29/05/2019

Code-A

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005; Ph.: 011-47623456

MM : 720 FORTNIGHTLY TEST SERIES CoE-XI 2019-2021 Time : 3 Hrs.

Test - 01

Topics covered :

Physics : Physical World, Units & Measurements

Chemistry : Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry

Botany : Cell : The Unit of Life

Zoology : Structural Organisation in Animals - Animal Tissues

Instructions :

(i) Use Blue/Black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.

(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.

(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.

(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.

(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing
material on Answer sheet.

(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

(1)
Fortnightly Test (CoE-XI_T01) Two Year Medical 2019-2021

PHYSICS
1. In a new system of unit, units of mass mass, length 8. A potential difference of V = (20.0  0.1) volt is
and time are 10 kg, 10 m and 10 s respectively. applied across a resistance R = (80  0.2) ohm. The
Then 1 N in the new system of units will be maximum percentage error in measurement of
current will be
(1) 10 units (2) 1 unit
(1) 0.75% (2) 0.5%
1
(3) 100 units (4) unit (3) 0.25% (4) 1%
10
9. The length, breadth and thickness of a block are
2. Which of the following fundamental force(s) has given by l = 12 cm, b = 6 cm and t = 2.45 cm
shortest range in nature? respectively. Then its volume up to appropriate
(1) Gravitational force significant figures is

(2) Weak nuclear force (1) 2 × 102 cm3 (2) 2.0 × 102 cm3

(3) Electromagnetic force (3) 1.76 × 102 cm3 (4) 1.7 × 102 cm3

(4) Both (1) & (3) 10. If measured value of a = (5.0 ± 0.1) cm and b is
(2.5 ± 0.2) cm, then the value of (a – 2b) is
3. Parsec is the unit of
(1) (0.0 ± 0.3) cm (2) (0.0 ± 0.5) cm
(1) Time (2) Distance
(3) (0.0 ± 0.1) cm (4) (10.0 ± 0.5) cm
(3) Frequency (4) Angular acceleration
11. A cylindrical wire has mass (0.3 ± 0.003) g,
4. Dimensional formula for Planck’s constant is radius (0.5 ± 0.005) mm and length (6 ± 0.06) cm.
(1) [M L2 T–1] (2) [M–1 L2 T–3] The maximum percentage error in density is
(3) [M–1 L T–2] (4) [M–2 L3 T–1] (1) 1% (2) 2%
5. If momentum P, area A and time T are taken as a (3) 3% (4) 4%
fundamental quantities, then dimensional formula of
12. If the number of measurements increases by n times
energy is
then
(1) [P A1/2 T–1] (2) [P A–1/2 T]
(1) Random error increases by n times
(3) [P2 A T] (4) [P A–1 T]
(2) Random error decreases by n times
(3) Random error will remain same
6. In a gas equation  P  a  (V  b)  RT , where T
 V2 (4) Random error may increase or decrease
is the absolute temperature, P is the pressure, V is
13. Focal length f of a spherical mirror is given by
the volume of gas and a, b are constants. The
1 1 1
 a    , where u and v are object and image
dimensional formula of  2  is f v u
V 
positions respectively then choose the correct
(1) [M L T–2] (2) [M L–1 T–1] relation.

(3) [M L–1 T–2] (4) [M L–1 T2] f u v

(1)  
f u v
a3 b2
7. If X  ; the percentage error in a, b, c and d
cd f u v
(2)  
are 0.1%, 0.2%, 0.4% and 0.4% respectively. The f v u
maximum percentage error in X is
(1) 2% f u v  u  v 
(3)   
f u v  uv 
(2) 1%
(3) 1.1% f v u
(4) 2
 2

(4) 1.3% f v u2
(2)
Fortnightly Test (CoE-XI_T01) Two Year Medical 2019-2021

14. Which of the following cannot be a unit of energy?

ma  L 
(1) watt-second (2) newton-metre 21. In the relation y  log  1   the dimensions
  ma 
(3) kg-m/s (4) joule of y is (Given m : mass, a : acceleration and L is
length)
15. A force F is applied perpendicularly on a square
plate of side L. If percentage error in measurement (1) [MLT–2] (2) [MT–2]
of L is 2% and that in F is 3%. Then the maximum (3) [M0LT0] (4) [MT–3]
percentage error in pressure is
22. Velocity v of an object as a function of time t is given
(1) 7% (2) 3%
b
(3) 6% (4) 2% as v   ct 2  dt 3 . The dimensional formula of b is
t
16. Assume that speed(v) of ripples on the water surface (1) [M0LT0] (2) [ML0T0]
depends on surface tension(s), density(d) and
wavelength(). Using dimensional analysis the speed (3) [M0L0T] (4) [MLT–1]
of the ripples (v) can be given as 23. Position of a particle at time t is giv en as
v0
(1)
d
(2)
s x

 
1  e t , where v0 is constant and  > 0.
s d
The dimension of  is
(1) [T] (2) [LT –2]

(3) (4) sd (3) [T –1] (4) [T 0]
sd
1
A3 B 2
1 24. A quantity P is given as P  . The quantity
17. A quantity x changes with time t as x  . If the C 4D
3
2
t2
which brings maximum error in P is
percentage error in time t is 1% then maximum
percentage error in x at that instant is (1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D
1
(1) 1% (2) % 25. The mass of two bodies m1 and m2 is given as
2
m 1 = 2.39 g and m 2 = 12.1 g. Taking into
(3) 2% (4) 4% consideration the significant figures, here m1 + m2 is
given as
18. In a hypothetical vernier callipers, length of 10 main
scale division is 2 mm. If 20 vernier scale divisions (1) 14.4 g (2) 14.5 g
coincide with 18 main scale divisions, then the least (3) 14.49 g (4) 14.3 g
count of the instrument is
26. If time (t), energy (E) and momentum (P) taken as
(1) 0.1 mm (2) 0.2 mm base quantities then dimension of mass (m), is
(3) 0.01 mm (4) 0.02 mm (1) m = [tP2E] (2) m = [t0P2E]
19. If force(F), velocity(v) and kinetic energy (E) are (3) m = [t0P2E–1] (4) m = [t0P–1E2]
taken as fundamental units, then dimensional 27. Mass and volume of a block are measured as
formula for time t in new system will be 10.01 g and 5.0 cm 3. The maximum possible
(1) [EFv] (2) [EF–1v –1] percentage error in density is

(3) [FvE–1] (4) [EF2v –2] (1) 0.6% (2) 2.1%

(3) 2.8% (4) 3.2%
20. Which of the following relations can't be derived
using dimensional analysis? (Symbols have their 28. Which of the following physical quantity has unit but
usual meanings) no dimensions?
(1) Coefficient of static friction
1 2
(1) s  ut  at (2) y  A log x (2) Momentum
2
(3) Strain
t / RC
(3) Q  Q0e (4) All of these (4) Angle

(3)
Fortnightly Test (CoE-XI_T01) Two Year Medical 2019-2021
29. The temperature of two bodies are measured as 38. A physical quantity is measured and its value is
(20.0°C ± 0.5°C) and (40.0°C ± 0.4°C). The found to be nu, where n is numerical value and u is
temperature difference of two bodies with error limits, unit. The true relation between n and u is
is
1
(1) (20.0 ± 0.1)°C (2) (20.0 ± 0.9)°C (1) n  u (2) n 
u
(3) (20.0 ± 2.0)°C (4) (20.0 ± 0.0)°C
1
30. Initial velocity of a particle moving along straight line (3) n  (4) n  u
with constant acceleration is (20 ± 2) m/s, if its u2
acceleration is a = (5 ± 0.1) m/s2 then velocity of 39. W hich of the f ollowing pair has the same
particle with error, after time t = (10 ± 1) s, is dimensions?
(1) (70 ± 3.1) m/s (2) (70 ± 2) m/s (1) Work and power
(3) (70 ± 4) m/s (4) (70 ± 8) m/s (2) Density and relative density
31. Number of significant figures in the measurement (3) Stress and pressure
12.230 cm is (4) Torque and angular momentum
(1) 4 (2) Infinite
IFV 2
(3) 5 (4) 3 40. A physical quantity x is given by formula x 
WL3
32. Which of the following is weakest force? where I is moment of inertia, F is force, V is velocity,
(1) Strong nuclear force W is work and L is length, then dimensional formula
of x is
(2) Gravitational force
(1) [MLT–2] (2) [MT–2]
(3) Electromagnetic force
(3) [ML2T–3] (4) [LT–2]
(4) Weak nuclear force
41. The distance at which an arc of 1 astronomical unit
33. Symmetry of the laws of nature with respect to subtends an angle of 1 second is
translation in space gives rise to
(1) 1 Parsec (2) 1 Astronomical unit
(1) Conservation of linear momentum
(3) 1 Light year (4) 1 Unified atomic unit
(2) Conservation of angular momentum 42. In ‘Mesoscopic Physics’ we deal with
(3) Conservation of charge (1) Phenomena at laboratory
(4) All of these (2) Molecular phenomena
34. Which of the following is not fundamental law in (3) Microscopic phenomena
nature?
(4) Few tens or hundreds of atoms
(1) Conservation of momentum
43. If Fg, FSN, FWN and FEM be the gravitational, strong
(2) Conservation of charge nuclear, weak nuclear and electromagnetic forces
(3) Conservation of mass respectively, then correct order as per their strength
is
(4) Conservation of energy
(1) Fg > FSN > FWN > FEM
35. Wolfgang Pauli correctly predicted in 1931 the
existence of a new particle (now called neutrino) (2) Fg < FWN < FEM < FSN
emitted in -decay, while applying (3) FEM > FSN > FWN > Fg
(1) Law of conservation of charge in -decay (4) FWN < Fg < FEM < FSN
(2) Law of conservation of mass in -decay 44. Choose the correct statement.
(3) Law of conservation of energy and momentum in (1) Gravitational force is a central force
-decay (2) Electromagnetic force is a central force
(4) Both (1) & (2) (3) Nuclear force is a central force
36. Choose the correct pair from the following (4) Both (1) and (2)
(1) 1 Gm = 1019 m (2) 1 nm = 109 m 45. If the value of resistance 11.345 ohm, and the value
of current flowing in resistance is 2.30 ampere. Then
(3) 1 erg = 10–7 J (4) 1 Å = 10–10 cm
the value of potential difference across the resistance
37. Light year has the dimensional formula of with regard to significant figure is
(1) Time (2) Mass (1) 26.0935 volt (2) 26.0 volt
(3) Length (4) Dimensionless (3) 26.1 volt (4) 26 volt
(4)
Fortnightly Test (CoE-XI_T01) Two Year Medical 2019-2021

CHEMISTRY
46. In the product of 2.5 × 1.24, the number of significant (2) A compound can be decomposed into its
figures present in the answer must be components
(1) 5 (2) 1 (3) In a homogeneous mixtures the components
completely mix with each other
(3) 2 (4) 3
47. SI unit of pressure is (4) Chemical properties can be measured without
changing the composition of substance
(1) kgm–1s–2 (2) kgm–2s–2
55. The compound having ratio of its constituent by
(3) kgm–3 (4) kgms–2 mass as 3 : 4 is
48. For the following reaction, H2(g) + Cl2(g)  2HCl(g), (1) CO2 (2) NH3
if initially 20 mL of H2(g) and 20 mL of Cl2(g) are
taken in the container, then the volume of the gas (3) CaO (4) CO
present in the container after completion the reaction 56. Law of conservation of mass is not applicable for
is
(1) Combustion reactions
(1) 40 mL (2) 10 mL
(2) Nuclear reactions
(3) 50 mL (4) 15 mL
(3) Decomposition reactions
49. The law of multiple proportion is/are satisfied by
(4) Neutralisation reactions
(1) H2O & H2O2 (2) H2O & D2O
57. If the percentage composition of oxygen in a
(3) CO2 & SO2 (4) Both (2) & (3) compound is 20%, then according to law of definite
50. The formula mass of sodium sulphate will be proportion the weight of oxygen in 20 g sample of
compound is
(1) 142 u (2) 58.5 u
(1) 3 g (2) 6 g
(3) 50 u (4) 48 u
(3) 8 g (4) 4 g
51. W hich of the following statements is incorrect
regarding “Dalton’s Atomic Theory”? 58. In which of the giv en cases, zero(0) will be
considered as significant?
(1) All atoms of a given element have identical
properties including identical mass (1) 0.175 (2) 0.034
(2) Chemical reactions involve reorganisation of (3) 1.007 (4) 100
atoms 59. How much MgO will be formed when 2 moles of Mg
(3) Matter is made up of extremely small, indivisible reacts with 0.5 moles of O2? [Atomic mass of Mg =
particles called atoms 24 u]
(4) Atom can be created in a chemical reaction (1) 40 g
52. An element X occurs in nature in 3 isotopes with (2) 20 g
atomic mass 30, 31 and 32 respectively having equal (3) 10 g
abundance. The average atomic mass of element X
will be approximately (4) 12.5 g

(1) 30 (2) 31 60. Consider the reaction :

(3) 32 (4) 33 CaCO3 + H2SO4  CaSO4 + H2O + CO2
53. Which of the following is incorrect match? What will be the percent purity of CaCO3 if 200 g
impure CaCO 3 produces 22.4 L CO 2 at STP in
Prefixes Multiples excess of H2SO4?
(1) micro 106 (1) 25% (2) 50%
(2) deca 10 (3) 75% (4) 100%
(3) giga 109 61. If the percentage of water of crystallization in
(4) femto 10–15 MgSO 4  xH 2O is 13%, then the value of ‘x’ is
[Atomic mass of Mg = 24 u, S = 32 u, O = 16 u]
54. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(1) 1 (2) 4
(1) When two or more atoms of different elements
combine, the molecule of compound is formed (3) 5 (4) 7

(5)
Fortnightly Test (CoE-XI_T01) Two Year Medical 2019-2021
62. Which of the following expressions is correct? 70. Minimum number of atoms is present in
[n = Number of moles of the gas, NA = Avogadro (1) 4 g of H2
constant, m = Mass of one molecule of gas,
N = Number of molecules of the gas] (2) 50 g of CaCO3
(3) 40 g of SO3
m (4) 8 g of CH4
(1) n = mNA (2) n =
NA
71. 2 g of oxygen reacts with a metal to give 7 g of metal
(3) NA = nN (4) N = nNA oxide. The equivalent weight of metal is
(1) 15 (2) 20
63. Sulphur exist in different allotropic forms such as S2,
S6 and S8. If equal mass of three are taken in (3) 25 (4) 23
separate container, then the ratio of number of atoms 72. An enzyme contains 0.8% of Fe 2+ by mass.
is The minimum molar mass (in g mol–1) of enzyme is
(1) 1 : 3 : 4 (2) 1 : 1 : 1 (Atomic weight of Fe = 56)

(3) 2 : 4 : 3 (4) 1 : 1 : 4 (1) 250 (2) 2500

(3) 7000 (4) 12000
64. A hydrocarbon contains 80% carbon. The empirical
formula of the compound is 73. SI unit of density is
(1) CH4 (2) CH3 (1) g cm–3 (2) kg m–3

(3) CH2 (4) CH (3) kg cm–3 (4) g m–3

65. The number of atoms in 16 g of CH4 is 74. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
a. 1 amu = 1.66 × 10–24 g
(1) 5NA (2) NA
b. u is called unified mass
(3) 2NA (4) 0.5NA
c. Relative atomic mass =
66. Mass of 3.011 × 1023 molecules of O2 will be
Mass of an atom of element
(1) 16 g
1
 mass of an atom of C-12
(2) 32 g 12
(1) a and b only (2) a only
6.023  1023
(3) g (3) b and c only (4) a, b and c
32
75. Which of the following is not a pure substance?
32 (1) Water (2) Glucose
(4) g
6.023  1023 (3) Milk (4) Oxygen
67. For the reaction, A + 2B  C, 5 moles of A and 76. A sample of CaCO3 has Ca = 40%, C = 12% and
8 moles of B will produce maximum O = 48%. If the law of constant proportion is true,
then the mass of O in 15 g CaCO3 from another
(1) 5 moles of C (2) 4 moles of C
source will be
(3) 8 moles of C (4) 12 moles of C
(1) 5 g (2) 7.2 g
68. The number of gram ions of SO 42– present in (3) 6 g (4) 4.8 g
1 gram molecule of K2SO4  Al2(SO4)3  24H2O is
77. Which one of the following is not a mixture?
(1) 2 (2) 1
(1) Distilled water
(3) 3 (4) 4
(2) Sugar dissolved in water
69. The charge on 1 mole of electrons (in coulomb) is (3) Liquid petroleum gas
(1) 1.6 × 10–19 × NA (4) Gasoline
78. If the vapour density of a substance is same as that
1.6  1019
(2)  NA of carbon dioxide, then the molecular mass of
2 substance is
(3) 2 × 1.6 × 10–19 × NA (1) 26 u (2) 32 u
(4) 1.6 × 10–19 (3) 44 u (4) 29 u
(6)
Fortnightly Test (CoE-XI_T01) Two Year Medical 2019-2021

79. An element Y occurs in nature in the form of two (3) Eight moles of water molecules are formed
isotopes with atomic mass 13 and 14 respectively.
(4) The reaction follows law of conservation of mass
If average atomic mass of that element is 13.0098,
then the % abundance of the two isotopes are 86. How many moles of sulphuric acid is present in its
respectively 4.9 g?

(1) 99.02% and 0.98% (1) 0.1 mol

(2) 0.98% and 99.02% (2) 0.5 mol

(3) 99.50% and 0.5% (3) 0.01 mol

(4) 0.5% and 99.50% (4) 0.05 mol

80. A water bath has temperature 65°C. Its value in °F 87. 28 g of nitrogen gas has same number of atoms as
scale will be in
(1) 142°F (1) 32 g of oxygen gas
(2) 165°F (2) 28 g of carbon monoxide
(3) 149°F (3) 48 g of ozone gas
(4) 155°F (4) Both (1) and (2)
81. 50 ml of 1M HCl is mixed with 50 ml of 1M NaOH. 88. In the reaction N2 + 3H2  2NH3, maximum moles
The resulting solution will be of ammonia formed when 2 mole of N2 reacts with
(1) Highly basic (2) Slightly acidic 4.5 mole of H2 gas will be

(3) Neutral (4) Highly acidic (1) 3 mol

82. The mole of oxygen gas produced when 12.25 g of (2) 4.5 mol
KClO3 decomposes completly is (KClO3 = 122.5 (3) 5 mol
g mol–1)
(4) 5.5 mol
(1) 3
89. The equivalent weight of H3PO 4 in the following
(2) 1.5 reaction will be (Molar mass of H3PO4 = M g/mol)
(3) 0.3 H3PO4 + 2NaOH  Na2HPO4 + 2H2O

(4) 0.15 M
(1)
83. The molarity of an aqueous solution, containg 4
11.70 g of NaCl in 1000 ml of solution is
M
(1) 4 mol L–1 (2)
3
(2) 0.4 mol L–1

(3) 0.2 mol L–1 M

(3)
2
(4) 2 mol L–1
84. Which of the following term is unit less? (4) M

(1) Molarity (2) Molality 90. The mass percentage of carbon in ethanol (C2H5OH)
is nearly
(3) Molefraction (4) Normality
(1) 30%
85. 20 g of H2 gas is exploded with 160 g of O2 gas.
The incorrect statement for this reaction is (2) 52%

(1) Oxygen gas will be consumed completely (3) 60%

(2) Hydrogen gas will be consumed completely (4) 72%

(7)
Fortnightly Test (CoE-XI_T01) Two Year Medical 2019-2021

BOTANY
91. Who for the first time explained that ‘‘cells divide (2) Muscle contraction
and new cells are formed from pre-existing cells’’? (3) Providing precursors of enzymes for formation of
(1) Matthias Schleiden (2) Theodor Schwann lysosomes
(3) A.V. Leeuwenhoek (4) Rudolf Virchow (4) Synthesis of steroids
92. The genetic material of prokaryotes is/are 99. Prokaryotic ribosomes are made up of
ribonucleoprotein in which the ratio of protein and
a. Naked
RNA is
b. Circular
(1) 70 : 30 (2) 40 : 60
c. Single stranded DNA
(3) 30 : 70 (4) 20 : 80
(1) a only
100. Read the following statements :
(2) Both a and b
a. It is found only in prokaryotic cells
(3) c only b. It is made up of filamentous and tubular
(4) b only proteinaceous structures
93. Select the feature which is not true for the outermost c. It is composed of only myosin protein
layer of bacterial cell envelope. W.r.t cytoskeleton the correct statements are
(1) It is made up of mucous or polysaccharide (1) a & b
macromoleculs
(2) b only
(2) It protects the cell from loss of water and
nutrients (3) b & c
(3) It helps in adhesion (4) a & c

(4) Its thickness and chemical composition are 101. Categorise the following features exhibited by cilia
same in all bacterial cells and flagella in eukaryotic cells and select the option
accordingly.
94. Pili and fimbriae are similar in
(i) Helps in feeding, locomotion and circulation
(1) Being surface structures of bacteria
(ii) Longer in size
(2) Being involved in mating process
(iii) Commonly found at one end of the cell
(3) The type of protein they are composed of
(iv) Number per cell is very large
(4) Being present in Gram-positive bacteria only
Cilia Flagella
95. In chloroplast, the space enclosed by thylakoid
membrane is called (1) (i), (ii), (iv) (iii)

(1) Grana (2) Lumen (2) (ii), (iv) (i), (iii)

(3) Stroma (4) Matrix (3) (i), (iv) (ii), (iii)

(4) (iii), (iv) (i), (ii)
96. The antibiotic penicillin inhibits
102. How many total microtubules are present in flagella
(1) Polymerisation of amino acids
of eukaryotic cells?
(2) Cross-linking of peptidoglycan strands
(1) 27
(3) Lipid bilayer synthesis
(2) 18
(4) Cross-linking of cellulose fibrils
(3) 20
97. Non-membrane bound organelle(s) f ound in
(4) 11
prokaryotic cells are
103. Centrioles are
(1) Ribosomes (2) Centrioles
(1) Surrounded by pericentriolar satellites (massule)
(3) Plastids (4) Both (1) and (2)
(2) Bounded by single membrane
98. The type of ER which is found in the cells that are
actively involved in protein synthesis and secretion is (3) Made up of eleven evenly spaced fibrils of
also related to the function like tubulin
(1) Detoxification of drugs (4) Absent in algae
(8)
Fortnightly Test (CoE-XI_T01) Two Year Medical 2019-2021
104. Nucleus as a cell organelle was first described by 112. A bacterial flagellum
(1) Robert Hooke (2) Robert Brown (1) Is made up of tubulin protein
(3) A.V. Leeuwenhoek (4) Walther Flemming (2) Provides motility to the bacterium
105. Consider the following statements and select the (3) Is always fixed in its number in all bacterial
correct option to fill the blanks A and B. cells
I. A chromosome has one extremely short (4) Is covered with cell wall
and one very long arm.
113. Fluid nature of plasma membrane is important for all
II. Nucleolus has a site f or activ e B of the following functions, except
synthesis.
(1) Protection of cell against pathogens
A B
(2) Cell growth
(1) Sub-metacentric rRNA
(3) Cell division
(2) Telocentric t-RNA
(4) Endocytosis
(3) Acrocentric rRNA
114. Select the correct match.
(4) Metacentric m-RNA
(1) Plant cell wall - Polymer of NAG units
106. Microbodies are
(2) Algal cell wall - Cellulose, galactans, mannans
(1) Double membrane-bound structures
(3) Fungal cell wall - Calcium carbonate
(2) Minute vesicles
(4) Middle lamella - Lipids
(3) Present in plant cells only
115. Organelle ‘X’ is a densely stained reticular structure,
(4) Self duplicating organelles usually present near the nucleus and is known as
107. On the basis of his studies, who concluded that dictyosomes in plants. In animals, this organelle is
“the presence of cell wall is a unique character of the called
plant cells”. (1) RER (2) Peroxisome
(1) Ruckert (2) Theodor Schwann (3) Golgi body (4) SER
(3) George Palade (4) Nicolson
116. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. lysosomes.
108. The plasmid DNA
(1) They are rich in hydrolytic enzymes
(1) Acts as genomic DNA
(2) They do not contain lipases
(2) Is double stranded and linear
(3) They contain enzymes which become active at
(3) Is found in prokaryotes acidic pH
(4) Is found inside the nucleoid (4) They are also related to some genetic or
109. The size of a typical eukaryotic cell is congenital diseases due to deficiency in their
enzymes
(1) 0.01 – 0.1  (2) 10 – 20 
117. Inner mitochondrial membrane
(3) 0.1 – 0.2  (4) 1 – 10 
(1) Has 80% lipids and 20% proteins
110. Which of the following is/are associated with blue-
green algae? (2) Contains enzymes for the formation of ATP
(a) Chromatophores (3) Is completely impermeable
(b) Gas vacuoles (4) Is smooth and continuous
(c) Nucleoid 118. The organelle which occupies up to 90% of the
(1) Only (c) (2) Only (b) and (c) volume of a plant cell is

(3) Only (a) and (c) (4) All (a), (b) & (c) (1) Lysosome (2) Vacuole

111. A polysome is (3) ER (4) Plastid

(1) A number of ribosomes on single m-RNA 119. Two self duplicating organelles of the plant cells are

(2) A number of m-RNA on single ribosome (1) RER and SER

(3) An inclusion body of a prokaryotic cell (2) Chloroplast and mitochondrion

(4) An association in which ribosomes nev er (3) Ribosome and RER
translate the m-RNA into proteins (4) Chloroplast and ribosome
(9)
Fortnightly Test (CoE-XI_T01) Two Year Medical 2019-2021
120. Colourless plastids generally found near the nucleus 129. Cilia and flagella emerge from
in non-green cells are (1) Centriole-like basal bodies
(1) Chloroplasts (2) Leucoplasts (2) Spherosomes
(3) Chromoplasts (4) Chromatophores (3) Golgi bodies
121. Mitochondria are involved in all of the following (4) Ribosomes
functions, except
130. Find out incorrect statement w.r.t. centrosome and
(1) Formation of ATP centrioles.
(2) -oxidation of fats (1) Both the centrioles in a centrosome lie
(3) Oxidation of carbohydrates perpendicular to each other
(4) Storage of proteins and carbohydrates (2) Centrioles form spindle fibres in animal cells
122. Read the following statements and choose the option (3) Central fibrils are doublet
which is ture for them: (4) Centrioles give a cartwheet appearance
A. Chloroplasts are formed by proplastids. 131. A single human cell has approximately ________
B. Stacks of thylakoids are interconnected via flat long thread of DNA distributed among its 46
membranous tubules called stroma lamellae. chromosomes.
(1) Only A is correct Select the correct option to fill the blank.
(2) Only B is correct (1) 2 cm
(3) Both A and B are correct (2) 2 m
(4) Both A and B are incorrect (3) 20 cm
123. Cristae of mitochondria contain numerous knob like (4) 12 m
protuberances are called 132. The part of chromosome beyond the secondary
(1) Oxysomes (2) Lysosomes constriction is called
(3) Ribosomes (4) Diplosomes (1) Satellite (2) Centromere
124. A non-membrane bound cell organelle which helps in (3) Kinetochore (4) Telomere
cell division in animal cells is 133. Match the following columns and select the correct
(1) Ribosomes (2) Mesosome option regarding the type and shape of chromosome
in anaphase stage.
(3) Centriole (4) Nucleoid
Column I Column II
125. Chromatin contains
a. Acrocentric (i) V-shaped
(1) DNA only
b. Metacentric (ii) L-shaped
(2) RNA only
c. Telocentric (iii) J-shaped
(3) Proteins and carbohydrates
d. Submetacentric (iv) I-shaped
(4) DNA, RNA and proteins
(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (2) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
126. Transport of neutral molecules across the membrane
along the concentration gradient occurs through (3) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) (4) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii)
(1) Carrier proteins (2) Active transport 134. Perinuclear space is a space
(3) Simple diffusion (4) Expanse of ATP (1) Around nucleolus
127. The smaller subunit of 80S ribosome is of (2) Between plasma membrane and outer nuclear
membrane
(1) 50 S (2) 40 S
(3) Between two membranes of nuclear envelope
(3) 60 S (4) 30 S
(4) Enclosed by inner membrane of nuclear
128. The following functions are performed by envelope
a. Maintenance of the shape of cell 135. Nerve cells are
b. Mechanical support (1) Round and biconcave
c. Motility (2) Branched and long
(1) Cilia and Flagella (2) Microbodies (3) Round and oval
(3) Cytoskeleton (4) ER (4) Amoeboid

(10)
Fortnightly Test (CoE-XI_T01) Two Year Medical 2019-2021

ZOOLOGY
136. Given below is the diagram of loose connective 141. Unicellular glands present along with columnar cells
tissue. Identify A, B, C, D and choose the correct lining the stomach secrete a proteinaceous, viscous
option. and slimy substance called
(1) Lipase (2) Gastric juice
A (3) Sebum (4) Mucus

B
142. Cells of which connective tissue lack fibres?
(1) Cartilage (2) Bone
C
(3) Adipose tissue (4) Blood
143. The cells which are not found in areolar tissues are
D (1) Goblet cells (2) Fibroblasts
(3) Macrophages (4) Mast cells
A B C D
(1) Mast cell Collagen Fibroblast Macrophages 144. Bone cells called osteocytes are present in fluid
fibres filled spaces, known as
(2) Collagen Fibroblast Macrophages Mast cell (1) Acetabulum (2) Coelom
fibres
(3) Lacunae (4) Lamellae
(3) Fibroblast Macrophages Collagen Mast cell
fibres 145. The innermost layer of walls of blood vessels are
(4) Macrophage Fibroblast Collagen Mast cell composed of
fibres
(1) Ciliated columnar epithelium
137. Choose the correct option w.r.t. examples of dense
regular connective tissue. (2) Non-ciliated columnar epithelium

(1) Cartilage & bone (2) Tendon & blood (3) Cuboidal epithelium

(3) Ligament & tendon (4) Blood & bone (4) Squamous epithelium

138. Read the following statements A and B and choose 146. Ciliated epithelium lining the bronchioles helps in
the correct option. (1) Exchange of gases
A: The cells of epithelial tissue are compactly (2) Reabsorption of water
packed with little intercellular matrix. (3) Filtration of blood
B: The structure of the epithelial cells varies (4) Movement of mucus and trapped particles in a
according to their function. specific direction through respiratory tract
(1) Statement A is correct but B is incorrect 147. Cells which are responsible for the formation of
(2) Statement B is correct but A is incorrect cartilage are
(3) Both the statements are correct (1) Osteoblasts
(4) Both the statements are incorrect (2) Chondroblasts
139. Select the statement which is not true w.r.t. simple (3) Chondroclasts
columnar epithelium.
(4) Osteocytes
(1) It is found in the lining of stomach and intestine
148. Because of the diversity of cells and extracellular
(2) It is composed of a single layer of tall and matrix and differences in their relative proportions,
slender cells connective tissues are classified into various types.
(3) Nuclei are located at the apices of the cells W hich one of the f ollowing is not a type of
connective tissue?
(4) It helps in secretion and absorption of
substances (1) Specialised connective tissue
140. Choose the odd one w.r.t. location of compound (2) Compound connective tissue
epithelium. (3) Loose connective tissue
(1) Lines dry surface of skin (4) Dense connective tissue
(2) Lines moist surface of buccal cavity 149. Cells whose nuclei are present in the peripheral part
(3) Forms inner lining of ducts of salivary glands of cytoplasm are
(4) Forms inner surface lining of hollow visceral (1) Mast cells (2) Macrophages
organs (3) Adipocytes (4) Goblet cells
(11)
Fortnightly Test (CoE-XI_T01) Two Year Medical 2019-2021
150. Bones have a hard and non-pliable ground substance (3) Astrocytes
rich in A and B . (4) Oligodendrocytes
Fill the above blanks A and B with suitable option. 157. Select the correct match between the type of
(1) A-silica salts, B-collagen fibres muscle, its action and location.

(2) A-calcium salts, B-collagen fibres Muscle Action Location

(3) A-calcium salts, B-elastin fibres (1) Smooth Involuntary Heart wall

(4) A-silica salts, B-elastin fibres (2) Skeletal Voluntary Intestinal wall

151. Which type of tissue is incorrectly matched with its (3) Smooth Voluntary Wall of blood vessels
location? (4) Skeletal Voluntary Biceps of upper arms
Tissue Location
158. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. cardiac
(1) Compound – Inner lining of muscle and its muscle fibres.
epithelium pancreatic duct
(1) It forms the contractile tissue of heart
(2) Pseudostratified – Inner surf ace of
epithelium ureters (2) Intercalated discs are absent in cardiac muscle
(3) Cuboidal epithelium – Tubular parts of fibres
nephron (3) Cardiac muscle fibres can contract as a unit
(4) Squamous – Air sacs of lungs (4) They have striated appearance
epithelium
159. Read the following statements:
152. A structure or location where dense irregular
connective tissue is found Statement A: Smooth muscle fibres are present in
(1) Skin (2) Blood the innermost lining of visceral organs to form a
surface suitable for diffusion.
(3) Ligaments (4) Lymph
Statement B: They are called ‘smooth’ because of
153. Outermost covering of bone is known as
their fusiform shape.
(1) Perichondrium (2) Periosteum
Choose the correct option
(3) Peritoneum (4) Perimysium
(1) Both the statements are correct
154. Statement A: Areolar tissue is one of the most
widely distributed connective tissue in our body. (2) Only statement A is correct

Statement B: Areolar tissue joins bone to muscles, (3) Both the statements are incorrect
fills the hollow spaces within various organs and does
(4) Only statement B is incorrect
not surround the blood vessels.
160. ____ exerts greatest control ov er the
Choose the correct option
responsiveness of the body to changing conditions.
(1) Both statements are correct
Choose the option which fills the blank correctly.
(2) Both statements are incorrect
(1) Epithelial tissue (2) Connective tissue
(3) Statement A is correct but B is incorrect
(3) Neural tissue (4) Muscular tissue
(4) Statement A is incorrect but B is correct
161. Choose the correct statement.
155. Select the correct statement w.r.t. neuroglial cells?
(1) They stimulate the neurons (1) Biceps of arms comprise voluntary, non-striated
muscle fibres
(2) They protect and support neurons
(2) Musculature of heart has involuntary, non-
(3) They are non-insulating cells
striated muscle fibres
(4) They are non-nucleated cells
(3) Wall of intestine is made up of involuntary, non-
156. Structural and functional unit of neural tissue is/are striated muscle fibres
(1) Neurons (4) All visceral organs contain voluntary, striated
(2) Schwann cells muscle fibres
(12)
Fortnightly Test (CoE-XI_T01) Two Year Medical 2019-2021
162. The function of tight junctions is to 168. Match Column I with Column II w.r.t. given figures
(1) Separate two cells f rom each other only and their suitable identification.
structurally Column I Column II
(2) Facilitate communication between adjoining cells
by connecting the cytoplasm for rapid transfer of
ions, small molecules and some large molecules a. (i) Simple squamous
(3) Stop substances from leaking across a tissue
epithelium
(4) Perform cementing to keep neighbouring cells
together
b. (ii) Ciliated columnar
163. Choose the correct option w.r.t. function of simple
non-ciliated cuboidal epithelium. epithelium
(1) Exchange of materials between blood capillaries
and tissue fluid
(2) Reabsorption of useful substances in nephron c. (iii) Compound epithelium
(3) Movement of particles or mucus in a specific
direction over the epithelium
d. (iv) Adipose tissue
(4) Protection against chemical and mechanical
stresses Choose the correct option.
164. On the basis of the mode of pouring of their (1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
secretions, glands are divided into two categories
namely ___ and ___ respectively. (3) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)

(1) Unicellular and multicellular 169. The most abundant and widely distributed tissue in
human body is
(2) Simple and compound
(1) Epithelial tissue (2) Connective tissue
(3) Exocrine and endocrine
(3) Neural tissue (4) Muscular tissue
(4) Holocrine, merocrine
170. Each long and cylindrical muscle fibre is composed
165. Choose the odd one w.r.t. secretions of exocrine
of numerous fine fibrils known as
glands.
(1) Sarcomere (2) Myocytes
(1) Earwax (2) Digestive enzymes
(3) Myofibrils (4) Muscle bundles
(3) Saliva (4) Hormones
171. Which of the following epithelium lines the inner
166. Read the following statements A and B and choose
surface of fallopian tube in a human female?
the correct option
(1) Ciliated cuboidal epithelium
A. Cells, tissues, organs and organ systems split
up the work in a way that exhibits division of (2) Ciliated columnar epithelium
labour in our body. (3) Simple squamous epithelium
B. In multicellular animals, a group of similar cells (4) Compound squamous epithelium
alongwith intercellular substances performing a
specific function is known as tissue. 172. Choose the correct statement w.r.t. bones of
human.
(1) Statement A is correct but B is incorrect
(1) Collagen fibres are absent in bone
(2) Statement A is incorrect but B is correct
(2) It provides structural framework to the body
(3) Both the statements are correct
(3) Long bones do not serve weight bearing functions
(4) Both the statements are incorrect in humans
167. The tissue which covers the dry surface of the skin, (4) It has pliable ground substance
the moist surface of buccal cavity and pharynx is
173. Cells of areolar tissue which ingest cellular debris,
(1) Adipose tissue bacteria and foreign matter with the help of
(2) Specialised connective tissue pseudopodia are
(3) Compound epithelial tissue (1) Plasma cells (2) Macrophages
(4) Simple epithelial tissue (3) Mast cells (4) Adipocytes

(13)
Fortnightly Test (CoE-XI_T01) Two Year Medical 2019-2021
174. Lymph is an example of 178. Select the incorrect match.
(1) Areolar tissue (1) Fluid connective tissue – Blood
(2) Fluid connective tissue (2) Cells that produce & – Fibroblasts
(3) Dense irregular connective tissue secrete fibres
(4) Skeletal connective tissue (3) Spaces where – Lacunae
175. The excess of nutrients which are not used chondrocytes are present
immediately are converted into fats and are mainly (4) Fibres which provide – Elastin
stored in which of the following types of tissue? strength to bone
(1) Loose connective tissue
179. Which cells are related with cartilage?
(2) Dense connective tissue
(1) Chondrocytes (2) Osteocytes
(3) Specialised connective tissue
(3) Osteoclasts (4) Osteoblasts
(4) Muscular tissue
176. Cardiac muscles have ___ and ___ fibres. 180. Which of the following is not true regarding smooth
muscle fibres?
Choose the option which fill the blanks correctly.
(1) They are fusiform in shape
(1) Multinucleated, unbranched
(2) They don’t show striations
(2) Uninucleated, branched
(3) Cylindrical, unbranched (3) These muscles are present in wall of hollow
organs
(4) Fusiform, branched
(4) These are attached to skeletal bones
177. Ligaments connect
(1) Muscle to bone (2) Muscle to muscle
(3) Bone to bone (4) Muscle to skin



(14)
Fortnightly Test (CoE-XI_T01) Two Year Medical 2019-2021

29/05/2019
Code-A

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005; Ph.: 011-47623456

MM : 720
FORTNIGHTLY TEST SERIES (CoE-XI)2019-2020 Time : 3 Hrs.
Test - 01
ANSWERS
1. (2) 37. (3) 73. (2) 109. (2) 145. (4)
2. (2) 38. (2) 74. (4) 110. (4) 146. (4)
3. (2) 39. (3) 75. (3) 111. (1) 147. (2)
4. (1) 40. (2) 76. (2) 112. (2) 148. (2)
5. (1) 41. (1) 77. (1) 113. (1) 149. (3)
6. (3) 42. (4) 78. (3) 114. (2) 150. (2)
7. (4) 43. (2) 79. (1) 115. (3) 151. (2)
8. (1) 44. (4) 80. (3) 116. (2) 152. (1)
9. (1) 45. (3) 81. (3) 117. (2) 153. (2)
10. (2) 46. (3) 82. (4) 118. (2) 154. (3)
11. (4) 47. (1) 83. (3) 119. (2) 155. (2)
12. (2) 48. (1) 84. (3) 120. (2) 156. (1)
13. (4) 49. (1) 85. (3) 121. (4) 157. (4)
14 (3) 50. (1) 86. (4) 122. (3) 158. (2)
15. (1) 51. (4) 87. (4) 123. (1) 159. (3)
16. (2) 52. (2) 88. (1) 124. (3) 160. (3)
17. (3) 53. (1) 89. (3) 125. (4) 161. (3)
18. (4) 54. (4) 90. (2) 126. (3) 162. (3)
19. (2) 55. (4) 91. (4) 127. (2) 163. (2)
20. (4) 56. (2) 92. (2) 128. (3) 164. (3)
21. (3) 57. (4) 93. (4) 129. (1) 165. (4)
22. (1) 58. (3) 94. (1) 130. (3) 166. (3)
23. (3) 59. (1) 95. (2) 131. (2) 167. (3)
24. (3) 60. (2) 96. (2) 132. (1) 168. (4)
25. (2) 61. (1) 97. (1) 133. (2) 169. (2)
26. (3) 62. (4) 98. (3) 134. (3) 170. (3)
27. (2) 63. (2) 99. (2) 135. (2) 171. (2)
28. (4) 64. (2) 100. (2) 136. (4) 172. (2)
29. (2) 65. (1) 101. (3) 137. (3) 173. (2)
30. (4) 66. (1) 102. (3) 138. (3) 174. (2)
31. (3) 67. (2) 103. (1) 139. (3) 175. (1)
32. (2) 68. (4) 104. (2) 140. (4) 176. (2)
33. (1) 69. (1) 105. (3) 141. (4) 177. (3)
34. (3) 70. (3) 106. (2) 142. (4) 178. (4)
35. (3) 71. (2) 107. (2) 143. (1) 179. (1)
36. (3) 72. (3) 108. (3) 144. (3) 180. (4)

(15)