06/07/2020 CODE-A

Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph. 011-47623456

Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

MM : 720 Test - 17 Time : 3.00 Hrs.

Topics covered : Complete Syllabus of Class XI and XII.

Instructions :
(i) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing
material on Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer :
1. The dimensions of (b/a) in the equation 4. A ball is dropped from the window of a train
a  t2 which is moving with constant velocity. The
P where P is power, x is distance and t trajectory of ball for the observer in train is
bx
is time, are (1) Straight line (2) Parabolic
(3) Elliptical (4) Cycloid
(1) [ML2T–3] (2) [M–1L–3T3]
–3 5. Angle between position vector and acceleration
(3) [MLT ] (4) [M–1L3T5]
vector of a particle in non-uniform circular motion
2. A particle moves with speed v for distance x and (centre of circle is taken as origin) may be
with speed 2v for next distance x along a straight (1) 0° (2) 45°
line. The average speed of particle for total
(3) 75° (4) 135°
distance 2x, is
6. A body (x) moving with momentum p collides with
3v 2v another identical body (y) at rest. During collision
(1) (2)
2 3 body x gives impulse J to body y. If collision is
4v 5v one dimension and coefficient of restitution is 0.8,
(3) (4) then
3 3
4
3. A particle starts from rest (with constant (1) J  p
acceleration) and acquires velocity 20 m/s in 5 s. 3
The distance travelled by the particle in next 2 s 2
(2) J  p
is 3
(1) 50 m 9
(3) J  p
(2) 48 m 10
(3) 100 m 3
(4) J  p
(4) 150 m 4
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Test-17 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

7. Two particles A and B of mass 1 kg and 2 kg (1) PV (2) 2PV

respectively are 50 cm apart and at rest. If they
3
are allowed to move under their mutual attractive (3) PV (4) 3PV
force, then 2
(1) 1 kg mass travels more distance before they 12. A tuning fork when vibrated along with a
collide stretched string, 5 beats per second is heard. If
(2) 2 kg mass travels more distance before they tension in the string is slightly increased, then
collide beats with same tuning fork become 3 beats per
(3) Both masses move same distance before second. The frequency of stretched wire before
collision increasing the tension is (Frequency of tuning
(4) They will not move hence will not collide fork is 256 Hz)
8. A man of mass 30 kg is standing at one end of (1) 261 Hz (2) 256 Hz
stationary floating plank of mass 40 kg. The (3) 251 Hz (4) 259 Hz
length of the plank is 7 m. If man moves to other
end of the plank, then the distance by which 13. When transistor is used as switch, it operates in
plank will move, is (Assume no friction between (1) Cut off-active state
water and plank) (2) Active-saturation state
(1) 4 m (2) 3 m (3) Cut off-saturation state
3 4
(3) m (4) m (4) All of these
4 3
14. Which of the following i-V graphs belongs to
9. Four identical thin rods each of mass 1 kg and photodiode?
length 1 m are used to form a square. If it is
rotated about one side, then its moment of inertia
(in kg m2) is
5 5
(1) (2) (1) (2)
12 3
3 7
(3) (4)
2 12
10. Stress versus strain graph is shown for two
wires. If Y1 and Y2 are Young’s modulus of wire A
and B respectively, then the correct option is (3) (4)

15. A radioactive element x is converting into y. The

half life of conversion is 350 years. On analysis, it
is found that a sample has x and y in the ratio of
1 : 7, then the age of sample is (Assume at
t = 0 sample has only x element in it)
(1) Y1 > Y2 (2) Y2 > Y1 (1) 700 years
(3) Y1 = Y2 (4) Cannot say (2) 825 years
11. An ideal gas is taken through a cyclic process (3) 175 years
ABCA as shown. The work done during the
process is (4) 1050 years
16. When radiation of wavelength  = 4800 Å, is
incident on a metal surface, electrons are
ejecting out. Then radiation of wavelength
(1) 4900 Å must eject electron
(2) 4700 Å may eject electron
(3) 4900 Å may eject electron
(4) Both (2) and (3)

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-17 (Code-A)

17. Kinetic energy of surface photoelectrons is x 21. A boat makes one round trip along the line AB in
when frequency of incident radiation is . If the river of width d. If speed of boat in still water
is u and speed of water flow in the river is v, then
frequency of incident radiation is made 2, the
time taken to complete the trip, is
kinetic energy of surface photoelectron will be
(1) < x
(2) < 2x
(3) = x
(4) > 2x
d 1 d
18. In single slit diffraction, wavelength used is 5000 (1) (2)
u v
2 2 2 u v2
2
Å, slit width is 0.2 mm and distance between slit
and screen is 2 m. The distance of first 2d 2d
(3) (4)
secondary minimum from principal maximum is  u2  v 2  u v2
2

(1) 2.5 mm (2) 3 mm 22. The acceleration a of trolley so that block of

(3) 4.5 mm (4) 5 mm mass m remains stationary with respect to rough
trolley as shown in the figure, is
19. An  particle is moved from point A to point B via
points C. If VA = 10 volt, VB = 35 volt,
VC = 20 volt, then work done is approximately
equal to

g g
(1) a  (2) a 
 
g 
–19 (3) a  (4) a 
(1) 20 × 10 J  g
–19
(2) 40 × 10 J 23. Three identical solid spherical balls are kept in
(3) 60 × 10 –19
J contact with each other as shown in the figure.
The moment of inertia of the system about an
(4) 80 × 10–19 J axis XY, is
20. There are three identical bulbs, which are
connected with a cell as shown in the figure.
When key (K) is broken then brightness of

(1) Bulb 1 will increase and that of bulb 3 will

decrease
(2) Bulb 1 will decrease and that of bulb 3 will
14 21
increase (1) MR 2 (2) MR 2
5 5
(3) Both bulb remain unchanged 28 16
(3) MR 2 (4) MR 2
(4) Both bulb will become zero 5 5

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Test-17 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

24. A hollow sphere starts pure rolling from rest as 29. A body cools from 80°C to 70°C in 12 minutes
shown. The acceleration of centre of mass of and from 70°C to 60°C in time t. The value of t is
sphere is (temperature of surrounding is 40°C)
(1) 13.8 minute
(2) 16.8 minute
(3) 18.8 minute
(4) 20.8 minute
30. Two tuning forks of frequency 520 Hz and
524 Hz are vibrated together. The time interval
between successive maximum and minimum
intensity is
1 2
(1) g sin  (2) g sin  1 1
5 5 (1) s (2) s
8 4
3 4
(3) g sin  (4) g sin  1
5 5 (3) s (4) 1s
2
25. A ball is dropped from height h = Re above earth
31. Frequency of first overtone of closed organ pipe
surface. The speed with which ball strikes the
of length 20 cm is equal to frequency of third
surface of earth is
overtone of open organ pipe. The length of open
3 organ pipe, is
(1) 2gRe (2) gRe
2 (1) 33.3 cm (2) 43.3 cm
(3) 47.3 cm (4) 53.3 cm
gRe
(3) gRe (4) 32. An observer is moving with speed 20 m/s
2
towards stationary sound source which is
26. In vacuum two soap bubbles of radius R1 and R2 emitting sound of frequency 400 Hz. The
combine to form a single soap bubble frequency of sound heard by observer is
isothermally. The radius of single soap bubble is approximately (Vsound = 340 m/s)
(1) R  R1  R2 (2) R  R12  R22 (1) 550 Hz (2) 650 Hz
(3) 425 Hz (4) 450 Hz
1 1 1 1 1 1
(3)   (4)   33. Two point charges 4Q and Q are fixed 2 m apart.
R R1 R2 R R1 R2 A third charge q0 is kept between two charges so
27. Incompressible ideal liquid is flowing through a that net force on it is zero. The separation
non-uniform tube. If speed of liquid at end 1 is between charge q0 and 4Q is
20 m/s then speed at end 2, is 2
(1) m (2) 1 m
3
1 4
(3) m (4) m
3 3
34. The net electric flux associated with a closed
surface which encloses 1 C positive charge is
equal to (In SI unit)
(1) 3.9 m/s (2) 6.9 m/s (1) 0 (2) 0–1
(3) 8.9 m/s (4) 12.9 m/s 1
–
1

28. Assuming oxygen gas as ideal gas, the equation (3) 0 2 (4) 0 2

of state of 10 g of oxygen at temperature T, 35. Piece of aluminium and silicon both are heated
pressure P which occupy volume V is given by from –10°C to 40°C. The resistivity of
10 10 (1) Al increases and that of Si decreases
(1) PV  RT (2) PV  RT
16 8 (2) Al decreases and that of Si increases
10 (3) Both Al and Si increase
(3) PV  10RT (4) PV  RT
32 (4) Both Al and Si decrease

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-17 (Code-A)

36. If maximum power that can be developed across 41. A thin glass lens    1.5  of focal length 15 cm
any one 4  resistors is 16 W then the maximum
 4
power consumed by the given circuit is is kept inside water     . The new focal
 3
length of lens in water is
(1) 25 cm (2) 30 cm
(3) 45 cm (4) 60 cm
42. In normal adjustment, magnifying power of an
astronomical telescope is 6 and length of
(1) 48 watt (2) 32 watt telescope is 21 cm. The focal length of objective
(3) 24 watt (4) 16 watt and eye piece are
37. Resistance of galvanometer coil is 20 . It is (1) 18 cm, 3 cm
converted into an ammeter so that 90% current (2) 17 cm, 4 cm
passes through shunt. The value of shunt S is
(3) 16 cm, 5 cm
nearly equal to
(4) 19 cm, 2 cm
(1) 1.6  (2) 2.2 
43. A ray of light is going from rarer to denser
(3) 2.9  (4) 3.2 
medium so that when angle of incidence is 60°,
38. The angular momentum of electron in nth orbit of reflected and refracted rays are perpendicular to
H-atom is L. The magnitude of magnetic moment each other. The refractive index of denser
of the electron is (Symbols have their usual medium w.r.t. rarer medium is
meanings)
(1)   2
e e
(1) (2)
mL 2mL (2)   3
2e e 1
(3) (4) L (3)  
mL 2m
3
39. Circular coil of radius r, having n turns is kept
3
along yz plane so that its axis coincide with (4)
x-axis. If current through it is i, then magnetic 2

field induction at a point on axis, 3r distance 44. Radiation of energy 12.1 eV is passed through
from the centre of the ring is hydrogen gas, then H-atom may be excited to
(1) 5th excited state
 ni 0 ni
(1) 0 (2) (2) 2nd excited state
12r 2 3r
(3) 3rd excited state
 ni  ni
(3) 0 (4) 0 (4) 4th excited state
16r 9r
In the following question (45), a statement of
40. Dip circle is initially in magnetic meridian and
assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason
then it is rotated by 30°. If angle of dip in new
(R).
meridian is 45°, then angle of dip at same place
in magnetic meridian is 45. A : When a coil is connected to a battery, initial
current through it is zero.
(1)   tan1  2 R : When a coil is connected to a battery induced
 1  emf initially is zero.
(2)   tan1  
 2 (1) (A) is true and (R) is true and (R) is correct
explanation of (A)
 2 
(3)   tan1   (2) (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
 3 explanation of (A)
 3 (3) (A) is true, (R) is false
(4)   tan1 
 2  (4) (A) is false, (R) is true
 

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Test-17 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

CHEMISTRY
46. Which of the following order is correct for acidic 51. Which of the following graphs is/are true for
strength of hydrogen in following molecule? chemical adsorption?

(1)

(1) a > b > c

(2) b > a > c
(3) b > c > a
(4) c > b > a
47. Incorrect order of basic strength is
(1) Me2NH > MeNH2 > Me3N > NH3 (In protic (2)
solvent
(2) Et2NH > Et3N > EtNH2 > NH3 (In protic
solvent)
(3) Me3N > Me2NH > MeNH2 > NH3 (In gas
phase)
(4) Me2NH > Me3N > MeNH2 > NH3 (In gas
phase)
(3)
48. An aqueous solution of AgNO3 electrolysed by
passing a current of 0.965 ampere for 1000 sec.
Volume of gases obtained at STP/NTP will be
(1) 22.4 L (2) 0.056 L
(4) Both (1) and (2)
(3) 0.112 L (4) 0.224 L
52. Match Column I and Column II and find the
49. Two equilibrium reactions are taken in different
correct option.
vessel

 Column-I Column-II
 PCl3 (g)  Cl2 (g) , Kp1
a : PCl5 (g) 
a. Peptization (i) Dispersion method


b : N2 O 4 (g) 
 2NO2 (g) , Kp2
b. Coagulation (ii) Neutralization of sol
The degree of dissociations are equal for both particles
the above reactions. If their equilibrium pressures c. Tyndall effect (iii) Optical property
are also in the ratio of 4 : 1 then ratio of Kp1 to
d. Electrophoresis (iv) Movement of colloidal
Kp2 is
particles in electric field
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii)
(3) 1 : 4 (4) 1 : 1
(2) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv)
50. For which of the given reaction H < E?
(3) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(1) PCl5 (g)  PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g)
(4) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)
(2) Ni(s) + 4CO(g)  Ni(CO)4 (g) 53. Which of the following has maximum number of
geometrical isomers?
(3) N2 (g) + O2 (g)  2NO(g)
(1) Ma2b4 (2) Ma3b3
(4) N2O4 (g)  2NO2 (g) (3) Ma2b2c2 (4) Ma3b2c

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-17 (Code-A)

54. Correct order of stability of following canonical (1)

structures will be

a. b. (2)

c. (3) CH3 – CH2 – CH2CH2OH

(4)
(1) a > b > c (2) a > c > b
(3) b > c > a (4) c > a > b
62. The longest C – C bond is present in
55. Which among the following aqueous solutions,
has maximum vapour pressure? (1) Propane (2) Propene
(1) 0.1 M K4[Fe(CN)6] (2) 0.1 M K3[Fe(CN)6] (3) Ethyne (4) Benzene

(3) 0.1 M CaCl2 (4) 0.2 M Urea 63. Sodium bicarbonate test is used to distinguish
(1) CH3CH2OH and CH3CH2CH2OH
56. Incorrect order against indicated property is
(1) HCl < HBr < HI (Reducing power) (2) CH3CH2OH and
(2) HClO < HClO2 < HClO3 (Acidic strength)
(3) I2 < Br2 < Cl2 < F2 (Oxidising power)
(4) NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 (Basic strength)
(3)
57. What is the normality of sodium carbonate
(4) HCOOH and HCHO
solution if one mole of it is dissolved in 500 ml
solution? 64. Which of the reaction is not feasible?
(1) 2 N (2) 4 N (1) Ca3P2 + 6H2O  2PH3 + 3Ca(OH) 2
(3) 3 N (4) 5 N (2) XeF6 + 3H2O  XeO3 + 6HF
58. Among the following halides of alkali metal, the (3) SnCl2 + Hg2Cl2  SnCl4 + HgCl2
least soluble in water is (4) K2Cr2O7 + KI + H2SO4  Cr2(SO4) 3 + I2 +
(1) NaCl (2) KBr
K2SO4 + H2O
(3) KCl (4) CsI
65. Which of the given compound forms yellow
59. Epsom salt is
precipitate with I2 and NaOH(aq)?
(1) KCl.MgCl2.6H2O
(1) CH3CH2OH (2) CH3CHO
(2) ZnSO4.7H2O (3) CH3 – CO – CH3 (4) All of these
(3) MgSO4.7H2O 66. 11.2 L H2 and 11.2 L Cl2 allowed to react at STP
(4) Na2SO4.10H2O and gas produced dissolved in 1 L water. The
60. Name of the method which during refining has volume of given solution which can be
following reactions steps neutralized completely by 500 ml of 0.2 M KOH is
T (1) 100 mL (2) 200 mL
Step I : M  2I2 
1 MI4 (g)
T (3) 500 mL (4) 250 mL
Step II : MI4 (g) 
2  M(s)  2I (g)
2
67. Orbital angular momentum of an electron in
(1) van Arkel process 4d-orbital is
(2) Mond’s process
(1) 6 (2) 3
(3) Zone refining
(4) Distillation (3) 4 (4) 2
68. The polymer used for making coating of non-stick
61. cookware is
(1) Teflon (2) Polystyrene
The product (B) is (3) Melamine (4) Nylon

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Test-17 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

69. The correct order against indicated property is 77. Number of H2O molecules which is/are hydrogen
+ +
(1) N2 > H2 (bond order) bonded in CuSO4·5H2O but not coordinated to
centre metal is
(2) H2+ > H2 (stability)
(1) 5 (2) 4
(3) O2– < O22– (paramagnetic nature)
(3) 3 (4) 1
(4) N2– < N2 (bond length)
78. Match column-I and column-II and find the
70. The most stable carbanion among the following
correct option.
is
Column-I Column-II

(1) CH3 CH 
(2) CH2  CH
2 a. CO (i) Acidic

(3) H – C  C 
(4) CH b. Na2O (ii) Basic
3
c. Cl2O7 (iii) Amphoteric
71. High spin complex among the following is
d. BeO (iv) Neutral
(1) [Fe(CN)6]4– (2) [Co(NH3)6]3+
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(3) [Mn(CN)6]4– (4) [Fe(H2O) 6]2+
(2) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii)
72. Catalytic activity of d-block metal is due to
(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
(1) Small surface area
(4) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i)
(2) Ability to show multiple oxidation state
79. Hybrid state of central atom in SOCl2 is
(3) High melting point
(1) sp3 (2) sp2
(4) High malleability and ductility
(3) dsp2 (4) sp3d
73. Maximum number of atoms are present in
80. A mixture of 3 mol CH3OH and 4 mol C2H5OH is
(1) 1 g atom Fe mixed to prepare an ideal solution. The total
(2) 1 g molecule H2O vapour pressure of solution is
(3) 16 g CH4 (Vapour pressure of CH3OH = 20 mmHg and
(4) 1 L H2O (l) Vapour pressure of C2H5OH = 30 mmHg)
74. Find the incorrect statement. (1) 17.14 mmHg (2) 25.71 mmHg
(1) Volume of one equivalent O2 is 5.6 litre at (3) 30 mmHg (4) 50 mmHg
STP 81. In a solid AB of NaCl type structure, if edge
(2) When 10 ml H2SO4 is added to 10 ml water, length of unit cell is 440 pm, then the nearest
then total volume becomes 20 ml distance between cation and anion will be
(3) Generally combustion reaction is an (1) 220 pm (2) 110 pm
exothermic reaction (3) 175 pm (4) 290 pm
(4) Atomic radius of gallium is less than that of 82. The incorrect order is
aluminium (1) Al < Al+ < Al2+ (Ionisation energy)
75. Oxidation number does not change in which of (2) Cl– 2–
<S <P 3–
(Ionic radii)
the following reaction? (3) Cl < F < Br < I (Electronegativity)
(1) NH3 + H2O  NH4OH (4) S > Se > Te > O (Negative electron gain
(2) SO2 + O2  SO3 enthalpy)
(3) C + air  CO2 83. In which of the given reaction a new C — C bond
formation does not take place?
(4) PCl3 + Cl2  PCl5
(1)
76. Heat of formation of isobutylene is
[Given: heat of sublimation of carbon is
715 kJ/mol and bond energy of H – H, C – H, C – C, (2)
C = C is 431, 410, 336 and 606 kJ/mol (3)
respectively]
(4)
(1) +48 kJ (2) +26 kJ
(3) –26 kJ (4) –49 kJ

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-17 (Code-A)

84. The monomer of ‘Neoprene’ is 88. The pH of mixture having 0.5 M NH4OH and
(1) 1.0 M NH4Cl is (Kb NH4OH = 1 × 10–5)
(1) 8.7 (2) 5.3
(2) (3) 5 (4) 9
(3) 89. Match column I with column II and find the
correct option.
Column-I Column-II
(4) a. Self reduction (i) Iron
b. Carbon reduction (ii) Silver
85. For the following alcohols, the correct order of c. Complex formation and (iii) Copper
rate of acid catalyzed dehydration is displacement by metal
d. Zone refining (iv) Silicon
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(2) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv)
(3) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
(4) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
90. Which of the following can exhibit tautomerism?

(1) I > IV > II > III (2) I > II > III > IV
(3) IV > II > I > III (4) IV > III > II > I (1)
86. The molar conductance of 0.1 M KCl solution if
distance between electrode is 2 cm and area of
cross section of electrode is 4 cm2 and
resistance offered by solution is 50 ohm is (2)
(1) 100 S cm2 mol–1 (2) 500 S cm2 mol–1
2 –1
(3) 50 S cm mol (4) 250 S cm2 mol–1
87. 2A(g) + B(g)  2C(g), Rate = K[A]2 [B]
(3)
If concentration of A and B become double, the
rate of reaction changes by a factor of
(1) Increases 4 times (2) Increases 8 times
1 (4)
(3) Decreases to half (4) Decreases to
9

BOTANY
91. Select the incorrect statement. Chara is generally A whereas
(1) Carotenoids protect the plant from excessive Marchantia is B .
heat and prevent photo-oxidation of A B
chlorophyll pigments
(1) Dioecious Monoecious
(2) All pigments other than chlorophyll are called (2) Monoecious Dioecious
accessory pigments (3) Monoecious Monoecious
(3) The electrons removed from PS II are never (4) Dioecious Dioecious
replaced 93. Choose the mis-matched pair.
(4) Cyclic photophosphorylation occurs mostly in (1) China rose – Bisexual
stroma lamellae membrane (2) Zoospore – Always motile
92. Read the given statement and choose the (3) Zygote – Diploid
correct option to fill up the blanks A and B. (4) Cleistogamy – Outbreeding device
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Test-17 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

94. During post transcriptional modification of 98. In which of the following plants, clear-cut
hnRNA, capping involves. distinction between all the three phases is
(1) Addition of poly A tail at 3 end absent?
(2) Addition of 7 mG cap at 5 end (1) Radish
(3) Removal of introns (2) Carrot
(4) Addition of 7 mG cap at 3 end (3) Wheat
95. Identify ‘A’ w.r.t. ATP synthesis through (4) Grapes
chemiosmosis. 99. Montreal protocol was signed to control emission
of
(1) Biogas
(2) Heavy metals in water bodies
(3) Ozone depleting substances
(4) Greenhouse gas
100. Citrus differs from Opuntia in
(1) Showing adventive embryony
(2) Having zygotic embryos
(3) Having modified axillary buds as thorns
(4) Both (1) and (3)
101. Calculate the DNA content of a meiocyte at the
end of the S phase if the products of meiosis
(1) Cytochromes b and f have 5 pg of DNA.
(2) Cytochrome a and a3 (1) 10 pg (2) 40 pg
(3) Cytochrome bc1 (3) 20 pg (4) 30 pg
(4) NADP reductase 102. Zygote develops a thick wall that is resistant to
96. Identify the option having correct match of desiccation and damage is most likely seen in
hormones with their respective function
(1) Ferns and mosses
a. Apical dominance
(2) Algae and conifers
b. Xylem differentiation
(3) Algae and fungi
c. Increases malt yield
(4) Monocots and dicots
d. Delayed ripening
103. For production of one molecule of sucrose
(1) a and c – Cytokinin
through Calvin cycle in bell pepper there is
(2) b and c – Gibberellins requirement of
(3) c and d – ABA (1) 2NADPH, 3ATP
(4) a and b – Auxin
(2) 24NADPH, 36ATP
97. Choose the correct features regarding the most
(3) 2NADPH, 5ATP
common asexual spores of sac fungi.
(4) 24NADPH, 30ATP
a. Haploid
104. How many of the following plant(s) show(s)
b. Exogenous
xenogamy only?
c. Thick walled
d. Produced during unfavorable conditions Castor, maize, coconut, papaya, date palm,
pea, ground nut
e. Grow in basipetal manner
(1) a, c and d (1) Two
(2) a, b and c (2) Three
(3) b, c, d and e (3) One
(4) All except c and d (4) Four

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-17 (Code-A)

105. Choose the correct option w.r.t. function of the 109. Choose the correct sequence of steps involved
cell organelles. in nitrate assimilation in a plant.
(1) NH3  NO2–  NO3–  Amide
(2) NO3–  NO2–  NH3  Keto acid
(3) NO3–  NO2–  NH3  Amide
(4) NH3  NO2–  NO3–  Keto acid
110. Choose the incorrect match about population
interaction.

111. Succession on bare land most likely converts it

into
(1) Grassland with xeric conditions
(2) Forest with xeric conditions
106. A heterozygous pea plant for pod shape and pod
colour was self pollinated. Find the probability of (3) Forest with mesic conditions
getting plants with inflatted pods in resulting (4) Grassland with hydric conditions
generation. 112. Degenerate, triplet, commaless, overlapping
(1) 25% (2) 12.5%
universal in eukaryotes only
(3) 75% (4) 6.25%
107. Choose the odd one w.r.t. requirement of DNA How many of the above features are associated
replication on template with polarity 3  5. with universal genetic code?
(1) DNA dependent RNA polymerase (1) Five (2) Three
(2) Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates (3) Four (4) Two
(3) DNA ligase 113.
(4) Both (1) & (3)
108. Given condition of light and dark duration results
in

Choose the correct features for lac operon.

a. (D) synthesised by i gene
b. (C) is polycistronic hnRNA
c. (B) is produced constitutively
d. (A) repressor mRNA
[where F-Flowering] e. p and o represent structural genes
(1) F, SDP (2) F, LNP (1) a, c, d and e (2) c and d
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) F, DNP (3) a, c and d (4) b, c, d and e

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Test-17 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

114. Which of the following gametes are produced by 119. First stage in the formation of symbiotic
Drosophila which is heterozygous for eye relationship between the nitrogen fixing bacteria
colour and wings size? and legumes involves
(1) (1) Nodule organogenesis
(2) Differentiation of nitrogen fixing
(2) endosymbiotic cell i.e. bacteroids
(3) only (3) Formation of internal tubular extension of
(4) only plasma membrane
(4) Migration of bacteria as a chemotactic
response
115. 120. Seed habit is characterised by development/
formation of ________ inside megasporangium.
a. Female gametophyte b. Zygote
Find the genotype of (I) & (II) individuals in the
given pedigree. c. Embryo d. Seed
(1) a, b, c & d (2) Only a, b & c
(1) I – aa, II – Aa
(3) Only b & c (4) Only a & c
(2) I – XXc, II – XcY
121. Formation of secondary vascular tissue in aerial
(3) I – XX, II – XY
parts of the plant is through
(4) I – Aa, II – AA
(1) Only intrafascicular cambium
116. Absence of disjunction of chromosomes during
(2) Primary + secondary meristem
cell division can lead to
(3) Cork cambium only
(1) Myotonic dystrophy
(4) Differentiated tissues only
(2) Cystic fibrosis
122. Loss of solute from the phloem leads to _____ in
(3) Down’s syndrome sieve tube.
(4) Phenylketonurea (1) Increase in O P
117. Choose the correct direction of movement of  (2) Decrease in solute potential
water in the given cells.
(3) Increase in water potential
 (4) Both (2) & (3)
123. Sporophyte in bryophytes is
(1) Parasitic on gametophyte
(2) Formed by germination of meiospore
(3) Specialized to produce gametes
(4) Haploid phase
124. Choose the incorrectly matched pair:
(1) Ulothrix – Zygote is single celled diploid
a. A  C
generation
b. B  C
(2) Spirogyra – Zygote is a resistant structure
c. A  B (3) Cycas – Coralloid roots
(1) Only a (2) Only b and c (4) Fucus – Isogametes
(3) Only c (4) All a, b and c 125. Innermost layer of cortex in dicots can perform
118. In alcoholic fermentation, redox equivalents several functions like
picked up by coenzyme are used for the (a) Storage
reduction of (b) Secondary meristem
(1) 3 phosphoglyceraldehyde (c) Redifferentiation capacity
(2) Diphosphoglyceric acid (d) Check points for entry of solutes
(3) Acetaldehyde (1) Only (a) and (c) (2) (a), (b) and (c)
(4) Pyruvic acid (3) Only (a) and (d) (4) Only (b) and (d)

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-17 (Code-A)

126. Given below plants belongs(s) to how many 131. Which of the following structure in bacteria is
families? analogous to mitochondria?
Gloriosa, Allium, Gram, Brassica, Datura, (1) Ribosome (2) Episome
Indigofera (3) Polysome (4) Mesosome
(1) Three (2) One 132. Arrangement of organisms into convenient
(3) Two (4) Four categories as groups on the basis of their
127. Each bivalent in pachytene stage shows similarities and differences in certain easily
(1) 2 chromosomes, 2 chromatids observable but fundamental characters is
(2) 4 chromosomes, 2 chromatids (1) Characterisation (2) Identification
(3) 2 chromosomes, 4 chromatids (3) Classification (4) Nomenclature
(4) 4 chromosomes, 4 chromatids 133. Choose the odd one w.r.t. functions of RER.
128. Choose the correct option w.r.t. sequence of (1) Provides precursor of enzyme
different stage of a cells cycle. (2) Gives rise to SER
(1) G2 phase  S phase  G1 phase (3) Membrane protein synthesis
(2) Pre mitotic gap phase  S phase  post (4) Cytoplasmic protein formation only
mitotic gap 134. Induced mutations have been used for
(3) G1 phase  G2 phase  S phase generating resistance in mung bean for
(4) Post mitotic gap phase  synthesis phase (1) White rust
 pre mitotic gap phase
(2) Powdery mildew
129. Genetic material for TMV is
(3) Bacterial blight
(1) ss RNA (2) ds DNA
(4) TMV
(3) ss DNA (4) ds RNA
135. For which of the following predatory food chain
130. Choose the correct match:
pyramid of biomass is inverted?
(1) Grass  Insect  Snake  Frog
(2) Detritus  Sparrow  Earthworms
(3) Phytoplanktons  Zooplanktons  Fish
(4) Tree  Birds  Parasite

ZOOLOGY
136. Select the hormone that acts through intracellular 139. Bone differs from cartilage in having
receptors. (1) Solid and pliable matrix
(1) FSH (2) LH (2) Non-calcified matrix
(3) Progesterone (4) Insulin (3) Perichondrium
137. Absorption of fructose from intestinal lumen into
(4) Haversian system
the intestinal mucosa cells occurs by
140. Deficiency of which of the following mainly leads
(1) Facilitated diffusion
to pernicious anaemia?
(2) Passive transport
(1) Vitamin B12 (2) Folic acid
(3) Both (1) & (2)
(3) Vitamin C (4) Vitamin K
(4) Active transport
141. Autoimmune disorder involving neuromuscular
138. Haemocoel is present in which of the following
set of animals? junctions is
(1) Cockroach, earthworm (1) Rheumatoid arthritis
(2) Corvus, Amphioxus (2) Myasthenia gravis
(3) Earthworm, Nereis (3) Osteoarthritis
(4) Prawn, Pila (4) Tetanus

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Test-17 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

142. Methemoglobin is formed due to 149. Select the mismatch.

(1) CO poisoning (1) Liquor folliculi – Fluid filled in antrum
(2) Inhalation or ingestion of nitrites (2) Follicular atresia – Regression of follicles in
(3) CO2 poisoning ovary
(4) Formation of carbaminohemoglobin
(3) Granulosa cells – Secrete estrogen
143. Events witnessed in a sarcomere during muscle
(4) Zona pellucida – Glycolipid layer around
contraction exclude all except
primary oocyte secreted
(1) Length of A-band decreases
by granulosa cells only
(2) Length of I-band decreases
(3) Length of H-zone increases 150. RU-486 or mifepristone is recommended as
(4) Z-lines move away from each other (1) Emergency contraceptive if taken within
144. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. excretory organ 72 hours of unprotected coitus
listed and the corresponding organism. (2) Implant method of contraception
(1) Malpighian tubules – Cockroach (3) Barrier method of contraception
(2) Flame cells – Pila (4) Oral pill for conception
(3) Protonephridia – Amphioxus
151. After placenta formation in humans the
(4) Green glands – Prawn
maternal tissue which is in contact with chorion of
145. Which of the following is almost completely
foetus is
reabsorbed by active reabsorption in the
nephrons of a healthy person? (1) Uterine epithelium
(1) Urea (2) Creatinine (2) Maternal connective tissue
(3) Glucose (4) Water (3) Endothelium of maternal capillaries
146. Which of the following joints is incorrectly (4) Maternal blood
matched between the given articulating bones
152. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t different
w.r.t. humans?
hominids, their cranial capacities and
(1) Adjacent vertebrae in – Cartilaginous
vertebral column joints characteristics?
(2) Parietal and sphenoid – Fibrous joints
bone
(3) Humerus and ulna – Ball and socket
joint
(4) Trapezium and first – Saddle joint
metacarpal of thumb
147. Where are chylomicrons synthesised in humans?
(1) Enterocytes (2) Intestinal lumen
(3) Bile duct (4) Lacteals
153. Choose the incorrect statement.
148. Choose the incorrect statement.
(1) Fitness is measured as the number of
(1) Metamerism is a serial repetition of similar
offspring that an organism produces
body segments along the longitudinal axis of
the body (2) Morphological adaptations in a species which
(2) Differentiation of head end is called allow them to blend in with their environment
cephalization and is found in bilaterally is called camouflage
symmetrical animals (3) Mimicry is a type of morphological adaptation
(3) All bilaterally symmetrical animals have a in which one organism resembles other
circulatory system for transport of nutrients,
organism
wastes, hormones etc.
(4) Mimicry is the process of natural selection
(4) The gill arches were cartilaginous/bony
supporters for gill slits which transformed into which has shaped the toxic viceroy butterfly
jaws in some vertebrates to look like the non-toxic monarch butterfly

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-17 (Code-A)

154. Which of the following is not correctly paired with 160. Which of the following statements is true for
their descriptions? cockroach?
(1) Interferons – Antiviral glycoproteins (1) The total number of ovarioles are five in both
(2) IgM – Most abundant during ovaries
anamnestic response (2) The larval stage is called naiad
(3) Antigenic – Express MHC (3) Anal styles are absent in females
presenting cells class-II molecules (4) They are ureotelic
(4) Opsonins – IgG 161. In the following graph, there are four curves
155. If the transformed bacterial cells are selected by depicting oxygen dissociation of four different
blue/white screening, it means that the reporter respiratory pigments (A-D). Choose the pigment
enzyme in this case is which has maximum affinity for oxygen.
(1) GFP (2) -Galactosidase
(3) tetR (4) -Galactosidase
156. Which one of them is genetically modified to
make herbicide tolerant plants?
(1) Round up canola (2) Golden rice
(3) Flavr savr tomato (4) Bt. cotton
157. Select the true statements about enzyme
catalyzed reactions.
(1) The rate of reaction is independent of (1) A (2) B
temperature (3) C (4) D
(2) The rate of enzyme catalyzed reactions
162. The following statements are for a retroperitoneal
increases when pH falls below optimum level
organ located between last thoracic and the third
(3) The rate of reaction is independent of lumbar vertebra. Choose the statement which is
substrate concentration incorrect for this organ.
(4) Under given conditions of substrate (1) Internally it has two zones – an outer cortex
concentration, pH and temperature, the rate and inner medulla
of product formation varies directly with
(2) It secretes two proteinaceous hormones –
enzyme concentration up to a maximum, at
Renin and erythropoietin
which point the rate cannot be increased
further (3) Ammonia produced by metabolism is
converted into urea here and retained in
158. Ischaemia refers to inadequate blood flow to an
organ. Myocardial ischaemia may occur if the medulla to maintain desired osmolarity of
coronary blood flow is occluded resulting in body fluids
(1) Angina pectoris, a severe pain in the chest (4) It is a paired organ each having approximately
and arm a million smaller functional units called
nephrons
(2) Prolonged ischaemia may cause
atherosclerosis 163. In the following table, the type of joint, its location
in body where it present is given below. Choose
(3) Formation of clot in the coronary artery
the correct option.
(4) Congestive heart failure
159. Match the following and choose the correct
option.
Column-I Column-II
a. Adipose tissue (i) Fibreless matrix
b. Cuboidal epithelium (ii) Abundant fat cells
c. Hyaline cartilage (iii) Thyroid follicles
d. Blood (iv) Tracheal rings
(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
(3) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (4) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)

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164. The axonal membrane is more permeable to 171. Elaborate courtship behaviour helps in
potassium ions as compared to sodium ions at preventing interspecific breeding. It is an
a. Resting stage example of
b. Hyperpolarised stage (1) Temporal isolation
c. Depolarisation stage (2) Pre-zygotic reproductive isolation
(1) a only (2) a and c (3) Post-zygotic reproductive isolation
(3) a and b (4) a, b and c (4) Mechanical isolation
165. Which of the following does not have the main 172. In the diagram, identify X, Y and Z respectively
function in hearing? with the number of appropriate hormones given
below
(1) Macula (2) Organ of Corti
(3) Basilar membrane (4) Stapes
166. In earthworm exchange of gases occurs
through/across
(1) Spiracles (2) Malpighian tubules
(3) Tracheoles (4) Moist skin
167. Type of junction that allows adjacent cells to
remain connected cytoplasmically and occur at
inter-calated discs are
(1) (iii), (iv) and (ii) (2) (vi), (ii) and (v)
(1) Adhering junctions (2) Tight junctions
(3) (i), (iv) and (vi) (4) (vi), (v) and (ii)
(3) Gap junctions (4) Interdigitations
173. A female who is on mini pills, stops taking them.
168. Which of the following of region of brain is mainly
Which of the following will be the immediate
responsible for conversion of short term memory
effect?
to long term memory?
(1) Pregnancy results
(1) Thalamus
(2) Fertility is lost
(2) Wernicke’s area
(3) Menstrual bleeding may start
(3) Hippocampus
(4) Menstruation stops
(4) Visual area
174. A child undergoes infection by the same bacterial
169. Select the examples of passive immunity.
strain twice in the same year. The second time,
a. Immunoglobulin transmitted through mother’s the symptoms are far less severe and persist for
milk a shorter duration. Which cells are initially and
b. Immunoglobulin injected in a patient most responsible for the diminished effects of the
c. Attenuated pathogens introduced in the body second infection?
d. Administration of anti-venom (1) Plasma cells (2) Memory cells
(1) a, b, c and d (2) a, b and d (3) Cytotoxic T cells (4) Helper T cells
(3) a and d only (4) b and d only 175. Concerns have been raised about the safety and
170. What is the appropriate combination of wisdom of genetically modified crops and other
characters for protostomic development? organisms centered on following claims, except
a. Spiral cleavage (1) Genetic manipulation is an unnatural
interference with nature
b. Radial cleavage
(2) Genetically modified foods may be unsafe to
c. Blastopore forms anus
eat
d. Blastopore forms mouth
(3) Genetically altered crop plants may be
e. Indeterminate cleavage dangerous to the environment
f. Determinate cleavage (4) Genetically altered crop plants have
(1) a, b and d (2) a, d and f increased efficiency of mineral usage by the
(3) b, c and e (4) a, c and e plants

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176. RNA interference (RNAi) inhibits (4) Double stranded DNA tagged with a
(1) DNA replication radioisotope
(2) Neither transcription nor translation of 179. Category of enzymes that includes all enzymes
specific genes catalysing interconversion of optical, geometric or
(3) Transcription of all genes positional isomers are
(4) Translation of specific mRNAs (1) Lyases
177. A cloning vector possesses all of the following, (2) Ligases
except (3) Isomerases
(1) Selectable marker (2) DNA ligase
(4) Transferases
(3) ‘Ori’ site (4) Cloning sites
180. Inbreeding depression can be overcome by
178. A probe is
(1) Interspecific hybridisation
(1) Single stranded DNA only
(2) Outcrossing
(2) Single stranded RNA only
(3) Single stranded DNA or RNA tagged with a (3) Cross breeding
radioisotope (4) Further inbreeding

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Edition: 2020-21