INSTA December 2023 Editorials Quiz Compilation

INSTA EDITORIALS QUIZ
DECEMBER 2023
WWW.INSIGHTSONINDIA.COM INSIGHTSIAS
Table of Contents
1. ECONOMY .........................................................................................................................................2
2. ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT ..........................................................................................................7
3. GEOGRAPHY .................................................................................................................................... 12
4. GOVERNMENT SCHEMES AND PROGRAMMES ................................................................................. 16
5. SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY............................................................................................................. 24
6. INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS AND ORGANISATIONS .......................................................................... 33
7. POLITY ............................................................................................................................................. 42
8. HISTORY, ART AND CULTURE............................................................................................................ 50
9. AGRICULTURE .................................................................................................................................. 53
10. DEFENCE AND SECURITY............................................................................................................... 54
11. REPORTS AND INDICES ................................................................................................................. 57
12. MAPS / PLACES............................................................................................................................. 60
www.insightsonindia.com 1
1. Economy
1) In recent years which of the following are the largest lender in the education loan sector in India?
a) Private banks
b) Public sector Banks
c) Regional rural banks
d) Co-operative Banks
Solution: b)
Low-value education loans (up to Rs 7.5 lakh) constitute a bulk of the defaults in the education loan portfolio of
banks.
Data on Non-Performing Assets (NPAs) in education loans of Public Sector Banks (PSBs), obtained through the
Right to Information Act, show that the default rate is much lower for loans disbursed to students in premier
institutes as compared to those in secondary institutes.
PSBs are the largest lender in the education loan sector and have a market share of about 91 per cent – RRBs
(regional rural banks) and private banks constitute the remaining 9 per cent of the market.
2) Consider the following statements regarding Application Supported by Blocked Amount (ASBA)-like facility for
trading.
1. ASBA is an application by an investor that contains an authorisation to a Self-Certified Syndicate Bank
(SCSB) to block in the bank account the application money for subscribing to an issue.
2. The facility will be optional for investors and stock brokers.
3. Recently SEBI cancelled the Application Supported by Blocked Amount (ASBA)-like facility for trading in
the secondary market.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
Statement 3 is incorrect.
The capital markets regulator, Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI), recently approved a framework for
Application Supported by Blocked Amount (ASBA)-like facility for trading in the secondary market.
The facility will be optional for investors and stock brokers. To facilitate smooth transition in the market, the
framework will be implemented in a phased manner.
ASBA, which was first introduced by SEBI in 2008, is an application by an investor that contains an
authorisation to a Self-Certified Syndicate Bank (SCSB) to block in the bank account the application money for
subscribing to an issue.
An SCSB is a recognised bank capable of providing ASBA services to its customers.

The application money of an investor applying through ASBA shall be debited from the bank account only if her
application is selected for allotment after the basis of allotment has been finalised. In public issues and rights
issues, all investors have to mandatorily apply through ASBA.
At present, ASBA is available for the primary market, wherein the initial public offering (IPO) funds only are
blocked on application, and are debited only on allotment.
3) Consider the following statements regarding Delisting of securities.

1. Delisting means removing the securities of a listed company from a stock exchange.
2. Delisting happens only as a penal measure for the company not complying with requirements set out in
the listing agreement.
3. A Delisting company needs to buy back 100% of the total issued shares.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: a)
Only statement 1 is correct.
Delisting means removing the securities of a listed company from a stock exchange. Once delisted, the
securities of that company can no longer be traded on the stock exchange.
Delisting can be either voluntary or compulsory. In voluntary delisting, a company decides on its own to remove
its securities from a stock exchange; in compulsory delisting, they are removed as a penal measure for the
company not making submissions or complying with requirements set out in the listing agreement within the
prescribed timeframes.
If a company wants to delist its securities, it needs to buy back 90% of the total issued shares.
4) Consider the following statements regarding Standing Deposit Facility (SDF).

1. It has been introduced by Reserve Bank of India.
2. Like marginal standing facility (MSF), the SDF will be available on all days of the week, throughout the
year.
3. It aims to induce liquidity in the system to promote growth.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
In 2018, the amended Section 17 of the RBI Act empowered the Reserve Bank to introduce the SDF – an
additional tool for absorbing liquidity without any collateral. By removing the binding collateral constraint on
the RBI, the SDF strengthens the operating framework of monetary policy. The SDF is also a financial stability tool
in addition to its role in liquidity management.
The main purpose of SDF is to reduce the excess liquidity in the system, and control inflation.
Both the standing facilities — the MSF (marginal standing facility) and the SDF will be available on all days of the
week, throughout the year.
5) Consider the following statements.

1. As per the present rules, Global investors are not allowed to participate in initial public offering (IPO) of
a company owned by the government.
2. A Red Herring Prospectus is a document filed by a company to SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of
India) when it plans to raise money through initial public offering (IPO).
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: b)
Global investors are allowed to participate in initial public offering (IPO) of a company owned by the government.
A Red Herring Prospectus, or offer document, is filed by a company to SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of
India) when it plans to raise money from the public by selling shares of the company to investors. The
document is very useful to investors because it provides detailed information about the company’s business
operations, financials, promoters and the company’s objective for raising funds by filing an IPOs.
6) Consider the following statements regarding Exchange Traded Funds (ETF).

1. ETFs are passive funds listed and traded on stock exchanges like shares.
2. In an ETF, one can buy and sell units at prevailing market price on a real time basis during market
hours.
3. Usually the fund manager selects stocks based on customers choice.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
Exchange Traded Funds (ETFs):

• Typically, an ETF mirrors a particular index, which means the group of stocks in the ETF would be similar to
those in the index that it is benchmarked to.
• They are traded on stock exchanges like shares.
• Usually, ETFs are passive funds where the fund manager doesn’t select stocks on your behalf. Instead, the
ETF simply copies an index and endeavours to accurately reflect its performance.
• In an ETF, one can buy and sell units at prevailing market price on a real time basis during market hours.
7) Consider the following statements regarding Foreign Exchange Management Act.

1. Foreign Exchange Management Act came as a successor to the Foreign Exchange Regulation Act, with
changing economic conditions in a post-liberalisation India.
2. This act makes offences related to foreign exchange as criminal offenses.
3. Enforcement Directorate (ED) has the power to register a case against an organisation under the
Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA) for alleged foreign exchange violation.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
What is the aim of the FEMA (Foreign Exchange Management Act)?

FEMA came in 1999 as a successor to the Foreign Exchange Regulation Act or FERA of 1973, with changing
economic conditions in a post-liberalisation India.
So what changed with the FEMA?

Reflecting the major change in mindset was the decision to make offences or violations under this law a civil
offence rather than criminal one, and making transactions that are part of the current account, such as travelling
abroad for tourism, education, etc., a matter of right while putting in place restrictions on the capital account.

1. As per the I-T Law, the year in which income is earned is called as assessment year.
2. Anyone whose maximum income in a year exceeds one lakh must file Income Tax returns (ITR).
3. By paying penalty the taxpayers can carry forward the losses incurred in the current Assessment Year, if
they do not file their ITR before the deadline.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: d)
Income tax is levied on the annual income of a person. As per the I-T Law, this period starts on April 1 and ends on
March 31 of the next calendar year. The year in which income is earned is called as previous year and the year in
which the income is charged to tax is called as assessment year.
Anyone whose maximum income in a year exceeds the exemption limit of Rs 2,50,000 (for individuals under the
age of 60 years) must file ITR.
The taxpayers won’t be able to carry forward the losses incurred in the current Assessment Year if they do not file
their ITR.
Moreover, a penalty equal to 200 per cent of tax payable on the underreported income shall be levied as per
section 270A, if taxpayers miss to file their income tax returns.
9) Consider the following statements regarding company limited by guarantee.

1. A company limited by guarantee is one in which, if the company goes bankrupt, those running it only
have to pay a sum they had guaranteed to pay when it was set up.
2. Such a company has no shareholders, but is owned by a group of people called members or
guarantors.
3. Usually, this structure is put in place for charitable organisations and non-profits.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: c)
What is a company limited by guarantee?

A company limited by guarantee is one in which, if the company goes bankrupt, those running it only have to
pay a sum they had guaranteed to pay when it was set up.
The Companies Act, 2013, says, “Company limited by guarantee means a company having the liability of its
members limited by the memorandum to such amount as the members may respectively undertake to contribute
to the assets of the company in the event of its being wound up.”
Put very simply, such a company has no shareholders, but is owned by a group of people called members or
guarantors. When coming together to form the company, these members pledge to pay a certain amount —
usually not a large amount — in case it is wound up. Their liability, if the company fails, is limited to this amount.
Usually, this structure is put in place for charitable organisations and non-profits, where any profit earned by
the company is re-invested into the business. The members or guarantors can seek donations and funds in the
name of the company, but if it fails, they are shielded from the debts it may have accrued.
10) Consider the following statements regarding Goods and Services Tax Council.
1. Every decision of the Goods and Services Tax Council shall be taken by a majority of not less than three-
fourths of the weighted votes of the members present and voting.
2. The vote of the Central Government in the GST council meeting shall have a weightage of two-thirds of
the total votes cast.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a)
Every decision of the Goods and Services Tax Council shall be taken at a meeting, by a majority of not less than
three-fourths of the weighted votes of the members present and voting, in accordance with the following
principles, namely: —
The vote of the Central Government shall have a weightage of one third of the total votes cast, and
the votes of all the State Governments taken together shall have a weightage of two-thirds of the total votes
cast, in that meeting.
11) Consider the following statements regarding Base Year.

1. The base year is a representative year which must not experience any abnormal incidents such as
droughts, floods, earthquakes etc.
2. It gives an idea about changes in purchasing power and allows calculation of inflation-adjusted growth
estimates.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c)
The base year of the national accounts is chosen to enable inter-year comparisons. It gives an idea about changes
in purchasing power and allows calculation of inflation-adjusted growth estimates.
The base year prices are termed as at constant prices. This reduces all the data to a comparable benchmark, base
year price. The base year is a representative year which must not experience any abnormal incidents such as
droughts, floods, earthquakes etc.
12) Which of the following is a measure that can be used by the Government to combat inflation?
a) Providing more subsides on exports
b) Reduction in the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR)
c) Increasing the rate of interest on savings and fixed deposits
d) Increasing the non-planned expenditure on defence, police etc
Solution: c)
Increasing the rate of interest on savings and fixed deposits attracts people to park their money in the banks,
which in turn helps to reduce inflation.
1. When RBI books profit by selling dollars, it pays dividend to the Central Government.
2. In the last five years, the RBI was a net seller of dollars in each financial year.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: b)
In FY2023, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) became a net seller of the US dollar after remaining a net purchaser
for three consecutive years.
2. Ecology and Environment

1) Consider the following statements regarding Indian rhinoceros.
1. The Indian rhinoceros is found in the Brahmaputra valley, parts of North Bengal, and parts of southern
Nepal.
2. The Indian rhino is listed as vulnerable in the IUCN Red List.
3. Assam’s Manas National Park has the highest number of Indian rhinos in the wild in India.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
The Indian rhinoceros (Rhinoceros unicornis) is found in the Brahmaputra valley, parts of North Bengal, and
parts of southern Nepal. It has a single black horn that can grow up to 60 cm, and a tough, grey-brown hide with
skin folds, which gives the animal its characteristic armour-plated look.
The Indian rhino is listed as vulnerable (better than endangered, worse than near threatened) in the IUCN Red
List; it was earlier placed in the endangered category. The WWF says the “recovery of the greater one-horned
rhino is among the greatest conservation success stories in Asia”.
According to the WWF, there are around 3,700 Indian rhinos in the wild today. Assam’s Kaziranga National Park
(KNP) alone has 2,613 animals, according to a census carried out in March 2022. There are more than 250 other
rhinos in the Orang, Pobitora, and Manas parks.
2) Consider the following statements regarding Ocean acidification.

1. Ocean acidification is caused by uptake of carbon dioxide (CO₂) emitted by human activities.
2. It brings changes in species dominance, leading to ecosystem shifts in coastal waters.
3. Ocean acidification leads to increase in the pH of the ocean over an extended time.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
Ocean acidity or ocean acidification is a reduction in the pH of the ocean over an extended time. It is caused by
uptake of carbon dioxide (CO₂), a greenhouse gas emitted by human activities. The ocean’s average pH is now
around 8.1, which is basic (or alkaline). But as the ocean continues to absorb more carbon dioxide, the pH
decreases and the ocean becomes more acidic.
This has contributed to the loss of corals on a global scale as their calcium skeletons are weakened by more acidic
water. This also erodes and affects the formation of shells of shellfish.
It has thus brought changes in relative species dominance, potentially leading to ecosystem shifts in coastal
waters.
3) Which of the following regions of India is the natural habitat of the `Great Indian Hornbill’?
a) Salt marshes of western Gujarat
b) Great Himalayan Range
c) Sand deserts of northwest India
d) Western Ghats
Solution: d)
The great Indian hornbill is one of the larger members of the hornbill family. It is found in the Indian subcontinent
and Southeast Asia. It is naturally found in Western Ghats.
4) India launched International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA) for conservation of big cats, which include
1. Leopard
2. Cheetah
3. Jaguar
4. Snow Leopard
5. Lion
How many of the above options is/are correct?
a) Only two
b) Only three
c) Only four
d) All five
Solution: d)
International Big Cats Alliance (IBCA) will focus on the protection and conservation of seven major big cats of the
world, including tiger, lion, leopard, snow leopard, puma, jaguar and cheetah, with membership of the range
countries harbouring these species.
Project Tiger was launched by the Central government on April 1, 1973, in a bid to promote conservation of the
tiger. Launched at the Jim Corbett National Park, the programme was initially started in nine tiger reserves of
different States such as Assam, Bihar, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Odisha, Rajasthan, Uttar
Pradesh and West Bengal, covering over 14,000 sq km.
Notably, Project Tiger didn’t just focus on the conservation of the big cats. It also ensured the preservation of
their natural habitat as tigers are at the top of the food chain.
5) Consider the following statements regarding Bioremediation.

1. Bioremediation employs the use of living organisms, like microbes and bacteria to decontaminate
affected areas.
2. Bioremediation is used to clean up oil spills or contaminated groundwater.
3. Bioremediation can be done only "in situ".
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
• Bioremediation is a branch of biotechnology that employs the use of living organisms, like microbes and
bacteria to decontaminate affected areas.
• It is used in the removal of contaminants, pollutants, and toxins from soil, water, and other environments.
• Bioremediation is used to clean up oil spills or contaminated groundwater.
• Bioremediation may be done "in situ"–at the site of the contamination–or "ex situ"–away from the site.
6) Consider the following statements regarding Mangalajodi area.

1. Mangalajodi is recognised as globally important for the conservation of bird population, where the area
is used for roosting and nesting by migratory birds.
2. It is located at the edge of the Kolleru Lake in Andhra Pradesh.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: b)
Mangalajodi area is located on the banks of Chilika lake — an important bird area (IBA).
Mangalajodi is recognised as globally important for the conservation of bird population. The area is used for
roosting and nesting by migratory birds. The area is 8.3 square km of marshy land with emergent vegetation.
7) Consider the following pairs:

1. Gandhi Sagar wildlife sanctuary: Madhya Pradesh
2. Parambikulam tiger reserve: Kerala
3. Mukundra Hills Tiger Reserve: Maharashtra
4. Pilibhit Tiger Reserve: Rajasthan
5. Mahananda Wildlife Sanctuary: West Bengal
a) Only two
b) Only three
c) Only four
d) All five
Solution: b)
Option 1, 2 and 5 is correct.
Gandhi Sagar Sanctuary is a wildlife sanctuary situated on the northern boundary of Mandsaur and Nimach
districts in Madhya Pradesh.
Parambikulam Tiger Reserve is a protected area lying in Palakkad district and Thrissur district of Kerala.
The Mukundra Tiger Reserve (TR) is located near Kota, Rajasthan.
Pilibhit Tiger Reserve is located in Pilibhit district of Uttar Pradesh and was notified as a tiger reserve in 2014.
Mahananda Wildlife Sanctuary is located on the foothills of the Himalayas, between the Teesta and Mahananda
rivers. It is situated in the Darjeeling district of West Bengal.
8) The terms “Absorptive Capacity” and “Carrying capacity” are used in the discourse of
a) Evolutionary biology
b) Geographical determinism
c) Sustainable Development
d) Employment elasticity
Solution: c)
The environment performs four vital functions (i) it supplies resources: resources here include both renewable
and non-renewable resources. (ii) it assimilates waste (iii) it sustains life by providing genetic and bio diversity and
(iv) it also provides aesthetic services like scenery etc. The environment is able to perform these functions without
any interruption as long as the demand on these functions is within its carrying capacity. This implies that the
resource extraction is not above the rate of regeneration of the resource and the wastes generated are within the
assimilating capacity of the environment.
Absorptive capacity means the ability of the environment to absorb degradation.
9) India has committed to certain targets to reduce carbon emissions in view of global climate concerns. These
include
1. Reducing total carbon emissions by one billion tonnes between 2021 to 2030
2. Achieving the target of net zero emissions by 2070
3. By 2050, Electric vehicles to constitute more than 50 percent of the total vehicles used.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
India has committed to certain targets to reduce carbon emissions in view of global climate concerns. In the
COP26 Summit, in 2021, India had committed to reducing total carbon emissions by one billion tonnes between
2021 to 2030 and achieving the target of net zero emissions by 2070. It is also placing an emphasis on the use of
electric vehicles and ethanol-based and hydrogen fuels.
Source
10) Consider the following statements regarding Debt-for-nature swaps.
1. Debt-for-nature swaps allow heavily indebted developing countries to seek help from financial
institutions in the developed world with paying off their debt if they agree to spend on conservation of natural
resources.
2. The world’s first and largest debt swap to conserve oceans was signed by India.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a)
Debt-for-nature swaps allow heavily indebted developing countries to seek help from financial institutions in
the developed world with paying off their debt if they agree to spend on conservation of natural resources.
Usually banks in developed countries buy the debts of such counties and replace them with new loans which
mature later. These have lower interest rates.
In May 2023, the world’s first and largest debt swap to conserve oceans was signed by Ecuador. The country
had exchanged $1.6 billion denominated bonds for a new $656 million loan.
Under the debt-for-nature swap, Gabon has agreed to a deal with the Bank of America, the US International
Development Finance Corporation (USDFC) and The Nature Conservancy (TNC), to refinance $500 million in
national debt toward marine conservation efforts in the country.
Source
11) Blue Bonds for Ocean Conservation, sometimes seen in news is the initiative of
a) United National Environment Programme
b) International Union For Conservation Of Nature (IUCN)
c) Earth System Governance Project (ESGP)
d) The Nature Conservancy
Solution: d)
Blue Bonds for Ocean Conservation is one of The Nature Conservancy’s most innovative solutions, supporting
island and coastal nations to use debt solutions to create long-term sustainable financing that can help protect
30% of our global ocean while achieving sustainable economic development and adapting to climate change.
Source Source
3. Geography
1. Warming or cooling of the Earth’s surface depends on the balance between how much solar radiation
the planet is absorbing and how much it is radiating away.
2. The closer one is to the poles, the faster the rate of change in daylight is.
3. For a particular location, rate of change in daylight is slowest at the equinoxes, and fastest at the
solstices.
4. Generally land masses in the Southern Hemisphere tend to have fewer very extreme temperatures
than land in the Northern Hemisphere.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Solution: c)
Earth’s surface constantly absorbs energy from the Sun and stores it as heat. It also emits heat back into space.
Whether the surface is warming or cooling depends on the balance between how much solar radiation the
planet is absorbing and how much it is radiating away.
The closer you are to one of the poles, the faster the rate of change in daylight is. That’s why Alaska can go from
having hardly any daylight in the winter to hardly any darkness in the summer.
Even for a particular location, the change is not constant through the year. The rate of change in daylight is
slowest at the solstices — December in winter, June in summer — and fastest at the equinoxes, in mid-March
and mid-September.
The Southern Hemisphere has a lot less land and a lot more water than the Northern Hemisphere. Thanks to the
influence of the southern oceans, land masses in the Southern Hemisphere tend to have fewer very extreme
temperatures than land in the Northern Hemisphere does.

1. Mount St. Helens is an active stratovolcano located in United States.
2. Mauna Loa is part of Hawaiian archipelago.
3. Mauna Loa is the largest active volcano in the world.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: c)
Mauna Loa is one of five volcanoes that together make up the Big Island of Hawaii, which is the southernmost
island in the Hawaiian archipelago. It’s not the tallest (that title goes to Mauna Kea) but it’s the largest and
makes up about half of the island’s land mass. It sits immediately north of Kilauea volcano, which is currently
erupting from its summit crater. Mauna Loa last erupted 38 years ago.
Mount St. Helens is an active stratovolcano located in Skamania County, Washington, in the Pacific Northwest
region of the United States.
1. El Niño refers to an abnormal warming of the central and eastern Pacific Ocean waters off the coasts of
Ecuador and Peru.
2. Oceanic Niño Index (ONI) measures the average sea surface temperature deviation from the normal in
the east-central equatorial Pacific region.
3. El Niño usually strengthen and peak during the summer months.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
El Niño – an abnormal warming of the central and eastern Pacific Ocean waters off the coasts of Ecuador and
Peru, known to suppress rainfall in India.
The Oceanic Niño Index (ONI) – which measures the average sea surface temperature deviation from the normal
in the east-central equatorial Pacific region.
El Niño will gradually strengthen and peak during the winter months.

1. Hawaii’s volcanoes and Japan’s Mount Fuji are examples for shield volcanoes.
2. The gas in the magma of Hawaii’s volcanoes tends to escape, and so lava flows down the side of their
mountains when they erupt.
3. In composite volcanoes, the steep, conical slopes are built by the eruption of viscous lava flows and
rock, ash and gas.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
The gas in the magma of Hawaii’s volcanoes tends to escape, and so lava flows down the side of their
mountains when they erupt. Hawaii’s volcanoes are called shield volcanoes because successive lava flows over
hundreds of thousands of years build broad mountains that resemble the shape of a warrior’s shield.
Shield volcanos are also found in California and Idaho as well as Iceland and the Galapagos Islands. Alaska’s
Wrangell-St. Elias National Park has eight shield volcanoes including Mount Wrangell. Volcanoes like Mount St.
Helens are called composite or stratovolcanoes. Their steep, conical slopes are built by the eruption of viscous
lava flows and rock, ash and gas. Japan’s Mount Fuji is another example of a composite volcano.
How do scientists monitor Mauna Loa?

Scientists use tiltmeters to track long-term changes in the tilting of the ground, helping them identify when the
ground is swelling or deflating.
A rapid change in tilt can indicate when an eruption will occur. There’s also a thermal webcam at Mauna Loa’s
summit that will identify the presence of heat. And satellite radar can keep track of ground swelling and deflation.
5) Consider the following statements regarding Zero Shadow Day.

1. During ‘Zero Shadow Day’, the vertical objects appear to cast no shadow.
2. Every point on Earth experiences Zero Shadow Day on different days in a year.
3. One Zero Shadow Day falls during the Uttarayan when the Sun moves northwards, and the other
during Dakshinayan when the Sun moves southwards.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
‘Zero Shadow Day’ is experienced when vertical objects appear to cast no shadow.
For every point on Earth between the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn, there are two Zero Shadow
Days a year.
The Zero Shadow Day is restricted to locations between the tropics, and so places north of Ranchi in India are
out of it.
“One falls during the Uttarayan when the Sun moves northwards, and the other is during Dakshinayan when
the Sun moves southwards”.
Uttarayan (movement of the Sun from south to north from winter solstice to summer solstice) and Dakshinayan
(back from north to south) happen because Earth’s rotation axis is tilted at an angle of roughly 23.5° to the axis of
revolution around the Sun.
6) The typical impacts of El Niño include:

1. Severe droughts in parts of southern South America, the Horn of Africa and central Asia.
2. Increased rainfall over Australia, Indonesia, and parts of southern Asia.
3. Hurricanes in the central/eastern Pacific Ocean and can hinder hurricane formation in the Atlantic
Basin.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: a)
Only Statement 3 is correct.
The typical impacts of El Niño include: increased rainfall in parts of southern South America, the southern
United States, the Horn of Africa and central Asia. It can also cause severe droughts over Australia, Indonesia,
and parts of southern Asia. During summer in the northern hemisphere, El Niño’s warm water can fuel
hurricanes in the central/eastern Pacific Ocean and it can hinder hurricane formation in the Atlantic Basin.
El Niño might bring respite from the drought in the Horn of Africa and other La Niña-related impacts but could
also trigger more extreme weather and climate events.
7) Consider the following statements regarding total fertility rate (TFR).

1. The TFR is the average number of births by women aged 15-49 based on surveys for a particular
period/year.
2. A TFR of 2.1 is considered as “replacement-level fertility”.
3. Populations cannot grow when TFRs are falling.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
The TFR has fallen sharply for India in the past three decades. Between 1992-93 and 2019-21, it came down from
3.4 to 2; the fall was especially significant in the rural areas.
A TFR of 2.1 is considered as “replacement-level fertility”. Simply understood, a woman having two children
replaces herself and her partner with two new lives. Since all infants may not survive, the replacement TFR is
taken at slightly above two.
The TFR is the average number of births by women aged 15-49 based on surveys for a particular period/year.
Populations can keep growing even with TFRs falling. De-growth requires TFRs to remain below replacement
levels for extended periods. The effects of that — fewer children today becoming parents tomorrow and
procreating just as much or less — may reflect only after a couple of generations.

1. Melanesia, Micronesia, and Polynesia are the major groups of Pacific Islands.
2. Papua New Guinea is located north of Australia.
3. Papua New Guinea is among the least populous Pacific Island nation.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
The Pacific Islands are a group of islands in the Pacific Ocean. They are further categorized into three major
island groups: Melanesia, Micronesia, and Polynesia.
Papua New Guinea's location just north of Australia makes it strategically significant. It was the site of fierce
battles during World War II, and with a population of nearly 10 million people, it's one of the most populous
Pacific Island nation.

1. Seafloor spreading is the result of mantle convection.
2. Convection currents recycle lithospheric materials back to the mantle.
3. Seafloor spreading occurs mainly at convergent plate boundaries.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
Seafloor spreading is a geologic process in which tectonic plates—large slabs of Earth's lithosphere—split apart
from each other. Seafloor spreading and other tectonic activity processes are the result of mantle
convection. Mantle convection is the slow, churning motion of Earth’s mantle. Convection currents carry heat
from the lower mantle and core to the lithosphere. Convection currents also “recycle” lithospheric materials
back to the mantle.
Seafloor spreading occurs at divergent plate boundaries. As tectonic plates slowly move away from each other,
heat from the mantle’s convection currents makes the crust more plastic and less dense. The less-dense material
rises, often forming a mountain or elevated area of the seafloor. Eventually, the crust cracks. Hot magma fueled
by mantle convection bubbles up to fill these fractures and spills onto the crust. This bubbled-up magma is cooled
by frigid seawater to form igneous rock. This rock (basalt) becomes a new part of Earth’s crust.
Source
4. Government Schemes and Programmes

1) Consider the following statements regarding Annual Status of Education Report (ASER).
1. ASER is a nationwide household survey that covers all districts in India.
2. It estimates for schooling and basic learning for every State in India.
3. Since its inception, ASER has measured foundational skills in reading and arithmetic.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
Annual Status of Education Report (ASER) is a nationwide household survey that covers all rural districts in the
country and generates estimates for schooling and basic learning for every State in India.
Since its inception, ASER has measured foundational skills in reading and arithmetic. The highest reading task on
the ASER tool is reading a text at Grade II level of difficulty. In mathematics, the highest level is a numerical three-
digit by one-digit division problem, usually expected of children in standard four or so. The assessment is done
one on one with each sampled child in the household. The child is marked at the highest level that she/he can
comfortably reach. The same tasks are used for all children aged 5 years to 16 years.
2) Consider the following statements regarding Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana (PMGKAY).
1. The PMGKAY was introduced in 2020 during the Covid-19 pandemic to provide free foodgrains to
eligible ration card holders.
2. The PMGKAY has been merged with National Food Security Act, 2013 (NFSA).
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c)
Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana (PMGKAY) that provides free ration has been extended for another
five years.
The PMGKAY was introduced in 2020 during the Covid-19 pandemic to provide 5 kg free foodgrains to eligible
ration card holders under the National Food Security Act, 2013 (NFSA). The NFSA, entitled beneficiaries to receive
subsidised foodgrains (at Rs 3, Rs 2 and Rs 1 per kilogram of rice, wheat and coarse grains, respectively) through
the Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS).
The PMGKAY covers two kinds of ration card holders under the NFSA – for the Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY) and
Priority Households (PHH). The NFSA covers about 20 crore families, or a total 81.35 crore beneficiaries, who
account for two-thirds of the country’s population – 50% for urban and 75% for rural.
While the AAY households are entitled to 35 kg of foodgrains per month irrespective of the number of family
members, the priority households get foodgrains depending on the number of family members (each member 5
kg per month).
In January this year, the PMGKAY was merged with the NFSA, providing all ration for AAY and PHH families for
free and eliminating the additional provisions introduced during the pandemic.
Source

1. Aadhaar is a verifiable 12-digit identification number issued by Unique Identification Authority of India
on behalf of the Government of India.
2. The masked Aadhaar implies displaying only the first four digits of the Aadhaar number and replacing
the last 8 digits of Aadhaar number with some characters.
3. The masked Aadhaar facility has been in place since the launch of Aadhaar facility.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: a)
Aadhaar is a verifiable 12-digit identification number issued the Unique Identification Authority of India on
behalf of the Government of India.
The masked Aadhaar number facility — that can be downloaded from the UIDAI website — and which displays
only the last four digits of the Aadhaar number. This was a sensible advisory. The masked Aadhaar facility has
been in place since 2018 and this came about following a report by the Centre for Internet and Society.
4) The National Food Security Act (NFSA) 2013 anchors which of the following
1. Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS)
2. PM POSHAN scheme
3. Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS)
4. PM Kisan Samman Nidhi
Select the correct answer code:
a) 1, 2, 4
b) 1, 3
c) 1, 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
Solution: c)
National Food Security Act (NFSA) 2013 anchors the Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS), the PM
POSHAN scheme (earlier known as the Mid-Day Meals scheme), and the Integrated Child Development Services
(ICDS).
5) Match the following initiatives by the Government of India.

1. Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana A. focuses on more crops per drop
2. Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana: B. promotes organic farming
3. Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana C. Maintenance of soil fertility
4. Integrated Nutrient Management D. Improving food access, especially for vulnerable
populations
a) 1:B ; 2:A ; 3:C ; 4:D
b) 1:A ; 2:B ; 3:D ; 4:C
c) 1:B ; 2:A ; 3:D ; 4:C
d) 1:A ; 2:B ; 3:C ; 4:D
Solution: c)
Some initiatives by the Government of India on better production include Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana,
which promotes organic farming; Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana, which focuses on more crops per
drop for improved water use, and Soil Health Management which fosters Integrated Nutrient Management
under the National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture.
For improving food access, especially for vulnerable populations, the Government of India drives programmes
such as the Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana (PMGKAY), the Pradhan Mantri Poshan Shakti Nirman
Yojana (PM POSHAN Scheme), and take-home rations.
6) Consider the following statements regarding the provisions of Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017.
1. It allows 26 weeks of paid leave after childbirth, to biological and adoptive mothers.
2. The Act is applicable to all establishments employing 10 or more than 10 persons in Factories, Mines,
Plantation, Shops & Establishments and other entities.
3. Establishment having fifty or more employees shall have to provide creche facility, either separately or
along with common facilities.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
The Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017 amended Section 5 of the erstwhile Act to allow 26 weeks of paid
leave after childbirth, although only to biological mothers.
The amendment also inserted Section 5(4) which said that adoptive or surrogate mothers legally adopting a child
below three months will be entitled to a maternity benefit period of 12 weeks from the date the child is
handed over to the mother.
The Act is applicable to all establishments employing 10 or more than 10 persons in Factories, Mines,
Plantation, Shops & Establishments and other entities. Establishments employing 50 or more employees are
also required to provide crèche facilities, either separately or along with common facilities within a prescribed
distance.
7) Consider the following statements regarding BharatNet project.

1. BharatNet is the rural telecom project implemented in a phased manner to all 2.5 lakh gram
panchayats (GPs) in India for last-mile broadband connectivity.
2. The project is being executed by Bharat Broadband Network (BBNL), an arm of State-run Bharat
Sanchar Nigam (BSNL).
3. The project is implemented with the help of village level entrepreneurs.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: c)
BharatNet is one of the biggest rural telecom projects in the world, implemented in a phased manner to all 2.5
lakh gram panchayats (GPs) in the country for last-mile broadband connectivity.
The project was first approved by the Cabinet in October 2011 and is being executed by Bharat Broadband
Network (BBNL), as a special purpose vehicle (SPV). Phase-II was approved in 2017.
BBNL, which is an arm of State-run Bharat Sanchar Nigam (BSNL) now, will be partnering with village level
entrepreneurs (VLEs) to provide the connectivity. “The model to take fibre to the home with the help of a local
entrepreneur was finalised after successful completion of a pilot project.

1. In India, the Radio Club of Bombay was the first to send out the commercial radio transmission.
2. At present, the All India Radio functions under the jurisdiction of Ministry of Information and
Broadcasting.
3. At present, All India Radio is available to 100 per cent of India’s land area and all of its population.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
After Guglielmo Marconi sent out the first radio transmission in 1895, it took over two decades for radio
broadcasting to become commercially available. In India, the Radio Club of Bombay sent out the first
commercial transmission in 1923. In the same year, the Calcutta Radio Club was started and a year later, radio
broadcasts reached Madras with the Madras Presidency Radio Club.
The ambitious Indian Broadcasting Company (IBC) came into existence in 1927. In 1930, the Indian State
Broadcasting Service (ISBS), under the Department of Industries and Labour, commenced its operations on an
experimental basis.
Finally, on June 8, 1936, ISBS became All India Radio. A year later, AIR was brought under the Department of
Communications, and four years later, under the Department of Information and Broadcasting, now called the
Ministry of Information and Broadcasting (under whose jurisdiction it remains till date).
At the time of Independence, AIR covered just two percent of India’s land area and reached just 11 percent of its
population.
Today, with a network of over 262 radio stations, AIR is available to 92 per cent of India’s area and nearly all of
its population. It broadcasts in 23 languages and 146 dialects, catering to India’s diverse demographics and
tastes. It also has an External Services Division which broadcasts in 11 Indian and 16 foreign languages, reaching
out to more than 100 countries.
FM broadcasting began in 1977 in Chennai, and expanded during the 1990s. Today, AIR 18 FM stereo channels,
largely targeting the urban audience.
9) Consider the following statements regarding Bima Sugam.

1. It’s an online platform where customers can choose a suitable insurance scheme from multiple options
given by various companies.
2. Brokers and agent bodies will be the majority stakeholder.
3. The platform does not deal with settlement of claims, whether it’s health coverage or death claims.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: a)
What’s Bima Sugam?

It’s an online platform where customers can choose a suitable scheme from multiple options given by various
companies. All insurance requirements, including those for life, health, and general insurance (including motor
and travel) will be met by Bima Sugam. This platform will help in the settlement of claims, whether it’s health
coverage or death claims, in a paperless manner on the basis of policy numbers.
Details about insurance schemes are expected to be stored in the platform through the insurance repository
initially. This will be followed by a listing of policies.
The platform would act as a single window for the policyholder to manage his/her insurance coverage. It will
provide end-to-end solutions for customers’ insurance needs i.e., purchase, service, and settlement in a seamless
manner.
Will the physical mode go away?

Customers will open an insurance account and the policies will be stored in this account, thus obviating the need
for physical documents. Further, the paperwork involved in buying a policy will also come down. Settlement of
claims and renewal of policies will also become faster as paperwork is reduced drastically, making it easier for the
customers.
IRDAI says Bima Sugam is an electronic marketplace protocol which would universalise and democratise
insurance. “This protocol will be connected with India Stack which is a set of APIs (application programming
interface) that allows governments, businesses, startups, etc. to utilise the unique digital infrastructure to enable
seamless delivery of services. It is envisioned that this e-Market place would enable and empower all insurance
stakeholders across insurance value chain.
IRDAI initially wanted the Bima Sugam to be up and running by January 2023 but postponed it to August 1. It has
now postponed the implementation to June 2024. Life insurance and general insurance companies will own a
47.5 per cent stake each, while brokers and agent bodies will own 2.5 per cent each.
Source
10) Consider the following statements regarding Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC).
1. ONDC is an interoperable network that seeks to democratise digital commerce in India.
2. The ONDC entity, a not-for-profit company incorporated under the Companies Act 2013, manages and
operates the ONDC Network.
3. ONDC eliminates the need for buyers and sellers to use the same application, and promotes the
discoverability of local digital stores across industries.
4. ONDC has been endorsed by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT)
under the Union Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Solution: d)
ONDC is an interoperable network based on the BeckN protocol that anyone can piggyback on. It seeks to break
down silos in digital commerce by enabling platforms of varying configurations (big or small) to connect and
operate seamlessly on it.
It comprises different entities called ‘Network Participants’, including Buyer Applications, Seller Applications, and
Gateways that perform the search and discovery function. Imagine a scenario where all the large e-commerce
platforms, from food delivery to clothing and fashion to conveyance, are accessible in one place, along with your
neighbourhood start-ups, shops, and kirana stores.
How does this help, and why is it significant?

By moving the exchange of goods and services from a platform-centric approach to a network-centric approach,
ONDC eliminates the need for buyers and sellers to use the same application, and promotes the discoverability
of local digital stores across industries.
What is ONDC’s inclusive governance approach?

The ONDC entity, a not-for-profit company incorporated under Section 8 of the Companies Act 2013, manages
and operates the ONDC Network.
It is responsible for building and maintaining the underlying infrastructure (common registries and protocols) as
well as defining the rules of engagement and code of conduct for the Network Participants through the ONDC
Network Policy and the ONDC Network Participant Agreement.
To what extent will the government be involved in ONDC?

ONDC has been endorsed by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) under the
Union Ministry of Commerce and Industry. DPIIT is not involved in ONDC’s funding, but is at the forefront of its
evangelisation through light-touch governmental oversight.
To ensure a market+community driven approach to decision-making, the board includes representatives from
banks, the government, and independent industry and civil society members.
11) Consider the following statements regarding PARAKH initiative.

1. PARAKH has been set up as the organisation under Central Board of Secondary Education.
2. Its mandate is to work on bringing the school examination boards across the States and the Union
Territories on a common platform.
3. PARAKH will act as a common platform for interaction of all concerned stakeholders in order to
promote equity in performance and equivalence in assessment of students.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
PARAKH has been set up as the organisation under NCERT. It will work on bringing the school boards across the
States and the Union Territories on a common platform. As a first step, a workshop on school assessments,
examination practices and equivalence of boards across the country was organised by the Ministry of Education
and PARAKH in New Delhi. PARAKH will act as a common platform for interaction of all concerned stakeholders in
order to develop a holistic approach that ensures a fair assessment system which promotes equity in
performance and equivalence in assessment of students.

1. Ganga Praharis are motivated and trained volunteers from among the local communities working for
biodiversity conservation and cleanliness of the Ganga River.
2. Ganga Praharis are constituted by the National Mission for Clean Ganga and the Wildlife Institute of
India (NMCG-WII) under the Namami Gange programme.
3. The United Nations has recognised the Namami Gange initiative as one of the top 10 World Restoration
Flagships involved in reviving the natural world.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: c)
Ganga Prahari (guardian): This is a task force of volunteers constituted by the National Mission for Clean Ganga
and the Wildlife Institute of India (NMCG-WII) under the Namami Gange programme to cover 8.61 billion sq. km
of the river basin.
Since 2014, Namami Gange has aimed to clean the river, ecosystem, and the villages around, home to 40% of
India’s population at 520 million and 2,500 species of flora and fauna. The United Nations in December 2022
recognised the initiative as one of the top 10 World Restoration Flagships involved in reviving the natural world
— a project that has seen the Central government invest $5 billion.
13) Renke commission, sometimes seen in news is related to

a) Defence modernisation
b) Agricultural marketing.
c) Sub-categorisation of OBC
d) Denotified tribes (DNTs)
Solution: d)
Who are de-notified, nomadic and semi-nomadic tribes?

These are communities who are the most vulnerable and deprived. Denotified tribes (DNTs) are communities that
were ‘notified’ as being ‘born criminal’ during the British regime under a series of laws starting with the Criminal
Tribes Act of 1871. Nomadic and semi-nomadic communities are defined as those who move from one place to
another rather than living at one place all the time.
A National Commission for De-notified, Nomadic and Semi-Nomadic Tribes (NCDNT) was constituted in 2006 by
the then government. It was headed by Balkrishna Sidram Renke and submitted its report in June 2008, in which
it said, “It is an irony that these tribes somehow escaped the attention of our Constitution makers and thus got
deprived of the Constitutional support unlike Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.”
14) Consider the following statements regarding Census exercise in India.
1. The Census of India Act of 1948 provides the legal framework for carrying out the Census.
2. The Constitution of India mentions when the Census has to be carried out, or what the frequency of
this exercise should be.
3. All the members of the United Nations follow the 10-year cycle for their Census.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: a)
A Census is Constitutionally mandated in India. There are repeated references to the Census exercise in the
Constitution in the context of reorganisation of constituencies for Parliament and state Assemblies. But the
Constitution does not say when the Census has to be carried out, or what the frequency of this exercise should
be. The Census of India Act of 1948, which provides the legal framework for carrying out the Census, also does
not mention its timing or periodicity.
There is, therefore, no Constitutional or legal requirement that a Census has to be done every 10 years. However,
this exercise has been carried out in the first year of every decade, without fail, since 1881. Most other countries
also follow the 10-year cycle for their Census. There are countries like Australia that do it every five years.
It is not the legal requirement but the utility of the Census that has made it a permanent regular exercise. The
Census produces primary, authentic data that becomes the backbone of every statistical enterprise, informing all
planning, administrative and economic decision-making processes.

1. The official language committee is a statutory committee, whose duty is to review the progress made
in the use of Hindi for the official purposes of the Union and submit a report to the President.
2. The official languages Act, 1963 provides for the continuance of English indefinitely as official language
along with Hindi for the official purposes of the Union and for transaction of business in Parliament.
3. The official language committee is mandated to recommend the medium of instruction in universities
and professional institutions.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
The official language committee is a statutory committee constituted under Section 4 in the Official Language
Act, 1963. Its duty is to review the progress made in the use of Hindi for the official purposes of the Union and
submit a report to the President. The Act makes it obligatory for the President to issue directions “in accordance
with the whole or any part of the report” (Section 4(4)). It can thus be seen that the committee’s
recommendations are required to be acted upon.
The Committee is chaired by the Union Home Minister.
Article 343 of the Constitution declares that Hindi in Devanagari script shall be the official language of the Union.
Parliament enacted the official languages Act in 1963, providing for the continuance of English indefinitely as
official language along with Hindi for the official purposes of the Union and for transaction of business in
Parliament.
The committee is not mandated to recommend the medium of instruction in universities and professional
institutions. Further, since Parliament has declared by law that English shall continue along with Hindi, a statutory
committee constituted under that very Act has no mandate to recommend the discontinuation of English.
India has two major groups of languages — the Indo-European language group and the Dravidian language group.
Hindi belongs to the former and Tamil (more ancient than Sanskrit) belongs to the latter.
5. Science and Technology

1. Antibiotics work by binding to a specific target protein on a bacteria, then entering to kill it from the
inside.
2. Antibiotic resistance occurs when bacteria evolve to evade antibiotics.
3. Overuse and misuse of antibiotics are the biggest drivers of antibiotic resistance.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: c)
Antibiotic resistance occurs when bacteria evolve to evade antibiotics. Overuse and misuse of antibiotics are
the biggest drivers of resistance. That means that the more we use antibiotics, the worse the problem of
antibiotic resistance becomes.
Antibiotics work by binding to a specific target protein on a bacteria, then entering to kill it from the inside.
Penicillin, for example, weakens the bacterial cell wall, causing the cell to disintegrate.
The most common ways bacteria evade antibiotics come from mutations that allow them to stop drugs from
binding to bacteria. It’s like the bacteria changed the locks so the antibiotic key no longer opens the cell door.
Bacteria can also achieve resistance by producing proteins that inactivate or modify the antibiotic, so it no longer
binds to the bacteria. Or the target protein is mutated so the antibiotic can no longer bind to it
2) In Humans, Conjunctivitis most commonly affects

a) Respiratory tract
b) Kidney
c) Brain
d) Eyes
Solution: d)
With persistent rain, cases of conjunctivitis, or ‘pink eye’, are on the rise in several parts of the country, including
New Delhi, Chandigarh, and Gujarat.
A conjunctivitis patient generally experiences eyes turning red, feeling itchy and painful, and witnessing a watery
or thicker discharge. The disease can be caused by viruses, bacteria, or allergens, and in some cases can be highly
infectious.
3) Ganymede, Callisto and Europa are the moons of
a) Venus
b) Mercury
c) Jupiter
d) Saturn
Solution: c)
What is the Jupiter Icy Moons Explorer (Juice) mission?

According to European Space Agency (ESA) website, the Juice “will make detailed observations of the giant gas
planet and its three large ocean-bearing moons — Ganymede, Callisto and Europa”, by using remote sensing,
geophysical and in situ instruments.
Scientists for quite some time have known that these three moons of Jupiter possess icy crusts, which they
believe contain oceans of liquid water underneath, making them potentially habitable. Juice will help probe these
water bodies by creating detailed maps of the moons’ surfaces and enable the scientists, for the first time, to look
beneath them.
4) Consider the following statements regarding Quantum computing.

1. Quantum computer works on the principle of Superposition, which makes it possible for the qubit to
exist in both 0 and 1 state simultaneously.
2. As more qubits are added, the processing capability of the quantum computer increases exponentially.
3. Building a quantum computer requires very cold temperatures and extreme isolation.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: c)
Conventional computers store and process information in bits. A bit is the smallest unit of data that computers
can handle. It can take just two values — 0 or 1 — but only one of these at a time. A zero would result in a certain
set of instructions to be carried out, while a one would lead to a different set of instructions. All data in
computers, including text, pictures and videos, are broken down into a sequence of zeros and ones for purposes
of storage and processing, and can be reconstructed from these.
A two-bit system in a conventional computer can have four states — (0,0), (0,1), (1,0) and (1,1) — but again only
one at a time. To go through each of these four states, the computer has to take four steps. A more powerful
computer can speed up the process, but it would still have to go through the four steps.
This is where the quantum computer starts to do things differently. Superposition makes it possible for the
quantum bit, or a qubit as it is called, to exist in both 0 and 1 state simultaneously. Counter-intuitive as it may
appear, it can be 60 per cent 0 and 40 per cent 1 at the same time, or any other combination. Similarly, the two-
qubit system can be in all four states at the same time — some part (0,0), some part (0,1), some part (1,0) and
remaining (1,1). What it means is that a quantum computer can go through these four states in one step, unlike
the conventional computer that requires four steps.
As more qubits are added, the processing capability of the quantum computer increases exponentially. With
just a few qubits, say 50, quantum computers can outpace traditional computers that perform a couple of billion
operations per second.
Apart from the challenges in building a quantum computer — requirements of very cold temperatures and
extreme isolation — there is a significant risk of errors. The parallel processing happening in superposition states
all lead to different results, only one of which is correct or desirable. In other situations, when the superposition
breaks down, the final outcome is randomly selected from the range of possibilities.
5) Migraine is a disease caused by hypersensitive brain. Which of the following factors can trigger migraine?
1. Hunger or dehydration
2. Hormone fluctuations during periods and pregnancy
3. Diets containing ultra-processed foods
4. Bright lights
5. Strong smells like perfume or smoke
How many of the above options are correct?
a) Only two
b) Only three
c) Only four
d) All five
Solution: d)
Migraine is a disease of hypersensitivity: The migraine brain has abnormally sensitive neuronal connections.
Compared to people who don’t get migraines, this leaves migraineurs more likely to respond to small changes in
the environment, which can result in headaches or more serious migraine attacks. Migraine attacks are thought
to originate from abnormal electrical excitability in sensory neurons in the meninges, layers of membrane that
protect the brain.
When sensitized, these neurons send signals to the brain which trigger headache pain, photophobia, and other
migraine symptoms. These neurons are also close to blood vessels, which is why headaches can feel like they
pulse along with your heartbeat.
There are a huge range of migraine triggers and each person’s triggers can differ from the next. The most
common triggers are:
Bright lights and loud sounds. Strong smells like perfume, smoke, or certain smelly foods. Lack of sleep, poor
quality sleep, or jet lag. Hunger or dehydration. Too much caffeine. Alcohol, especially red wine. Hormone
fluctuations, such as before or during periods, pregnancy, or menopause. Foods and diet, especially diets
containing ultra-processed foods and processed sugars.

1. When compared to Earth, the moon is significantly depleted of volatile elements such as sodium.
2. Sodium is the only element that can be observed through telescopes in the lunar atmosphere.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a)
When compared to Earth, the moon is significantly depleted of volatile elements such as sodium. “The amount
of volatiles on the moon today can be used to test formation scenarios of the Earth-Moon system.
Sodium is the only element apart from potassium that can be observed through telescopes in the lunar
atmosphere (its exosphere).

1. Neurotoxicity occurs when exposure to natural or man-made toxic substances alters the normal activity
of the nervous system.
2. Neurotoxins directly attack the respiratory tract of the body, thereby overpowering the oxygen
concentration of the body.
3. Methane, carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide are not considered as neurotoxic gases.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
Neurotoxins are poisonous substances which can directly affect the nervous system. Neurotoxicity occurs when
exposure to natural or man-made toxic substances alters the normal activity of the nervous system. These
substances can eventually disrupt or even kill neurons or nerve cells, which are important for transmitting and
processing signals in the brain and other parts of the nervous system.
They directly attack the respiratory tract of the body, thereby overpowering the oxygen concentration of the
body and then the nervous system as well.
Methane, hydrogen sulphide, carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide are common neurotoxic gases.
While methane and carbon monoxide are odourless gases, hydrogen sulphide has a pungent odour and in higher
concentration it can be fatal for humans.

1. Aditya L-1 mission was carried into space by Launch Vehicle Mark-3.
2. One of the objectives of the Aditya L-1 mission is to examine coronal mass ejections (CMEs), which are
large expulsions of plasma and magnetic fields from the Sun’s corona.
3. While the corona is the Sun’s outermost layer, the chromosphere is just below it.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
How did the Aditya L-1 go into space?

The solar probe was carried into space by the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) in ‘XL’ configuration. PSLV is
one of the most reliable and versatile workhorse rockets of ISRO. Previous missions like Chandrayaan-1 in 2008
and Mangalyaan in 2013 were also launched using PSLV. The rocket is most powerful in the ‘XL’ configuration as it
is equipped with six extended strap-on boosters — they are larger than the boosters of other configurations and,
therefore, can carry heavier payloads.
PSLV-XL can lift 1,750 kg of payloads to the sun-synchronous polar orbit (spacecraft here are synchronised to
always be in the same ‘fixed’ position relative to the Sun), and much more — 3,800 kg — to a lower Earth orbit
(normally located at an altitude of less than 1,000 km but could be as low as 160 km above the planet). As Aditya
L-1 weighs 1,472 kg, it was launched aboard PSLV.
Notably, Chandrayaan-3 took off aboard LVM3, the most powerful rocket of ISRO, because it was more than two
times heavier than the solar probe.
What are the objectives of the Aditya L-1?

The mission’s main objective is to expand our knowledge of the Sun, and how its radiation, heat, flow of particles,
and magnetic fields affect us. Below is the list of other objectives that the mission will embark upon:
• To study the upper atmospheric layers of the Sun called chromosphere and corona. While the corona is the
outermost layer, the chromosphere is just below it.
• To examine coronal mass ejections (CMEs), which are large expulsions of plasma and magnetic fields from
the Sun’s corona.
• To analyse the corona’s magnetic field and the driver of the space weather.
• To understand why the Sun’s not-so-bright corona is a million degree Celsius hot when the temperature on
the surface of the Sun is just about 5,500 degree Celsius.
• To help scientists know the reasons behind the acceleration of particles on the Sun, which leads to the solar
wind — the constant flow of particles from the Sun.
Source
9) Consider the following statements regarding Non fungible tokens (NFTs).

1. Anything that can be converted into a digital form can be a Non fungible token.
2. Non fungible tokens are backed by Blockchain technology.
3. Anyone who holds a cryptocurrency wallet can buy an NFT.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: c)
What are NFTs?

Anything that can be converted into a digital form can be an NFT. Everything from your drawings, photos,
videos, GIF, music, in-game items, selfies, and even a tweet can be turned into an NFT, which can then be traded
online using cryptocurrency.
But what makes NFTs unique from other digital forms is that it is backed by Blockchain technology.
How do NFTs work?

NFT works on blockchain as it gives users complete ownership of a digital asset. For instance, if you’re a sketch
artist, and if you convert your digital asset to an NFT, what you get is proof of ownership, powered by Blockchain.
How is an NFT different from cryptocurrency?

NFTs and cryptocurrencies are very different from each other. While both are built on Blockchain, that is where
the similarity ends.
Cryptocurrency is a currency and is fungible, meaning that it is interchangeable. For instance, if you hold one
crypto token, say one Ethereum, the next Ethereum that you hold will also be of the same value. But NFTs are
non-fungible, that means the value of one NFT is not equal to another. Every art is different from other, making it
non fungible, and unique.
Anyone who holds a cryptocurrency wallet can buy an NFT.
10) Consider the following statements regarding Lagrange points.

1. There are more than ten Lagrange points between any two-celestial body system.
2. The points can be used as ‘parking spots’ for spacecraft in space to remain in a fixed position with
minimal fuel consumption.
3. Between the Earth and the Sun, a satellite can occupy any of the Lagrangian points.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
What are the Lagrange points?

There are five Lagrange points, L1 to L5, between any two-celestial body system. At these positions, the
gravitational pull of the celestial bodies equals the centripetal force required to keep a smaller third body in orbit.
In simpler words, the forces acting on the third body cancel each other out.
The points can be used as ‘parking spots’ for spacecraft in space to remain in a fixed position with minimal fuel
consumption, according to NASA. They have been named after Italian-French mathematician Joseph-Louis
Lagrange (1736-1813), who was the first one to find the positions.
So, between the Earth and the Sun, a satellite can occupy any of five Lagrangian points. “Of the five Lagrange
points, three are unstable and two are stable. The unstable Lagrange points – labelled L1, L2, and L3 – lie along
the line connecting the two large masses. The stable Lagrange points – labelled L4 and L5 – form the apex of two
equilateral triangles,” NASA explains. The L4 and L5 are also called Trojan points and celestial bodies like asteroids
are found here.
Source
11) Consider the following statements regarding Mixed Reality.

1. Mixed reality involves the blending of real and virtual worlds.
2. It combines aspects of both virtual reality (VR) and augmented reality (AR).
3. Physical and virtual objects cannot co-exist in mixed reality environments.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
Mixed reality or MR specifically, involves the blending of real and virtual worlds. Put simply, the MR experience
viewed in the head-mounted display combines aspects of both virtual reality (VR) and augmented reality (AR).
The idea is to connect real environments to completely virtual ones.
Physical and virtual objects may co-exist in mixed reality environments and interact in real time.
Mixed reality has been used in applications across fields including design, education, entertainment, military
training, healthcare, product content management, and human-in-the-loop operation of robots.

1. Quantum Technology is based on the principles of quantum theory, which explains the nature of
energy and matter on the atomic and subatomic level.
2. National Mission on Quantum Technologies & Applications (NM-QTA) is being implemented by the
Department of Science & Technology (DST).
3. In India, the Centre has declared quantum technology as a “mission of national importance”.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: c)
Quantum Technology is based on the principles of quantum theory, which explains the nature of energy and
matter on the atomic and subatomic level. It concerns the control and manipulation of quantum systems, with
the goal of achieving information processing beyond the limits of the classical world.
In 2019, the Centre declared quantum technology a “mission of national importance”. The government in its
budget 2020 also announced a National Mission on Quantum Technologies & Applications (NM-QTA) for a
period of five years to be implemented by the Department of Science & Technology (DST).
13) The most common chemicals used for cloud seeding are
1. Silver iodide
2. Potassium iodide
3. Dry ice
4. Sodium Chloride
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Solution: d)
The most common chemicals used for cloud seeding include silver iodide, potassium iodide and dry ice. After
promising research, the use of hygroscopic materials, such as table salt (Sodium Chloride), is becoming more
popular.
14) Consider the following statements regarding Backscatter scanner.

1. Backscatter X-ray detects the radiation that reflects from the target.
2. It can operate only if two side of the target is available for examination.
3. A backscatter scanner cannot detect substances such as plastic.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: a)
Backscatter X-ray is an advanced X-ray imaging technology. Traditional X-ray machines detect hard and soft
materials by the variation in x-ray intensity transmitted through the target. In contrast, backscatter X-ray detects
the radiation that reflects from the target. It has potential applications where less-destructive examination is
required, and can operate even if only one side of the target is available for examination.
The technology is one of two types of whole-body imaging technologies that have been used to perform full-body
scans of airline passengers to detect hidden weapons, tools, liquids, narcotics, currency, and other contraband.
A backscatter scanner can detect substances such as plastic and is being used in airports abroad.
Source Source
15) Consider the following statements regarding Millimeter wave scanner.

1. It is one of the common technologies of full body scanner used for body imaging.
2. It uses a form of electromagnetic radiation.
3. It cannot detect objects concealed underneath a person’s clothing.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
A millimeter wave scanner is a whole-body imaging device used for detecting objects concealed underneath a
person’s clothing using a form of electromagnetic radiation. Typical uses for this technology include detection of
items for commercial loss prevention, smuggling, and screening for weapons at government buildings and airport
security checkpoints. It is one of the common technologies of full body scanner used for body imaging.
Source Source
16) Between the Earth and the Sun, a satellite can occupy any of five Lagrangian points. In this regard, consider
the following statements regarding Lagrangian points.
1. L1 gets a continuous and unhindered view of the Sun.
2. L2 is located behind the Earth, and thus obstructs the view of the Sun.
3. L4 and L5 are good and stable locations but are much farther from Earth compared to L1.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: c)
L1 gets a continuous and unhindered view of the Sun. L2 is located behind the Earth, and thus obstructs the view
of the Sun, while L3 is behind the Sun which is not a great position to communicate with Earth. L4 and L5 are good
and stable locations but are much farther from Earth compared to L1, which is directly between the Sun and the
Earth.
Source

1. In India, the National Cancer Awareness Day coincides with the birth anniversary of C.V. Raman.
2. The discovery of radium and polonium, are known as the two most significant contributors to the fight
against cancer.
3. Nuclear energy radiotherapy is one of the most widely used therapies for cancer treatment.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
National Cancer Awareness Day focuses on creating awareness of early diagnosis, precautions and treatment of
Cancer. India began National Cancer Control Programme in 1975, focusing on establishing cancer treatment
facilities in the nation. In 1984-85, the vision changed to focus on the early detection and prevention of cancer.
National Cancer Awareness Day was first announced in September 2014. This day coincides with the birth
anniversary of the Nobel Prize winner Marie Curie, a scientist born in 1867.
She discovered radium and polonium, which are known as the two most significant contributors to the fight
against cancer. Marie Curie’s work and discovery led to the development of nuclear energy radiotherapy that
helps with cancer treatments.
18) Consider the following statements regarding stem cells.

1. They can divide over and over again to produce new cells.
2. As they divide, they can change into the other types of cell that make up the body.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c)
A stem cell is a cell with the unique ability to develop into specialised cell types in the body. In the future they
may be used to replace cells and tissues that have been damaged or lost due to disease.
Stem cells provide new cells for the body as it grows, and replace specialised cells that are damaged or lost. They
have two unique properties that enable them to do this:
• They can divide over and over again to produce new cells.
• As they divide, they can change into the other types of cell that make up the body.

1. Unlike nuclear fission which splits atomic nuclei, the nuclear fusion mimics the sun's energy
production by merging two nuclei.
2. Nuclear fission offers a safer and more abundant energy source than nuclear fusion.
3. Recently India has unveiled the world's largest operational experimental nuclear fusion reactor.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: a)
Japan has unveiled the world's largest operational experimental nuclear fusion reactor. This colossal machine,
dubbed JT-60SA, is housed in a hangar north of Tokyo in Naka, and represents a pivotal moment in the quest for
clean and limitless power.
Unlike traditional nuclear fission used in power plants, which splits atomic nuclei, fusion mimics the sun's
energy production by merging two nuclei, potentially offering a safer and more abundant energy source.
Fusion energy stands out for its safety advantages over fission, as it carries no risk of catastrophic accidents like
the Fukushima disaster in 2011 and generates minimal radioactive waste.
Source
6. International Relations and Organisations

1) MARPOL Convention, sometimes seen in news is related to
a) Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination against Women
b) Prevention of Pollution from Ships
c) Prevention of Transnational Organized Crime
d) Sustainable Development
Solution: b)
The International Convention for the Prevention of Pollution from Ships (MARPOL) is the main international
convention covering prevention of pollution of the marine environment by ships from operational or accidental
causes.
The MARPOL Convention was adopted on 2 November 1973 at IMO.
The Convention includes regulations aimed at preventing and minimizing pollution from ships - both accidental
pollution and that from routine operations.
2) Consider the following statements regarding the membership change in the United Nations Security
Council (UNSC).
1. Changing the membership of the Council requires amending the UN Charter.
2. It involves consent of one-third of the total membership of the UN, including the concurring votes of
permanent members of the UN Security Council.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: b)
How will membership change?

• Amendment: Changing the membership of the Council requires amending the Charter.
• Two-third of total membership: It involves consent of two-thirds of the total membership of the UN,
including the concurring votes of P-5.
• Veto power: Each of the five has a veto.
• Non-permanent seats: The Charter was amended once in the 1960s to enlarge the Council by additional non-
permanent seats.

1. United Nations Charter provides for collective self-defence if an armed attack occurs against a Member
of the United Nations.
2. International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights provides that a group of people can freely
determine their political status.
3. The principle of non-intervention is one of the core principles of the United Nations.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: c)
Article 51 of the UN Charter (which provides for self-defence against an armed attack).
Article 1 of the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights and the International Covenant on Economic,
Social and Cultural Rights, provides that a group of people can freely determine their political status. But this
right has to be read with Article 2 of the UN Charter which lists the principle of non-intervention as one of the
seven core principles of the UN.
4) The UNESCO Intangible Cultural Heritage can be manifested in which of the following domains?
1. Traditional craftsmanship
2. Social practices
3. Oral traditions and expressions
4. Knowledge and practices concerning nature
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Solution: d)
An intangible cultural heritage (ICH) is a practice, representation, expression, knowledge, or skill considered
by UNESCO to be part of a place's cultural heritage.
It is sometimes called living cultural heritage, and is manifested in the following domains, among others:
• Oral traditions and expressions, including language as a vehicle of the intangible cultural heritage;
• Performing arts;
• Social practices, rituals and festive events;
• Knowledge and practices concerning nature and the universe;
• Traditional craftsmanship
5) Consider the following statements regarding the roles and functions of UN General Assembly (UNGA).
1. All the decisions including admission of new members and budgetary matters are made through voting
and require a two-thirds majority.
2. Each sovereign state gets one vote and the votes are binding on the membership.
3. UNGA has no binding veto powers like the UN Security Council.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: a)
Roles and functions of UNGA:

• Takes a decision on important matters: such as peace and security, discusses various global issues and
budgetary matters.
• Admission of members: Decides on matters such as the admission of new members.
• Decisions are taken through a vote.
• Voting by majority: Admission of new members and budgetary matters require a two-thirds
majority, while the decision on other issues are taken by a simple majority.
• One vote one country: Each sovereign state gets one vote and the votes are not binding on the
membership, except in budgetary matters.
• No binding veto powers: The Assembly has no binding votes or veto powers like the UN Security
Council.
• Opinion and recommendations: The UNGA can express world opinion, promote international cooperation
in various fields and make recommendations to the UNSC and elect the Security Council’s non-permanent
members.
6) Which of the following are recognised as "Three Sisters" by the World Trade Organization's (WTO) Sanitary
and Phytosanitary Measures (SPS) Agreement?
1. International Plant Protection Convention (IPPC)
2. Codex Alimentarius Commission
3. Pacific Plant Protection Organization
4. World Organization for Animal Health (OIE)
a) 2, 4
b) 1, 2, 4
c) 2, 3, 4
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: b)
The International Plant Protection Convention (IPPC) is one of the "Three Sisters" recognized by the World Trade
Organization's (WTO) Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures (SPS) Agreement, along with the Codex Alimentarius
Commission for food safety standards and the World Organization for Animal Health (OIE) for animal health
standards.
7) Consider the following statements regarding Intergovernmental Science-Policy Platform on Biodiversity and
Ecosystem Services (IPBES).
1. The Intergovernmental Science-Policy Platform on Biodiversity and Ecosystem Services (IPBES) is a
United Nations body that strengthen the science-policy interface for biodiversity and ecosystem services.
2. It is intended to serve a similar role to the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change.
3. United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) provides secretariat services to IPBES.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
• The Intergovernmental Science-Policy Platform on Biodiversity and Ecosystem Services (IPBES) is an

independent intergovernmental body established by States to strengthen the science-policy interface for
biodiversity and ecosystem services for the conservation and sustainable use of biodiversity, long-term
human well-being and sustainable development.
• It was established in Panama City, on 21 April 2012 by 94 Governments.
• It is not a United Nations body. However, at the request of the IPBES Plenary and with the authorization of
the UNEP Governing Council in 2013, the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) provides
secretariat services to IPBES. It is intended to serve a similar role to the Intergovernmental Panel on
Climate Change.
8) Consider the following statements regarding Stapled visa.

1. A 'stapled visa' is an unstamped piece of paper that is attached by a pin or staples to a page of the
passport.
2. Like a regular visa, Stapled visa cannot be torn off or detached at will.
3. The Chinese government reportedly issues 'stapled visas' to Indian citizens from Arunachal Pradesh.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 3 only
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: b)
A 'stapled visa' is an unstamped piece of paper that is attached by a pin or staples to a page of the
passport instead of being stamped directly in the passport. Unlike a regular visa, this piece of paper, without any
stamp by the issuing authority, can be torn off or detached at will.
The Chinese government reportedly issues 'stapled visas' to Indian citizens from Arunachal Pradesh because it
does not recognise India’s claim over the state.
9) Green Grids Initiative (GGI) and One Sun One World One Grid (OSOWOG) were initiated by
a) Japan
b) United States
c) European Union
d) India
Solution: d)
India’s own initiatives include the Green Grids Initiative (GGI) and One Sun One World One Grid (OSOWOG).
Source

1. National Investment and Infrastructure Fund (NIIF) is India’s first state-backed wealth fund.
2. National Investment and Infrastructure Fund (NIIF) and the Japan Bank for International Cooperation
(JBIC) launched a multi-million-dollar fund to invest in sustainability projects in India.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c)
India’s quasi-sovereign wealth fund, the National Investment and Infrastructure Fund (NIIF), and the Japan
Bank for International Cooperation (JBIC) launched a $600-million fund to invest in sustainability projects.
JBIC will contribute 51% of that figure, and India the rest, the Indian government said in a statement.
The India-Japan Fund will target investment in sustainable projects in areas such as renewable energy, e-mobility
and waste management, the NIIF, launched in 2015 as India’s first state-backed fund.
Source
11) Which of the following countries are part of ‘Chip 4 Alliance’?

1. India
2. United States
3. Japan
4. Australia
5. Taiwan
6. South Korea
a) 1, 2, 3, 4
b) 1, 3, 5, 6
c) 2, 3, 5, 6
d) 1, 4, 5, 6
Solution: c)
South Korea waited almost a year before reluctantly joining an initiative proposed by President Biden last year to
form a semiconductor “Chip 4” alliance with the United States, Japan and Taiwan.
Source
12) Consider the following statements regarding Financial Action Task Force (FATF).
1. Financial Action Task Force (FATF) is a United Nations affiliated watchdog monitoring money
laundering, terror financing, and other threats to global financial networks.
2. The FATF grey list signals to international financial and banking systems that there are increased risks in
transacting with the country in grey list.
3. To get out of the grey list, the country has to fulfil tasks recommended by the FATF, such as
confiscating properties of individuals associated with terrorist groups.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
FATF is an international watchdog monitoring money laundering, terror financing, and other threats to global
financial networks. The grey list signals to international financial and banking systems that there are increased
risks in transacting with the country in question, impacting the country’s economic growth. To get out of the
grey list, a country has to fulfil tasks recommended by the FATF, such as confiscating properties of individuals
associated with terrorist groups.

1. The United Nations Convention on the Rights of the Child (UNCRC) is a legally-binding international
agreement setting out the civil, political, economic, social and cultural rights of every child.
2. India has signed, but has not yet ratified the United Nations Convention on the Rights of the
Child (UNCRC).
3. Presently, India’s Right to Education Act covers children from 6 to 18 years of age.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: a)
The United Nations Convention on the Rights of the Child (UNCRC) is a legally-binding international agreement
setting out the civil, political, economic, social and cultural rights of every child, regardless of their race, religion
or abilities.
In 1992, India ratified the United Nations Convention on the Rights of the Child, which called for its signatories
to “ensure to the maximum extent possible the survival and development of the child".
Presently, the country’s Right to Education Act covers children from 6 to 14 years of age.
14) Consider the following statements regarding the recently inaugurated Southeast Asia’s first high-speed
railway.
1. It is a key project under India’s Act East Policy.
2. The railway connects Jakarta with Bandung.
3. It runs on electrical energy, which is expected to reduce carbon emissions.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
Indonesian President Joko Widodo inaugurated Southeast Asia’s first high-speed railway, a key project under
China’s Belt and Road infrastructure initiative.
The railway connects Jakarta with Bandung, the heavily populated capital of West Java province, and will cut
travel time between the cities from the current three hours to about 40 minutes. Its use of electrical energy is
expected to reduce carbon emissions.
Source
15) The northern provinces of Shanxi, Henan and Inner Mongolia mine were recently in news. They were
associated with
a) Iron
b) Uranium
c) Lignite
d) Coal
Solution: d)
China has more than 15 lakh coal miners who produce over 85 per cent of its coal, accounting for half of the
world’s output. Meanwhile, the northern provinces of Shanxi, Henan and Inner Mongolia mine more than a
quarter of the world’s coal and employ 32 per cent of the global mining workforce, approximately 8,70,400
people.
India, the world’s second-largest coal producer, has a workforce approximately half the size of Shanxi.
Source
16) Which of the following countries resumed commercial flights for the first time in a decade?
a) Somalia and Egypt
b) Sudan and South Africa
c) Italy and Libya
d) Italy and Egypt
Solution: c)
Italy and war-torn Libya resumed commercial flights for the first time in a decade.
Source

1. A first-of-its-kind global summit on Traditional Medicine was held in India and was organised by the
World Health Organization (WHO).
2. The “Gujarat declaration, the main outcome the global summit on Traditional Medicine, aims to
enhance the appropriate integration of traditional medicine into national health systems.
3. Traditional medicine is important for preventing and treating non-communicable diseases.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: c)
A year after the WHO Global Centre for Traditional Medicine was set up in India, the country hosted the first
global summit, alongside the G20 ministerial meeting of the health track, with an aim to help identify areas of
collaboration in traditional medicine.
A first-of-its-kind global summit on Traditional Medicine, was organised by the World Health Organization
(WHO) and co-hosted by the Ministry of Ayush.
There is a growing demand for traditional medicine across countries, communities and cultures. Traditional,
complementary and integrative medicine is especially important for preventing and treating non-
communicable diseases, for mental health, and for healthy aging.
“Gujarat declaration, the main outcome of this global summit, will enhance the appropriate integration of
traditional medicine into national health systems”.
Source
18) Consider the following statements regarding World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO).
1. The World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO) is one of the 15 specialized agencies of the United
Nations (UN).
2. WIPO was established under TRIPS agreement as a global forum for intellectual property (IP) services.
3. The predecessor to WIPO was the United International Bureaux for the Protection of Intellectual
Property.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
WIPO is the global forum for intellectual property (IP) services, policy, information and cooperation.
Our mission is to lead the development of a balanced and effective international IP system that enables
innovation and creativity for the benefit of all. Our mandate, governing bodies and procedures are set out in
the WIPO Convention, which established WIPO in 1967.
The predecessor to WIPO was the United International Bureaux for the Protection of Intellectual Property,
which had been established in 1893 to administer the Berne Convention for the Protection of Literary and
Artistic Works and the Paris Convention for the Protection of Industrial Property.
WIPO was formally created by the Convention Establishing the World Intellectual Property Organization, which
entered into force on 26 April 1970. That date is commemorated annually as World Intellectual Property Day,
which raises awareness of the importance of IP.
19) Consider the following statements regarding United Nations Democracy Fund (UNDEF).
1. The large majority of UNDEF funds go to local civil society organizations.
2. UNDEF subsists entirely on voluntary contributions from Governments.
3. UNDEF falls under the direct authority of the UN Secretary-General.
4. India is among the top ten biggest UNDEF donor countries.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Solution: d)
UNDEF was created by UN Secretary-General Kofi A. Annan in 2005 as a United Nations General Trust Fund to support
democratization efforts around the world.
UNDEF funds projects that empower civil society, promote human rights, and encourage the participation of all groups
in democratic processes. The large majority of UNDEF funds go to local civil society organizations.
UNDEF subsists entirely on voluntary contributions from Governments.
India is among the top contributors to the UN Democracy Fund (UNDEF) whose mission is to promote
democracy across the world through local and international NGOs and civil society organisations (CSOs). Since
UNDEF’s inception in 2005, India has contributed over $32 million to it and remains its fourth largest contributor.
As a secretary-General's Trust Fund located within the UN Secretariat, UNDEF falls under the direct authority of
the UN Secretary-General. The secretary-general is guided by the UNDEF Advisory Board, which consists of the
seven biggest UNDEF donor countries—as of 2010, the United States, India, Japan, Qatar, Germany, Australia and
Spain.
20) Which of the following countries are members of Colombo Security Conclave (CSC)?
1. India
2. Sri Lanka
3. Mauritius
4. Bangladesh
5. Maldives
a) Only two
b) Only three
c) Only four
d) All five
Solution: c)
Option 4 is incorrect.
In early December, India’s National Security Adviser (NSA), Ajit Doval, took part in the sixth NSA meeting of the
Colombo Security Conclave (CSC). The meeting reviewed the developments and progress made by the CSC in
the last year and agreed upon a road map for the year 2024 to promote a safe, secure, and stable Indian Ocean.
The meeting also included member-states, Mauritius and Sri Lanka, and observer-states, Bangladesh and
Seychelles. The Maldives, now under a new dispensation, was the only member-state that was absent.
Source
21) Cape Town Convention (CTC), sometimes seen in news is related to

a) Sustainable Development Goals
b) Ethical principles regarding human experimentation
c) Financing and leasing of aircraft, engines, and spare parts
d) Protect human health and the environment from anthropogenic emissions and releases of mercury
Solution: c)
Cape Town Convention (CTC) is a 2001 treaty designed to smooth the growth of aviation by protecting the
repossession rights of aircraft. The CTC treaty eases the financing and leasing of aircraft, engines, and spare
parts by reducing lessors' risk and expanding legal predictability in these transactions, including the case of
insolvency.
India acceded to the CTC in 2018 but has not been ratified by the Parliament yet. As a result Indian law prohibits
any such recoveries once bankruptcy proceedings are initiated for a company, lawyers, and industry.
India has made it easier for lessors to take back planes if airlines default on payments after joining an
international treaty known as the Cape Town Convention. But lack of proper legislation to enforce the treaty
means India's bankruptcy law will supersede lessors' repossession requests.
7. Polity
1. The term ‘bail’ has been expressly defined in the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) and also
differentiates between “bailable” and “non-bailable” offenses.
2. Interim bail is given when an anticipatory bail application is pending before the court.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a)
Black’s Law Dictionary describes ‘bail’ as procuring “the release of a person from legal custody, by undertaking
that he shall appear at the time and place designated and submit himself to the jurisdiction and judgment of the
court.”
Although “bail” has not been expressly defined in Indian statutes, the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC)
differentiates between “bailable” and “non-bailable” offenses. It also defines three kinds of bail that can be
granted — regular bail under Sections 437 and 439; interim bail or short-term bail which is given when regular
or anticipatory bail application is pending before the court; and anticipatory or pre-arrest bail.
The provision for “anticipatory bail” was introduced under Section 438 of the CrPC after the 41st Law Commission
Report in 1969 recommended the need for a measure that protects against arbitrary violation of one’s personal
liberty, such as when politicians detain their opponents in false cases.

1. If at any time, except when both Houses of Parliament are in session, the President may promulgate an
Ordinance if he is satisfied that circumstances exist which render it necessary for him to take immediate action.
2. An Ordinance shall not have the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament.
3. The government is required to bring an Ordinance before Parliament for ratification, and failure to do
so will lead to its lapsing at the expiration of six weeks from the reassembly of Parliament.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
Under Article 123 of the Constitution (“Power of President to promulgate Ordinances during recess of
Parliament”), “if at any time, except when both Houses of Parliament are in session, the President is satisfied
that circumstances exist which render it necessary for him to take immediate action, he may promulgate such
Ordinances as the circumstances appear to him to require.”
An Ordinance “shall have the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament”. But the government is required to
bring an Ordinance before Parliament for ratification — and failure to do so will lead to its lapsing “at the
expiration of six weeks from the reassembly of Parliament”.
The Ordinance may lapse earlier if the President withdraws it — or if both Houses pass resolutions disapproving
it. (Rejection of an Ordinance would, however, imply the government has lost majority.)
Also, if an Ordinance makes a law that Parliament is not competent to enact under the Constitution, it shall be
considered void.
Source
3) Consider the following statements regarding Anticipatory bail.

1. Anticipatory bail can be granted by the High Court or the Court of Session.
2. It is granted for non-bailable offenses for which one anticipates arrest, even if the actual arrest has not
happened or the FIR has not been registered.
3. Before granting Anticipatory bail, the court can impose the condition that the person shall not leave
India without the previous permission of the court.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: c)
Anticipatory bail can be granted under Section 438, when “any person has reason to believe that he may be
arrested on an accusation of having committed a non-bailable offence”. It can be granted by the High Court or
the Court of Session, under this section, for non-bailable offenses for which one anticipates arrest, even if the
actual arrest has not happened or the FIR has not been registered.
While granting anticipatory bail, the Sessions Court or High Court can impose the conditions laid down in sub-
section (2) like,
(i) the person shall make himself available for interrogation by a police officer as and when required.
(ii) the person cannot make any inducement, threat, or promise, directly or indirectly, to any person acquainted
with the facts of the case to dissuade him from disclosing them to the court or the police.
(iii) the person shall not leave India without the previous permission of the court.
(iv) such other conditions may be imposed under sub-section (3) of section 437 “as if the bail were granted under
that section”.
4) Consider the following statements regarding Bar Council of India (BCI).

1. The BCI is a statutory body established under the Advocates Act, 1961.
2. It regulates legal practice and legal education in India.
3. As per the rules framed by the BCI, foreign lawyers and law firms are not allowed to practice in India.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
In a move that could potentially change the landscape of legal practice in the country, the Bar Council of India
(BCI) has allowed foreign lawyers and law firms to practise in India. Although they cannot appear in court, they
can advise clients on foreign law and work on corporate transactions.
The BCI notified in the official gazette the Rules for Registration and Regulation of Foreign Lawyers and Foreign
Law Firms in India, 2022.
The BCI is a statutory body established under the Advocates Act, 1961, and it regulates legal practice and legal
education in India.
Now, the BCI has reasoned that its move will address concerns about the flow of Foreign Direct Investment in the
country and make India a hub of International Commercial Arbitration.
5) In legislative parlance, the term “guillotine” is used in the context of

a) Passage of private member’s bill
b) Passage of financial business
c) Passage of Motion of Thanks
d) Passage of no confidence motion
Solution: b)
In legislative parlance, to “guillotine” means to bunch together and fast-track the passage of financial business.
It is a fairly common procedural exercise in Lok Sabha during the Budget Session.
After the Budget is presented, Parliament goes into recess for about three weeks, during which time the House
Standing Committees examine Demands for Grants for various Ministries, and prepare reports. After Parliament
reassembles, the Business Advisory Committee (BAC) draws up a schedule for discussions on the Demands for
Grants. Given the limitation of time, the House cannot take up the expenditure demands of all Ministries;
therefore, the BAC identifies some important Ministries for discussions.
It usually lists Demands for Grants of the Ministries of Home, Defence, External Affairs, Agriculture, Rural
Development and Human Resource Development. Members utilise the opportunity to discuss the policies and
working of Ministries.
Once the House is done with these debates, the Speaker applies the “guillotine”, and all outstanding demands
for grants are put to vote at once. This usually happens on the last day earmarked for the discussion on the
Budget. The intention is to ensure timely passage of the Finance Bill, marking the completion of the legislative
exercise with regard to the Budget.
6) The Supreme Court’s ruling in Lily Thomas v Union of India case is related to
a) Right to life under Article 21
b) National Judicial Appointments Commission
c) Disqualification of Member of Parliament
d) Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition
Solution: c)
As per Section 8(3) of the Representation of the People Act of 1951, conviction of a lawmaker for an offence with
a two-year sentence or more leads to disqualification from the House.
Section 8(4) of the RPA said that the disqualification takes effect only “after three months have elapsed” from the
date of conviction. Within that period, the convicted lawmaker could have filed an appeal against the sentence
before a higher court.
However, this provision was struck down as “unconstitutional” in the Supreme Court’s landmark 2013 ruling in
‘Lily Thomas v Union of India’.
7) The Representation of the People Act, 1951 provides which of the following?
1. Qualifications and disqualifications for membership of Legislature of each State
2. Conduct of election to the Houses of Parliament
3. The corrupt practices and other offences in connection with elections to State Legislature.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: c)
The Representation of the People Act, 1951 is an act of Parliament of India to provide for the conduct of
election of the Houses of Parliament and to the House or Houses of the Legislature of each State, the
qualifications and disqualifications for membership of those Houses, the corrupt practices and other offences at
or in connection with such elections and the decision of doubts and disputes arising out of or in connection with
such elections. It was introduced in Parliament by law minister Dr BR Ambedkar.
8) Consider the following statements regarding Solicitor General of India (SGI).

1. The Solicitor General of India (SGI) is the second-highest law officer of the country.
2. The Solicitor General of India (SGI) is subordinate to the Attorney General for India.
3. The post of Solicitor General of India (SGI) is a constitutional post.
4. The Solicitor General of India (SGI) is appointed by the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC).
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Solution: c)
The Solicitor General of India (SGI) is subordinate to the Attorney General for India. They are the second-
highest law officer of the country. However, unlike the post of Attorney General for India, which is a
Constitutional post under Article 76 of the Constitution of India, the posts of the Solicitor General and the
Additional Solicitors General are merely statutory.
Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC) recommends the appointment and officially appoints the
Solicitor General.
9) The Constitution of India confers which of the following rights to the Attorney General of India?
1. He has the right to speak and take part in the proceedings of either House of Parliament.
2. He can take part in the joint sitting of both the Houses of Parliament.
3. He is entitled to vote in both the Houses of Parliament.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
Under Article 88, the “Attorney-General of India shall have the right to speak in, and otherwise to take part in
the proceedings of, either House, any joint sitting of the Houses, and any committee of Parliament of which he
may be named a member”. However, he “shall not by virtue of this article be entitled to vote” in the House.
10) Consider the following statements regarding Parliamentary Committees in India.

1. Presiding Officers of the House cannot refer a matter to a Parliamentary Committee, without
consulting the leaders of parties in the House.
2. An invitation to appear before a Parliamentary Committee is equivalent to a summons from a court.
3. Reports of Departmentally Related Standing Committees are recommendatory in nature.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
Presiding Officers use their discretion to refer a matter to a Parliamentary Committee, but this is usually done in
consultation with leaders of parties in the House.
An invitation to appear before a Parliamentary Committee is equivalent to a summons from a court: If one
cannot come, he or she has to give reasons, which the panel may or may not accept. However, the chairman
should have the support of the majority of the members to summon a witness.
Reports of Departmentally Related Standing Committees are recommendatory in nature. They are not binding
on the government, but they do carry significant weight. In the past, governments have accepted suggestions
given by the Committees and incorporated them into the Bill after it has come back to the House for
consideration and passage. These panels also examine policy issues in their respective Ministries and make
suggestions to the government. The government has to report back on whether these recommendations have
been accepted. Based on this, the Committees table Action Taken Reports, detailing the status of the
government’s action on each recommendation.
11) Article 340 of the Constitution of India provides for the appointment of a Commission to investigate the
conditions for the improvement of
a) Women and Children
b) Disabled population
c) Transgender Persons
d) Backward Classes
Solution: d)
Article 340 of the Constitution of India provides for the appointment of a Commission to investigate the
conditions for the improvement of backward classes.
The President may by order appoint a Commission comprising of such persons that he thinks fit to investigate the
conditions and background of socially and educationally backward classes that lie within the territory of India.
Article 340 of the Constitution resulted in two Backward Classes commissions:

• Kaka Kalelkar Commission (1953-1955)
• Mandal Commission (1978-80)
12) Consider the following statements regarding Split verdict delivered by Supreme Court.
1. A split verdict is passed when the Supreme Court Bench cannot decide one way or the other in a case,
either by a unanimous decision or by a majority verdict.
2. Split verdicts can happen even when the Bench has an odd number of judges.
3. In case of a split verdict, the case is heard by a larger Bench.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
A split verdict is passed when the Bench cannot decide one way or the other in a case, either by a unanimous
decision or by a majority verdict. Split verdicts can only happen when the Bench has an even number of judges.
This is why judges usually sit in Benches of odd numbers (three, five, seven, etc.) for important cases, even though
two-judge Benches — known as Division Benches — are not uncommon.
In case of a split verdict, the case is heard by a larger Bench.

The larger Bench to which a split verdict goes can be a three-judge Bench of the High Court, or an appeal can be
preferred before the Supreme Court.

1. As per Census 2011, more than three-fourth of India’s population was below 35 years of age.
2. The average age of MPs in the Lok Sabha has risen from the First Lok Sabha (1952-57) to the 17th Lok
Sabha (2019-2023).
3. The number of women candidates in the Lok Sabha has dropped from the First Lok Sabha (1952-57) to
the 17th Lok Sabha (2019-2023).
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: a)
As per Census 2011, about 66% of India’s population was below 35 years of age. Given the dwindling number of
young MPs, the average age in the Lok Sabha has risen over the years — from 46.5 years in the First Lok Sabha
(1952-57) to 55 years in the 17th (2019-2023).
Correspondingly, the number of women candidates has also risen, from just 45 in the 1957 Lok Sabha elections
(the second) to 726 in 2019. However, their share in the Lok Sabha ranks remains low. In the first Lok Sabha
(1951), there were 22 women MPs, 4.41% of the total 489. In 1957, 27 women got elected out of 494 total. The
figure of 78 elected in the 2019 Lok Sabha elections is the highest ever, but it is still only 14.36% of the total.
Source

1. As per The Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of the Deputy
Speaker shall be held on such date as the President may fix.
2. Usually, the Deputy Speaker is elected soon after the election of the Speaker.
3. Speaker or Deputy Speaker shall vacate his office if he ceases to be a Member of the House of the
People.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
As per The Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of the Deputy Speaker “shall
be held on such date as the Speaker may fix”, once a motion proposing his name is carried. In Article 179 for
state legislatures, the Speaker or Deputy Speaker “shall vacate his office if he ceases to be a Member of the
House of the People”.
Usually, the Deputy Speaker is elected soon after the election of the Speaker.
Source
15) Consider the following statements regarding Money Bill.

1. Article 110 of the Constitution deals with Money Bills.
2. Money Bill deals with the appropriation of public funds from only the Consolidated Fund of India.
3. The union budget cannot be considered as a money bill.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: a)
Article 110 of the Constitution deals with Money Bills. A money bill is a bill that, in the opinion of the Speaker of
the Lok Sabha, deals with taxation or the appropriation of public funds — the Consolidated Fund of India or the
Contingency Fund of India. A money bill can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha, and the Speaker categorising a
bill as a “money bill” means that it need not be passed by the Rajya Sabha. The union budget, for example, is a
money bill.
Source
16) Which of the following provision are included under Money Bill?
1. The regulation of the borrowing of money or the giving of any guarantee by the Government of India.
2. Custody of the consolidated Fund or the Contingency Fund of India
3. Imposition of fines or other pecuniary penalties
4. Regulation of any tax by any local authority
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Solution: b)
Statement 1 and 2 is correct.
Article 110: Definition of Money Bill

(1) For the purposes of this Chapter, a Bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions dealing
with all or any of the following matters, namely
(a) the imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax;
(b) the regulation of the borrowing of money or the giving of any guarantee by the Government of India, or the
amendment of the law with respect to any financial obligations undertaken or to be undertaken by the
Government of India;
(c) the custody of the consolidated Fund or the Contingency Fund of India, the payment of moneys into or the
withdrawal of moneys from any such Fund;
(d) the appropriation of moneys out of the consolidated Fund of India;
(e) the declaring of any expenditure to be expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India or the
increasing of the amount of any such expenditure;
(f) the receipt of money on account of the Consolidated Fund of India or the public account of India or the custody
or issue of such money or the audit of the accounts of the Union or of a State; or
(g) any matter incidental to any of the matters specified in sub clause (a) to (f)
(2) A Bill shall not be deemed to be a Money Bill by reason only that it provides for the imposition of fines or
other pecuniary penalties, or for the demand or payment of fees for licences or fees for services rendered, or by
reason that it provides for the imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax by any local
authority or body for local purposes
Source

1. The Governor is the head of the state’s executive power, and acts only on the advice of the council of
ministers on all matters.
2. While the Governor does not have to seek anyone’s advice while appointing the Chief Minister, he can
appoint a minister only on the recommendation of the Chief Minister.
3. The Governor can determine the time needed for a party to prove its majority or which party must be
called first to do so, in a hung Assembly.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
The position, role, powers, and conditions of office of the Governor are described in Articles 153-161 of the
Constitution. The position of Governor is similar to that of the President at the Union. He is at the head of the
state’s executive power, and barring some matters, acts on the advice of the council of ministers, which is
responsible, in accordance with the parliamentary system, to the state legislature.
The Governor is appointed by the President (on the advice of the central government) and, therefore, acts as the
vital link between the Union and the state governments.
The Governor enjoys certain powers such as giving or withholding assent to a Bill passed by the state legislature
or determining the time needed for a party to prove its majority — or which party must be called first to do so,
generally after in a hung Assembly.
“Article 164(1) deals with the appointment of the Chief Minister and other ministers. While the Governor does
not have to seek anyone’s advice while appointing the Chief Minister, he can appoint a minister only on the
recommendation of the Chief Minister. The Governor has no power to pick anyone he chooses to make a
minister. He can appoint a minister only on the advice of the Chief Minister.”
8. History, Art and Culture

1) Consider the following statements regarding Tibetan Buddhism.
1. Buddhism in Tibet evolved from the Mahayana and Vajrayana traditions of Buddhism.
2. It incorporated many tantric and shamanic practices of post-Gupta period Buddhism in India.
3. Nyingma, Kagyu, Sakya and Gelug are the major schools of Tibetan Buddhism.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: c)
Buddhism became the predominant religion in Tibet by the 9th century AD. It evolved from the Mahayana and
Vajrayana traditions of Buddhism, incorporating many tantric and shamanic practices of both post-Gupta
period Buddhism in India as well as the Bon religion which was spread across Tibet before Buddhism’s arrival.
Tibetan Buddhism has four major schools: Nyingma (8th century), Kagyu (11th century), Sakya (1073), and
Gelug (1409). The Janang school (12th century) is one of the smaller schools that grew as an offshoot of the Sakya
school. Since 1640, the Gelug school has been the predominant school of Tibetan Buddhism. The Dalai Lama
belongs to this school.
2) Vaikom Satyagraha, a nonviolent agitation during 1924 was related to

a) Educated middle-class movement
b) Peasant agitation
c) Tribal Uprising
d) Temple entry movement
Solution: d)
On March 30, 1924, in the temple town of Vaikom in the princely state of Travancore, a non-violent agitation
started, marking the beginning of “temple entry movements” across the country.
At the time, caste discrimination and untouchability was rife across India, with some of the most rigid and
dehumanising norms documented in Travancore. Lower castes like the Ezhavas and Pulayas were considered
polluting and various rules were in place to distance them from upper castes. These included a prohibition, not
just on temple entry, but even on walking on the roads surrounding temples.
The Vaikom Satyagraha was launched in opposition to this. Amidst rising nationalist sentiment and agitations
across the country, it foregrounded social reform. Not only that, for the first time, it brought Gandhian methods
of nonviolent protest to Travancore.
3) Consider the following statements regarding Lothal.

1. Lothal was a thriving trade centre in ancient times, with its trade of beads, gems and ornaments
reaching West Asia and Africa.
2. Lothal had the world’s earliest known dock, connecting the city to an ancient course of the Sabarmati
river.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c)
Lothal was a thriving trade centre in ancient times, with its trade of beads, gems and ornaments reaching West
Asia and Africa.
Excavation work was carried out in Lothal between February 1955 and May 1960. According to the Archaeological
Survey of India (ASI), Lothal had the world’s earliest known dock, connecting the city to an ancient course of the
Sabarmati river.
4) Sammakka Saralamma Jatara – which is considered among the largest gatherings of tribal people in the world,
is held in
a) Chhattisgarh
b) Madhya Pradesh
c) Tamil Nadu
d) Telangana
Solution: d)
the Union cabinet approved a tribal university for Telangana – the Sarakka Central Tribal University, which will
come up in Mulugu district. The University was a commitment made by the Central government as a part of the
Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2014.
Mulugu holds a biennial festival – the Sammakka Saralamma Jatara – which is considered among the largest
gatherings of tribal people in the world. The Jatara (yatra, or pilgrimage) begins at Medaram, and the rituals are
conducted by the Koya priests, in accordance with their customs and traditions.
Source
5) Manamadurai pottery that earned a Geographical Indication (GI) tag belongs to

a) Andhra Pradesh
b) Telangana
c) Tamil Nadu
d) Kerala
Solution: c)
These pots have put this village in Tamil Nadu on the global map. Manamadurai in Sivagangai district is known for
pottery making. The Manamadurai pottery recently earned a Geographical Indication (GI) tag.
The Vaigai river enriches the clay used for the Manamadurai pottery. Pot making requires expertise as the bottom
has to be perfectly round. The circumference of the pot and the neck should be proportionate so that the pot sits
flat on the ground.
The right proportion of mud, clay and heating makes this product very strong. The main raw materials for making
these pots are soil and water.
A unique type of clay is sourced from water bodies like Nedunkulam, Nathapurakki, Sundaranadappu, Seikalathur
to make these pots.
6) Consider the following pairs:

Literary Work Author
1. Harshacharita Bilhana
2. Vikramankadevacharita Bana
3. Rajatarangini Kalhana
How many of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: a)
Only option 3 is correctly matched.
Harshacharita was a biography of the Indian ruler Harsha by Bana, a Sanskrit writer who wrote the first historical
biography containing vivid descriptions of society and nature in Sanskrit in 640 CE.
Bilhana (11th century) composed the epic Vikramankadevacharita.
Kalhana wrote the history of Kashmir, the Rajatarangini, in Sanskrit in the 12th century.
7) Consider the following statements regarding Jallianwala Bagh massacre.

1. At Jallianwala Bagh people gathered for a public meeting against the arrest of Dr Satyapal and Dr
Saifuddin Kitchlew for opposing the Ilbert Bill.
2. Hunter Committee was set up to investigate the Jallianwala bagh incident.
3. Rabindranath Tagore gave up his knighthood as a response to the incident.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
April 13 saw celebrations for the Sikh festival of Baisakhi, which marks the onset of Spring and the harvest of
winter crops. Simultaneously, the movement for independence from British rule had been steadily gaining
ground.
By 4 pm, many gathered for a public meeting against the arrest of Dr Satyapal and Dr Saifuddin Kitchlew for
opposing the Rowlatt Act.
Without giving the crowd any warning to disperse, Dyer ordered his troops to fire.
Indian leaders expressed their anger and protested in response to the killings. Notably, Nobel laureate poet
Rabindranath Tagore gave up his knighthood.
A Committee named Hunter Committee was set up to investigate the Jallianwala bagh incident.
9. Agriculture
1) The crop is sub-tropical in nature. Hard-frost is injurious to it and it requires at least 210 frost-free days. Only
light-rainfall (50 to 100 centimetres) is preferred. It requires high temperatures and bright sunshine for its
growth. These conditions hold good for which of the following crops?
a) Cotton
b) Jute
c) Tea
d) Sugarcane
Solution: a)
Conditions for Cotton cultivation:

• Hard-frost is injurious to cotton cultivation and it requires at least 210 frost-free days.
• Only light-rainfall (50 to 100 centimetres) is preferred. Cotton can also be cultivated under irrigated
conditions.
• It requires high temperatures and bright sunshine for its growth.

1. Rice exports from India have been mainly driven by basmati rice exports.
2. India’s Basmati rice exports are mainly to the Persian Gulf countries.
3. India is the world’s top producer and exporter of Cotton.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: a)
Basmati exports are mainly to the Persian Gulf countries and, to some extent, the US and UK. Non-basmati
shipments are more diversified, with the destinations spread across Asia (Bangladesh, China, Sri Lanka, Malaysia,
Vietnam, UAE and Iraq) and Africa (from Senegal, Ivory Coast and Benin to Somalia and Madagascar). It’s non-
basmati that has made India the biggest rice exporter, ahead of Thailand.
Cultivation of genetically-modified Bt cotton and high global prices had enabled India to become the world’s top
producer (ahead of China) and No. 2 exporter (after the US) of the natural fibre.

1. In the last 5 years, sunflower oil constituted the maximum quantity of India’s edible oil imports.
2. The majority of the edible oil consumed in India is produced domestically.
3. More than 50 percent of India’s sunflower oil is consumed in south India.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: a)
India consumes 23.5-24 million tonnes (mt) of cooking oil annually, out of which 13.5-14 mt is imported and the
balance 9.5-10 mt produced from domestically cultivated seed.
Roughly 70% of the country’s sunflower oil consumption is in the South, with Maharashtra (10-15%) and other
states making up the rest. One reason for this geographical skew has to do with sunflower being traditionally
grown in Karnataka, Telangana, and Maharashtra.
10. Defence and Security

1) The term ‘Grey Zone Operations’ is associated with
a) Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons
b) Strategic intervention to prevent malnutrition
c) Early warning system of tropical storms
d) Cyber Warfare
Solution: d)
‘Grey Zone Operations’ which fall outside traditional concepts of conflicts have become the new battleground,
especially in regard to cyber warfare. ‘Grey Zone Operations’ are already beginning to be employed to undermine
the vitals of a state’s functioning, a trend likely to grow. The convergence of emerging technologies alongside new
hybrid usages, pose several challenges to nations and institutions.
2) Consider the following statements regarding Interpol.

1. Interpol is an inter-governmental organisation, which helps police forces in all the member countries to
better coordinate their actions.
2. It is headed by a secretary general, with its headquarters in Geneva, Switzerland.
3. It issues Red Notice (RN) that alerts police forces across the world about fugitives who are wanted
internationally.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
The Interpol, or International Criminal Police Organization, is an inter-governmental organisation, which helps
police forces in all the member countries to better coordinate their actions. According to the Interpol website,
the organisation enables member countries to share and access data on crimes and criminals, and offers a range
of technical and operational support.
The Interpol general secretariat coordinates the organisation’s day-to-day activities. It is run by a secretary
general, with its headquarters in Lyon, France.
Interpol has a National Central Bureau (NCB) in each member country, which is the central point of contact for
both the general secretariat and the other NCBs around the world. Each NCB is run by police officials of that
country, and usually sits in the government ministry responsible for policing. (Home Ministry in India.)
What is a Red Notice?

Criminals or suspects often flee to other countries to evade facing justice. A Red Corner Notice, or Red Notice
(RN) alerts police forces across the world about fugitives who are wanted internationally.
Interpol says “Red Notices are issued for fugitives wanted either for prosecution or to serve a sentence. A Red
Notice is a request to law enforcement worldwide to locate and provisionally arrest a person pending extradition,
surrender, or similar legal action.”
RN is published by Interpol at the request of a member country. The fugitives may be wanted for prosecution or
to serve a sentence. The country issuing the request need not be the home country of the fugitive; Interpol acts
on the request of a country where the alleged crime has been committed.
Is an RN a warrant of arrest?
RN is only an international wanted persons’ notice; it is not an international arrest warrant. Interpol itself does
not want individuals; they are wanted by a country or an international tribunal.
3) Consider the following statements regarding Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP).

1. Indo-Tibetan Border Police is one of the Central Armed Police Forces, established in the aftermath of
the Sino-Indian War of 1962.
2. Disaster rescue is one of the major roles of the ITBP.
3. ITBP is involved in the security set-up of Parliament.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: c)
The Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP) is a border guarding force of India deployed along its borders with Tibet
Autonomous Region. It is one of the seven Central Armed Police Forces, established in 1962 in the aftermath of
the Sino-Indian War of 1962.
Disaster rescue is the other major role of the ITBP. It is the first responder for natural disasters in
the Himalayas and has 8 Regional Response Centres in Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand and Northeast India.
ITBP is involved in the security set-up of Parliament.
Source Source
4) Consider the following statements regarding Innovations for Defence Excellence (iDEX).
1. Innovations for Defence Excellence (iDEX) framework aim to foster technology development in Defence
and Aerospace Sector by engaging MSMEs, start-ups and individual innovators.
2. iDEX offers technical handholding through associated Partner Incubators.
3. Ministry of Defence accords Acceptance of Necessity (AoN) for iDEX products.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: c)
Innovations for Defence Excellence (iDEX) framework was launched by the Government with the aim to foster
innovation and technology development in Defence and Aerospace Sector by engaging Industries including
MSMEs, start-ups, individual innovators, R&D institutes and academia to promote self-reliance. Up to 28
February 2023, 139 iDEX winners have been provided grants/fund. The Services, after successful trials, have
placed supply orders on three iDEX winners. Moreover, the Ministry has also accorded Acceptance of Necessity
(AoN) for 13 more iDEX products.
iDEX offers technical handholding through 19 associated Partner Incubators of iDEX, easier and faster access to
test facilities/infrastructure available with various Government agencies, co-creation and co-innovation using
smooth operating procedures and minimal documentation, to the iDEX winners, thus making the entire regime
conducive for them. iDEX has launched challenges on frontier technologies/ domains like artificial Intelligence,
Augmented Reality (AR)/ Virtual Reality (VR), Autonomous/ Unmanned Solutions, Stealth, Domain Awareness,
Secure Communications, Simulation, Navigation, Predictive Maintenance, Space, Cyber Security etc. to ensure
that the Services enjoy a technological edge over their adversaries.
Source Source
5) Operation Shakti and Operation Smiling Buddha are related to

a) Fleeing Hindus and Buddhists from Afghanistan
b) Capture of Golden Temple
c) India's nuclear bomb test
d) Combined operation against Naxalites
Solution: c)
On May 11, 1998, India conducted three nuclear bomb test explosions at the Indian Army’s Pokhran Test Range.
Two days later, on May 13, two more bombs were tested.
Codenamed Operation Shakti (literally, “strength”), these tests would display India’s capability to build fission
and thermonuclear weapons with yields up to 200 kilotons, helping India enter the highly guarded club of
countries with capability to deploy nuclear weapons.
However, Pokhran-II, as the series of tests is more popularly known, was also the culmination of a long journey
that began back in the 1940s-50s.
On May 18, 1974, India carried out its first nuclear test at the Pokhran test site. Pokhran-I, codenamed Operation
Smiling Buddha, would be billed as a “peaceful nuclear explosion”, with “few military implications”.
6) The Garuda Shakti Exercise is a bilateral joint special force exercise between India and
a) Nepal
b) Sri Lanka
c) Japan
d) Indonesia
Solution: d)
The Garuda Shakti Exercise is a bilateral joint special force exercise between India and Indonesia. This joint
military exercise is being organized as part of the bilateral defence cooperation between Indonesia and India. It
has been held since 2012, involving Para Special Force of the Indian Army.
11. Reports and Indices

1) Food Price Index (FPI) is a measure of the monthly change in international prices of a basket of food
commodities. FPI is released by
a) World Trade Organisation
b) International Food Policy Research Institute
c) World Bank
d) None of the above
Solution: d)
The Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) Food Price Index (FFPI) is a measure of the monthly change in
international prices of a basket of food commodities.
2) The Food Price Index published by FAO tracks

a) Monthly changes in international prices of a basket of food commodities
b) Average price of selected grains in the public stockholding programmes of major agricultural nations
c) The prices of grains consumed by the poorest of the poor sections globally
d) Ratio of average prices of major agricultural crops in developed and developing countries
Solution: a)
The FAO Food Price Index (FFPI) is a measure of the monthly change in international prices of a basket of food
commodities.
It is a major policy tool to understand the impact of global food prices on farmer’s income (export
competitiveness) and domestic inflation.
3) World Air Quality Report, sometimes seen in news is released by

a) International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN)
b) Lancent
c) Global Alliance on Health and Pollution (GAHP)
d) IQAir
Solution: d)
When IQAir released the World Air Quality Report 2022, 39 Indian cities were named in the list of the 50 most
polluted cities in the world. The report said that air pollution is the second biggest risk factor for disease in India.
Source
4) Consider the following statements regarding National Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI).
1. National Multidimensional Poverty Index is released by NITI Aayog.
2. The National MPI measures simultaneous deprivations across the three equally weighted dimensions of
health, education, and standard of living.
3. Between 2015-16 and 2019-21, the MPI value has nearly halved and the intensity of poverty has
reduced.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: c)
A record 13.5 crore people moved out of multidimensional poverty between 2015-16 and 2019-21 as per NITI
Aayog’s Report ‘National Multidimensional Poverty Index: A Progress Review 2023’.
The National MPI measures simultaneous deprivations across the three equally weighted dimensions of health,
education, and standard of living that are represented by 12 SDG-aligned indicators. These include nutrition,
child and adolescent mortality, maternal health, years of schooling, school attendance, cooking fuel, sanitation,
drinking water, electricity, housing, assets, and bank accounts. Marked improvement is witnessed across all the
12 indicators.
Between 2015-16 and 2019-21, the MPI value has nearly halved from 0.117 to 0.066 and the intensity of
poverty has reduced from 47% to 44%, thereby setting India on the path of achieving the SDG Target 1.2 (of
reducing multidimensional poverty by at least half) much ahead of the stipulated timeline of 2030.
Source Source

1. Food Price Index (FPI) is a weighted average of world prices of a basket of food commodities with a
base period 2014-16.
2. Food Price Index (FPI) is released by International Food Policy Research Institute (IFPRI).
3. India’s agri exports in recent times, have been powered by Marine products, rice and sugar.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
Both agricultural exports from and imports into India have scaled new highs in the fiscal year that ended March
31, 2023.
The UN Food and Agriculture Organization’s Food Price Index (FPI) crashed from an average of 119.1 points in
2013-14 to 90 points in 2015-16.
The FPI – a weighted average of world prices of a basket of food commodities over a base period value (2014-
16=100) – recovered to 102.5 points by 2020-21, and further to 133 points in 2021-22 and 139.5 points in 2022-
23.
India’s agri exports have, in recent times, been powered by three items: Marine products, rice and sugar.
6) Consider the following statements regarding Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI).

1. Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) is released by World Bank.
2. The global MPI constructs on indicators spanning health, education and standard of living.
3. The MPI ranges from 0 to 1, and higher values imply higher poverty.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI):

The report produced by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) and the Oxford Poverty and
Human Development Initiative (OPHI).
The global MPI constructs a deprivation profile of each household and person through 10 indicators spanning
health, education and standard of living. All indicators are equally weighted within each dimension. The global
MPI identifies people as multidimensionally poor if their deprivation score is 1/3 or higher.
The MPI is calculated by multiplying the incidence of poverty and the average intensity of poverty. The MPI
ranges from 0 to 1, and higher values imply higher poverty.
12. Maps / Places

1) Match List 1 with List 2 and select the correct answer code:
List 1 (Lake) List 2 (State)
A. Vembanad 1. Sikkim
B. Khajjiar 2. Tamil Nadu
C. Kaliveli 3. Himachal Pradesh
D. Khecheopalri 4. Kerala
A B C D
a) 4 3 2 1
b) 4 3 1 2
c) 3 4 1 2
d) 3 4 2 1
Solution: a)
2) Which two rivers flow in the region between gulbarga and vijayanagara hampi?
a) Narmada and Godavari
b) Mahanadi and Godavari
c) Kaveri and Periyar
d) Krishna and Tungabhadra
Solution: d)

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INSTA EDITORIALS QUIZ

2. ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT ..........................................................................................................7

4. GOVERNMENT SCHEMES AND PROGRAMMES ................................................................................. 16

5. SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY............................................................................................................. 24

6. INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS AND ORGANISATIONS .......................................................................... 33

8. HISTORY, ART AND CULTURE............................................................................................................ 50

10. DEFENCE AND SECURITY............................................................................................................... 54

11. REPORTS AND INDICES ................................................................................................................. 57

12. MAPS / PLACES............................................................................................................................. 60

An SCSB is a recognised bank capable of providing ASBA services to its customers.

3) Consider the following statements regarding Delisting of securities.

Only statement 1 is correct.

4) Consider the following statements regarding Standing Deposit Facility (SDF).

5) Consider the following statements.

6) Consider the following statements regarding Exchange Traded Funds (ETF).

Exchange Traded Funds (ETFs):

7) Consider the following statements regarding Foreign Exchange Management Act.

What is the aim of the FEMA (Foreign Exchange Management Act)?

So what changed with the FEMA?

8) Consider the following statements.

9) Consider the following statements regarding company limited by guarantee.

What is a company limited by guarantee?

11) Consider the following statements regarding Base Year.

2. Ecology and Environment

2) Consider the following statements regarding Ocean acidification.

5) Consider the following statements regarding Bioremediation.

6) Consider the following statements regarding Mangalajodi area.

7) Consider the following pairs:

The Mukundra Tiger Reserve (TR) is located near Kota, Rajasthan.

Absorptive capacity means the ability of the environment to absorb degradation.

10) Consider the following statements regarding Debt-for-nature swaps.

2) Consider the following statements.

3) Consider the following statements.

4) Consider the following statements.

How do scientists monitor Mauna Loa?

5) Consider the following statements regarding Zero Shadow Day.

6) The typical impacts of El Niño include:

Only Statement 3 is correct.

7) Consider the following statements regarding total fertility rate (TFR).

8) Consider the following statements.

9) Consider the following statements.

4. Government Schemes and Programmes

3) Consider the following statements.

Only statement 1 is correct.

5) Match the following initiatives by the Government of India.

7) Consider the following statements regarding BharatNet project.

8) Consider the following statements.

9) Consider the following statements regarding Bima Sugam.

Only Statement 1 is correct.

What’s Bima Sugam?

Will the physical mode go away?

How does this help, and why is it significant?

What is ONDC’s inclusive governance approach?

To what extent will the government be involved in ONDC?

11) Consider the following statements regarding PARAKH initiative.

12) Consider the following statements.

13) Renke commission, sometimes seen in news is related to

Who are de-notified, nomadic and semi-nomadic tribes?

Only statement 1 is correct.

15) Consider the following statements.