Code - B

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005; Ph.: 011-47623456

MM : 720 Test Series for NEET - 2019 Time : 3 Hrs.

Test – 2
Topics Covered :
Physics : Laws of Motion, Work, Energy and Power.
Chemistry : Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties, Chemical Bonding and Molecular structure,
States of Matter: Gases and Liquids
Botany : Morphology of Flowering Plants, Anatomy of Flowering Plants.
Zoology : Structural Organization in Animals, Biomolecules
Instructions :
(i) Use Blue/Black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on
Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer :
(3) (2i + 3 j ) kg m s−1, ( 4i + 6 j ) N
1. A body of mass 5 kg is pulled by a force
 (4) ( 4i + 6 j ) kg m s , ( 4i + 12 j ) N
−1
F = ( − 4i + 3 j ) N from rest on a smooth horizontal
table in x-z plane. The time at which it will attain a 4. A raindrop falling from a height h above the
speed of 4 m/s is
ground attains the terminal velocity when it has
(1) 3 s (2) 4 s 4
fallen through a height h . The diagrams shown
(3) 5 s (4) 3.25 s 5
in figure, which correctly shows the change in
2. Position of a particle of mass 1 kg varies according to
( ) (
the equation x (t ) = (2 m/s) t + 3 m/s2 t 2 + 5 m/s2 t 3) potential and kinetic energy of the drop during its
fall up to ground is
(where t is in s). The force acting on the body at
time t = 1 s is.
(1) 36 N (2) 134 N h PE
h
(3) 66 N (4) 30 N (1) (2) PE

3. The velocity (in m/s) of a body of mass h

h 5 KE
KE t
2 kg as a function of time (t) (in s) is given as 5 t

v (t ) = 2 ti + 3t 2 j .The momentum and the force
PE
acting on the body at time t = 1 s respectively are (3) h (4) h PE

(1) ( 4i + 3 j ) kg m s−1, ( 4i + 3 j ) N h

5 KE h
(2) ( 4i + 3 j ) kg m s , ( 4i + 6 j ) N
−1 KE
t 5
t
(1)
Test-2 (Code-B) Test Series for NEET - 2019
5. Two blocks of mass 2 kg and 4 kg kept on smooth 10. Consider inelastic collision of a ball with ground.
horizontal surface and connected by a light rope If ball is released from a height h, then total time
are being pulled by 13 N and 24 N force as in which ball finally comes to rest is [Coefficient of
shown in the figure. The tension force in the string restitution is e]
connecting the block is
1 + e  2h 1 + e 2  2h
13 N (1)  1 − e  g (2)  1 − e 2  g
2 kg 4 kg 24 N    
Smooth 1 + e  h 1 + e  h
(3)  1 − e  g (4)  1 − e  2g
(1) 4 N (2) 17.5 N    
(3) 11 N (4) Zero 11. A block of mass 3 kg slides on a fixed rough
inclined plane of inclination angle 53°. The force of
6. A rocket with a lift-off mass 30000 kg is blasted
friction on the block as shown in figure is (symbols
upwards with an initial acceleration 4.9 m s–2. The
have their usual meanings, g = 10 m s–2)
initial force due to ejecting fuel is (g = 9.8 ms–2)
(1) 441 kN

3
s = 0.3

kg
(2) 294 kN k = 0.2
(3) 300 kN
(4) 500 kN
7. Two billiard balls each of mass 0.06 kg moving in 53°
opposite directions with speed 5 m s–1 collide and
rebound with same speed. The impulse imparted to (1) 2.4 N (2) 3.6 N
each ball due to the other are
(3) 5.4 N (4) 6.4 N
(1) 0.6 kg m s–1 each, in same directions
12. A particle in motion and connected to a string is
(2) 0.6 kg m s–1 each, in opposite directions just able to complete a vertical circle of radius
(3) 0.6 kg m s–1 each, in transverse directions r. Acceleration of the particle when its velocity
(4) 1.2 kg m s–1 on one and zero on other becomes vertical is [g = 10 m/s2]
2
8. Water is flowing through a horizontal pipe with (1) 10 m/s2 (2) 10 10 m/s
speed 2  m/s and power required to maintain the 2
(3) 10 2 m/s (4) 40 m/s2
flow is 20 W. If speed becomes double then power
required will be 13. A ball of mass m is thrown horizontally with speed
v 0 as shown in the figure. The ball strikes the
(1) 160 W
block of mass 2m and sticks to it. The maximum
(2) 80 W compression of the spring connected to the block
(3) 320 W will be
(4) 40 W
9. As shown in the figure, the pulleys and the v0 k
strings are light and all surfaces are frictionless. If m 2m
acceleration of masses m1, m2 and m3 are a1, a2
Smooth
and a3 (with their directions shown in the figure),
then which of the following is correct? m m
(1) v 0 (2) v 0
a2 3k 2k
a1
2m 3m
m2 (3) v 0 (4) v 0
m1
k k
14. A ball is projected from ground with some speed at
an angle from the horizontal. The power of force of
gravity for the ball during journey is
m3 a3 (1) Positive

(2) Negative
(1) a1 + 2a2 = a3 (2) 2a1 + a2 = 2a3 (3) Initially positive and finally negative
(3) a1 + a2 = 2a3 (4) a1 + a2 = a3 (4) Initially negative and finally positive
(2)
Test Series for NEET - 2019 Test-2 (Code-B)
15. A body is moving unidirectionally under the m2 Rough
influence of a source of constant power. Which of
the graph correctly shows the velocity-time (v-t) F m1
Smooth
curve for its motion?
v v
m2
(1) FS (2) m FS
1
m2 m1
(3) m + m FS (4) m + m FS
(1) 0 t (2) 0 t 1 2 1 2
v 20. Two blocks A and B are pushed against the wall
v
with the force F as shown in the figure. The wall
is smooth but surfaces of A and B in contact with
each other are rough. Which of the following is true
for the system of blocks to be at rest against the
(3) 0 t (4) 0 t wall?
16. A particle initially at rest starts its motion with
uniform acceleration. Graph between kinetic energy
and displacement of the particle is F B A
(1) Straight line (2) Symmetric parabola
(3) Asymmetric parabola (4) Elliptical wall
17. Figure shows a body at the top of a fixed and (1) F should be equal to the weight of A and B
smooth hemispherical bowl of radius R. If the
body starts slipping from the highest point then the (2) F should be more than the weight of A and B
horizontal distance travelled by the body before (3) F should be three time the weight of A and B
leaving the contact with the bowl is (4) System cannot be in equilibrium
21. A block placed on a rough horizontal floor is being
R pushed by a force F making an angle α with the
vertical. The coefficient of friction between block
and surface is µ. The force required to slide the
2R block with uniform velocity without losing contact
(1) (2) 3R
with the floor is (tana > µ)
3
5R 5R (1) mg sin α
(3) (4)
3 2 (2) µmg
18. A particle of mass m = 1 kg is tied to a string and a
µ mg
horizontal force F = 10 N is applied on the particle (3)
(sin α − µ cos α )
as shown in figure. The tension in the string is
[g = 10 m/s2] (sin α − µ cos α ) mg
(4)
µ
22. A toy car starts from rest along the circular
track of radius R on a horizontal board with a
10 N m
tangential acceleration a0. At the same instant,
board starts from rest and accelerate upward
with an acceleration a1. The coefficient of friction
between board and car is µ. The speed of car
(1) 20 N (2) 10 N
relative to board at which it will skid is
(3) 10 2 N (4) 5 2 N
1
19. m1 and m2 are masses of two blocks placed one
above the other as shown in the figure. There is

 { }
(1)  µ 2 (g + a1)2 − a02 R 2  4
 2 1 
no friction between the lower block and ground.
The lower block is being pushed by a constant (2)  {
 µ (g + a1)2 − a02 4 R  }


horizontal force F. There is sufficient friction 1
between the blocks so that they do not slip over (3) {µ(g + a1) − a0 } R  4
2

each other. The work done by friction on upper
1
block if the arrangement moves through distance S
(4) µ (a1 − a0 )R  4
2 2 2 2
is
(3)
Test-2 (Code-B) Test Series for NEET - 2019
23. A machine gun fires a bullet of mass 50 g with a 29. I n t h e f i g u r e s h o w n h e r e , t h e m a x i m u m
velocity of 500 ms–1. The man holding it can exert compression in the ideal spring is (K is spring
a maximum force of 160 N on the gun to keep it constant)
v=0
stationary. The maximum number of bullets that he
can fire per second is 2m v m
(1) 6 (2) 7
(3) 2 (4) 9 mv 2 2mv 2
(1) (2)
2K 3K
24. Two blocks of masses 4 kg and 2 kg are sliding
down an inclined plane as shown in the figure. The 3mv 2 mv 2
(3) (4)
acceleration of 2 kg block is (g = 10 m/s2) 2K 3K
30. The force F with which a man must pulls the rope
in order to keep the platform at rest on which he
g  = 0.1
2k stands as shown in the figure is (mass of man is
g
4k  = 0.2 60 kg and that of platform is 20 kg)

37°
(1) 2.66 m/s2 (2) 4.66 m/s2
2
(3) 5.2 m/s (4) Zero 60 kg
25. A block of mass 60 kg is attached to a spring 20 kg
balance, attached to roof of a truck. The truck
begins its motion on a horizontal road with its (1) 40 kg-wt (2) 60 kg-wt
acceleration increasing slowly to a constant value. (3) 80 kg-wt (4) 100 kg-wt
The reading of spring balance will be 31. Power P (in watt) given to a particle, changes with
(1) 60 kgf (2) Less than 60 kgf time t (in s) as P = t2 + t + 1. The change in kinetic
(3) More than 60 kgf (4) Zero energy from t = 0 to t = 1 s is
26. An aircraft executes a horizontal loop at a speed 11
(1) J (2) 11 J
of 720 kmph with its wings banked at 10°. The 6
radius of loop will be nearly (g = 10 m/s2 and tan10° 22
(3) 6 J (4) J
= 0.176) 3
(1) 20 km (2) 18 km 32. A body of mass m rests on a horizontal floor. The
coefficient of static friction between floor and body
(3) 23 km (4) 25 km
is µ. The minimum possible force that has to be
27. In the figure shown, block A does not slide on block applied to make the body move is
B. The normal contact force acting between two
blocks is (assume all surfaces to be smooth) (1) µ mg (2) ( )
µ 2 + 1 mg
8N A B 4N µ mg mg
2 kg 2 kg (3) (4)
µ2 + 1 µ2 + 1
37° (Smooth) 33. A particle of mass m is moving in a circle of radius
(1) 4 N (2) 5 N r such that its centripetal acceleration a varies with
time t as a = Kt 2, where K is constant. The work
(3) 10 N (4) 20 N
done on the particle in first t seconds is
28. The graph of force (F) versus displacement (x) for
(1) 2mKrt2 (2) mKrt2
a body of mass 2 kg is shown in figure. If the body
has a velocity of 20 m/s at x = 0, then the kinetic mKt 2r mKrt 2
(3) (4)
energy of body at x = 10 m is 3r 2
F(N) x 
34. The force exerted on an object is F = f0  − 1
10 N
C D a 
(where f 0 and a are constants). The work
0 x(m) done in moving the object from x = 0 to
4 10
x = 3a
–12 N A
3 1
(1) f a (2) fa
(1) 436 J (2) 460 J 2 0 2 0
(3) 484 J (4) 282 J (3) f0a (4) Zero
(4)
Test Series for NEET - 2019 Test-2 (Code-B)
35. Which of the following statements is correct about
U(x)
inelastic collision?
(1) Kinetic energy of colliding objects is conserved U0
(2) Mechanical energy of colliding objects is
conserved
E
(3) Total energy is conserved
U1
(4) Total energy is not conserved
0 a b x
36. A ball at rest is dropped from a height h on a
smooth floor. The coefficient of restitution is 1/2. (1) – ∞ < x < a (2) b < x < ∞
The total distance covered by the ball till it comes (3) a < x < b (4) Both (1) and (2)
to rest is 41. Two identical balls A and B are released from
5 the positions shown in the figure. They collide
(1) h (2) 5h elastically on horizontal portion MN. The ratio of
3
4 the respective heights attained by A and B after
(3) 3h h
(4) collision will be (neglect friction)
3
37. Due to internal forces acting on a system, kinetic A
energy of the system
(1) Always increases
4h
(2) Is always constant B
h
(3) Always decreases
N
(4) May change M
38. A small block of mass m slides along a smooth (1) 1 : 4
track connected with a smooth circular track of
(2) 2 : 5
radius R. If it starts from rest at P, then the resultant
force acting on it at Q will be (3) 2 : 1
P (4) 4 : 13

5R 42. A block of mass 10 kg is displaced from position

O R Q (1, 0, 1) m to (1, 5, 3) m by a constant force

R F = (2i + 3 j + 2k ) N . The work done by the force is
(1) 21 J (2) 15 J
(1) 8 mg (2) 65 mg
(3) 19 J (4) 23 J
(3) 60 mg (4)
50 mg
43. The relationship between force (F) and position (x)
39. A block of mass 2 kg is moving with initial velocity of a body of mass 1 kg is shown in the figure. If
10 m/s enters on a rough horizontal surface. An initially body is at rest at x = 0, then speed of the
extra force of 20 N is opposing the motion and body at position x = 5 m is
trying to stop the block. The time after which the
block will stop momentarily is (g = 10 m/s2) F(N)
10 m/s 4
2 kg 20 N 2
0 x (m)
1 2 3 4 5 6
 = 0.5 –2
(1) 1 s (2) 0.5 s –4
(3) 0.67 s (4) 0.33 s (1) 2 m/s
40. The potential energy function U(x) for a particle
(2) 4 m/s
moving in one dimension is shown in the figure.
The total energy (E) of the particle is indicated by (3) 2 2 m/s
cross on the coordinate axis. For the given energy,
region in which particle cannot be found, is (4) 2 m/s
(5)
Test-2 (Code-B) Test Series for NEET - 2019
44. The bob of a pendulum at rest is given a horizontal 45. Water falls from a height of 50 m at the rate of
velocity of 7 g , where  is length of string of 20 kg/s to operate a turbine. The losses due to
pendulum. The tension when bob will reach the highest frictional forces are 20% of energy incident on the
turbine. The power generated by the turbine is (g =
point of its circular motion is (m is mass of bob)
10 ms–2)
(1) 2 mg (2) mg
(1) 10 kW (2) 12 kW
(3) 4 mg (4) 7 mg
(3) 8 kW (4) 9 kW

CHEMISTRY
46. The species having maximum bond angle 54. Correct order of ionic radii is
(1) CH4 (2) NH3 (1) O2− > F− > Na + > Mg2+
(3) H2O (4) H2S (2) F− > O2− > Mg2+ > Na+
47. The pair which is isostructural and isoelectronic (3) F− > O2− > Na + > Mg2+
among the following is
(4) Mg2+ > Na+ >F− > O2−
(1) CO32− , PO34− 55. The slope of isochore plotted between P vs T for
(2) ClO−4 , SO32− van der Waals equation having negligible molecular
attractions is
3− −
(3) PO4 , ClO4
R
(1) (2) R
(4) PO34− , SO32− P
R
48. The first ionization potential (kJ/mol) of Be and B (3) Zero (4)
respectively are V −b
56. The ratio of total K.E. of 1.87 g of H2 and 5.53 g
(1) 899, 801 (2) 899, 899
O2 at 300 K is
(3) 801, 801 (4) 801, 899
(1) 5.4 : 1 (2) 1 : 5.4
49. The element having maximum tendency of
catenation belongs to (3) 2.7 : 1 (4) 1 : 2.7

(1) Period 2 and Group 15 57. Which of the following has maximum boiling point?

(2) Period 2 and Group 14 (1) H2O(l) (2) HF(l)

(3) Period 3 and Group 15 (3) NH3(l) (4) CH3OH(l)

(4) Period 3 and Group 14 58. Which of the following will have highest critical
temperature?
50. Most basic oxide among the following is
(1) H2 (2) He
(1) BeO (2) MgO
(3) NH3 (4) F2
(3) K2O (4) Rb2O
51. The compound having sp3d2 hybridisation of central 59. The percentage increase in temperature of gas
atom is when it is heated at constant pressure to increase
the volume by 30% is
(1) XeOF2 (2) XeO2F2
(1) 20% (2) 30%
(3) XeF4 (4) XeF6
(3) 23.08% (4) 40.15%
52. The molecule that possesses permanent dipole
moment is 60. Which can be found in liquid state at 35°C?

(1) CF4 (2) SF4 (1) Ga (2) Cs

(3) CS2 (4) SF6 (3) Hg (4) All of these
53. Elements with similar atomic sizes and resemblance 61. Ratio of lone pair electrons to bond pair electrons
in properties are on central atom of I3– ion is
(1) Sn, Pb (2) Zr, Hf (1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
(3) Ca, Sr (4) B, Al (3) 3 : 2 (4) 3 : 1
(6)
Test Series for NEET - 2019 Test-2 (Code-B)
62. For the graph, 71. The total number of antibonding electron pair(s) in
P1 N2 as per molecular orbital theory is
P2 (1) 1 (2) 2
P3 (3) 3 (4) 4
V
72. W h i c h o f t h e f o l l o w i n g e l e m e n t i s m o s t
electronegative?
(1) O (2) N
T
(3) Cl (4) F
(1) P1 < P2 < P3 (2) P1 = P2 = P3
73. van der Waals constant ‘a’ is least for
(3) P1 > P2 > P3 (4) P1 < P2 > P3
(1) H2(g) (2) CO2(g)
63. Density of liquid water is 1 g ml–1 and density of
(3) CO(g) (4) NH3(g)
water vapours is 5.0 × 10–4 g ml–1 at 100ºC and
1 atm. The volume occupied by water molecules 74. What is the bond order of N–O bond in NO3− ion?
(in mL) in one dm3 of steam at same temperature
(1) 1.25 (2) 1.33
(1) 5 (2) 0.5
(3) 1.50 (4) 1.75
(3) 0.005 (4) 0.05
75. Ratio of inversion temperature to Boyle’s
64. The ratio of density of CO2 and N2O gases at same temperature for a real gas is
conditions is
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 3
(3) 2 : 3 (4) 3 : 2
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 3 : 2
76. Select the set of species in which all atoms are in
65. The correct increasing order of the covalent one plane.
character of group I chlorides is
(1) NO3− , SO32− , CO32−
(1) LiCl < NaCl < KCl (2) LiCl < KCl < NaCl
(3) NaCl < KCl < LiCl (4) KCl < NaCl < LiCl (2) SO24− , ClO 4− , BrO 4−

66. The number of π bonds present in CH2(CN)2 and (3) CO32− , SO3 , XeF4
C2(CN)2 respectively are (4) NH3 , PH3 , ClO3−
(1) 2, 4 (2) 4, 4 77. Charle’s law is expressed as
(3) 4, 6 (4) 6, 6
 dV 
67. The bond order of C2− (1)   = C (2) V ∝ T(K)
2 is dT  P
(1) 2 (2) 2.5  dV 
(3)   = −C (4) Both (1) & (2)
(3) 3 (4) 3.5 dT  P
68. The pair containing electron deficient species is 78. Among the following, compound having highest
dipole moment is
(1) NF3, BF3 (2) CCl4, SF4
F Cl
(3) SF4, AlCl3 (4) BF3, AlCl3
(1) (2)
69. The incorrect statement among the following is
(1) The dipole moment of NH3 is greater than NF3 Br I
(2) The dipole moment of CO2 is zero. (3) (4)
(3) The dipole moment of PCl3 is zero.
79. Hydrogen gas diffuses 3 3 times to that of a
(4) The dipole moment of CHCl3 is lesser than hydrocarbon (CnH2n–2) ,under identical conditions
CH3Cl. of temperature and pressure, n is
70. pπ – pπ bond(s) is/are present in (1) 2 (2) 3
(1) PH3 (3) 4 (4) 5
–
(2) NO3 80. Among the following, the most viscous liquid is
(3) PCl3 (1) Ethanol (2) Glycerol
(4) PCl5 (3) Acetic acid (4) Ethylene glycol
(7)
Test-2 (Code-B) Test Series for NEET - 2019
81. Root mean square speed of a gas is 86. Li+ is isoelectronic with which of the following?
3RT 3RT (1) H+ (2) Mg2+
(1) (2)
M πM (3) K+ (4) Be2+
2RT 8RT 87. Salt having maximum lattice energy is
(3) (4)
M πM (1) LiF
82. The density of gas is found to be 1.55 g/L at
(2) LiCl
745 mm Hg pressure and 65ºC. Gas can be
(3) LiBr
(1) CO (2) CO2
(4) LiI
(3) SO2 (4) CH4
88. The exothermic process among the following is
83. What percentage of the gas will be escaped out if
open vessel is heated from 300 K to 500 K? (1) H → H+
(1) 20% (2) 40% (2) O → O–
(3) 50% (4) 70% (3) O– → O2–
84. In the formation of O2 from the O2–, the last electron (4) Mg → Mg+
is removed from which one of the following orbitals? 89. The incorrect statement for O3 is
(1) σ∗ (2) π∗
(1) It is angular in shape
(3) σ (4) π
(2) It has 2σ bonds
85. The incorrect statement among the following is
(3) It has 1π bond
(1) Bond order of CO32− is fractional due to (4) It has total 9 non-bonded electron pairs
resonance
90. The structure and hybridisation of N in N(SiH3)3 is
(2) Bond strength of C – O bond in CO is more
(1) Tetrahedral, d3s
than that of CO32−
(3) Bond order of CO and NO are same (2) Pyramidal, sp3

(4) Bond strength of C – O bond in CO2 is more (3) Trigonal planar, sp2
than that of CO32− (4) Square planar, sp3d2

BOTANY
91. Which of the following is/are the function(s) of the (3) Gulmohur
typical root system?
(4) Bean
(1) Phytohormone synthesis
94. Which of the following is not true for trichomes?
(2) Provide anchorage to the plant parts
(1) They prevent water loss
(3) Food synthesis in the presence of light
(4) Both (1) and (2) (2) They are epidermal hairs
92. Floral formula of Brassica flower is (3) They may be branched or unbranched

(1) + P(3 + 3) A3 + 3 G(3) (4) They are unicellular root hairs

95. How many of the given plants have marginal
(2) + K(5) C(5) A5 G(2) placentation?
(3) + K2 + 2 C4 A2 + 4 G(2) Pea, Tomato, Marigold, Muliathi, Petunia, Indigofera,
Lupin
(4) % K(5) C1 + 2 + (2) A(9) + 1 G1
(1) Two
93. Select the plant having actinomorphic symmetry in
flowers. (2) Four
(1) Pea (3) Five
(2) Tomato (4) Six
(8)
Test Series for NEET - 2019 Test-2 (Code-B)
96. Match the following columns and select the correct 103. Highly thick-walled lignified cells generally found in
option. fruit walls of nuts and pulp of fruits are
Column I Column II (1) Sclereids (2) Fibres
a. China rose (i) Basal placentation (3) Albuminous cells (4) Tracheids
b. Argemone (ii) Axile placentation 104. A student while cutting transverse section of plant
c. Dianthus (iii) Parietal placentation part observed scattered vascular bundles of various
sizes, covered by bundle sheath cells. He also
d. Sunflower (iv) Free-central observed water containing cavities inside vascular
placentation bundle. This indicates that it is a transverse section
(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) (2) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i) of
(3) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (4) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i) (1) Cucurbit stem
97. Mark the incorrect one (w.r.t. Solanaceae family) (2) Maize stem
(1) K(5) (3) Rice root
(2) Adventitious root (4) Mustard root
(3) Bicarpellary 105. The companion cells in phloem of angiosperms
(4) Valvate aestivation of petals (1) Help in maintaining the pressure gradient in the
98. All are the features of meristematic cells, except sieve tubes
(1) Absence of intercellular spaces (2) Are connected with sieve tubes by pit fields
(2) Dense cytoplasm and prominent nucleus present between their common radial walls

(3) Ability to undergo cell division (3) Possess peripheral cytoplasm and a large
vacuole but lacks a nucleus
(4) Contain chloroplast, leucoplast or chromoplast
(4) Store food materials and substances like resins
99. Read the given statements and select the incorrect
and latex
one.
106. Which of the following plants should be used for the
(1) In all angiosperms, the roots originate only from
study of secondary growth?
the base of the stem
(1) Teak, wheat (2) Mango, peepal
(2) Monstera bears adventitious roots
(3) Wheat, sugarcane (4) Mustard, maize
(3) Pneumatophores are respiratory roots
(4) Tap roots system is formed from the radicle of 107. Casparian strips are present in
the embryo (1) Pericycle
100. Exarch condition of xylem (2) Endodermis
(A) Is found in roots (3) Bulliform cells
(B) Show protoxylem towards periphery (4) Epidermis
(C) Is found in monocot stem 108. The spring wood differs from autumn wood in
(D) Is found in radial vascular bundles (1) Having narrow vessels
How many of the above statements are incorrect? (2) Being low in density and light in colour
(1) Two (2) Four
(3) Being formed by less active cambium
(3) One (4) Three
(4) Not having large number of xylary elements
101. In a leaf mesopodium is
109. Lateral roots and root hairs in primary roots of dicot
(1) Leaf base (2) Petiole plants are dissimilar
(3) Stipule (4) Midrib (1) In their origin
102. Well developed pith is present in (2) As only former is involved in absorption of water
(1) Monocot stem and dicot root (3) As only later increases the surface area for
(2) Monocot leaf and dicot leaf water absorption
(3) Dicot stem and monocot root (4) As only root hairs have chloroplasts in their
(4) Dicot stem and monocot stem cells
(9)
Test-2 (Code-B) Test Series for NEET - 2019
110. Edible part in berry fruit of Psidium guajava is/are 118. The main function of stem in most of plants is
(1) Succulent testa (1) Conduction of water and minerals from leaves
(2) Aril and seed to roots

(3) Pericarp, placenta and thalamus (2) Storage of food and photosynthesis
(4) Endosperm, aril and cotyledons (3) Spreading out branches bearing leaves, flowers
and fruits
111. Which of the following plants have tetramerous
flowers? (4) Vegetative propagation and protection from high
(1) Tomato (2) Tulip light intensity

(3) Sunhemp (4) Mustard 119. Modified adventitious root for mechanical support in
sugarcane and banyan is respectively
112. Mark the odd one (w.r.t. perigynous flower).
(1) Prop root and stilt root
(1) Pea (2) Rose
(2) Stilt root and prop root
(3) Peach (4) Plum
113. Mark the incorrect match. (3) Fibrous root and stilt root

(1) Euphorbia – Phylloclade (4) Prop root and adventitious root

(2) Jasmine – Stolons 120. In a flower, filaments of stamens are united with
each other which represents
(3) Gourds – Stem tendrils
(1) Cohesion of stamens
(4) Gladiolus – Rhizome
114. Stem of rice plant lacks (2) Adhesion of stamens

(1) Companion cell (3) Tetradynamous condition

(2) Phloem parenchyma (4) Epipetalous condition

(3) Vessel 121. Inflorescence with definite growth of main axis is
present in
(4) Conjoint vascular bundles
115. Select the correct statements. (1) Pea

(a) Bast fibers are made up of collenchymatous (2) Soyabean

cells. (3) Solanum
(b) T h e c o m p a n i o n c e l l s a r e s p e c i a l i s e d (4) Indigofera
parenchymatous cells.
122. Quiescent centre in root apex
(c) Gymnosperms lack sieve tubes and companion
cells. (1) Shows absence of DNA
(d) Angiosperms have albuminous cells. (2) Has very little synthesis of proteins & RNAs
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c) (3) Was reported by Clowes
(3) (c) and (d) (4) (a) and (d) (4) Both (2) & (3)
116. Lateral roots arise from 123. Non-endospermous seed are found in the plants
like
(1) Cambium ring (2) Epiblema
(1) Bean and gram
(3) Pericycle (4) Endodermis
117. How many of the following are mainly used as (2) Bean and coconut
ornamental and medicinal plant, respectively? (3) Maize and barley
Aloe, Belladonna, Lupin, Lathyrus odoratus, (4) Onion and maize
Petunia, Muliathi , Gloriosa 124. Passage cells in root

(1) Four; Three (1) Are present in pericycle

(2) Two; Five (2) Are not a modification of parenchyma

(3) One; Six (3) Can give rise to lateral roots
(4) Six; One (4) Are present in endodermis
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Test Series for NEET - 2019 Test-2 (Code-B)
125. _____is the scar on the seed coat through which (1) Only statement A is correct
the developing seeds were attached to the fruit.
(2) Only statement B is correct
(1) Testa (2) Hilum
(3) Both statements A and B are correct
(3) Micropyle (4) Tegmen
(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect
126. Select the incorrect statements w.r.t. leaf tendrils.
131. Select the incorrect statement.
a. They are long, slender and thread like
structure (1) The lens-shaped openings present on epidermis
b. They are found in sweet pea plants. are called lenticles

c. They may possess buds and scale leaf (2) The phellogen develop, usually in the steler
region
d. They develop in the axil of leaf
(3) Phellogen, phellem and phelloderm are
(1) c & d
collectively known as periderm
(2) a & d
(4) Phellogen is made of narrow, thin walled and
(3) b & c nearly rectangular cells
(4) a & b 132. During secondary growth the structure that is
127. How many functions are common in modified stem formed early in the season is called A bark
of ginger, potato, turmeric and Colocasia? and that is formed late in the season is called
B bark.
i. Food storage
ii. Mechanical support (1) A – Late, B – Early

iii. Food synthesis (2) A – Hard, B – Soft

iv. Perennation (3) A – Soft, B – Hard
v. Vegetative propagation (4) A – Hard, B – Early
(1) iii, iv & v (2) i, iv & v 133. The abundant starch grains may be found in
(3) ii, iii & v (4) i, iii & iv endodermis of
128. The outer covering of endosperm separates the (1) Dicot stem
embryo by a proteinaceous layer in maize seed
(2) Monocot stem
(1) Is called aleurone layer
(3) Dicot root
(2) Is triploid
(3) Develops before fertilisation (4) Monocot root

(4) Both (1) and (2) 134. The palisade parenchyma is absent in leaves of
129. Vascular cambium in stem is formed of (1) Pea
(a) Cork cambium (2) Gram
(b) Interfascicular cambium
(3) Maize
(c) Intrafascicular cambium
(4) Mustard
(1) Only (a) and (b)
135. Which of the following statements is correct?
(2) Only (b) and (c)
(3) Only (c) and (a) (1) The first formed xylary elements are called
protophloem
(4) Only (a), (b) and (c)
(2) The later formed primary phloem elements are
130. Statement-A : The peripheral region of the
called metaphloem
secondary xylem is lighter in colour and is known
as the heartwood. (3) The later formed primary xylem elements are
Statement-B : The region of wood that comprises called protoxylem
of dead elements with highly lignified walls, is called (4) The first formed primary xylem elements are
sapwood. called metaxylem
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Test-2 (Code-B) Test Series for NEET - 2019

ZOOLOGY
136. Read the following statements A and B and choose 144. Read the following statements :
the correct option. I. Epithelial cells rest on a non-cellular layer.
Statement A : If the tissue is fully burnt, all the II. Single unit smooth muscle possesses cell
carbon compounds are oxidised to gaseous form junctions.
CO2 and water vapour.
III. Brush bordered columnar epithelium of intestine
Statement B : The ash contains inorganic elements help in absorption of food.
like calcium, magnesium etc.
IV. Saliva is an exocrine secretion.
(1) Only statement A is correct
Select the correct statements.
(2) Only statement B is incorrect (1) II and III (2) I, II and III
(3) Both statements are correct (3) Only II and IV (4) I, II, III and IV
(4) Both statements are incorrect 145. Find out the correct statement w.r.t. respiration in
137. Match column I with column II and choose the Periplaneta americana.
correct option. (1) Exchange of gases occurs at tracheoles by
Amino acid Chemical nature diffusion
a. Glutamic acid (i) Aromatic (2) With relaxation of tergo-sternal muscles, expiration
b. Lysine (ii) Neutral occurs.
c. Valine (iii) Basic (3) Its inspiration is an active process
d. Tyrosine (iv) Acidic (4) Malpighian tubules are attached to the
alimentary canal at the junction of foregut and
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
midgut
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
146. Long bones of the humans consist of
138. Select the odd one w.r.t. primary metabolites.
(1) Trabeculae mostly filled with yellow bone
(1) Amino acids (2) Sugars marrow
(3) Drugs (4) Chlorophylls (2) Spongy bone only as they are rich in lacunae
139. Lecithin is an example of (3) Compact bone only as they lack lamellae
(1) Phospholipids (2) Glycolipids (4) Both spongy and compact bone rich in bone
(3) Lipoproteins (4) Chromolipids marrow and calcium phosphate salts
140. Tertiary structure of protein is like a hollow woollen 147. A set of connective tissues is
wall is mainly shown by (1) Ligaments, cartilages, skeletal muscles
(1) Haemoglobin (2) Myoglobin (2) Areolar tissue, smooth muscles, adipose tissue
(3) Collagen (4) Keratin (3) Spongy bones, blood, calcified cartilage
141. In below given equation, identify the ‘A’ from given (4) Dense irregular, urothelium, lymph
options. 148. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. cockroach.
A

Glucose-6-phosphate  
 Fructose-6-phosphate (1) Heart consists of 13 funnel-shaped contractile
chambers
(1) Dehydrogenases (2) Hydrolases
(2) The stage in the development of an insect
(3) Ligases (4) Isomerase
between two moults is called instar
142. Pitch of the B-DNA is
(3) Stomodeal valve is present between gizzard
(1) 34 Å (2) 3.4 Å and mesenteron
(3) 0.34 nm (4) 36 Å (4) Diurnal and omnivorous.
143. The incorrect match of a biomolecule and its 149. Find the incorrect match w.r.t P.americana.
example is
(1) Hepatic caecae – Six to eight
(1) Unsaturated fatty acid –  Stearic acid (2) Ganglia in nerve cord – Nine
(2) Globular protein –  Egg albumins (3) Cone cells surrounding – Four
(3) Chromoprotein –  Cytochromes the crystalline cone
(4) Mucopolysaccharide –  Agar (4) Ejaculatory ducts – Two in number
(12)
Test Series for NEET - 2019 Test-2 (Code-B)
150. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. starch. 156. Choose the odd one w.r.t. location of compound
(1) Stored food of plants. epithelium.
(2) Polymer made of glucose units. (1) Lining of stomach
(3) Amylose and amylopectin are two types of (2) Moist surface of buccal cavity
components of starch. (3) Inner surface of ducts of salivary glands
(4) Amylose is branched chain consisting of (4) Inner surface of pancreatic ducts
glucose units.
157. Select the odd one w.r.t. location of non-striated
151. A compact bone is similar to spongy bone in muscles.
(1) Being the site of haemopoiesis (1) Wall of blood vessels
(2) Having periosteum
(2) Arms
(3) Having trabeculae
(3) Wall of stomach
(4) Having haversian system
(4) Wall of intestine
152. Select the incorrect statement.
158. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. bone.
(1) Zinc is a cofactor for proteolytic enzyme
carboxypeptidase. (1) The red bone marrow in some bones is the site
of production of blood cells.
(2) Chitin is a homopolysaccharides found in
(2) Osteocytes are present in the spaces called
exoskeleton of arthropods lacunae.
(3) K m (Michaelis constant) is numerically
(3) B o n e i s s o l i d a n d p l i a b l e a n d r e s i s t s
equivalent to 1/2 Vmax
compression.
(4) Phenylalanine and tryptophan are aromatic
(4) Bones are rich in calcium salts and collagen
amino acids.
fibres.
153. The correct set of cells, their characters and
159. Neuroglia make up more than ______ the volume
locations is
of neural tissue in our body.
Cells Characters Locations Choose the option which fills the blank correctly.
(1) Adipocytes Diapedesis Matrix of (1) Two-half
supportive
connective (2) One-half
tissue (3) Three-half
(4) Three-four
(2) Fibroblasts Ingest fibres White fibrous
and cell connective 160. Structure which attach one bone to another, is
debris tissue
(1) Tendon
(3) Mast cells Secrete Areolar (2) Ligament
histamine tissue (3) Cartilage
(4) Dense irregular tissue
(4) Osteoclasts Bone Cartilage and
forming cartilaginous 161. Which one is not the part of connective tissue?
bones (1) Areolar tissue (2) Blood

154. Inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by malonate (3) Bone (4) Compound tissue
which closely resembles the substrate succinate. 162. Choose the correct match pair.
This is an example of competitive inhibition in which
(1) Cellulose – Trimeric protein.
(1) Decrease in Vmax and Km unaffected
(2) Myoglobin – Reducing sugar
(2) No change in Vmax and increase in Km
(3) GLUT-4 – Enables glucose transport into
(3) Decrease in both Vmax and Km
cells
(4) Decrease in Vmax and increase in Km
(4) Proline – Homopolysaccharides
155. A group of similar cells along with intercellular
substances perform a specific function, is known as 163. Select the odd one w.r.t. RNA
(1) Organ system (2) Organ (1) Adenylic acid (2) Guanylic acid
(3) Tissue (4) Body (3) Adenosine (4) Thymidylic acid
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Test-2 (Code-B) Test Series for NEET - 2019
164. Zwitter ion has 171. Select incorrect statement w.r.t. frog.
(1) Either positive or negative charge (1) Amphibians have positive pressure breathing.
(2) Only positive charge (2) Tadpole larva is herbivorous, so intestine is long
(3) Only negative charge and coiled in the form of a spring.
(4) Both positive and negative charge (3) Frogs have four digits in the fore limbs which
165. Select incorrect statement w.r.t. coenzyme. has webs and five digits in hind limbs, webs are
poorly developed.
(1) Coenzyme NAD and NADP contain vitamin
niacin (4) Intestine is the longest part of alimentary canal
(2) Coenzymes are non-proteinaceous part of 172. All of the following can be included in salient
enzymes features of B-DNA, as proposed by Watson and
Crick, except
(3) Every coenzyme is a cofactor and every
cofactor is a coenzyme (1) Guanine and cytosine form two hydrogen bonds
(4) Every coenzyme is a cofactor but every cofactor (2) Diameter of the helix is 20 Å
is not a coenzyme (3) Has 10 bp per turn
166. In the structure of amylopectin, α-1, 6-glycosidic (4) It follows Chargaff’s rules
linkages are
173. On which mode of respiration frogs live during
(1) Not present hibernation and aestivation?
(2) Present throughout the main chain
(1) Cutaneous respiration
(3) Present at reducing ends i.e. right-sided ends
(2) Buccopharyngeal respiration
(4) Present at branching points
(3) Pulmonary respiration
167. Vessel which has valves in earthworm
(4) Cutaneous and pulmonary respiration
(1) Dorsal blood vessel
174. A lobe which serves as a covering for the mouth in
(2) Lateral oesophageal vessel
earthworm, is
(3) Sub esophageal vessel
(1) Peristomium (2) Peritoneum
(4) Ventral blood vessel
(3) Prostomium (4) Metamers
168. The correct set containing same kinds of
biomolecules is 175. Structure which increases the effective area of
absorption in the intestine w.r.t. earthworm, is called
(1) Agar, inulin, lecithin as
(2) Hyaluronic acid, chondroitin sulphate, cellulose
(1) Intestinal caecum
(3) Chondroitin sulphate, Keratan sulphate, Agar
(2) Intestinal lumen
(4) PUFAs, starch, peptidoglycan
(3) Typhosole
169. Which of the following can be associated with skin
of the frog? (4) Lymph glands

a. Mucous gland 176. The respiratory system of cockroach consists of

a network of trachea, that open through ____ of
b. Moist, smooth and slimy
spiracles.
c. Chromatophores
Choose the option which fills the blank correctly.
d. Scales
(1) 10 pairs
Choose the correct option.
(2) 10
(1) Only a and c (2) Only a
(3) 20 pairs
(3) a, b and c (4) b and d
(4) 2 pairs
170. Cyanide kills an animal by
177. Select the odd one w.r.t. components of forebrain
(1) Blocking the active sites of cytochrome oxidase
of frog.
(2) Having no effect on Vmax or Km, but distorting
the structure of enzyme (1) Paired cerebellar hemispheres

(3) Irreversibly binding to either E or ES complex, (2) Paired cerebral hemispheres

but decreasing maximum velocity (3) Paired olfactory lobes
(4) Breaking down the substrate i.e. cytochrome c (4) Unpaired diencephalon
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Test Series for NEET - 2019 Test-2 (Code-B)
178. Structure which present in frog is 180. Read the following statements.
(1) Ribs (2) Incus Statement A : In cockroach mosaic vision present.
(3) Corpus callosum (4) Columella auris Statement B : Mosaic vision has more sensitivity
179. In nervous system of cockroach, brain is but less resolution.
represented by Choose the correct option.
(1) Suboesophageal ganglion (1) Statement A is correct
(2) Supraoesophageal ganglion (2) Statement B is incorrect
(3) Cerebral ganglion (3) Both statements are correct
(4) Thoracic ganglion (4) Both statements are incorrect



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