05/02/2021 Code-A

Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph. 011-47623456

MM : 720 NEET BOOSTER TEST SERIES (NBTS) for NEET-2021 Time : 3.00 Hrs.
Test - 8
Topics covered :
Physics : Magnetism and Matter, Electromagnetic induction, Alternating Current, Electromagnetic Waves
Chemistry : The d and f-Block elements, Coordination Compounds, Haloalkanes and Haloarenes
Botany : Molecular Basis of Inheritance, Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production
Zoology : Evolution

Instructions :
(i) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing
material on Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

PHYSICS

Choose the correct answer : (1) Isogonic lines

(2) Isothermal lines
1. A copper rod of length 1 m is hinged at its
mid-point and rotated such that plane of rotation (3) Isoclinic lines
is perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field of (4) Isomagnetic lines
magnitude 2 T. The emf induced across the two 5. Meissner effect is associated with
ends of the rod will be
(1) Insulator
(1) 2 V (2) 3 V
(2) Compressible fluid
(3) 4 V (4) Zero
(3) Semiconductors
2. The magnetic flux associated with a coil, on
passage of current of 2 A is 4 Wb. The self (4) Superconductors
inductance of the coil is 6. A current of 10 A is flowing at 100 V in primary of
(1) 4 H (2) 1 H a transformer. If the voltage produced in the
secondary coil is 2000 V and 50% power is lost,
(3) 2 H (4) 6 H then the current in the secondary will be
3. Magnetic flux through a coil varies with time (t) as (1) 1 A (2) 2.5 A
φ = 4t – 2t2. The magnitude of emf induced in the
coil, when the flux through it becomes zero is (3) 5 A (4) 0.25 A
(1) 8 V (2) 4 V 7. In LCR series circuit R = 4 Ω, XL = 2 Ω and
XC = 2 Ω . The net impedance of the circuit is
(3) 1 V (4) 2 V
(1) 6 Ω (2) 1 Ω
4. The lines joining places with equal angles of dip
are called (3) 4 Ω (4) 2 Ω
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Test-8 (Code-A) NEET Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET-2021

8. The ratio of r.m.s. values of two alternating (1) Alternating current

voltages e1 = 20 sin (100t) V and e2 = 20 sin (50t) (2) Direct current
V is
(3) Conduction current
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
(4) Displacement current
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 4 : 1
15. If a variable frequency ac source connected to a
9. The instantaneous current in a circuit is given by
capacitor in series, then with decrease in
i = 4 + 2cos(ωt). The effective value of the
frequency, the displacement current will
resulting current in the circuit is
(1) Increase
(1) 3 A
(2) Decrease
(2) 3 2 A
(3) Remain constant
(3) 4 2 A (4) First decrease then increase
(4) 6 A 16. The reading of hot wire ammeter in the circuit is
10. Electric current flowing in a coil of self inductance
10 mH, changes from 1 A to 2 A in 2 s. The emf
induced in the coil will be
(1) 5 mV
(2) 2 mV
(3) 5 V
(4) 10 V
(1) 2 A (2) 3 A
11. In an ac circuit, peak value of voltage is 523 volts.
Its effective voltage is nearly (3) Zero (4) 1 A
(1) 400 volts 17. In an LCR circuit, the resonating frequency is
500 kHz. If the value of L is doubled and value of
(2) 323 volts
1
(3) 370 volts C is decreased to times of its initial values,
8
(4) 340 volts then the new resonating frequency (in kHz) will be
12. Displacement current is set up between the (1) 250 (2) 500
plates of a capacitor when the potential difference (3) 1000 (4) 2000
across the plates is
18. An alternating voltage source is connected across
(1) Maximum (2) Constant
a device of resistance 6 Ω. The device has a
(3) Minimum (4) Varying
reactance of 6 Ω as well. The phase difference
13. A parallel plate capacitor with plates of radius R between the source voltage and the current in the
is being charged as shown in figure. At the circuit will be
instant shown, the displacement current in the
(1) 45° (2) 90°
R
region between the plates enclosed between (3) Zero (4) 60°
2
and R is given by 19. In oscillating LC circuit, the total stored energy is
U and maximum charge upon capacitor is Q.
When the charge upon the capacitor is Q/4, the
energy stored in the inductor is
U U
(1) (2)
2 4

3 1 4 15U
(1) i (2) i (3) U (4)
4 4 3 16

4 20. A charged 30 µF capacitor is connected to a

(3) 3i (4) i 27 mH inductor. The angular frequency of free
3
oscillations of the circuit is
14. The current in the electric circuit which arises due
(1) 1.1 × 103 rad s–1 (2) 2.1 × 103 rad s–1
to flow of electrons in the connecting wires of the
circuit in a defined closed path is called (3) 3.1 × 103 rad s–1 (4) 4.1 × 103 rad s–1

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NEET Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET-2021 Test-8 (Code-A)

21. The charge on the capacitor in LC circuit is given 30. The intensity of sun at earth’s surface is
2
d Q 104 W/m2. The total power that is incident on a
by equation + 64Q =
0 . The frequency roof of dimensions (10 × 20) m2 will be
dt 2
(1) 3 × 102 W (2) 4 × 104 W
(in Hz) of LC oscillation is
(3) 2 × 106 W (4) 106 W
(1) 2/π (2) 2
31. A plane electromagnetic wave of intensity
(3) 4 (4) 4/ π 30 W/m2 strikes a small mirror of area 10 cm2,
22. Two capacitors of 80 µF each are connected to a held perpendicular to the wave direction. The
16 mH inductor in series. The time period of free radiation force experienced by the mirror will be
oscillations of the circuit is nearly
(1) 100 N (2) 10–10 N
(1) 5 ms (2) 1 ms
(3) 2 × 10–10 N (4) 4 × 10–12 N
(3) 8 ms (4) 1.5 ms
32. If the rms current in a 50 Hz ac circuit is 10 A.
23. An aeroplane is flying horizontally with a velocity 1
of 360 km/h. The distance between the tips of the The value of the current seconds after its
400
wings of aeroplane is 25 m. The vertical
component of earth's magnetic field is value becomes zero is
4 × 10–4 Wb/m2. The induced e.m.f. is (1) 10 2 A (2) 2 A
(1) 1 V (2) 100 V (3) 5 A (4) 10 A
(3) 1 kV (4) Zero 33. As the frequency of ac source increases, the
24. With the decrease of current in the primary coil capacitive reactance
from 2 A to zero in 0.01 s, the e.m.f. generated in (1) Increases
the secondary coil is 1000 V. The mutual
inductance of the two coil is (2) Decreases
(1) 1.25 H (2) 2.50 H (3) Remain same
(3) 5.00 H (4) 10.00 H (4) May increase or remain same
25. An emf E = 10 cos (50t) V is applied to an LR 34. A thin rod of length 10 cm moves with a velocity
circuit containing inductance of reactance 3 Ω (4i + j ) m/s through a uniform magnetic field
and a resistance 4 Ω. The peak value of the (8i + 2 j ) T . The emf induced along the rod will be
current in the circuit will be
(1) 4 A (2) 1 A (1) Zero (2) 10 V
(3) 2 A (4) 10 A (3) 4 V (4) 13 V

26. Magnetic flux through a coil of resistance 10 Ω 35. At 28°C, the magnetic susceptibility of a
changes from 4 Wb to 8 Wb. The charge flown substance is found to be equal to –0.0004. The
through the coil will be susceptibility at 30°C is
(1) 10 C (2) 0.1 C (1) 0.0002 (2) – 0.0008
(3) 0.4 C (4) 4 C (3) – 0.00006 (4) – 0.0004
27. The phase difference between V and I for a 36. Beyond Curie temperature, a ferromagnetic
series LCR, circuit at resonance is substance behaves as
(1) 90° (2) 45° (1) Diamagnetic (2) Paramagnetic
(3) Zero (4) 60° (3) Superconductor (4) Semiconductor
28. A transformer is used to light a 100 W and 37. A paramagnetic substance of susceptibility
100 V lamp from a 200 V mains. If the main 6 × 10–4 is placed in a magnetic field intensity of
current is 3 A, the efficiency of transformer is 8 × 10–4 A/m. The intensity of magnetization, in
approximately the units of A/m, is
(1) 28.1% (2) 16.6% (1) 48 × 10–8 (2) 24 × 10–8
(3) 39.4% (4) 50.2% (3) 12 × 10–8 (4) 10 × 10–8
29. The ratio of contributions made by the electric 38. The ratio of mean value over half cycle to rms
field and magnetic field components in the value of sinusoidal AC signal is
intensity of electromagnetic wave is (1) 2 : π (2) 2 2 : π
(1) 1 : 1 (2) c : 1
(3) 1 : c2 (4) c3 : 1 (3) 2:π (4) 2 :1

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Test-8 (Code-A) NEET Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET-2021

39. The power factor of the circuit shown in figure is 42. Keeping number of turns and cross-sectional
area constant, the self-inductance ‘L’ of solenoid
varies with its length ‘l’ as
1
(1) L ∝ l (2) L ∝
l
1
(3) L ∝ l2 (4) L ∝
l2
43. In an EM wave in free space, rms value of
electric field is 18 V/m. The peak value of
1 magnetic field is
(1) 1 (2)
2 (1) 8.64 × 10–4 T (2) 4 × 10–4 T
1 1 (3) 2 × 10–6 T (4) 8.5 × 10–8 T
(3) (4) 44. Among the following, electromagnetic waves are
4 6
produced by
40. A direct current of 4 A and an alternating current
(1) Static charge
having peak value 4 A flow through two identical
resistances. The ratio of heat produced in the two (2) An accelerated charge
resistances in equal time interval will be (3) A moving charge with uniform velocity
(1) 1 : 3 (2) 6 : 1 (4) None of the above
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 5 : 6 45. A square conducting loop is placed in a magnetic
field B with its plane perpendicular to the field.
41. A solenoid of resistance 10 Ω and inductance
The sides of the loop start shrinking at a constant
5 mH is connected to a 100 V battery. The energy
stored in solenoid at steady state will be rate α. The induced emf in the loop at an instant
when its side is ‘a’ is
(1) 20 J (2) 25 J
(1) 2αa (2) 2Bα
(3) 0.25 J (4) 10 J
(3) 2Bαa (4) Bαa

CHEMISTRY
46. Magnetic moment of Cu2+ ion is 50. Select the product which is formed when
(1) 1.73 BM chromite ore is fused with potassium carbonate in
free access of air?
(2) Zero
(1) KMnO4
(3) 2.83 BM
(2) K2MnO4
(4) 3.87 BM
(3) K2CrO4
47. Select the coloured metal ion having maximum
number of unpaired electrons, among the (4) K2Cr2O7
following 51. Because of lanthanide contraction, which of the
(1) Zn2+ (2) Ti3+ following pairs of elements have nearly same
atomic radii?
(3) Fe3+ (4) V2+
(1) Nb, V
48. Most acidic oxide of manganese is
(2) Mo, W
(1) MnO (2) Mn3O4
(3) Zn, Cd
(3) Mn2O7 (4) MnO2
(4) Mo, Cr
49. Correct characteristics of interstitial compounds is
52. Enthalpy of atomisation is least for
(1) They are more chemically reactive than
(1) Cr (2) Fe
parent metals
(3) Zn (4) Sc
(2) They retain metallic conductivity
53. Thermal decomposition of KMnO4 at 513 K does
(3) They have low melting points than parent not give
metals (1) K2MnO4 (2) MnO2
(4) They are much softer than parent metals (3) Mn2O3 (4) O2

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NEET Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET-2021 Test-8 (Code-A)

54. Number of mole(s) of dichromate ion required to 61. Neutral bidented ligand is
oxidize 0.3 mol of hydrogen sulphide in acidic (1) ox (2) en
medium will be
(3) gly (4) EDTA
(1) 0.05 (2) 0.2
62. Ligand of highest field strength as per spectro-
(3) 0.1 (4) 0.3 chemical series is
55. Incorrect statement among the following is – –
(1) OH (2) CN
(1) Ce(IV) is more oxidizing in nature than water
(3) H2O (4) C2O24−
(2) Eu(II) can act as reducing agent
63. Electronic configuration of low spin octahedral
(3) Yb(II) is acting as oxidant complex in d5 condition is
(4) Nd may exhibit +4 oxidation state in its oxides
(1) t 32g e2g (2) t 52g e0g
56. Correct electronic configuration of Sm
(Samarium, Atomic number 62) is (3) t 22g e3g 4
(4) t 2g e1g
(1) [Xe] 4f6 6s2 64. Number of rings present in complex
(2) [Xe] 4f5 5d1 6s2 [Co(en)2(ox)]Cl is
(3) [Xe] 4f7 6s1 (1) 3 (2) 4
(4) [Xe] 4f7 6s2 (3) 6 (4) 5
57. Correct order of ionic size among the following is 65. Which one of the following is expected to exhibit
(Atomic numbers : Eu = 63, Gd = 64, Er = 68, Tm optical isomerism?
= 69) (1) Mer-[Co(NH3)3Br3]
(1) Eu3+ < Gd3+ < Er3+ < Tm3+ (2) Trans-[Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl
(2) Eu3+ < Er3+ < Tm3+ < Gd3+ (3) [Co(en)3]3+
(3) Tm3+ < Er3+ < Gd3+ < Eu3+ (4) Trans-[CoCl2(en)2]
(4) Tm3+ < Gd3+ < Er3+ < Eu3+ 66. Total number of unpaired electron(s) present in
58. Actinoid shows only +3 oxidation state among the complex [Ni(NH3)6]Cl2 is
following is (Atomic numbers : Pa = 91, Am = 95, (1) Zero (2) 2
Cm = 96 and No = 102) (3) 3 (4) 4
(1) Pa (2) Am 67. Crystal field stabilization energy for low spin d6
(3) Cm (4) Ac octahedral complex is (∆0 : Splitting energy gap,
59. Incorrect characteristics of actinoids is P : Pairing energy)
(1) In finely divided condition, the actinoids are (1) –2.4∆0
highly reactive in nature (2) –2.4∆0 + P
(2) On reaction with boiling water, they give (3) –2.4∆0 + 3P
mixture of oxide and hydride (4) –1.2∆0 + 2P
(3) 5f electrons of these elements are weakly 68. Among the following in which metal carbonyls
‘C–O’ bond order is maximum?
shielded from the nuclear charge than 4f
electrons of Lanthanoids (1) [Cr(CO)6] (2) [Mn(CO)6]+
(3) [Fe(CO)5] (4) [V(CO)6]–
(4) Due to formation of protective oxide layers on
69. Which one of the following complexes will exhibit
its surface most of them slightly affected by
the maximum paramagnetic behaviour?
nitric acid
(1) K2[NiCl4] (2) K3[CoCl6]
60. Element of least melting point among the
(3) Na3[FeCl6] (4) K4[ZnCl6]
following is
70. Value of primary and secondary valencies in
(1) W
complex [Zn(H2O)(NH3)(en)(gly)]Cl respectively
(2) Ta are
(3) Ir (1) 2, 2 (2) 4, 4
(4) Au (3) 3, 6 (4) 2, 6

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Test-8 (Code-A) NEET Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET-2021

71. Which of the following is a π-acid ligand? 78. Which of the following diphenyl is optically
active?
(1) NH2− (2) OH–
(3) CO (4) H2O (1)
72. Which complex is homoleptic?
(1) [Cr(H2O)4Cl2]Cl
(2)
(2) K3[Fe(C2O4)3]
(3) [CrCl2Br2(H2O)2]I2
(4) [Co(en)2ClBr]I
(3)
73. EAN (Effective atomic number) of central metal
atom in [Fe(H2O)5NO]SO4 complex is
(1) 35
(2) 34 (4)
(3) 36
(4) 37
74. Aqueous solution of which of the given solution 79. In which of the following compounds, the C–Br
show highest conductivity? bond ionization will give most stable carbonium
(1) CoCl3.4NH3 ion?
(2) CoCl3.3NH3
(3) CoCl3.5NH3
(1) (2)
(4) CoCl3.6NH3
75. Select the complex of highest stability among the
following.
(1) [Co(NH3)6]Cl3 (3) (4)
(2) [Co(en)2 Cl2]Br
80. The alkane that gives only one mono chlorinated
(3) [Co(H2O)6]Cl3
product on chlorination with Cl2 in the presence of
(4) [Co(en)3]Cl3 UV light is
76. Correct increasing order of nucleophilicity in polar
(1) CH3CH2CH3
aprotic medium is
(1) F– < Cl– < Br– < I– (2) CH3CH(CH3)2
(2) F– < I– < Br– < Cl–
(3) I– < Br– < Cl– < F– (3)
(4) I– < Cl– < F– < Br–
77. Which of the following compounds undergoes
nucleophilic substitution reaction most easily?
(4)
(1)
81. Select the incorrect statement among the
following.

(2) (1) Fluoro derivatives of hydrocarbons generally

having more density than water
(2) The haloalkanes are very slightly soluble in
(3) water
(3) Methyl bromide is in gaseous form at room
temperature
(4)
(4) The boiling point of isomeric haloalkanes
decrease with increase in branching

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NEET Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET-2021 Test-8 (Code-A)

82. The correct order of E1 for alkyl halides is 87. Which one easily give elimination on heating with
(1) 1° > 2° > 3° (2) 3° > 2° > 1° aqueous solution of sodium ethoxide?

(3) 2° > 1° > 3° (4) 2° > 3° > 1°

83. (1) (2)

This reaction is named as

(3) (4)
(1) Fittig reaction
(2) Wurtz-fittig reaction
88. Among the following which methyl halide is of
(3) Gattermann reaction maximum dipole moment?
(4) Sandmeyer reaction (1) CH3F (2) CH3Cl
CH3 (3) CH3Br (4) CH3I
| 89. Which one gives fastest reaction with AgNO3
84. CH3 − C − CH = CH2 + HBr → A(Major) solution?
|
CH3 (1)
Major product ‘A’ is
(1) (CH3)3CCH2CH2–Br
Br (2)
I
(2) (CH3 )3 C − CH− CH3

Br
| (3)
(3) (CH3 )2 C − CH(CH3 )2
(4) (CH3)2CH–CH(CH3)2
85. Which of the following compounds will undergo
(4)
racemisation when hydrolyses with solution of
KOH?
90. Major product of the following reaction is

(1)

(2) CH3Br
(3) (CH3)2CH – CH2Br

(4)
(1) (2)

86. Which one give fastest rate of SN2?

(1) CH3Cl
(2) (CH3)2CH–Cl
(3) (CH3)3C–Cl (3) (4)
Cl
I
(4) (CH3 )2 CH − CH − CH3

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Test-8 (Code-A) NEET Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET-2021

BOTANY
91. A nitrogenous base is linked to the pentose sugar 97. A molecule that can act as a genetic material
through a N-glycosidic linkage to form a should be able to fulfill all the following criteria
(1) Nucleotide except

(2) Nucleolus (1) Generate its replica

(3) Nucleus (2) Chemically and structurally stable

(4) Nucleoside (3) Show no changes or mutation at all

92. Select the mismatched pair w.r.t DNA content (4) Express itself in the form of ‘Mendelian
Characters’
(1) φ × 174 – 5386
98. Which of the following enzyme is responsible for
nucleotides
the DNA synthesis from RNA?
(2) Bacteriophage – 48502 base (1) Ligase
lambda pairs
(2) Reverse transcriptase
(3) E.coli – 2.5 × 103 bp (3) RNA polymerase
(4) Human DNA – 3.3 × 109 bp (4) DNA polymerase I
(Haploid content) 99. Guanine is 20% in a double stranded RNA
93. The acidic substance present in nucleus first molecule. What would be the percentage of
identified by Friedrich Miescher in 1869 was thymine in it?
(1) RNA (1) 30%
(2) DNA (2) 0%
(3) H1 protein (3) 60%
(4) Histone octamer (4) 40%
94. Which of the following is not common in both 100. Read the following statements and select the
RNA and DNA? correct option.
(1) Cytosine
Statement A : After the completion of replication,
(2) Adenine each DNA molecule would have one parental and
(3) Guanine one newly synthesised strand.
(4) 5-methyl uracil Statement B : DNA replicates semi
95. Unequivocal proof that DNA is the genetic conservatively in E.coli and conservatively in
material came from the experiment of human.
(1) Walter Sutton (1) Both statements A and B are correct
(2) Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase (2) Only statement A is correct
(3) Thomas Hunt Morgan (3) Only statement B is correct
(4) Frederick Griffith
(4) Both the statements A and B are incorrect
96. A molecule which performs dynamic functions of
101. Average rate of DNA polymerization in E. coli is
messenger and adapter and is also found in
some viruses as main genetic material has approximately

(1) Deoxyribose sugar (1) 500 bp per second

(2) Thymine (2) 100 bp per minute
(3) 2′OH group in their sugar (3) 1000 bp per minute
(4) More stable structure and shows no mutation (4) 2000 bp per second

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NEET Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET-2021 Test-8(Code-A)

102. Select the mismatched pair w.r.t DNA 107. Polynucleotide phosphorylase enzyme
replication. (1) Catalyse the DNA synthesis
(1) dNTPs – Provides the (2) Is helpful in polymerising RNA with defined
energy for sequences in a template independent
polymerization manner

(2) DNA ligase – Join the (3) Add the phosphate to DNA at 5′ end
discontinuous (4) Add the phosphate to DNA at 3′ end
fragments of
108. All reference point while defining a transcription
lagging strand
unit is made with
(3) DNA replication – Occurs in S
(1) Coding strand (2) Non-coding strand
phase of cell
cycle in (3) Non-sense strand (4) Template strand
eukaryotes 109. Poly A tail present at the 3′ end of transcript is

(4) DNA – RNA (1) Composed of 200-300 adenylate residues

polymerase-I dependent- (2) Synthesized in template dependent manner
DNA
(3) Catalyzed by guanylyl transferase
polymerase
(4) Mainly seen in prokaryotes
103. In prokaryotes, unwinding of DNA double helix is
110. Mark the incorrect statement about transcription
done by
in prokaryotes
(1) DNA gyrase
(1) Transcript is polycistronic
(2) DNA polymerase I
(2) Exons and introns are present in transcript of
(3) Helicase all prokaryotes
(4) DNA ligase (3) Only one type of RNA polymerase synthesise
104. Catalytic RNA in prokaryotes is all three types of RNA
(1) 5 S rRNA (4) Sigma factor is an initiation factor
(2) 23S rRNA 111. Select the mismatched pair w.r.t genetic
(3) 18S rRNA code

(4) 28S rRNA (1) UAA – Stop codon

105. In eukaryotes, 5S rRNA and SnRNA are (2) AUG –Start codon in prokaryotes
synthesized by (3) UGA –Stop codon
(1) RNA polymerase I (4) AUU–Start codon in eukaryotes
(2) RNA polymerase II 112. Which of the following is not true for translation in
prokaryotes?
(3) Topoisomerase
(1) When the small subunit encounters an
(4) RNA polymerase III
mRNA, the process of translation of the
106. Rho factor is a protein in bacteria which is
mRNA to protein begins
responsible for
(2) There are four sites in large subunit of
(1) Initiation of DNA replication ribosome for incoming tRNA
(2) Termination of transcription (3) Ribozyme catalyzes the formation of peptide
(3) DNA synthesis bond
(4) Protein synthesis (4) UTRs are required for efficient translation

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Test-8(Code-A) NEET Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET-2021
113. How many amino acids will be there in peptide 120. The technique of DNA fingerprinting developed
translated from the following transcript? by Alec Jeffreys, as used earlier, involved
southern blot hybridisation using
5′ AUG AUU AUG UAG AAA UGA 3′
(1) RT-PCR as probe
(1) 5 (2) 6
(2) Radiolabelled VNTR as probe
(3) 4 (4) 3
(3) Macro-satellite DNA
114. In lac operon, repressor protein
(4) NH4Cl as the only nitrogen source
(1) Bind to the lac i site
121. Chromosome 1 of human has A genes and
(2) Bind to operator region of operon
the Y has the B genes respectively.
(3) Positively regulate the lac operon
(4) Bind to lac z gene Fill in the blanks for A and B
115. Which of the following gene of lac operon codes (1) 2968, 231
for β-galactosidase enzyme? (2) 1000, 200
(1) Lac i (2) Lac y (3) 230, 3000
(3) Lac z (4) Lac a (4) 200, 1000
116. The actual structure of tRNA is a compact 122. Which of the following is a variety of wheat
molecule which looks like resistant to leaf and stripe rust?
(1) A clover leaf (1) Pusa Komal
(2) A spiral staircase (2) Himgiri
(3) Linear straight line (3) Pusa Sadabahar
(4) Inverted L (4) Pusa Shubra
117. In prokaryotes the predominant site for the 123. Changes in the base sequence within genes
control of gene expression is at through use of chemicals or radiations and
(1) Regulation of splicing selecting and using the plants that have the
desirable characters as a source of breeding, is
(2) Transport of mRNA from nucleus to the
called
cytoplasm
(1) Conventional breeding
(3) Translational level
(2) Biofortification
(4) Control of rate of transcriptional initiation
(3) Mutation breeding
118. In a typical nucleus, euchromatin region is said to
be (4) Germplasm collection
(1) Densely packed 124. Pusa Swarnim is a variety of
(2) Transcriptionally active (1) Brassica resistant to white rust
(3) Darkly stained (2) Cowpea resistant to bacterial blight
(4) Transcriptionally inactive (3) Chilli resistant to black rot
119. Which of the following is not true about the HGP? (4) Wheat resistant to hill bunt
(1) The HGP was a 13-year project 125. Parbhani kranti variety of A. esculentus is
resistant to
(2) It was coordinated by U.S. Department of
Energy and the National Institute of Health (1) Yellow mosaic virus
(3) Project was completed in 1996 (2) Tobacco mosaic virus
(4) ESTs was one of the approach which was (3) Leaf curl
used for sequencing in HGP (4) Curl blight black rot

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NEET Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET-2021 Test-8(Code-A)

126. Select the incorrectly matched pair w.r.t (1) Tobacco Mosaic virus
varieties of crop (2) Aphids
(1) Pusa sem 2 – Flat bean (3) Yellow mosaic virus
(2) Pusa A-4 – Okra
(4) White rust
(3) Pusa Gaurav – Brassica
132. Pomato a hybrid of potato and tomato was
(4) Pusa Komal – Wheat developed through
127. Atlas 66, having high protein content, is a variety (1) Conventional breeding methods
of
(2) Somatic hybridization
(1) Sunflower (2) Wheat
(3) Induced mutation
(3) French bean (4) Rice
(4) Meristem culture
128. International Rice Research Institute is located
at 133. The capacity to generate a whole plant from any
cell is called
(1) New Delhi
(1) Cybrid (2) Somatic hybrid
(2) Kolkata
(3) Totipotency (4) Somaclone
(3) Mexico
134. Select the incorrect statement about plant tissue
(4) Philippines
culture
129. Taichung Native -1 is
(1) Growth regulators like auxins, cytokinins are
(1) A dwarf rice variety
used
(2) A semi-dwarf variety of rice
(2) Sucrose can be used as carbon source
(3) Developed in IARI, India
(3) Vitamins and amino acids are used in nutrient
(4) Dwarf variety of wheat medium
130. Select the odd one w.r.t Saccharum officinarum
(4) Meristem culture is not free of virus
(1) Thick stem
135. Breeding crops with higher levels of vitamins and
(2) High sugar content minerals, or higher protein content and healthier
(3) Did not grow well in north India fats is called
(4) Has very poor yield (1) Biomagnification
131. In mung bean, resistance to A and powdery (2) Bioaccumulation
mildew are induced by mutations. (3) Biofortification
Fill in the blank with correct option (4) Bioconcentration

ZOOLOGY
136. Urey and Miller experimentally proved (c) Chemoheterotrophs
(1) Biogenic evolution of organic substances (d) Anaerobes
(2) Abiogenic evolution of organic substances (e) Thermolabile
(3) Theory of natural selection (f) Chemoautotrophs
(4) Theory of biogenesis (1) (a), (e), (f) only
137. The earliest cells during reducing
(2) (a), (b), (f) only
environment were
(3) (a), (d), (e), (f) only
(a) Prokaryotes
(4) (a), (b), (c), (d) only
(b) Thermophilic

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Test-8(Code-A) NEET Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET-2021
138. Choose the content in spark discharge apparatus 143. Complete the analogy
used by Miller and Urey in their experiment Unit of evolution : Population : : Unit of natural
selection : ________
Content Ratio
(1) Individual (2) Species
(1) CH4 : H2 : NH3 2:1:2 (3) Family (4) Population
144. “Some times change in allele frequency is so
(2) H2O : CH4 : NH3 1:2:1
different in the new sample of population that
they become a different species” which of the
(3) CH4 : NH3 : H2 2:1:2
term given below describe this scenario?

(4) NH3 : CH4 : H2 1:1:2 (1) Founder’s effect (2) Speciation

(3) Saltation (4) Divergence
139. Which organic polymer act as a catalyst in origin
145. Animals like bandicoot, wombat, banded
of life?
anteater, sugar glider are examples of
(1) DNA (2) RNA (a) Adaptive radiation
(3) Protein (4) Enzyme (b) Convergent evolution
140. Choose the incorrect statement (c) Marsupials of Australia
(1) Coacervates do not fulfil the requirements for (d) Metatherian mammals
being precursor of life (1) (a), (c) only (2) (b), (c)
(2) During chemical evolution, there was an (3) (a), (c), (d) (4) (b), (c), (d)
accumulation of organic molecules in water 146. Which of the following period is known as age of
(3) Theory of biogenesis could not explain origin cycads?
of life (1) Triassic (2) Jurassic
(4) Life could not originate nowadays because of (3) Permian (4) Cretaceous
presence of reducing atmosphere and 147. All of the following are examples of homologous
microbes organs except
141. Excess use of pesticides or herbicides resulted in (1) Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils of
selection of resistant varieties in a much lesser Passiflora
time scale. It is an example of (2) Brain of fish, frog and cat
(a) Evolution by anthropogenic action (3) Legs of insects
(b) Diversifying selection (4) Flippers of penguin and dolphins
(c) Evolution is not a direct process in the sense 148. Triceratops and Stegosaurus were
of determinism but is a stochastic process (1) Extant reptiles
based on chance events in nature and (2) Dinosaurs
chance mutations in the organisms.
(3) Extinct birds
(1) (b) only (2) (a) only
(4) Extant birds
(3) (a), (b) only (4) (a), (c) only
149. The geological time scale is divided into eras,
142. In humans, the two sets of muscles that move the
periods and epochs. Under which of the following
ears are
era Silurian period falls?
(1) Analogous structures (1) Proterozoic
(2) Homologous structures (2) Palaeozoic
(3) Vestigial structure (3) Mesozoic
(4) Phylogenetic structures (4) Coenozoic

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NEET Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET-2021 Test-8(Code-A)

150. The process of evolution of different species in a 157. The ship on which Darwin was appointed as
given geographical area starting from a point and naturalist was
literally radiating to other areas of geography is
(1) Sea gull
called
(2) H.M.S. Beagle
(1) Coevolution
(3) Century
(2) Adaptive radiation
(4) H.M.S. Biegle
(3) Convergent evolution
(4) Parallel evolution 158. Genetic drift

151. Which of the following organism is (1) Is an orderly change in gene frequencies
phylogenetically close living relative of birds? (2) Is a random change in gene frequencies
(1) Dinosaurs (2) Mammals (3) Produce great fluctuations in large
(3) Crocodiles (4) Tuatara populations
152. The finches of Galapagos islands provide an (4) Has nothing in common with inbreeding
evidence in favour of
159. In our modern understanding of natural selection,
(1) Embryological evidences the fittest individuals are those who are
(2) Biogeographical evidences
(1) Best adapted to the environment
(3) Paleontological evidences
(2) Best equipped to cope with special
(4) Special creation environmental conditions
153. What was the feeding habit of founder species of
(3) More contributor to the gene pool
Darwin finches?
(4) Producing many offspring but only few
(1) Insectivorous (2) Piscivorous
survive
(3) Cactus eater (4) Seed eater
160. To be a successful event for evolution, mutation
154. Darwinian variations are
must occur in
(1) Small and directional
(1) Somatoplasm DNA
(2) Random and directionless
(2) Plasma protein
(3) Small and directionless
(3) RNA
(4) Random and directional
(4) Germplasm DNA
155. Frequency of the mutated gene in a population is
expected to increase if that gene is 161. Which type of selection indicate that extreme
values have the highest fitness and mean values
(1) Dominant
are relatively disadvantageous?
(2) Recessive
(1) Directional selection
(3) Inheritable
(2) Diversifying selection
(4) Adaptable and selected by nature
(3) Progressive selection
156. If a population of organism is introduced into a
new territory where environmental conditions (4) Normalising selection
are favourable, the population grows rapidly 162. Which of the following theory is not given by
because Darwin?
(1) Rate of reproduction increases (1) Theory of pangenesis
(2) Predation is nil (2) Artificial selection theory
(3) Food supply becomes limited
(3) Natural selection theory
(4) More offsprings survive and adaptive
(4) Theory of recapitulation
radiation occurs

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Test-8(Code-A) NEET Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET-2021
163. Which of the following is/are key concept of 168. Around how many years back, agriculture
Darwin’s theory of evolution? settlement came into existence and leads to
(a) Natural selection human settlement?

(b) Use and disuse of organs (1) 18,000 years ago

(c) Branching descent (2) 10,000 years ago

(d) Reproductive isolation and speciation (3) 75,000 years ago

(1) (a), (c) (4) 40,000 years ago

(2) (b), (c) 169. Which of the following human ancestor had
cranial capacity as that of modern man?
(3) (a), (d)
(1) Homo habilis
(4) (c), (d)
(2) Homo erectus
164. Hardy Weinberg principle states that sum total of
all allelic frequencies in a evolutionary population (3) Homo neanderthalensis
are (4) Australopithecus
(1) Equivalent to 1 170. Prehistoric cave art can be seen in Bhimbetka
(2) More or less than 1 rock shelter in X district of Y state. Fill

(3) (p + q)2 = 1 the blanks with correct options

(4) p = 1 – q2 X Y
165. Select the correct option w.r.t. given statements Hoshangabad Madhya Pradesh
(1)
A : Bottle neck effect explains evolution of
(2) Raisen Madhya Pradesh
Darwin finches on Galapagos island
B: Genetic drift can bring change in gene (3) Hamirpur Himachal Pradesh
frequency by chance in any direction
(4) Kurnool Andhra Pradesh
(1) Both A and B statements are correct
(2) Only A is correct 171. Skull of baby chimpanzee is more like skull of
(3) Only B is correct (1) Adult chimpanzee

(4) Both A and B statements are incorrect (2) Human baby

166. Which of the following is the incorrect match? (3) Adult human
(4) Neanderthal man
(1) A. Weissmann – Theory of
germplasm 172. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(1) About 15 mya, Ramapithecus and
(2) Hugo de Vries – Mutation theory Dryopithecus were existing.

(3) Thomas – An essay on (2) Ramapithecus were more like man

Malthus principle of (3) The first human like being the hominid was
population Homo habilis

(4) Oparin – Theory of evolution (4) Homo erectus used animal hides to protect
of life their body and buried their dead ones
173. Select the odd one w.r.t divergent evolution
167. Select the nearest ancestor of mammals from the
following representatives of evolutionary history (1) Types of beaks in Darwin finches
of vertebrates (2) Heart of amphibians and reptiles
(1) Sauropsids (2) Synapsids (3) Eyes of Octopus and fish
(3) Thecodonts (4) Therapsids (4) Forelimbs of whale and bat

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NEET Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET-2021 Test-8(Code-A)

174. Which of the given options does not support

(3) Homo – Lived in near
Darwinism?
neanderthalensis east and
(1) Mimicry central Asia
(2) Symbiosis
(4) Homo erectus – Brain
(3) Predator-prey relationship
capacity were
(4) Vestigial organs between
175. The basic process which will lead to disruption of 650-800 cc
Hardy Weinberg equilibrium is absence of
178. Dinosaurs suddenly disappeared from the earth
(1) Mutation
about
(2) Natural selection
(1) 56 mya (2) 15 mya
(3) Random mating
(3) 16 mya (4) 65 mya
(4) Gene flow
179. Numbat show similarity with
176. During ice age between ____ to ____ years ago,
(1) Mole (2) Mouse
the modern day man arose. Fill the blank with
correct option (3) Lemur (4) Anteater
(1) 1,00,000 – 40,000 180. Read the following statements-A and B, choose
the correct option.
(2) 75,000 – 10,000
A: Pouched mammals of Australia show
(3) 18000 – 10,000
restricted distribution.
(4) 2000 – 2500 million
B: Due to continental drift and lack of
177. Choose the incorrect match linking human competition from any other mammal, they
evolution to their features survived in Australia.
(1) Australopithecus – Essentially (1) Both statement A and B are correct
ate fruits (2) Both A and B statements are incorrect
(3) Only A statement is correct
(2) Homo habilis – Probably did
not eat meat (4) Only B statement is correct

  

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