₹50 crore and recommend action.
2. It would function as the first level of examination of all large fraud cases before references are made to
the investigative agencies.
3. It would also give inputs for policy formulation related to the fraud to the RBI.
a) 1, 2
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: b)
• The Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) has constituted an ‘Advisory Board for Banking Frauds (ABBF)’ to
examine bank fraud of over ₹50 crore and recommend action.
• The board’s jurisdiction would be confined to those cases involving the level of officers of General
Manager and above in the Public Sector Banks in respect of an allegation of fraud in a borrowal account.
• It would function as the first level of examination of all large fraud cases before recommendations or
references are made to the investigative agencies by the respective public sector banks (PSBs).
• Lenders would refer all large fraud cases above ₹50 crore to the board and on receipt of its
recommendation or advice, the bank concerned would take further action in such matter.
• The Central Bureau of Investigation may also refer any case or matter to the board where it has any issue
or difficulty or in technical matters with the PSB concerned.
• It would also periodically carry out frauds analysis in the financial system and give inputs for policy
formulation related to the fraud to the RBI.
Source
5) Which of the following entities come under the regulation of Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).
1. Investment Banks
2. Alternative Investment Funds
3. Real estate investment trusts (REITs)
4. Infrastructure investment trusts (InvITs)
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 2
c) 2, 3, 4
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
Solution: d)
Some of the Financial entities regulated by SEBI.

Investment Banks
Capital Markets
Stock Brokers
Real estate investment trusts (REITs)
Infrastructure investment trusts (InvITs)
Stock Exchanges
Commodities Futures / Options
Alternative Investment Funds
6) Consider the following statements regarding Currency Swap Agreements.

1. India does not offer any currency swap arrangement for SAARC countries.
2. Usually the currency swap operations carry no exchange rate risks.
3. India can use the dollar reserves obtained through currency swap, to maintain an appropriate level of
balance of payments or short-term liquidity.
a) 1, 2
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: b)
India is working with the United States to secure a dollar swap line that would help in better management of its
external account and provide extra cushion in the event of an abrupt outflow of funds, according to banking
industry and government sources.
In a swap arrangement, the US Fed provides dollars to a foreign central bank, which, at the same time, provides
the equivalent funds in its currency to the Fed, based on the market exchange rate at the time of the transaction.
The parties agree to swap back these quantities of their two currencies at a specified date in the future, which
could be the next day or even three months later, using the same exchange rate as in the first transaction.
These swap operations carry no exchange rate or other market risks, as transaction terms are set in advance.
The absence of an exchange rate risk is the major benefit of such a facility.
In 2019, India signed a $75 billion bilateral currency swap line agreement with Japan, which has the second
largest dollar reserves after China. This facility provides India with the flexibility to use these reserves at any time
in order to maintain an appropriate level of balance of payments or short-term liquidity.
Recently to further financial stability and economic cooperation within the SAARC region, the RBI put in place a
revised framework on currency swap arrangement for SAARC countries for 2019-22.
Source
7) For fixation of ‘Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP)’ of sugarcane, which of the following factors are considered
1. Cost of production of sugarcane
2. Availability of sugar to consumers at a fair price
3. Return to the growers from alternative crops and the general trend of prices of agricultural
commodities
4. The realization made from sale of by-products
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 3, 4
c) 1, 3, 4
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
Solution: d)
The cane price announced by the Central Government is decided on the basis of the recommendations of the
Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) in consultation with the State Governments and after taking
feedback from associations of sugar industry. The amended provisions of the Sugarcane (Control) Order, 1966
provides for fixation of FRP of sugarcane having regard to the following factors:-
a) cost of production of sugarcane;
b) return to the growers from alternative crops and the general trend of prices of agricultural
commodities;
c) availability of sugar to consumers at a fair price;
d) price at which sugar produced from sugarcane is sold by sugar producers;
e) recovery of sugar from sugarcane;
f) the realization made from sale of by-products viz. molasses, bagasse and press mud or their imputed
value (inserted vide notification dated 29.12. 2008);
g) reasonable margins for the growers of sugarcane on account of risk and profits (inserted vide
notification dated 22.10.2009).
Source
8) Consider the following statements regarding Ways and Means Advances (WMA).
1. It is a facility for which both Centre and States can borrow money from the RBI.
2. These borrowings are meant purely to tide over temporary mismatches in cash flows of receipts and
expenditures.
3. The interest rate on WMA is lower than RBI’s repo rate.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: a)
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI), recently announced a 60% increase in the Ways and Means Advances (WMA)
limit of state governments over and above the level as on March 31, with a view to enabling them “to
undertake COVID-19 containment and mitigation efforts” and “to better plan their market borrowings”.
What exactly is Ways and Means Advances (WMA)?

Simply put, it is a facility for both the Centre and states to borrow from the RBI. These borrowings are meant
purely to help them to tide over temporary mismatches in cash flows of their receipts and expenditures. In that
sense, they aren’t a source of finance per se. Section 17(5) of the RBI Act, 1934 authorises the central bank to
lend to the Centre and state governments subject to their being repayable “not later than three months from the
date of the making of the advance”.
The interest rate on WMA is the RBI’s repo rate, which is basically the rate at which it lends short-term money to
banks. That rate is currently 4.4%. The governments are, however, allowed to draw amounts in excess of their
WMA limits. The interest on such overdraft is 2 percentage points above the repo rate, which now works out to
6.4%. Further, no state can run an overdraft with the RBI for more than a certain period.
Source
9) Consider the following statements.

1. In the last 3 years, both Repo and Reverse Repo rates have been reduced consistently.
2. An increase in the reverse repo rate means banks are discouraged to park their excess money with RBI.
3. A lower repo rate would mean availability of cheaper loans to industries and consumers.
a) 1, 2
b) 3 only
c) 1, 3
d) 2, 3
Solution: b)
RBI has cut the reverse repo rate by 25 basis points — from 4% to 3.75% — encouraging banks to “deploy surplus
funds” and lend more, a move that will in turn result in cash in the hands of the borrower.
The reverse repo rate is the rate at which RBI borrows from commercial banks. Broadly speaking, a cut in the
reverse repo rate means banks are discouraged to park their excess money with RBI since they will get more
incentives by giving loans to other institutions/individuals at a higher rate.
Repo rate is the rate at which RBI lends to commercial banks. A lower repo rate would mean availability of
cheaper loans to industries and consumers.
Source
10) Consider the following statements regarding liquidity coverage ratio (LCR).
1. Liquidity coverage ratio (LCR) is the proportion of high liquid assets set aside by financial institutions to
survive an acute stress scenario and meet its short-term obligations.
2. LCR is a requirement under Basel III norms.
3. Recently, RBI reduced the LCR requirement for scheduled commercial banks.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
In order to ease the liquidity position at the level of individual institutions, the liquidity coverage ratio (LCR)
requirement for scheduled commercial banks is reduced from 100% to 80% with immediate effect. The LCR
requirement will, however, be gradually restored in two phases – 90% by October 1, 2020 and 100% by April 1,
2021. LCR is the proportion of high liquid assets set aside to survive an acute stress scenario and meet its short-
term obligations.
LCR is a requirement under Basel III whereby banks are required to hold an amount of high-quality liquid assets
that's enough to fund cash outflows for 30 days.
Source
11) Consider the following statements regarding Currency exchange rate.

1. A currency’s exchange rate vis-a-vis another currency reflects the relative demand among the holders
of the two currencies.
2. Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) is better at capturing the actual change in the Exchange Rate
as it takes into account the domestic inflation in the economy.
3. The factors like Inflation, interest rates and political stability of a country affect the exchange rate
between any two currencies.
a) 1, 2
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: c)
Essentially, a currency’s exchange rate vis-a-vis another currency reflects the relative demand among the holders
of the two currencies. This demand, in turn, depends on the relative demand for the goods and services of the
two countries. If the US dollar is stronger than the rupee, then it shows that the demand for dollars (by those
holding rupee) is more than the demand for rupees (by those holding dollars).
Typically, stronger economies have stronger currencies. For instance, the US economy is relatively stronger than
India’s and this is reflected in one US dollar being equal to around 76 rupees.
The Reserve Bank of India tabulates the rupee’s Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) in relation to the
currencies of 36 trading partner countries. This is a weighted index — that is, countries with which India trades
more are given a greater weight in the index. A decrease in this index denotes depreciation in rupee’s value; an
increase reflects appreciation.
There is one more measure that is even better at capturing the actual change. This is called the Real Effective
Exchange Rate (REER) and is essentially an improvement over the NEER because it also takes into account the
domestic inflation in the various economies.
Many factors affect the exchange rate between any two currencies ranging from the interest rates to political
stability (less of either results in a weaker currency). Inflation is one of the most important factors.
Here’s how. Imagine that the Re-$ exchange rate was exactly 1 in the first year. This means that with Rs 100, one
could buy something that was priced at $100 in the US. But suppose the Indian inflation is 20% and the US
inflation is zero. Then, in the second year, an Indian would need Rs 120 to buy the same item priced at $100, and
the rupee’s exchange rate would depreciate to 1.20.
Source
12) Consider the following statements regarding New Development Bank.

1. The New Development Bank (NDB) is a multilateral development bank established by the BRICS states.
2. The state governments in India can seek loan assistance from NDB.
3. India is the second largest shareholder of the NDB.
a) 1 only
b) 1, 3
c) 1, 2
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: c)
The New Development Bank (NDB), formerly referred to as the BRICS Development Bank, is a multilateral
development bank established by the BRICS states (Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa).
"The Bank shall support public or private projects through loans, guarantees, equity participation and
other financial instruments." Moreover, the NDB "shall cooperate with international organizations and other
financial entities, and provide technical assistance for projects to be supported by the Bank."
The authorized capital for NDB is $100 Billion while initial subscribed capital is $50 billion. Initial subscribed capital
was equally distributed among the founding members {$10 billion each}. Voting power of each member is equal
to the number of its subscribed shares in capital stock.
New Development Bank (NDB) has decided to lend Rs 6,000 crores to Andhra Pradesh Government for various
projects.

1. The contribution of agriculture to GDP is around 16% at current prices in 2018-19 compared to 52% in
1950s.
2. Crop loan accounts for around 90 per cent of the total agricultural credit.
3. As per Labour Bureau Report 2015-16, more than 60 per cent of the working population was employed
in agriculture and allied sector.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: a)
According to Census 2011, out of the total workers of 481.7 million, there are 118.7 million cultivators and 144.3
million agricultural labourers, which means approximately 55 per cent of the total workers were employed in
agriculture and allied sector. However, the percentage share of workers engaged in agriculture sector has been
declining. As per Labour Bureau Report 2015-16, 46.1 per cent of the working population was employed in
agriculture and allied sector. Further, as per an ILO estimate employment in agriculture sector as percentage of
the total employment was approximately 44 per cent in the year 2018.
The contribution of agriculture to GDP has fallen to 16.14% at current prices in 2018-19 from 52% in 1950s and
30% in 1990s.
Crop loan accounts for more than 90 per cent of the total agricultural credit though its contribution to total
output is approx. 60 per cent which means that the allied sector gets only 10 per cent of total credit while
contributing the remaining 40 per cent of the total output.
Source
14) Arrange in the decreasing order the agency-wise share in total agricultural credit outstanding.
1. Scheduled commercial banks
2. Regional Rural Banks
3. All co-operative banks/institutions
a) 3-1-2
b) 1-3-2
c) 2-1-3
d) 1-2-3
Solution: b)
Scheduled commercial banks contributed the major share (78 – 80 per cent) in agricultural and allied credit. Co-
operative institutions also play a significant role in extending agricultural credit and the share of all co-operative
banks/institutions (i.e. StCBs, DCCBs and PACS put together) constituted 15-16 per cent. The RRBs contributed the
remaining 5 per cent of the agricultural credit.
15) Commercial banks contribute to the corpus of various funds administered by Development Financial
Institutions (DFIs) based on their respective Priority Sector Lending shortfall. These funds include
1. Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF)
2. Short-term Cooperative Refinance Fund
3. MSME Refinance Fund
4. Food Processing Industries Fund
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 3, 4
c) 2, 3, 4
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
Solution: d)
Commercial banks contribute to the corpus of RIDF and other funds administered by DFIs based on their
respective PSL shortfall. The chart below shows that the allocation to RIDF has been declining over a period of
time from 61 per cent in 2008-09 to 18 per cent in 2019-20.
2. Ecology and Environment
1) Consider the following statements regarding Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve (GOMBR).
1. Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve is the first marine Biosphere in India.
2. It extends from Rameswaram to Tuticorin.
3. It is internationally recognised under the UNESCO-MAB programme.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
The Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve (GOMBR) area is extending from Rameswaram to Tuticorin. It comprises of
21 Islands and this is the first Indian marine national park which is internationally recognised under the UNESCO-
MAB programme. The IUCN commission on national parks and WWF identified the reserve as an area of particular
concern because of its richest biodiversity and multiple use of the area. The GOMBR is the first marine Biosphere
in India.
Source
2) Global Geoparks, sometimes seen in news, is managed by

a) UN Environment
b) UNESCO
c) International Union for Conservation of Nature
d) United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change
Solution: b)
Geological Survey of India has chosen heritage locations in Maharashtra and Karnataka for UNESCO Global
Geopark Network status. The Geopark tag is akin to that of a ‘World Heritage Site’ for historical monuments that
can bring India’s famed geological features to the global stage.
The sites chosen are- Lonar Lake in Maharashtra and St. Mary’s Island and Malpe beach in coastal Karnataka are
the GSI’s candidates for UNESCO Global Geopark Network status.
Source
3) Consider the following statements regarding Lonar Lake.

1. Lonar Lake is a notified National Geo-heritage Monument, located in Maharashtra.
2. It is formed due to warping and fracturing of the earth’s crust.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a)
Lonar Lake is a notified National Geo-heritage Monument, located in Maharashtra.

Lonar Lake was created by an asteroid collision with earth impact during the Pleistocene Epoch. It is one of the
four known, hyper-velocity, impact craters in basaltic rock anywhere on Earth. The other three basaltic impact
structures are in southern Brazil.
Lonar Crater sits inside the Deccan Plateau.
Source
4) Which of the following are the endemic species of the Western Ghats.
1. Nilgiri tahr
2. Lion-tailed macaque
3. Purple Frog
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
The hill ranges of the Western Ghats, a global biodiversity hotspot, extend along the west coast of India from the
river Tapti in the north to the southern tip of India.
The Western Ghats contain more than 30 per cent of all plant, fish, herpeto-fauna, bird, and mammal species
found in India. Many species are endemic, such as the Nilgiri tahr (Hemitragus hylocrius) and the lion-tailed
macaque (Macaca silenus).
The amphibians of the Western Ghats are diverse and unique, with more than 80% of the 179 amphibian species
being endemic. The endangered purple frog was discovered in 2003. Several families of frogs, namely of the
genera Micrixalus, Indirana, Nyctibatrachus, are endemic to this region.
Source
5) Consider the following statements regarding Golden langur.

1. It is one of the most endangered primate species of India.
2. It is found only in India.
3. They are listed in Appendix I of CITES and Schedule I of Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
a) 1, 2
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: c)
Gee's golden langur also known as the golden langur, is an Old World monkey found in a small region of western
Assam, India and in the neighboring foothills of the Black Mountains of Bhutan. It is one of the most endangered
primate species of India.
They are listed in Appendix I of CITES and Schedule I of Wildlife Protection Act, 1972. Gee's golden langur is
currently endangered with the current population trend as decreasing.
The regions of its distribution are very small; the main region is limited to an area approximately 60 miles square
bounded on the south by the Brahmaputra River, on the east by the Manas River, on the west by the Sankosh
River, all in Assam, and on the north by the Black Mountains of Bhutan.
Source
6) The Green Climate Fund has been established by the

a) World Bank
b) United Nations Convention on Biological Diversity
c) United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change
d) Bonn Convention
Solution: c)
The Green Climate Fund (GCF) is the world’s largest dedicated fund helping developing countries reduce their
greenhouse gas emissions and enhance their ability to respond to climate change. It was set up by the United
Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) in 2010. GCF has a crucial role in serving the Paris
Agreement, supporting the goal of keeping average global temperature rise well below 2 degrees C. It does this
by channelling climate finance to developing countries, which have joined other nations in committing to climate
action.
Coming from a variety of sources, these resources address the pressing mitigation and adaptation needs of
developing countries.
Source
7) Consider the following statements regarding National Clean Air Programme (NCAP).
1. The main aim of the programme is to reduce the PM2.5 and PM10 concentration by 2024, taking 2019
as the base year for the comparison of concentration.
2. 102 non-attainment cities have been identified for implementing mitigation actions under NCAP.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: b)
The government launched National Clean Air Programme, a time-bound national level strategy to tackle
increasing air pollution.
The NCAP will be a mid-term, five-year action plan with 2019 as the first year. The main aim of the programme
would be 20-30% reduction of PM2.5 and PM10 concentration by 2024. The programme would take 2017 as the
base year for the comparison of concentration.
Overall objective of the NCAP is comprehensive mitigation actions for prevention, control and abatement of air
pollution besides augmenting the air quality monitoring network across the country and strengthening the
awareness and capacity building activities.
City specific action plans are being formulated for 102 non-attainment cities identified for implementing
mitigation actions under NCAP. Cities have already prepared action plans in consultation with Central Pollution
Control Board. The national plan has proposed setting up an apex committee under environment minister, a
steering committee under secretary (environment) and a monitoring committee under a joint secretary. There
would be project monitoring committees at the state-level with scientists and trained personnel.
Other features of NCAP include, increasing number of monitoring stations in the country including rural
monitoring stations, technology support, emphasis on awareness and capacity building initiatives, setting up of
certification agencies for monitoring equipment, source apportionment studies, emphasis on enforcement,
specific sectoral interventions etc.
Source

1. In some parts of the world, Increase in renewable energy connections to the electricity grid is
increasing the emissions of Sulfur Hexafluoride.
2. Sulfur Hexafluoride has more warming potential than carbon dioxide (CO2).
3. Sulfur Hexafluoride also persists in the atmosphere for a long time.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
Sulphur hexafluoride, or SF6, is widely used in the electrical industry to prevent short circuits and accidents.
Cheap and non-flammable, SF6 is a colourless, odourless, synthetic gas. It makes a hugely effective insulating
material for medium and high-voltage electrical installations.
It is widely used across the industry, from large power stations to wind turbines to electrical sub-stations in towns
and cities. It prevents electrical accidents and fires.
However, the significant downside to using the gas is that it has the highest global warming potential of any
known substance. It is 23,500 times more warming than carbon dioxide (CO2).
It also persists in the atmosphere for a long time, warming the Earth for at least 1,000 years.
So why are we using more of this powerful warming gas?

The way we make electricity around the world is changing rapidly.
Where once large coal-fired power stations brought energy to millions, the drive to combat climate change means
they are now being replaced by mixed sources of power including wind, solar and gas.
This has resulted in many more connections to the electricity grid, and a rise in the number of electrical switches
and circuit breakers that are needed to prevent serious accidents.
Collectively, these safety devices are called switchgear. The vast majority use SF6 gas to quench arcs and stop
short circuits.
Source
9) Consider the following statements regarding Aerosols.

1. Some aerosols are reflective, i.e. when the sun’s rays beam down on them, they bounce the rays
back out of the atmosphere.
2. Mist, dust, particulate air pollutants and smoke are the examples of anthropogenic aerosols.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a)
An aerosol is a suspension of fine solid particles or liquid droplets in air or another gas. Aerosols can be natural
or anthropogenic. Examples of natural aerosols are fog, mist, dust, forest exudates and geyser steam. Examples of
anthropogenic aerosols are particulate air pollutants and smoke.
Aerosols influence climate in two primary ways: by changing the amount of heat that gets in or out of the
atmosphere, or by affecting the way clouds form.
Some aerosols, like many kinds of dust from ground-up rocks, are light-colored and even a little bit reflective.
When the sun’s rays beam down on them, they bounce the rays back out of the atmosphere, preventing that
heat from ever reaching Earth’s surface. The effect can be dramatic: The Mt. Pinatubo volcanic eruption in
1991, in the Philippines, spewed the equivalent of 1.2 square miles of tiny, reflective rock particles into the
high stratosphere—cooling the planet for two full years afterward.
Source Source
10) One Health Concept, sometimes seen in news is related to

a) Strategies to prevent Non-communicable diseases
b) Providing health insurance to all the individuals
c) Inter-connectivity among human health, animal health, and the environment
d) Prioritising human health over animal health
Solution: c)
The World Organization of Animal Health, commonly known as OIE summarises the One Health concept as
“human health and animal health are interdependent and bound to the health of the ecosystems in which they
exist”.
The philosophy of One Health recognises inter-connectivity among human health, the health of animals, and the
environment.
11) Consider the following statements regarding Peatlands.

1. Peatlands are wetlands where permanently waterlogged conditions prevent the complete
decomposition of dead plant material.
2. Peatlands are highly space-effective carbon stocks and contain more carbon than the entire forest
biomass of the world.
3. Peatlands are formed only under tropical climate conditions.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: a)
Peatlands are formed due to the accumulation of partially decomposed plant remains over thousands of years
under conditions of water-logging.
Peatlands, which play a crucial role in regulating global climate by acting as carbon sinks, are facing degradation.
Peatlands (lands with peat at the surface) are highly space-effective carbon stocks: they cover only 3% of the land,
but contain more carbon than the entire forest biomass of the world.
Peatlands contain 30 per cent of the world’s soil carbon. When drained, these emit greenhouse gases,
contributing up to one gigaton of emissions per year through oxidation.
Peatlands occur in different climate zones. While in tropical climate, they can occur in mangroves, in Arctic
regions, peatlands are dominated by mosses. Some mangrove species are known to develop peatland soils under
them.
Besides climate mitigation, peatlands are important for archaeology, as they maintain pollen, seeds and human
remains for a long time in their acidic and water-logged conditions.
In many countries, pristine peatlands are important for recreation activities. These areas also support livelihood in
the form of pastoralism.
The vegetation growing on pristine peatlands provide different kinds of fibres for construction activities and
handicrafts.
Source Source
12) Consider the following statements regarding Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of
Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES).
1. CITES is legally binding on state parties to the convention, which are obliged to adopt their own
domestic legislation to implement its goals.
2. It is administered by IUCN.
3. Trade is not permittable for the species covered under Appendix I of CITES.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
a) 2 only
b) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
d) 2, 3
Solution: d)
CITES (the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora) is an international
agreement between governments. Its aim is to ensure that international trade in specimens of wild animals and
plants does not threaten their survival.
It was signed on March 3, 1973 (Hence world wildlife day is celebrated on march 3).
It is administered by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
Secretariat— Geneva (Switzerland).
CITES is legally binding on state parties to the convention, which are obliged to adopt their own domestic
legislation to implement its goals.
The species covered by CITES are listed in three Appendices, according to the degree of protection they need.
Appendix I includes species threatened with extinction. Trade in specimens of these species is permitted only in
exceptional circumstances.
Appendix II includes species not necessarily threatened with extinction, but in which trade must be controlled in
order to avoid utilization incompatible with their survival.
Appendix III contains species that are protected in at least one country, which has asked other CITES Parties for
assistance in controlling the trade.
Source
13) Consider the following statements regarding Plastic Waste Management (Amendment) Rules 2018.
1. Plastic Waste Management (Amendment) Rules 2018 was notified by the Ministry of Environment,
Forest and Climate Change.
2. It lays down complete phasing of Multilayered Plastic (MLP) in a phased manner.
3. The rules on explicit pricing of carry bags has been omitted.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: b)
The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change has notified the Plastic Waste Management
(Amendment) Rules 2018. The amended Rules lay down that the phasing out of Multilayered Plastic (MLP) is now
applicable to MLP, which are “non-recyclable, or non-energy recoverable, or with no alternate use.”
The amended Rules also prescribe a central registration system for the registration of the
producer/importer/brand owner. The Rules also lay down that any mechanism for the registration should be
automated and should take into account ease of doing business for producers, recyclers and manufacturers. The
centralised registration system will be evolved by Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) for the registration of
the producer/importer/brand owner. While a national registry has been prescribed for producers with presence
in more than two states, a state-level registration has been prescribed for smaller producers/brand owners
operating within one or two states.
In addition, Rule 15 of the Plastic Waste Management (Amendment) Rules 2018 on “explicit pricing of carry
bags” has been omitted.
Source
14) Consider the following statements regarding Locusts.

1. Locusts are usually solitary, but under certain circumstances they become more abundant and change
their behaviour and habits, becoming gregarious.
2. Usually they attack standing crops and green vegetation.
3. In the last two years, in India there are no reported cases of Locust attack.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: a)
Locusts are a collection of certain species of short-horned grasshoppers in the family Acrididae that have
a swarming phase. These insects are usually solitary, but under certain circumstances they become more
abundant and change their behaviour and habits, becoming gregarious.
The locust, a short-horned, desert grasshopper that attacks standing crops and green vegetation, has been
making news in India since May-June 2019, when it appeared in Rajasthan and Gujarat. In Kharif season (June to
October) last year, it was also seen in a few areas along Punjab’s border with Rajasthan.
Source
15) The iconic Blue Flag is one of the world’s most recognised voluntary eco-labels awarded to
1. Beaches
2. Marinas
3. Sustainable boating tourism operators
a) 1 only
b) 1, 2
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
The iconic Blue Flag is one of the world’s most recognised voluntary eco-labels awarded to beaches, marinas, and
sustainable boating tourism operators. In order to qualify for the Blue Flag, a series of stringent environmental,
educational, safety, and accessibility criteria must be met and maintained.
Central to the ideals of the Blue Flag programme is the aim of connecting the public with their surroundings and
encouraging them to learn more about their environment. As such, environmental education activities must be
offered and promoted in addition to a permanent display of information relevant to the site in terms of
biodiversity, ecosystems and environmental phenomena.
Source
16) Integrated Tiger Habitat Conservation Programme (ITHCP) aims to

1. Protecting tiger species and their prey from the threat of poaching.
2. Preserving tiger habitats, including core habitats, buffer zones and corridors.
3. Supporting human populations living in tiger landscapes.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
Initiated in 2014, the Integrated Tiger Habitat Conservation Programme (ITHCP) or ‘Tiger Programme‘ is a grant-
making initiative which contributes to the Global Tiger Recovery Programme (GTRP), a global effort to double
tiger numbers in the wild by 2022. The programme consists of a portfolio of 12 large-scale projects in key Tiger
Conservation Landscapes across Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Indonesia, Nepal and Myanmar.
The Tiger Programme is based on three pillars:

• Protecting tiger species and their prey from the threat of poaching;
• Preserving tiger habitats, including core habitats, buffer zones and corridors;
• Supporting human populations living in tiger landscapes.
Source
17) Consider the following statements about United Nations Environment Assembly.
1. The United Nations Environment Assembly was created in 1992 at the Earth Summit in Rio de Janeiro.
2. The United Nations Environment Assembly is the world’s highest-level decision-making body on the
environment.
3. The Assembly meets annually to set priorities for global environmental policies and develop
international environmental law.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 1, 3
d) 2, 3
Solution: c)
The United Nations Environment Assembly was created in June 2012, when world leaders called for UN
Environment to be strengthened and upgraded during the United Nations Conference on Sustainable
Development, also referred to as RIO+20.
The United Nations Environment Assembly is the world’s highest-level decision-making body on the
environment. It addresses the critical environmental challenges facing the world today. Understanding these
challenges and preserving and rehabilitating our environment is at the heart of the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable
Development.
The Environment Assembly meets biennially to set priorities for global environmental policies and develop
international environmental law. Through its resolutions and calls to action, the Assembly provides leadership
and catalyses intergovernmental action on the environment.
Source
18) Basel Ban Amendment sometimes seen in news is related to
a) Banning fire crackers that release dangerous toxins
b) Global ban on single use plastic
c) Regulation of banks
d) Global waste dumping prohibition
Solution: d)
The 1995 Basel Ban Amendment, a global waste dumping prohibition, has become an international law after
Croatia ratified it on September 6, 2019.
Croatia became the 97th country to ratify the ban, which was adopted by the parties to the Basel Convention in
1995, to protect human health and the environment against the adverse effects of hazardous wastes, according
to Basel Action Network (BAN).
BAN is a Unites States-based charity organisation and is one among the organisations and countries, which
created the Basel Ban Amendment — hailed as a landmark agreement for global environmental justice.
The Ban Amendment prohibits all export of hazardous wastes, including electronic wastes and obsolete ships
from 29 wealthiest countries of the Organization of Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) to non-
OECD countries.
Source
19) Consider the following statements about Network for Certification and Conservation of Forests (NCCF).
1. It is an attached office of Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC).
2. It aims to set standards for certifying India’s forests, their products and their sustainable management.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: b)
The council of Programme for Endorsement of Forest Certification (PEFC), a Geneva-based non-profit, had
decided to endorse the Certification Standard for Sustainable Forest Management (SFM) developed by Network
for Certification and Conservation of Forests (NCCF), an Indian non-profit.
PEFC provides independent third-party certification for sustainable forest management.
Network for Certification and Conservation of Forests (NCCF) came into existence in January 2015 as a non-profit
organisation, registered as a Society, to have a globally aligned certification program developed within India and
addressing the concerns for sustainable management of forests and the plantations, while at the same time
making the Indian wood and forest fiber based industry competent globally.
The NCCF has got support from the key forest-based stakeholders such as the Ministry of Environment, Forest
and Climate Change (MoEFCC).
Source
20) Consider the following statements regarding Atlantic meridional overturning circulation (AMOC), sometimes
referred to as the “Atlantic conveyor belt”.
1. It aids in distributing heat and energy around the earth.
2. At present it has remained stable.
3. Rising temperatures in the Indian Ocean can help boost the AMOC.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: b)
Atlantic meridional overturning circulation (AMOC) — which is sometimes referred to as the “Atlantic conveyor
belt” — is one of the Earth’s largest water circulation systems where ocean currents move warm, salty water from
the tropics to regions further north, such as western Europe and sends colder water south.
It aids in distributing heat and energy around the earth, as the warm water it carries releases heat into the
atmosphere, and in absorbing and storing atmospheric carbon.
For thousands of years, AMOC has remained stable, but since the past 15 years, it has been weakening — a
development that could have dramatic consequences for Europe and other parts of the Atlantic rim.
Researchers from the Scripps Institution of Oceanography at the University of California-San Diego and Yale
University found that rising temperatures in the Indian Ocean can help boost the AMOC and delay slow down.
Source
21) Consider the following statements regarding CAMPA (Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and
Planning Authority).
1. Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority (CAMPA) are meant to
promote afforestation and regeneration activities as a way of compensating for forest land diverted to non-forest
uses.
2. According to CAMPA Act’s provision, a company diverting forest land must provide alternative land to
take up compensatory afforestation.
3. The loss of forest ecosystem must also be compensated by paying for net present value (NPV).
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
To compensate the loss of forest area and to maintain the sustainability, the Government of India came up with a
well-defined Act, known as CAMPA (Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority).
The law establishes the National Compensatory Afforestation Fund under the Public Account of India, and a State
Compensatory Afforestation Fund under the Public Account of each state.
These Funds will receive payments for: (i) compensatory afforestation, (ii) net present value of forest (NPV), and
(iii) other project specific payments.
The National Fund will receive 10% of these funds, and the State Funds will receive the remaining 90%.
According to the Act’s provision, a company diverting forest land must provide alternative land to take up
compensatory afforestation.
For afforestation, the company should pay to plant new trees in the alternative land provided to the state.
Source
22) Consider the following statements regarding United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD).
1. In 2019, for the first time India hosted the Conference of Parties of United Nations Convention to
Combat Desertification (UNCCD).
2. UNCCD is the only convention stemming from a direct recommendation of the Rio Conference’s
Agenda 21.
3. To help publicise the Convention, 2019 was declared “International Year of Deserts and
Desertification”.
a) 1, 3
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 2
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: c)
For the first time ever India hosted the 14th session of Conference of Parties (COP-14) of United Nations
Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) in September 2019, to address the issue of land degradation and
desertification.
India took over the Presidency of the COP from China.
About UNCCD:
• Established in 1994.
• It is the sole legally binding international agreement linking environment and development to sustainable
land management.
• It is the only convention stemming from a direct recommendation of the Rio Conference’s Agenda 21.
• To help publicise the Convention, 2006 was declared “International Year of Deserts and Desertification”.
• Focus areas: The Convention addresses specifically the arid, semi-arid and dry sub-humid areas, known as
the drylands, where some of the most vulnerable ecosystems and peoples can be found.
• Aim: Its 197 Parties aim, through partnerships, to implement the Convention and achieve the Sustainable
Development Goals. The end goal is to protect land from over-use and drought, so it can continue to
provide food, water and energy.
• The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change is the nodal Ministry for this Convention.
23) Consider the following statements regarding Bio-Plastics.

1. Bioplastics can be made from agricultural by-products and also from used plastic bottles and other
containers using microorganisms.
2. Some bioplastics are soil and marine-safe and they safely degrade in the environment within weeks or
months, leaving no harmful residues.
3. Bioplastics save more non-renewable energy than conventional plastics and emit less GHG compared
to conventional plastics.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
Bioplastics are plastic materials produced from renewable biomass sources, such as vegetable fats and oils, corn
starch, straw, woodchips, sawdust, recycled food waste, etc. Bioplastic can be made from agricultural by-
products and also from used plastic bottles and other containers using microorganisms. Not all bioplastics
are biodegradable nor biodegrade more readily than commodity fossil-fuel derived plastics.
Some bioplastics like PHAs (polyhydroxyalkanoates) are soil- and marine-safe — that is, they safely degrade in the
environment within weeks or months, leaving no harmful residues.
Although bioplastics save more nonrenewable energy than conventional plastics and emit less GHG compared to
conventional plastics, bioplastics also have negative environmental impacts such as eutrophication and
acidification.
Bioplastics induce higher eutrophication potentials than conventional plastics. Biomass production during
industrial farming practices causes nitrate and phosphate to filtrate into water bodies; this causes eutrophication
which is the richness of the nutrients in body waters. Bioplastics also increase acidification. The high increase in
eutrophication and acidification caused by bioplastics is also caused by using chemical fertilizer in the cultivation
of renewable raw materials to produce bioplastics.
Source
24) Consider the following statements regarding Earth Day.

1. Earth Day aims to build the world’s largest environmental movement to drive transformative change
for people and the planet.
2. The year 2020 marks the 50th anniversary of the annual celebrations of Earth Day.
3. The landmark Paris Agreement was signed on Earth Day 2016.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
April 22 is Earth Day, an international event celebrated around the world to pledge support for environmental
protection. The year 2020 marks the 50th anniversary of the annual celebrations. This year’s theme for Earth Day
is ‘climate action’.
In 2009, the United Nations designated April 22 as ‘International Mother Earth Day’.
Earth Day was first observed in 1970, when 20 million took to the streets to protest against environmental
degradation. The event was triggered by the 1969 Santa Barbara oil spill, as well as other issues such as smog and
polluted rivers.
The landmark Paris Agreement, which brings almost 200 countries together in setting a common target to reduce
global greenhouse emissions, was signed on Earth Day 2016.
According to earthday.org, Earth Day aims to “build the world’s largest environmental movement to drive
transformative change for people and the planet.” The movement’s mission is “to diversify, educate and activate
the environmental movement worldwide.”
Source
25) Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) publishes Special Reports on specific topics. The reports
published till now are based on which of the following areas?
1. Ocean and Cryosphere in a Changing Climate
2. Climate Change and Land
3. Global Warming of 1.5 °C
4. Renewable energy sources and climate change mitigation
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 3, 4
c) 2, 3, 4
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
Solution: d)
In addition to climate assessment reports, the IPCC publishes Special Reports on specific topics. The preparation
and approval process for all IPCC Special Reports follows the same procedures as for IPCC Assessment Reports.
The Special Report on Emissions Scenarios (SRES) is a report by the IPCC which was published in 2000. The SRES
contains "scenarios" of future changes in emissions of greenhouse gases and sulfur dioxide.
Special report on renewable energy sources and climate change mitigation (SRREN) was published in 2012. It
assesses existing literature on renewable energy commercialisation for the mitigation of climate change.
Special Report on managing the risks of extreme events and disasters to advance climate change adaptation
(SREX). The report was published in 2012. It assesses the effect that climate change has on the threat of natural
disasters and how nations can better manage an expected change in the frequency of occurrence and intensity of
severe weather patterns.
Special Report on Global Warming of 1.5 °C (SR15) was released on 8 October 2018. It is on "How can humanity
prevent the global temperature rise more than 1.5 degrees above pre-industrial level".
Special Report on climate change and land (SRCCL) was published online on 7 August 2019. This report presents
the most recent evidence on how the different uses of land like forests, agriculture, urbanisation is affecting and
getting affected by climate change.
Special Report on the Ocean and Cryosphere in a Changing Climate (SROCC). It covers how the ocean and
cryosphere have and are expected to change with ongoing global warming.
26) Arrange the following from West to East

1. Manas National Park
2. Kaziranga National Park
3. Orang National Park
4. Pobitora Wildlife Sanctuary
a) 4-1-3-2
b) 1-4-3-2
c) 1-4-2-3
d) 4-1-2-3
Solution: b)
27) Which of the following are the Geoengineering techniques designed to tackle the effects of climate change?
1. Artificial trees that pull the CO2 from the atmosphere using plastic polymers.
2. Adding large quantities of lime to the Ocean water to increase the amount of CO2 absorption by the
oceans.
3. Using unmanned ships to increase above-ocean cloud cover by spraying sea water into the air.
4. Floating thousands of tiny mirrors in space between Earth and the sun.
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 3, 4
c) 1, 2, 4
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
Solution: d)
Geoengineering schemes are projects designed to tackle the effects of climate change directly, usually by
removing CO2 from the air or limiting the amount of sunlight reaching the planet's surface.
The first category of scheme – those designed to remove CO2 from the air – include machines (sometimes called
"artificial trees") that pull the gas from the atmosphere using plastic polymers. Other proposals seek to increase
the amount of CO2 absorbed by the oceans – for example by adding large quantities of lime to the water.
In the second category – schemes designed to reduce the amount of sunlight reaching Earth – proposals include
firing sulphate aerosols into the stratosphere to reflect sunlight back to space; using unmanned ships to increase
above-ocean cloud cover by spraying sea water into the air; painting the world's roofs white to increase
reflectivity; and even floating thousands of tiny mirrors in space between Earth and the sun.
Source
28) Consider the following statements regarding Ozone hole.

1. Ozone hole refers to a region in the stratosphere where the concentration of ozone becomes extremely
high.
2. Recently the Ozone hole in the Arctic layer was closed mainly because of polar vortex.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: b)
Recently the European Union’s Copernicus Atmosphere Monitoring Service (CAMS) announced that a hole in the
Arctic ozone layer, believed to be the biggest reported, has closed.
The ozone hole’s closing was because of a phenomenon called the polar vortex, and not because of reduced
pollution levels due to Covid-19 lockdowns around the world, reports said.
The hole in the North Pole’s ozone layer, which was first detected in February, had since reached a maximum
extension of around 1 million sq km, according to scientists at the German Aerospace Center.
The importance of the ozone layer

Ozone (chemically, a molecule of three oxygen atoms) is found mainly in the upper atmosphere, an area called
the stratosphere, between 10 and 50 km from the earth’s surface. Though it is talked of as a layer, ozone is
present in the atmosphere in rather low concentrations. Even at places where this layer is thickest, there are not
more than a few molecules of ozone for every million air molecules.
But they perform a very important function. By absorbing the harmful ultraviolet radiations from the sun, the
ozone molecules eliminate a big threat to life forms on earth. UV rays can cause skin cancer and other diseases
and deformities in plants and animals.
Ozone holes
The ‘ozone hole’ is not really a hole — it refers to a region in the stratosphere where the concentration of ozone
becomes extremely low in certain months.
The ‘ozone holes’ most commonly talked about are the depletions over Antarctica, forming each year in the
months of September, October and November, due to a set of special meteorological and chemical conditions
that arise at the South Pole, and can reach sizes of around 20 to 25 million sq km.
Such holes are also spotted over the North Pole, but owing to warmer temperatures than the South Pole, the
depletions here are much smaller in size. Before this year, the last sizable Arctic ozone hole was reported in 2011.
Why this year’s Arctic ozone hole was massive

This year, the ozone depletion over the Arctic was much larger. Scientists believe that unusual atmospheric
conditions, including freezing temperatures in the stratosphere, were responsible.
As per a European Space Agency report, cold temperatures (below -80°C), sunlight, wind fields and substances
such as chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) were responsible for the degradation of the Arctic ozone layer.
Although Arctic temperatures do not usually fall as low as in Antarctica, this year, powerful winds flowing around
the North Pole trapped cold air within what is known as the polar vortex— a circling whirlpool of stratospheric
winds.
Source
29) Consider the following statements regarding Sambhar Lake.

1. Sambhar Lake is India's largest inland salt lake located in Gujarat.
2. The lake is surrounded by the Aravali hills on all sides.
3. It has been designated as a Ramsar site because it is a key wintering area for tens of thousands of
pink flamingos and other birds.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: c)
The Sambhar Salt Lake, India's largest inland salt lake, is located in Rajasthan.
The lake receives water from five rivers: Medtha, Samaod, Mantha, Rupangarh, Khari, and Khandela.
It is surrounded by the Aravali hills on all sides.
Sambhar has been designated as a Ramsar site (recognized wetland of international importance) because
the wetland is a key wintering area for tens of thousands of pink flamingos and other birds that migrate
from northern Asia and Siberia. The specialized algae and bacteria growing in the lake provide striking water
colours and support the lake ecology that, in turn, sustains the migrating waterfowl.
3. Government Schemes and Programmes
1) Which of the following are the pillars of Digital India programme.
1. Universal Access to Mobile Connectivity
2. Early Harvest Programmes
3. eKranti - Electronic delivery of services
4. Information for All
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 2, 3
c) 2, 3, 4
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
Solution: d)
Digital India is an umbrella programme that covers multiple Government Ministries and Departments. It weaves
together a large number of ideas and thoughts into a single, comprehensive vision so that each of them can be
implemented as part of a larger goal.
Each individual element stands on its own, but is also part of the larger picture. Digital India is to be implemented
by the entire Government with overall coordination being done by the Department of Electronics and Information
Technology (DeitY).
Digital India aims to provide the much needed thrust to the nine pillars of growth areas, namely Broadband
Highways, Universal Access to Mobile Connectivity, Public Internet Access Programme, e-Governance: Reforming
Government through Technology, e-Kranti - Electronic Delivery of Services, Information for All, Electronics
Manufacturing, IT for Jobs and Early Harvest Programmes. Each of these areas is a complex programme in itself
and cuts across multiple Ministries and Departments.
2) Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS) scheme is suspended for two years to
boost the funding available for the COVID-19 fight. Earlier MPLADS funds were utilised for.
1. Purchase of Ambulances for sick/injured animals in Wildlife Sanctuaries and National Parks.
2. Purchase of books for schools, colleges and public library belonging to Central, States, UTs and Local
Self-Government.
3. Construction of office and residential buildings for public and private agencies.
4. Works on lands belonging to religious groups
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 2
c) 1, 2, 4
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
Solution: b)
Works which will serve greater public purpose and not purpose of few individuals need to be recommended. MPs
can only recommend, but District Authorities have the ultimate power to sanction it.
Key priority sectors: Drinking water facility, education, electricity facility, non-conventional energy resources,
healthcare and sanitation, irrigation facilities, railways, roads, pathways and bridges, sports, agriculture and allied
activities, self-help group development, urban development.
Works not permitted: construction of office and residential buildings for public and private agencies, land
acquisition or paying compensation, naming assets after individuals, grants or loans to state/central relief fund,
assets for individual benefits, works on lands belonging to religious groups, execution of works in unauthorized
colonies.
Other works permitted: construction of railway halt station, providing CCTV camera in strategic locations,
installation of bio-digesters at stations, schools, hospitals, provision for fixed weighing scale machines for farmers,
installation of rainwater harvesting systems in public spaces, construction of shelters for skill development.
Source Source
3) Consider the following statements regarding the recently launched NISHTHA programme.
1. NISHTHA is a capacity building programme for "Improving Quality of School Education through
Integrated Teacher Training".
2. The initiative is first of its kind wherein standardized training modules are developed at national level
for all States and UTs.
3. NISHTHA is under the Centrally Sponsored Scheme of Samagra Shiksha.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
The Department of School Education and Literacy has launched a National Mission to improve learning outcomes
at the elementary level through an Integrated Teacher Training Programme called NISHTHA under the Centrally
Sponsored Scheme of Samagra Shiksha in 2019-20.
NISHTHA is a capacity building programme for "Improving Quality of School Education through Integrated
Teacher Training". It aims to build competencies among all the teachers and school principals at the elementary
stage. NISHTHA is the world's largest teachers' training programme of its kind. The basic objective of this massive
training programme is to motivate and equip teachers to encourage and foster critical thinking in students. The
initiative is first of its kind wherein standardized training modules are developed at national level for all States
and UTs.
Highlights:
• Capacity building of 4.2 million teachers
• Integrated training of principals/heads as key academic support
• Focus on competency and higher order thinking skills based teaching learning
• Training of all heads and teachers as first level counselors
• Promoting experiential and joyful learning
• Awareness of centrally sponsored schemes/initiatives
• Online monitoring and support system
• Convergence of multi-departmental efforts
• Activity based training modules
Source
4) Which of the following statement is correct regarding ‘Janaushadhi Sugam’.

a) Providing free generic drugs to persons under BPL category.
b) Setting up Jan Aushadhi Kendras in rural and remote areas of the country.
c) Mobile application to search Janaushadhi generic medicines and stores
d) None of the above
Solution: c)
Union Ministry for Chemicals and Fertilizers has launched a mobile application “Janaushadhi Sugam”.
The application aims to enable people to search Janaushadhi generic medicines and the stores at the tip of their
fingers.
It will also help analyse product comparison of Generic vs Branded medicine in form of MRP & overall Savings.
5) Consider the following statements regarding National Digital Library of India (NDLI).
1. National Digital Library of India (NDLI) is a project of the Ministry of Human Resource
Development under the aegis of National Mission on Education through Information and Communication
Technology (NMEICT).
2. The objective of National Digital Library is to make digital educational resources available to all citizens
of the country.
2. National Digital Library has been designed to benefit differently abled users as well.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
National Digital Library of India (NDLI) is a project of the Ministry of Human Resource Development under the
aegis of National Mission on Education through Information and Communication Technology (NMEICT).
It is developed by IIT Kharagpur.
Objective: The objective of NDL is to make digital educational resources available to all citizens of the country to
empower, inspire and encourage learning.
Source
6) The government launched an ‘e-Sahaj’ portal. It is related to

a) To offer Insurance Coverage to Dairy Farmers
b) For security clearances in certain sensitive sectors
c) For MSME Sector to access market/ credit
d) To assist Startups in getting cheaper loans
Solution: b)
The government launched an online ‘e-Sahaj’ portal for grant of Security Clearance. The objective of national
security clearance is to evaluate potential security threats, including economic threats, and provide risk
assessment before clearing investment and project proposals in key sectors.
Source
7) Consider the following statements regarding Emergency Response Support System (ERSS).
1. ERSS is one of the key projects of Union Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA).
2. Under ERSS there is a single emergency response number across the country.
3. In India, the decision to launch the ERSS system was taken in the wake of the 2012 Delhi bus gangrape
case.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
ERSS is one of the key projects of Union Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) under Nirbhaya Fund. In India, the
decision to launch the ERSS system was taken in the wake of the 2012 Delhi bus gangrape case.
There is a pan-India single emergency number ‘112’ under ERSS.
Source
8) Consider the following statements regarding National Supercomputing Mission.

1. National Super Computing Mission is steered jointly by the Ministry of Electronics and IT (MeitY) and
Department of Science and Technology (DST).
2. The mission was set up to provide the country with supercomputing infrastructure to meet the
increasing computational demands of academia, researchers, MSMEs, and startups.
3. Param Shivay, Param Shakti and Param Brahma are various super computers installed in different
higher educational institutes.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
The 2020-21 is an important year for India’s National Supercomputing Mission (NSM). The mission was set up to
provide the country with supercomputing infrastructure to meet the increasing computational demands of
academia, researchers, MSMEs, and startups by creating the capability design, manufacturing, of supercomputers
indigenously in India.
A first of its kind attempt to boost the country’s computing power, the National Super Computing Mission is
steered jointly by the Ministry of Electronics and IT (MeitY) and Department of Science and Technology (DST) and
implemented by the Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC), Pune and the Indian Institute of
Science (IISc), Bengaluru.
The target of the mission was set to establish a network of supercomputers ranging from a few Tera Flops (TF) to
Hundreds of Tera Flops (TF) and three systems with greater than or equal to 3 Peta Flops (PF) in academic and
research institutions of National importance across the country by 2022.
With the revised plan in place, the first supercomputer assembled indigenously, called Param Shivay, was
installed in IIT (BHU) and was inaugurated by the Prime Minister. Similar systems Param Shakti and Param Brahma
were installed at IIT-Kharagpur and IISER, Pune. They are equipped with applications from domains like Weather
and Climate, Computational Fluid Dynamics, Bioinformatics, and Material science.
Source
9) Consider the following statements about Project Navlekha.
1. The project is to make online content relevant for more Indian users especially in local languages.
2. The project aims to bring 135,000 local language publishers online by making web hosting smooth and
simple.
3. It is the initiative of Ministry of Communication and Information Technology.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: a)
Google has unveiled Project Navlekha to make online content relevant for more Indian users especially in local
languages.
The project aims to bring 135,000 local language publishers online by making web hosting smooth and simple.
Source
10) National Mission on Interdisciplinary Cyber-Physical Systems (NM-ICPS) is a comprehensive Mission which
would address technology development in Cyber Physical System (CPS) and associated technologies. Cyber
Physical System (CPS) include
1. Artificial Intelligence (Al)
2. Quantum Computing
3. Big Data Analytics
4. Cybernetics
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 3, 4
c) 2, 3, 4
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
Solution: d)
Cyber Physical Systems (CPS) are a new class of engineered systems that integrate computation and physical
processes in a dynamic environment. CPS encompasses technology areas of Cybernetics, Mechatronics, Design
and Embedded systems, Internet of Things (IoT), Big Data, Artificial Intelligence (AI) among others.
Department of Science and Technology (DST) has sanctioned Rs 7.25 crore to IIT Mandi to establish
a Technology Innovation Hub (TIH) at the Institute.
DST has sanctioned the funds under its National Mission on Interdisciplinary Cyber-Physical Systems (NM-ICPS).
The mission implementation would develop and bring:

• Cyber Physical Systems (CPS) and associated technologies within reach in the country,
• adoption of CPS technologies to address India specific National / Regional issues,
• produce Next Generation skilled manpower in CPS,
• catalyze Translational Research,
• accelerate entrepreneurship and start-up ecosystem development in CPS,
• give impetus to advanced research in CPS, Technology development and higher education in Science,
Technology and Engineering disciplines, and
• place India at par with other advanced countries and derive several direct and indirect benefits.
Implementation:
• The Mission aims at establishment of 15 numbers of Technology Innovation Hubs (TIH), six numbers of
Application Innovation Hubs (AIH) and four numbers of Technology Translation Research Parks (TTRP).
• These Hubs & TTRPs will connect to Academics, Industry, Central Ministries and State Government in
developing solutions at reputed academic, R&D and other organizations across the country in a hub and
spoke model.
Source
11) Consider the following statements regarding Urban heat island (UHI).
1. An urban heat island (UHI) is an urban area that is significantly warmer than its surrounding rural
areas due to human activities.
2. The effect of Urban heat island is more severe during daytime than in night time.
3. The UHI decreases air quality by increasing the production of pollutants such as ozone, and decreases
water quality.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: b)
An urban heat island (UHI) is an urban area or metropolitan area that is significantly warmer than its
surrounding rural areas due to human activities. The temperature difference is usually larger at night than during
the day, and is most apparent when winds are weak. UHI is most noticeable during the summer and winter. The
main cause of the urban heat island effect is from the modification of land surfaces.
The UHI decreases air quality by increasing the production of pollutants such as ozone, and decreases water
quality as warmer waters flow into area streams and put stress on their ecosystems.
Mitigation of the urban heat island effect can be accomplished through the use of green roofs and the use of
lighter-colored surfaces in urban areas, which reflect more sunlight and absorb less heat.
Concerns have been raised about possible contribution from urban heat islands to global warming.
4. Science and Technology
1) Consider the following statements regarding South Atlantic Anomaly (SAA).
1. SAA is a region above the South Atlantic Ocean where there are a large number of charged particles
that can damage sensitive instruments.
2. All space telescopes are shut down when they pass through the SAA.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c)
Source
SAA is a region above the South Atlantic Ocean where there are a large number of charged particles that can
damage sensitive instruments. All space telescopes are shut down when they pass through the SAA.
2) Consider the following statements regarding Microdot technology.

1. Microdot technology involves spraying the body and parts of the vehicle or any other machine with
microscopic dots, which give a unique identification.
2. These microdots can be read physically with a microscope and identified with ultra violet light source.
3. The microdots cannot be removed without damaging the vehicle itself.
a) 1, 2
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
The Ministry of Road Transport & Highways has issued a draft notification amending Central Motor Vehicle Rules,
allowing motor vehicles and their parts, components, assemblies, sub-assemblies to be affixed with permanent
and nearly invisible microdots.
Microdot technology involves spraying the body and parts of the vehicle or any other machine with microscopic
dots, which give a unique identification.
These microdots can be read physically with a microscope and identified with ultra violet light source.
The microdots and adhesive will become permanent fixtures/affixation which cannot be removed without
damaging the asset, that is the vehicle itself.
Benefits: Use of this technology will help check theft of vehicles and also use of fake spare parts.
3) Consider the following statements regarding Iodine.

1. Iodine is a vital macro-nutrient for optimal mental and physical development of human beings.
2. Deficiency of iodine can lead to hypothyroidism, abortion, still births, mental retardation and
psychomotor defects.
3. Children born in iodine deficient areas may have low intelligence quotient (IQ).
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: c)
Iodine is a vital micro-nutrient for optimal mental and physical development of human beings. Deficiency of
iodine can result in a range of disabilities and disorders such as goitre, hypothyroidism, cretinism, abortion, still
births, mental retardation and psychomotor defects. Children born in iodine deficient areas may have up to 13.5
IQ points less than those born in iodine sufficient areas.
4) Consider the following statements about Poliomyelitis.

1. It is a highly infectious viral disease, which mainly affects young children.
2. The virus is transmitted by person-to-person and spread through contaminated water or food.
3. With latest developments in medicine, Polio disease can be cured.
4. India became the first country globally to introduce fractional doses of IPV in childhood immunisation
programme.
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 4
c) 1, 3, 4
d) 1, 2, 4
Solution: d)
Poliomyelitis (polio) is a highly infectious viral disease, which mainly affects young children. The virus is
transmitted by person-to-person spread mainly through the faecal-oral route or, less frequently, by a common
vehicle (e.g. contaminated water or food) and multiplies in the intestine, from where it can invade the nervous
system and can cause paralysis.
Initial symptoms of polio include fever, fatigue, headache, vomiting, stiffness in the neck, and pain in the limbs. In
a small proportion of cases, the disease causes paralysis, which is often permanent. There is no cure for polio, it
can only be prevented by immunization.
Source
5) Consider the following statements regarding Space Internet.

1. For providing Space-based Internet, satellites must be placed only in Low Earth Orbit.
2. When satellite is in the lower orbit, there will be zero time-lag or latency in data transfers.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: d)
Space-based Internet systems have, in fact, been in use for several years now — but only for a small number of
users. Also, most of the existing systems use satellites in geostationary orbit. This orbit is located at a height of
35,786 km over the Earth’s surface, directly above the Equator. Satellites in this orbit move at speeds of about
11,000 km per hour, and complete one revolution of the Earth in the same time that the earth rotates once on its
axis. To the observer on the ground, therefore, a satellite in geostationary orbit appears stationary.
One big advantage of beaming signals from geostationary orbit is that the satellite can cover a very large part of
the Earth. Signals from one satellite can cover roughly a third of the planet — and three to four satellites would
be enough to cover the entire Earth. Also, because they appear to be stationary, it is easier to link to them.
But satellites in geostationary orbit also have a major disadvantage. The Internet is all about transmission of data
in (nearly) real time. However, there is a time lag — called latency — between a user seeking data, and the server
sending that data. And because data transfers cannot happen faster than the speed of light (in reality, they take
place at significantly lower speeds), the longer the distance that needs to be covered the greater is the time lag,
or latency.
In space-based networks, data requests travel from the user to the satellite, and are then directed to data centres
on the ground. The results then make the same journey in the reverse direction. A transmission like this from a
satellite in geostationary orbit has a latency of about 600 milliseconds. A satellite in the lower orbit, 200-2,000 km
from the Earth’s surface, can bring the lag down to 20-30 milliseconds, roughly the time it takes for terrestrial
systems to transfer data.
The LEO extends up to 2,000 km above the Earth’s surface.
But lower orbits have their own problem.

Owing to their lower height, their signals cover a relatively small area. As a result, many more satellites are
needed in order to reach signals to every part of the planet.
Additionally, satellites in these orbits travel at more than double the speed of satellites in geostationary orbit —
about 27,000 km per hour — to balance the effects of gravity. Typically, they go around the Earth once every few
hours. To compensate for the fact that they cannot be seen from a terrestrial location for more than a few
minutes, many more satellites are needed in the networks, so that there are no breaks in the transmission of
data.
Source
6) Consider the following statements about Trans-fats.

1. Trans-fat is a type of unsaturated fat.
2. Trans fats also occur naturally.
3. Trans fats give food a desirable taste and texture.
a) 1, 2
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
Trans fat, also called trans-unsaturated fatty acids or trans fatty acids, is a type of unsaturated fat that occurs in
small amounts in nature, but became widely produced industrially from vegetable fats starting in the 1950s for
use in margarine, snack food, packaged baked goods, and for frying fast food.
Naturally-occurring trans fats are produced in the gut of some animals and foods made from these animals (e.g.,
milk and meat products) may contain small quantities of these fats. Artificial trans fats (or trans fatty acids) are
created in an industrial process that adds hydrogen to liquid vegetable oils to make them more solid.
Trans fats are easy to use, inexpensive to produce and last a long time. Trans fats give foods a desirable taste and
texture.
Source
7) Consider the following statements regarding C-Sat-Fi technology.

1. C-Sat-Fi technology is based on satellite communication to extend connectivity to the unserved areas
including the remote islands and difficult terrains.
2. C-Sat-Fi can work on any WiFi enabled phone.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c)
C-Sat-Fi (C-DOT Satellite WiFi) is based on the optimal utilization of wireless and satellite communication to
extend connectivity to the unserved areas including the remote islands and difficult terrains. Besides offering the
ease of deployment, the solution is ideally suited to addressing disasters and emergencies when no other means
of communication are available. This cost-effective solution does not require the expensive Satellite Phones and
can work on any WiFi enabled phone.
Source
8) Consider the following statements about Hepatitis C.

1. Hepatitis C is a liver disease.
2. The most common modes of infection are through exposure to small quantities of blood.
3. Hepatitis C also spreads through breast milk, food and water.
4. People with HIV infection are at increased risk of Hepatitis C virus infection.
a) 1, 2, 4
b) 1, 3, 4
c) 2, 3, 4
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
Solution: a)
Hepatitis C is a liver disease caused by the hepatitis C virus: the virus can cause both acute and chronic hepatitis,
ranging in severity from a mild illness lasting a few weeks to a serious, lifelong illness.
The hepatitis C virus (HCV) is a bloodborne virus and the most common modes of infection are through exposure
to small quantities of blood. This may happen through injection drug use, unsafe injection practices, unsafe health
care, and the transfusion of unscreened blood and blood products.
There is currently no vaccine for hepatitis C; however research in this area is ongoing.
HCV can also be transmitted sexually and can be passed from an infected mother to her baby; however these
modes of transmission are much less common.
Hepatitis C is not spread through breast milk, food, water or by casual contact such as hugging, kissing and sharing
food or drinks with an infected person.
Populations at increased risk of HCV infection include:

• people who inject drugs;
• people who use intranasal drugs;
• recipients of infected blood products or invasive procedures in health-care facilities with inadequate
infection control practices;
• children born to mothers infected with HCV;
• people with sexual partners who are HCV-infected;
• people with HIV infection;
• prisoners or previously incarcerated persons; and
• people who have had tattoos or piercings.
Source
9) Hydroxychloroquine, sometimes seen in news, is used to prevent or treat

a) Measles
b) Hepatitis B
c) Malaria
d) Rotavirus
Solution: c)
Hydroxychloroquine is an oral prescription drug that is used for the treatment of some forms of malaria, as well
as autoimmune disorders such as rheumatoid arthritis and lupus. In use since the 1940s, the drug has shown anti-
viral properties that have been studied for the last 40 years.
Source
10) Consider the following statements regarding Post-intensive care syndrome.

1. Post-intensive care syndrome (PICS) is made up of health problems that remain after critical illness.
2. Post-intensive care syndrome can happen to any person who has been in the intensive care unit (ICU).
3. PICS comprises impairment in cognition, psychological health and physical function of a person.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
Various news reports in recent weeks have pointed out that for some Covid-19 patients who needed intensive
care, the journey to recovery is a long one. After leaving the ICU, they may suffer from what is known as post-
intensive care syndrome (PICS), which can happen to any person who has been in the ICU.
What is post-intensive care syndrome?

PICS comprises impairment in cognition, psychological health and physical function of a person who has been in
the ICU.
“PICS is defined as new or worsening impairment in physical (ICU-acquired neuromuscular weakness), cognitive
(thinking and judgment), or mental health status arising after critical illness and persisting beyond discharge from
the acute care setting,”
Further, such patients may experience neuromuscular weakness, which can manifest itself in the form of poor
mobility and recurrent falls.
Psychological disability may arise in a person in the form of depression, anxiety and post-traumatic stress disorder
(PTSD).
The most common PICS symptoms are generalised weakness, fatigue, decreased mobility, anxious or depressed
mood, sexual dysfunction, sleep disturbances and cognitive issues. These symptoms may last for a few months or
many years after recovery.
PICS may be induced if a person was on prolonged mechanical ventilation, experienced sepsis, multiple organ
failure and a prolonged duration of “bed-restore deep sedation”.
It is recommended that to avoid PICS, patients’ use of deep sedation is limited and early mobility is encouraged,
along with giving them “aggressive” physical and occupational therapy.
Source
11) Consider the following statements regarding Vertically transmitted infection.

1. Vertical transmission refers to the transmission of an infection from a pregnant woman to her child.
2. It can only be antenatal and perinatal.
3. Among infections of which vertical transmission has been known to happen are HIV, Zika and rubella.
a) 1, 2
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: c)
After several months of the world believing that a pregnant woman cannot transmit novel coronavirus infection
to her unborn baby, evidence has been emerging to suggest that this can indeed happen.
Vertical transmission refers to the transmission of an infection from a pregnant woman to her child. It can be
antenatal (before birth), perinatal (weeks immediately prior to or after birth) or postnatal (after birth). This is
of grave concern not just because it can potentially cause a newborn to be very sick, but also because the
mechanism of how and when this happens is not always very clear. In a 2017 review article in the journal Cell
Host Microbe, scientists from the University of Pittsburgh wrote: “Despite the devastating impact of microbial
infections on the developing fetus, relatively little is known about how pathogens associated with congenital
disease breach the placental barrier to transit vertically during human pregnancy.”
Among infections of which vertical transmission has been known to happen are HIV, Zika, rubella and the herpes
virus. In fact, one of the biggest worries about the Zika outbreak a couple of years ago was the possibility of
babies being born with birth defects.
Source
12) Which of the following are the vaccine-preventable diseases.

1. Dengue
2. Rubella
3. Haemophilia
4. Poliomyelitis
5. Common cold
a) 1, 2, 3, 4
b) 1, 2, 4
c) 1, 3, 4, 5
d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
Solution: b)
A vaccine-preventable disease is an infectious disease for which an effective preventive vaccine exists. If a person
acquires a vaccine-preventable disease and dies from it, the death is considered a vaccine-preventable death.
The WHO lists 27 diseases for which vaccines are available. They are:
Cholera
Dengue fever
Diphtheria
Haemophilus influenzae type b
Hepatitis A
Hepatitis B
Hepatitis E
Human papilloma-virus
Influenza
Japanese encephalitis
Malaria
Measles
Meningococcal disease
Mumps
Pneumococcal disease
Pertussis
Poliomyelitis
Rabies
Rotavirus gastroenteritis
Rubella
Tetanus
Tick-borne encephalitis
Tuberculosis
Typhoid fever
Varicella
Yellow fever
Shingles (Herpes Zoster)
Vaccination is not there for genetic disorders like haemophilia, colour blindness; these are not caused by bacteria
or viruses.
Common cold can be caused by more than 100 different viruses. Hence, vaccine for common cold will not work
because a specific antibody is effective only against a specific kind of virus or bacterium.
Source
13) Which of the following best describes the term "herd immunity".
a) When a large percentage of a population has lost immunity to an infection.
b) Increasing the immune system in a community by providing drugs and medicines.
c) A high percentage of people in a given community is immune to a disease.
Solution: c)
Since the coronavirus pandemic began, the term "herd immunity" has been flung around as one solution to the
devastating virus ravaging countries all over the globe since December 2019. The term explains the situation in
which a high percentage of people in a given community (a city, state or entire country) is immune to a disease,
either through vaccination or because those people have been exposed to the virus and their immune systems
have built antibodies to protect them from it.
Source
14) Consider the following statements regarding Coronaviruses.

1. Coronaviruses are a large family of single-stranded RNA viruses that cause diseases in animals and
humans.
2. Till date almost all types of coronaviruses have infected humans.
3. In animals, coronaviruses can cause diarrhea in cows and pigs and upper respiratory tract disease in
chickens.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: b)
While there are hundreds of coronaviruses that cause diseases in animals such as pigs, camels, bats and cats, till
date seven different types of coronaviruses have been identified that infect humans.
What are coronaviruses?
Coronaviruses are a large family of single-stranded RNA viruses that cause diseases in animals and humans. In
humans, the viruses usually cause mild to moderate upper-respiratory tract illnesses such as the common cold. In
the last two decades, more aggressive coronaviruses have emerged that are capable of causing serious illness and
even death in humans. These include SARS-CoV, MERS and now SARS-CoV-2.
In animals, coronaviruses can cause diarrhea in cows and pigs and upper respiratory tract disease in chickens. The
first coronavirus was isolated in 1937 and it was the infectious bronchitis virus (IBV) that caused respiratory
disease in chickens.
Source
15) Consider the following statements regarding Rice Fortification.

1. Rice fortification is the practice of increasing the content of essential micronutrients in rice and to
improve the nutritional quality, the look and taste of the rice.
2. Consuming fortified food can also increase the content of vitamins in breast milk.
3. In India, ‘Food Safety and Standards (Fortification of Foods) Regulations’ set the standards for food
fortification, distribution, sale and consumption of fortified foods.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 3 only
d) 2, 3
Solution: d)
Fortification is the practice of deliberately increasing the content of an essential micronutrient, i.e. vitamins and
minerals (including trace elements) in a food, so as to improve the nutritional quality of the food supply and
provide a public health benefit with minimal risk to health. Rice fortification is the practice of increasing the
content of essential micronutrients in rice and to improve the nutritional quality of the rice.
Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) has formulated a comprehensive regulation on fortification
of foods namely ‘Food Safety and Standards (Fortification of Foods) Regulations, 2016’. These regulations set the
standards for food fortification and encourage the production, manufacture, distribution, sale and consumption
of fortified foods.
Fortification can be an excellent way of increasing the content of vitamins in breast milk and thus reducing the
need for supplementation in postpartum women and infants.
Source
16) Consider the following statements regarding Gravitational lensing.

1. Gravitational lensing describes the fact that light is deflected by large masses in the universe.
2. The lighter the object, the stronger its gravitational field and hence the greater the bending of light
rays.
3. Lensing has also been used to help verify the existence of dark matter.
a) 1, 2
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: c)
Gravitational lensing is an effect of Einstein’s theory of general relativity – simply put, mass bends light.
Gravitational lensing describes the fact that light is deflected by large masses in the universe, just like a glass lens
will bend a light right on Earth.
The more massive the object, the stronger its gravitational field and hence the greater the bending of light rays
– just like using denser materials to make optical lenses results in a greater amount of refraction.
Gravitational lensing is useful to cosmologists because it is directly sensitive to the amount and distribution of
dark matter.
Lensing can help astronomers work out exactly how much dark matter there is in the Universe as a whole and
also how it is distributed.
Lensing has also been used to help verify the existence of dark matter itself.
17) Consider the following statements about Low Earth Orbit (LEO).
1. It is an Earth-centered orbit with an altitude of 2,000 km or less.
2. The International Space Station conducts operations in LEO.
3. Major disadvantage of low Earth orbit is that it requires high amount of energy for satellite placement.
4. Spy satellites cannot use LEO.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 2, 3
c) 3, 4
d) 2, 3, 4
Solution: c)
Low earth orbit refers to an altitude up to 2,000 km or less. A satellite in the LEO can monitor activities on the
ground and water surfaces.
A low Earth orbit requires the lowest amount of energy for satellite placement. It provides high bandwidth and
low communication latency. Satellites and space stations in LEO are more accessible for crew and servicing.
Earth observation satellites and spy satellites use LEO as they are able to see the surface of the Earth clearly by
being close to it.
The International Space Station is in a LEO about 330 km to 420 km above Earth's surface.
Source
18) Consider the following statements regarding BRAHMOS Supersonic Cruise Missile.
1. BRAHMOS is the first supersonic cruise missile known to be in service.
2. The missile has flight range of up to 290-km with supersonic speed only during the initial stage of its
flight.
3. It operates on ‘Fire and Forget Principle’, adopting varieties of flights on its way to the target.
4. It is fully indigenously developed by India.
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 2, 3, 4
c) 1, 2, 4
d) 1, 3
Solution: d)
The missile has flight range of up to 290-km with supersonic speed all through the flight, leading to shorter flight
time, consequently ensuring lower dispersion of targets, quicker engagement time and non-interception by any
known weapon system in the world.
It operates on ‘Fire and Forget Principle’, adopting varieties of flights on its way to the target.
It carries a conventional warhead weighing 200 to 300 kgs.
Special Features
• Universal for multiple platforms
• “Fire and Forget” principle of operation
• High supersonic speed all through the flight
• Long flight range with varieties of flight trajectories
• Low radar signature
• Shorter flight times leading to lower target dispersion and quicker engagement
• Pin point accuracy with high lethal power aided by large kinetic energy on impact
It is a joint venture between the Russian Federation's NPO Mashinostroyeniya and India's Defence Research and
Development Organisation (DRDO), who together have formed BrahMos Aerospace.
Source
19) Blue sky research, sometimes seen in news is related to

a) Research on solar geoengineering for reducing heat-trapping clouds
b) Deep oceanic study on Polymetallic nodules
c) Scientific research without a clear goal
Solution: c)
Blue skies research (also called blue sky science) is scientific research in domains where "real-world" applications
are not immediately apparent. It has been defined as "research without a clear goal" and "curiosity-driven
science".
Proponents of this mode of science argue that unanticipated scientific breakthroughs are sometimes more
valuable than the outcomes of agenda-driven research, heralding advances in genetics and stem cell biology as
examples of unforeseen benefits of research that was originally seen as purely theoretical in scope.
20) Consider the following statements regarding the far side of the Moon.
1. The far side of the Moon is the hemisphere of the Moon that always faces away from Earth.
2. The far side of the Moon is shielded from radio transmissions from the Earth.
3. China’s Chang'e 4 spacecraft made the first landing on the far side of the Moon.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
The far side of the Moon is the hemisphere of the Moon that always faces away from Earth. The far side's terrain
is rugged with a multitude of impact craters and relatively few flat lunar maria compared to the near side. It has
one of the largest craters in the Solar System, the South Pole–Aitken basin.
Chang'e 4 spacecraft made the first landing on the far side.
Because the far side of the Moon is shielded from radio transmissions from the Earth, it is considered a good
location for placing radio telescopes for use by astronomers.
5. International Relations and Organisations
1) Consider the following statements regarding Foreigners Tribunals.
1. Only the Centre can set up Foreigners tribunals to decide whether a person staying illegally in India is a
foreigner or not.
2. The amended Foreigners (Tribunal) Order, 2019 empowers individuals to approach the Tribunals to
decide if they are foreigners or not.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: b)
The MHA has amended the Foreigners (Tribunals) Order, 1964.

It has empowered district magistrates in all States and Union Territories to set up tribunals to decide whether a
person staying illegally in India is a foreigner or not.
The amended Foreigners (Tribunal) Order, 2019 also empowers individuals to approach the Tribunals.
So far, the powers to constitute tribunals were vested only with the Centre. The 1964 order on Constitution of
Tribunals said: “The Central Government may by order, refer the question as to whether a person is not a
foreigner within meaning of the Foreigners Act, 1946 (31 of 1946) to a Tribunal to be constituted for the purpose,
for its opinion.”
Source
2) Medecins Sans Frontieres (MSF), often seen in news is

a) An international independent medical humanitarian organisation
b) A group of NGOs working on non-communicable diseases
c) UN organ working for medical assistance for African Nations
d) Evaluation of Border Entry Screening for Infectious Diseases in Humans
Solution: a)
Medecins Sans Frontieres (MSF), is an international, independent medical humanitarian organisation. It provides
medical assistance to people affected by conflict, epidemics, disasters, or exclusion from healthcare. The teams
are made up of tens of thousands of health professionals, logistic and administrative staff - most of them hired
locally. The actions are guided by medical ethics and the principles of impartiality, independence and neutrality.
Source
3) Consider the following statements regarding United Nations Relief and Works Agency for Palestine Refugees
(UNRWA).
1. UNRWA is the only UN agency dedicated to helping refugees from a specific region or conflict.
2. UNRWA is funded almost entirely by voluntary contributions from UN Member States.
3. India’s contribution to UNRWA has been decreasing from the past 3 years.
a) 2 only
b) 1, 2
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 3
Solution: b)
India has contributed USD 5 million in 2019 to UN Palestine refugee agency. The contribution was provided in
support of UNRWA’s core programmes and services, including education, health care, and relief and social
services.
India has increased its annual financial contribution fourfold to the United Nations Relief and Works Agency for
Palestine Refugees in the Near East (UNRWA) core budget, from USD 1.25 million in 2016 to USD 5 million in
2018.
UNRWA is a relief and human development agency that was established in 8 December 1949.
Following the 1948 Arab-Israeli conflict, UNRWA was established by United Nations General Assembly to carry out
direct relief and works programmes for Palestine refugees. The Agency began operations on 1 May 1950.
UNRWA is the only UN agency dedicated to helping refugees from a specific region or conflict and is separate
from UNHCR.
Funding: UNRWA is funded almost entirely by voluntary contributions from UN Member States. UNRWA also
receives some funding from the Regular Budget of the United Nations, which is used mostly for international
staffing costs.
Aid is provided in five areas of operation: Jordan, Lebanon, Syria, the Gaza Strip and the West Bank, including East
Jerusalem; aid for Palestinian refugees outside these five areas is provided by UNHCR.
Source
4) Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

1. Umbrella Movement: Political movement during the Hong Kong democracy protests.
2. Yellow vests movement: Protest movement for economic justice that began in China.
3. Fridays for Future Movement: Global student movement pushing for action on climate change.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1 only
Solution: b)
The Umbrella Movement was a political movement that emerged during the Hong Kong democracy protests of
2014. Its name arose from the use of umbrellas as a tool for passive resistance to the Hong Kong Police's use of
pepper spray to disperse the crowd.
The yellow vests movement or yellow jackets movement is a popular grassroots protest movement for economic
justice that began in France in October 2018.
Fridays for Future is a dynamic global student movement pushing for immediate action on climate change
through active campaigning and advocacy. It was chosen as Champion of the Earth for inspiration and action
because of its role in highlighting the devastating effects of climate change. The movement was inspired by
Swedish teenager Greta Thunberg.
Source
5) WHO’s REPLACE campaign is related to

a) Replace all petrol and diesel vehicles to Electric Vehicles by 2030.
b) Replace all cooling systems in government buildings with energy efficient cooling system.
c) Provide protein rich food to children in the government schools.
d) Eliminate industrially produced trans-fatty acids from the global food supply.
Solution: d)
WHO released REPLACE, a step-by-step guide for the elimination of industrially-produced trans-fatty acids from
the global food supply.
Source
6) Consider the following statements with reference to E-2020 initiative.

1. E-2020 is the initiative supported by WHO where countries were identified by WHO in 2016 as having
the potential to become malaria-free by 2020.
2. The Global technical strategy for malaria 2016-2030, calls for the elimination of malaria in at least 10
countries by the year 2020.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c)
Four countries from Asia — China, Iran, Malaysia and Timor-Leste — and one from Central America — El Salvador
— reported no indigenous cases of malaria in 2018, according to the World Health Organization (WHO).
The countries were part of the global health body’s E-2020 initiative, launched in 2016, working in 21 countries,
spanning five regions, to scale up efforts to achieve malaria elimination by 2020.
Creating a malaria-free world is a bold and important public health and sustainable development goal. It is also
the vision of the Global technical strategy for malaria 2016-2030, which calls for the elimination of malaria in at
least 10 countries by the year 2020.
Source
7) Consider the following statements regarding Special Data Dissemination Standard (SDDS).
1. Special Data Dissemination Standard (SDDS) is the World Bank standard to guide member countries in
the dissemination of national statistics to the public.
2. According to “Annual Observance Report of the Special Data Dissemination Standard for 2018”, India is
in the top position among Asian countries to comply with multiple requirements prescribed in the Special Data
Dissemination Standard (SDDS).
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: d)
According to the IMF’s “Annual Observance Report of the Special Data Dissemination Standard for 2018”, India
failed to comply with multiple requirements prescribed in the Special Data Dissemination Standard (SDDS).
Special Data Dissemination Standard (SDDS) is an International Monetary Fund standard to guide member
countries in the dissemination of national statistics to the public.
It was established in April 1996.
SDDS subscription indicates that a country meets the test of “good statistical citizenship.”
Countries that subscribe to the SDDS agree to follow good practices in four areas: the coverage, periodicity, and
timeliness of data; public access to those data; data integrity; and data quality.
8) Consider the following statements regarding International Platform on Sustainable Finance (IPSF).
1. The IPSF is part of IPCC's ongoing work to support a global transition to a low-carbon, more resource-
efficient and sustainable economy.
2. Its objective is to exchange and disseminate information to promote best practices in environmentally
sustainable finance.
3. India is the member of International Platform on Sustainable Finance.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: c)
The IPSF is part of the European Commission's ongoing work to support a global transition to a low-carbon, more
resource-efficient and sustainable economy.
What is the scope and objectives of the IPSF?

The ultimate objective of the IPSF is to scale up the mobilisation of private capital towards environmentally
sustainable investments. The IPSF will deepen international cooperation and, where appropriate, coordination on
approaches and initiatives for the capital markets (such as taxonomies, disclosures, standards and labels), that are
fundamental for private investors to identify and seize environmentally sustainable investment opportunities
globally.
Operationally, the IPSF will pursue three objectives:

• Exchange and disseminate information to promote best practices in environmentally sustainable finance;
• Compare the different initiatives and identify barriers and opportunities to help scale up environmentally
sustainable finance internationally;
• While respecting national and regional contexts, enhance international coordination where appropriate
on environmentally sustainable finance issues. In addition, where appropriate, some willing members
could strive to align initiatives and approaches.
The members of the IPSF are jurisdictions willing to advance on environmentally sustainable finance. The
members are represented by public authorities in charge of developing environmentally sustainable finance
policies and initiatives in their respective jurisdiction. The members of the IPSF are the European Union and
relevant authorities from Argentina, Canada, Chile, China, India, Kenya, and Morocco.
Source
9) Consider the following statements regarding “no first use nuclear doctrine”.
1. It refers to a pledge or a policy by a nuclear power not to use nuclear weapons as a means of warfare
unless first attacked by an adversary using nuclear weapons.
2. Now the concept is also applied to chemical and biological warfare.
3. India became the first nation to propose and pledge no first use nuclear policy when it conducted
nuclear tests under Pokhran-II in 1998.
a) 2 only
b) 1, 2
c) 2, 3
d) 3 only
Solution: c)
No first use nuclear doctrine refers to a pledge or a policy by a nuclear power not to use nuclear weapons as a
means of warfare unless first attacked by an adversary using nuclear weapons. Earlier, the concept had also been
applied to chemical and biological warfare.
China became the first nation to propose and pledge NFU policy when it first gained nuclear capabilities in 1964,
stating "not to be the first to use nuclear weapons at any time or under any circumstances".
India first adopted a “No first use” policy after its second nuclear tests, Pokhran-II, in 1998.
Source
10) Consider the following statements regarding Eastern Economic Forum.

1. Eastern Economic Forum is an international forum held each year for the purpose of encouraging
foreign investment in all East Asian Countries.
2. Recently the 5th Eastern Economic Forum (EEF) summit was held in Vladivostok, Russia.
3. Engaging closely with East Asia is in line with India’s “Act East Policy”.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 3 only
d) 2, 3
Solution: d)
Eastern Economic Forum (EEF) was established by a decree of the President of the Russian Federation, Vladimir
Putin, in 2015, with the aim of supporting the economic development of Russia’s Far East, and to expand
international cooperation in the Asia-Pacific region.
Speaking at the Plenary Session of the 5th Eastern Economic Forum (EEF) in Vladivostok, Prime Minister Narendra
Modi announced that India would extend a $1 billion line of credit towards the development of the Russian Far
East.
Engaging closely with East Asia was in line with India’s policy goal of “Act East”.
Source
11) Consider the following statements regarding the funding of World Health Organization (WHO).
1. World Health Organization (WHO) is funded entirely by its member countries.
2. India is a member state of the WHO South East Asia Region.
3. The decision on which country gets how much funds depends on the situation in the countries.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: c)
WHO is funded by a large number of countries, philanthropic organisations, United Nations organisations etc.
According to information uploaded by WHO, voluntary donations from member states (such as the US) contribute
35.41%, assessed contributions are 15.66%, philanthropic organisations account for 9.33%, UN organisations
contribute about 8.1%; the rest comes from myriad sources.
India is a member state of the WHO South East Asia Region.
The annual programme of work is passed by WHO’s decision-making body, the World Health Assembly. The
decision on which country gets how much depends on the situation in the countries.
Source
12) Consider the following statements regarding World Health Organization (WHO).
1. The World Health Organization (WHO) is a specialized agency of the United Nations responsible for
international public health.
2. It provides technical assistance to countries and sets international health standards and guidelines.
3. The World Health Assembly (WHA) composed of representatives from all member states, serves as the
agency's supreme decision-making body.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
The World Health Organization (WHO) is a specialized agency of the United Nations responsible for
international public health. The WHO Constitution, which establishes the agency's governing structure and
principles, states its main objective as ensuring "the attainment by all peoples of the highest possible level of
health." It is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland, with six semi-autonomous regional offices.
The WHO was established in 7 April 1948, which is commemorated as World Health Day.
The WHO's broad mandate includes advocating for universal healthcare, monitoring public health risks,
coordinating responses to health emergencies, and promoting human health and wellbeing. It provides technical
assistance to countries, sets international health standards and guidelines, and collects data on global health
issues through the World Health Survey. Its flagship publication, the World Health Report, provides expert
assessments of global health topics and health statistics on all nations. The WHO also serves as a forum for
summits and discussions on health issues.
The agency is part of the United Nations Sustainable Development Group.
Source
13) Consider the following statements regarding OPEC+.

1. OPEC+ is a group of oil-producing nations, entirely made up non-OPEC members and Russia.
2. The aim of OPEC+ was to undertake production restrictions to help revive a flailing market.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: b)
What is the Opec+?

• Opec+ refers to the alliance of crude producers, who have been undertaking corrections in supply in the
oil markets since 2017.
• OPEC plus countries include Azerbaijan, Bahrain, Brunei, Kazakhstan, Malaysia, Mexico, Oman, Russia,
South Sudan and Sudan.
What are their goals?

• The Opec and non-Opec producers first formed the alliance at a historic meeting in Algiers in 2016.
• The aim was to undertake production restrictions to help resuscitate a flailing market.

1. India became the member of the United Nations after getting Independence from the British Raj.
2. Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit was elected the first woman President of the UN General Assembly.
3. United Nations Security Council is the only UN body with the authority to issue binding resolutions to
member states.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: c)
India was a founding member of the United Nations, joining in October 1945, two years before acquiring
independence from the British Raj.
UNSC is the only UN body with the authority to issue binding resolutions to member states.
In 1953, the chief delegate of India at the time, Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit was elected the first woman President of
the UN General Assembly.
Source
15) Consider the following statements regarding Indian Ocean Commission.

1. Indian Ocean Commission is an intergovernmental organization that links African Indian Ocean nations.
2. China and India are the observers in the Indian Ocean Commission.
3. The Indian Ocean Commission has funded a number of regional and national conservation and
alternative livelihoods projects through Regional Programme for the Sustainable Management of the Coastal
Zones of the Countries of the Indian Ocean.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
The Indian Ocean Commission (COI) is an intergovernmental organization that links African Indian Ocean
nations: Comoros, Madagascar, Mauritius, Réunion (an overseas region of France), and Seychelles. There are also
five observers: China, India, Malta, the European Union and the Organisation internationale de la Francophonie.
The commission was created in 1982 in Port-Louis, Mauritius, and institutionalised in 1984. The secretariat is
based in Mauritius. The current secretary-general is Hamada Madi.
Objectives:
• Political and diplomatic cooperation,
• Economic and commercial cooperation
• Sustainable development in a globalisation context, cooperation in the field of agriculture, maritime
fishing, and the conservation of resources and ecosystems
• Strengthening of the regional cultural identity, cooperation in cultural, scientific, technical, educational
and judicial fields.
ReCoMAP:
The COI has funded a number of regional and national conservation and alternative livelihoods projects
through ReCoMAP, Regional Programme for the Sustainable Management of the Coastal Zones of the Countries
of the Indian Ocean (PROGECO in French). This project ended in 2011.
Source

1. Tashkent Declaration is a peace agreement between India and China signed after the Sino-Indian War
that occurred in 1962.
2. Indus Water treaty is the only instance where India and Pakistan have allowed a third-party to help
resolve their issues.
3. Shimla Agreement, was signed between India and Pakistan following the Bangladesh Liberation war in
1971.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 3 only
d) 2, 3
Solution: c)
There have been precedents when India and Pakistan have allowed a third-party to help resolve their issues.
• Indus Water treaty: Both nations were able to reach agreements through third party mediators in case of
the Indus Waters Treaty and the negotiations on the Rann of Kutch dispute.
• Rann of Kutch Accord (mediated by British Prime Minister Harold Wilson) persuaded the combatants to
end hostilities and establish a tribunal to resolve the dispute.
• During the 1965 Indo-Pakistan war, the then USSR led mediation efforts paved the way for India and
Pakistan to withdraw forces from each other’s territories while agreeing to discuss all future matters. This
was followed by signing of the Tashkent Declaration in Uzbekistan.
The Shimla Agreement, was signed between India and Pakistan on 2 July 1972 in Shimla. It followed from
the Bangladesh Liberation war in 1971 that led to the independence of Bangladesh, which was earlier known
as East Pakistan and was part of the territory of Pakistan.
The Tashkent Declaration was a peace agreement between India and Pakistan signed on 10 January 1966 that
resolved the Indo-Pakistani War of 1965.
17) Consider the following statements regarding Global Antimicrobial Resistance Research and Development Hub.
1. Global Antimicrobial Resistance Research and Development Hub is aimed at helping countries decide
the allocation of resources for research and development (R&D) on antimicrobial resistance (AMR).
2. Recently India joined the Global Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR) Research and Development (R&D) Hub
as a new member.
3. India is among countries with the highest bacterial disease burden in the world.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
India, which is among countries with the highest bacterial disease burden in the world, has become a part of the
Global Antimicrobial Resistance Research and Development Hub on September 12, 2019.
The hub, which was launched during the 71st session of the World Health Assembly in 2018, is aimed at helping
countries decide the allocation of resources for research and development (R&D) on antimicrobial resistance
(AMR) by identifying gaps and overlaps. It will also promote coordination among governments in the fight against
AMR.
The global partnership includes 16 countries, the European Commission, two philanthropic foundations and four
international organisations (as observers). With India as a member, the Hub now represents more than half the
world's population.
Source
18) Consider the following statements regarding Group of Seven (G7) countries.
1. The Group of Seven (G7) is an international intergovernmental economic organization consisting of the
seven largest IMF-described advanced economies in the world.
2. India was invited as a non-member country for the 2019 G7 summit.
3. Canada, France, Japan and China are the members of G7 countries.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: a)
The Group of Seven (G7) is an international intergovernmental economic organization consisting of the seven
largest IMF-described advanced economies in the world.
The G7, originally G8, was set up in 1975 as an informal forum bringing together the leaders of the world’s leading
industrial nations.
The summit gathers leaders from the European Union (EU) and the following countries:
Canada
France
Germany
Italy
Japan
the United Kingdom
the United States
French President Emmanuel Macron, the host of the G7 summit held in Biarritz in August 2019, had also invited
non-member countries who are playing an important part in world politics. The invited guest nations
include India, Australia, Spain, Chile, South Africa, Senegal, Egypt, Iran and Rwanda.
19) Consider the following statements regarding PACEsetter Fund.

1. It is a fund jointly capitalized by the Governments of India and Japan.
2. It provides early-stage grant funding to accelerate the commercialization of innovative off-grid clean
energy products.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: b)
Ministry of New and Renewable Energy awards grants to four projects in second round of PACEsetter Fund
programme.
PACEsetter Fund was Constituted by India and the USA in 2015.

It is a INR 50 crore (USD 7.9 million) fund jointly capitalized by the Governments of the Republic of India and the
United States of America.
It is a joint fund to provide early-stage grant funding to accelerate the commercialization of innovative off-grid
clean energy products, systems, and business models.
Source
20) Consider the following statements regarding the report by the World Resources Institute (WRI) on global food
wastage.
1. Nearly half of the food that is produced each year goes uneaten.
2. The uneaten food is responsible for emitting planet-warming greenhouse gases into the atmosphere.
3. Cereals are the food group that face the maximum wastage.
a) 1, 2
b) 2 only
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: b)
A new report by the World Resources Institute (WRI) with the support of the Rockefeller Foundation has
quantified global food wastage — nearly one-third of the food that is produced each year goes uneaten, costing
the global economy over $940 billion.
The uneaten food is responsible for emitting about 8 per cent of planet-warming greenhouse gases into the
atmosphere, said the report, “Reducing Food Loss and Waste”.
Using data from the Food and Agriculture Organization of the UN, the report concluded that roots and tubers are
the food group that face the maximum wastage.
6. Polity
1. Inter-State migration and quarantine are under the Concurrent List.
2. Prevention of infectious diseases moving from one State to another is under the Union List.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: d)
Kerala’s grievance over Karnataka sealing its border to prevent the spread of COVID-19 has brought under focus
the extent and the possible limits, of restrictions that may be imposed by the government to deal with a public
health emergency.
Inter-State migration and quarantine are under the Union List, while the prevention of infectious diseases moving
from one State to another is under the Concurrent List. This can only mean that while States have the power to
impose border restrictions, the responsibility to prevent a breakdown of inter-State relations over such disputes is
on the Centre.
Source
2) Consider the following statements regarding Inter-State Council.

1. The Inter-State Council is a permanent constitutional body set up by a presidential order.
2. It was formed based on the recommendation of Sarkaria Commission.
3. It is headed by Union Home Minister.
a) 1 only
b) 1, 2
c) 1, 3
d) 2, 3
Solution: c)
The Inter-State Council is a non-permanent constitutional body set up by a presidential order on the basis of
provisions in Article 263 of the Constitution of India. The body was formed by a presidential order dated 28 May
1990 on recommendation of Sarkaria Commission. The Council is formed to discuss or investigate policies,
subjects of common interest, and disputes among states.
Prime Minister of India is the Chairman of Inter-State Council.
Source
3) The 104th Constitutional Amendment Act, sometimes seen in news is related to

a) 10% reservation for Economically weaker sections
b) Constitutional status to National Commission for Backward Classes
c) Extend reservation for Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) to Lok Sabha and legislative
bodies
d) Abolition of Legislative Councils in certain States
Solution: c)
The One Hundred and Fourth Amendment of the Constitution of India, officially known as the Constitution (One
Hundred and Fourth Amendment) Act, 2019, extends the deadline for the cessation for the reservation of seats
for members from Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies by a
period of 10 years.
The reservation of seats for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes was set to expire on the 26th of January,
2020 as mandated by the Ninety Fifth Amendment but was extended for another 10 years.
The amendment does not, however, extend the period of reservation of the 2 Lok Sabha seats reserved for
members of the Anglo-Indian Community and thus the practice of nominating two members of the Anglo-Indian
community by the President of India under the recommendation of the Prime Minister of India was effectively
abolished.
4) The basic structure doctrine is an Indian judicial principle that the Constitution of India has certain basic
features that cannot be altered or destroyed through amendments by the parliament. The ‘basic structure’
doctrine has been interpreted to include
1. Supremacy of the Constitution
2. The rule of law
3. Doctrine of separation of powers
4. Parliamentary system of government
5. The principle of free and fair elections
6. Welfare state
a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
b) 1, 3, 4, 5, 6
c) 1, 2, 4, 5, 6
d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
Solution: d)
Since the Indian Constitution was first adopted, debates have raged as to the extent of power that Parliament
should have to amend key provisions.
The judgment in Kesavananda Bharati:

The Constitutional Bench, whose members shared serious ideological differences, ruled by a 7-6 verdict that
Parliament should be restrained from altering the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution.
The court held that under Article 368, which provides Parliament amending powers, something must remain of
the original Constitution that the new amendment would change.
The court did not define the ‘basic structure’, and only listed a few principles — federalism, secularism,
democracy — as being its part. Since then, the court has been adding new features to this concept.
‘Basic structure’ since Kesavananda:

The ‘basic structure’ doctrine has since been interpreted to include the supremacy of the Constitution, the rule of
law, Independence of the judiciary, doctrine of separation of powers, federalism, secularism, sovereign
democratic republic, the parliamentary system of government, the principle of free and fair elections, welfare
state, etc.
Critics of the doctrine have called it undemocratic, since unelected judges can strike down a constitutional
amendment. At the same time, its proponents have hailed the concept as a safety valve against majoritarianism
and authoritarianism.
Source
5) Consider the following statements regarding Interim government of India, formed in 1946.
1. It was the only such cabinet in India’s history in which both Congress and the Muslim League shared
power at the Centre.
2. The interim government functioned according to the Government of India Act of 1935.
3. The interim government functioned until India became a sovereign democratic republic.
a) 1, 2
b) 1 only
c) 1, 3
d) 2, 3
Solution: b)
On September 2, 1946, the interim government of India led by Jawaharlal Nehru was formed.
It was the only such cabinet in India’s history in which both Congress and the Muslim League shared power at the
Centre.
The interim government functioned with a great degree of autonomy, and remained in power until the end of
British rule, after which it was succeeded by the Dominions of India and Pakistan.
The interim government functioned according to the older Government of India Act of 1919.
7. History, Art and Culture
1) Which of the following were the literary works by B. R. Ambedkar?
1. Annihilation of Caste
2. The Buddha and His Dhamma
3. India of my Dreams
4. Bahishkrut Bharat
a) 1, 2, 4
b) 1, 3, 4
c) 2, 3, 4
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
Solution: a)
India Of My Dreams is written by Mahatma Gandhi.
2) Diwan-i-Khairat, established by Firoz Shah Tughlaq is

a) Department of slave
b) Rest house for merchants
c) Hospitals for travellers
d) Office for charity
Solution: d)
Contributions by Firoz Shah Tughlaq:

established the Diwan-i-Khairat — office for charity.
established the Diwan-i-Bundagan — department of slave
established Sarais (rest house) for the benefits of merchants and other travellers
adopted the Iqtadari framework.
Established four new towns, Firozabad, Fatehabad, Jaunpur and Hissar.
established hospitals known as Darul-Shifa, Bimaristan or Shifa Khana.
8. Maps / Places
1) Mekong River runs through
1. China
2. Myanmar
3. Thailand
4. Cambodia
5. Vietnam
a) 1, 2, 3, 4
b) 1, 3, 4, 5
c) 2, 3, 4, 5
d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
Solution: d)
Mekong River is a trans-boundary river in Southeast Asia. From the Tibetan Plateau the river runs
through China, Myanmar, Laos, Thailand, Cambodia, and Vietnam.
2) Sinjar Mountains, sometimes seen in news lies in

a) Iraq and Iran
b) Iraq and Syria
c) Iraq and Jordan
d) Syria and Turkey
Solution: b)
Sinjar Mountains are a 100-kilometre-long mountain range that runs east to west, rising above the surrounding
alluvial steppe plains in northwestern Iraq. The western and lower segment of these mountains lies in Syria. These
mountains are regarded as sacred by the Yazidis.
3) The countries bordering Black Sea are
1. Ukraine
2. Turkey
3. Georgia
4. Russia
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 2, 3, 4
b) 1, 2, 3, 4
c) 1, 3, 4
Solution: c)
The Black Sea is bordered by Ukraine, Romania, Bulgaria, Turkey, Georgia, and Russia.
The Black Sea drains into the Mediterranean Sea, via the Aegean Sea and various straits, and is navigable to
the Atlantic Ocean.
The Bosporus Strait connects it to the Sea of Marmara, and the Strait of the Dardanelles connects that sea to the
Aegean Sea region of the Mediterranean. The Black Sea is also connected, to the north, to the Sea of Azov by
the Kerch Strait.
4) Borneo Island is politically divided among

1. Malaysia
2. Brunei
3. Indonesia
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
Borneo Island is the third-largest island in the world and the largest in Asia. The island is politically divided among
three countries: Malaysia and Brunei in the north, and Indonesia to the south.
5) Consider the following statements regarding Sinai Peninsula.
1. It is located in Africa.
2. It is situated between the Mediterranean Sea to the north and the Red Sea to the south.
3. It acts as a land bridge between Asia and Africa.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: c)
The Sinai Peninsula is a peninsula in Egypt, and the only part of the country located in Asia. It is situated between
the Mediterranean Sea to the north and the Red Sea to the south, and is a land bridge between Asia and Africa.
6) Arrange the following Islands from North to South
1. Paracel Islands
2. Kuril Islands
3. Senkaku Islands
4. Chagos Islands
a) 2-3-1-4
b) 3-2-1-4
c) 2-3-4-1
d) 3-2-4-1
Solution: a)
Kuril Islands is a volcanic archipelago in Russia's Sakhalin Oblast that stretches approximately 1,300 km northeast
from Hokkaido, Japan to Kamchatka, Russia, separating the Sea of Okhotsk from the north Pacific Ocean. Here
there is dispute between Russia and Japan.
Senkaku Islands are a group of uninhabited islands in the East China Sea. Here there is dispute Japan and China.
Paracel Islands are a disputed archipelago in the South China Sea.
Chagos Islands are a group of seven atolls comprising more than 60 individual tropical islands in the Indian
Ocean about 500 kilometres south of the Maldives archipelago.
7) Kra Canal is a proposed canal project that would connect

a) Andaman Sea and Strait of Malacca
b) Andaman Sea and Gulf of Thailand
c) Strait of Malacca and Sunda Strait
d) Gulf of Thailand and South China Sea
Solution: b)
Kra Canal or Kra Isthmus Canal, refers to proposals for a canal that would connect the Gulf of Thailand with
the Andaman Sea across the Kra Isthmus in southern Thailand. It is envisaged that such a canal would improve
transportation in the region, similar to the Panama Canal and Suez Canal.
The canal would provide an alternative to transit through the Straits of Malacca and shorten transit for shipments
of oil to Japan and China by 1,200 km.
8) Sabang port is being developed by India in which country?

a) Bangladesh
b) Vietnam
c) Indonesia
d) Myanmar
Solution: c)
India is developing its maiden deep-sea port in Indonesia's Sabang close to Andaman and Nicobar Islands. The
Sabang port is being developed in partnership with neighbour and strategic partner Indonesia.
Source
9) The Indian Army commemorates September 23 every year as Haifa Day to pay its respect to the three Indian
Cavalry Regiments that helped liberate Haifa. Haifa is located in
a) Saudi Arabia
b) Jordon
c) Palestine
d) Israel
Solution: d)
In 2018 the northern Israeli coastal city of Haifa celebrated the centenary year of its liberation from Ottoman rule
during World War I, honouring the brave Indian soldiers who laid down their lives in what is considered "the last
great cavalry campaign in history".
The Indian Army commemorates September 23 every year as Haifa Day to pay its respects to the three Indian
Cavalry Regiments - Mysore, Hyderabad and Jodhpur Lancers, that helped liberate Haifa following a dashing
cavalry action by the 15th Imperial Service Cavalry Brigade of the then British Indian Army at the Battle of Haifa in
1918.
Source
10) Lithium Triangle is a region rich in lithium reserves around the borders of
1. Peru
2. Argentina
3. Paraguay
4. Bolivia
5. Chile
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 2, 3, 4
c) 2, 4, 5
d) 1, 4, 5
Solution: c)
The Lithium Triangle is a region of the Andes rich in lithium reserves around the borders
of Argentina, Bolivia and Chile. The lithium in the triangle is concentrated in various salt pans that exist along
the Atacama Desert and neighboring arid areas.
The area is thought to hold around 54% of the world's lithium reserves.
11) Lebanon is bordered by

1. Syria
2. Israel
3. Turkey
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: a)
Lebanon is bordered by Syria to the north and east and Israel to the south, while Cyprus is west across
the Mediterranean Sea.
12) The Indian Ocean has some large marginal or regional seas such as
1. Arabian Sea
2. Laccadive Sea
3. Somali Sea
4. Tasman Sea
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 2, 3
c) 1, 2, 4
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
Solution: b)
The Indian Ocean has some large marginal or regional seas such as the Arabian Sea, the Laccadive Sea, the Somali
Sea, Bay of Bengal, and the Andaman Sea.
The Tasman Sea is a marginal sea of the South Pacific Ocean.
13) Agalega Island and Assumption Island sometimes in news is located in

a) Pacific Ocean
b) Atlantic Ocean
c) Indian Ocean
d) Mediterranean Sea
Solution: c)
14) Doumeira Islands, sometimes seen in news is located in
a) Black Sea
b) Red Sea
c) Caspian Sea
d) Mediterranean Sea
Solution: b)
The Doumeira Islands are situated northeast of Djibouti and east of Eritrea near the Bab el-Mandeb in the Red
Sea.
15) The Red Sea is a strip of water and an inlet of the Indian Ocean occupying the area separating the continent of
Africa from Asia. The countries bordering the Red Sea are
1. Saudi Arabia
2. Yemen
3. Ethiopia
4. Egypt
5. Djibouti
a) 1, 2, 3, 4
b) 1, 2, 3, 5
c) 2, 3, 4, 5
d) 1, 2, 4, 5
Solution: d)
The six countries that border the Red Sea are the following: Saudi Arabia, Yemen, Egypt, Sudan, Eritrea, and
Djibouti.
16) Zamora Reef, recently seen in news is located in

a) Paracel Islands
b) Spratly Islands
c) Scarborough Shoal
d) Taiping Island
Solution: b)
Besides these incidents, there were satellite images showing a Chinese military plane landing on Kagitingan Reef
in the West Philippine Sea in late March. There are also reports that China recently opened a research station on
Kagitingan and Zamora Reef, also in the West Philippine Sea, to gather data on the ecology, geology, and
environment in the Spratlys.
Source
Arrange the following from North to South.
1. Yellow Sea
2. Sea of Japan
3. East Timor Sea
4. South China Sea
a) 2-1-4-3
b) 1-2-4-3
c) 1-2-3-4
d) 2-1-3-4
Solution: a)
9. Miscellaneous
1) Consider the following statements regarding Kosi-Mechi Interlinking project.
1. Kosi-Mechi Interlinking project is the third major river interlinking project in the country to be
approved by Central Government.
2. Kosi is an international river originating from Tibet and flows through plains of North Bihar.
3. Mechi river is a tributary of river Mahanadi.
a) 1, 2
b) 1 only
c) 1, 3
d) 2, 3
Solution: c)
Union Government has approved Rs 4,900 crore Kosi-Mechi Interlinking project for interlinking of Kosi and Mechi
rivers of Bihar. This is the second major river interlinking project in the country to be approved by Central
Government after the Ken-Betwa project in Madhya Pradesh.
The river Kosi is an international river originating from Tibet and flowing through Nepal in Himalayan Mountains
and the lower portion through plains of North Bihar.
River Mechi is a tributary of river Mahananda.
Source
2) Flexitarian Movement is often seen in news. It is related to

a) Providing protein rich food to Children and adolescents
b) Moving to flexible interest rates for loans rather than the fixed interest rate
c) Reducing the animal-based food and increasing the plant based food
Solution: c)
The Flexitarian Diet is a style of eating that encourages mostly plant-based foods while allowing meat and other
animal products in moderation. It's more flexible than fully vegetarian or vegan diets.
Source
3) Consider the following statements regarding Notifiable Disease.

1. A notifiable disease is any disease that is required by law to be reported to government authorities.
2. The onus of notifying any disease and the implementation lies with the state government.
3. Any failure to report a notifiable disease is a criminal offence and the state government can take
necessary actions against defaulters.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
A notifiable disease is any disease that is required by law to be reported to government authorities.
The process helps the government keep track and formulate a plan for elimination and control.
The onus of notifying any disease and the implementation lies with the state government.
Any failure to report a notifiable disease is a criminal offence and the state government can take necessary
actions against defaulters.
The Centre has notified several diseases such as cholera, diphtheria, encephalitis, leprosy, meningitis, pertussis
(whooping cough), plague, tuberculosis, AIDS, hepatitis, measles, yellow fever, malaria dengue, etc.
Source
4) Which of the following best describes the term “incubation period”.

a) The time between catching the virus and getting cured completely
b) The time between showing the symptoms of the disease and initial phase of recovery
c) The time between catching the virus and beginning to have symptoms of the disease.
d) The time between showing the symptoms of the disease and getting cured completely
Solution: c)
The “incubation period” means the time between catching the virus and beginning to have symptoms of the
disease. Most estimates of the incubation period for COVID-19 range from 1-14 days, most commonly around five
days.
Source
5) Recently the global sugar prices collapsed. What could be the possible reasons for the collapse of sugar price?
1. The impact of coronavirus-induced lockdowns on out-of-home consumption and institutional demand
for sugar has reduced.
2. Sinking Crude oil prices.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c)
All commodities have taken a demand hit from subdued economic activity and lockdowns imposed by many
countries to combat the COVID-19 pandemic.
why have global sugar prices also collapsed?
One reason for this collapse is the closure of restaurants, weddings and other social functions not taking place,
and people avoiding ice-creams and sweetened cold beverages that might cause throat infections. The impact
of coronavirus-induced lockdowns on out-of-home consumption and institutional (as opposed to direct
household) demand for sugar is obvious.
Sinking crude prices appear an even bigger factor. The juice from crushing sugarcane can be crystallised into sugar
or fermented into alcohol. When oil prices are high, mills — especially in Brazil — tend to divert cane for making
ethanol (alcohol of 99%-plus purity) that is used for blending with petrol. In 2019-20 (April-March), only 34.32% of
cane crushed by Brazilian mills went for manufacturing 26.73 mt of sugar. The rest was used to produce 31.62
billion litres of ethanol. But with oil prices tanking — WTI crude was quoting at $53-plus two months ago — mills
will not find it attractive to divert cane for ethanol. Brazil’s mills, which have started crushing (the Indian season is
from October), are seen to produce up to 36 mt of sugar and hardly 26 billion litres of ethanol this year.
Source

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INSTA CURRENT AFFAIRS

2. ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT ........................................................................................................ 11

3. GOVERNMENT SCHEMES AND PROGRAMMES ................................................................................. 26

4. SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY............................................................................................................. 32

5. INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS AND ORGANISATIONS .......................................................................... 42

7. HISTORY, ART AND CULTURE............................................................................................................ 56

8. MAPS / PLACES ................................................................................................................................ 57

What is negative interest rate?

How does the negative interest rate policy work?

How do negative interest rates stimulate an economy?

Which countries have negative interest rates?

What are the cons of negative rates?

Some of the Financial entities regulated by SEBI.

6) Consider the following statements regarding Currency Swap Agreements.

What exactly is Ways and Means Advances (WMA)?

9) Consider the following statements.

11) Consider the following statements regarding Currency exchange rate.

12) Consider the following statements regarding New Development Bank.

13) Consider the following statements.

2) Global Geoparks, sometimes seen in news, is managed by

3) Consider the following statements regarding Lonar Lake.

Lonar Lake is a notified National Geo-heritage Monument, located in Maharashtra.

5) Consider the following statements regarding Golden langur.

6) The Green Climate Fund has been established by the

8) Consider the following statements.

So why are we using more of this powerful warming gas?

9) Consider the following statements regarding Aerosols.

10) One Health Concept, sometimes seen in news is related to

11) Consider the following statements regarding Peatlands.

14) Consider the following statements regarding Locusts.

16) Integrated Tiger Habitat Conservation Programme (ITHCP) aims to

The Tiger Programme is based on three pillars:

23) Consider the following statements regarding Bio-Plastics.

24) Consider the following statements regarding Earth Day.

26) Arrange the following from West to East

28) Consider the following statements regarding Ozone hole.

The importance of the ozone layer

Why this year’s Arctic ozone hole was massive

29) Consider the following statements regarding Sambhar Lake.

It is surrounded by the Aravali hills on all sides.

4) Which of the following statement is correct regarding ‘Janaushadhi Sugam’.

6) The government launched an ‘e-Sahaj’ portal. It is related to

8) Consider the following statements regarding National Supercomputing Mission.

The mission implementation would develop and bring:

2) Consider the following statements regarding Microdot technology.

3) Consider the following statements regarding Iodine.

4) Consider the following statements about Poliomyelitis.

5) Consider the following statements regarding Space Internet.

But lower orbits have their own problem.

6) Consider the following statements about Trans-fats.

7) Consider the following statements regarding C-Sat-Fi technology.

8) Consider the following statements about Hepatitis C.

Populations at increased risk of HCV infection include:

9) Hydroxychloroquine, sometimes seen in news, is used to prevent or treat

10) Consider the following statements regarding Post-intensive care syndrome.

What is post-intensive care syndrome?

11) Consider the following statements regarding Vertically transmitted infection.

12) Which of the following are the vaccine-preventable diseases.