SPAN CSP Volume 1

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The document discusses a safety professional exam preparation workbook and some of the concepts and metrics covered in it.

The workbook is intended to serve as a guide for preparing for the Certified Safety Professional exam by providing practice problems and explanations for answers.

Some of the leading process safety metrics discussed include maintenance of mechanical integrity, action items follow-up, management of change, and process safety training and competency.

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ERTIFIED SPAN international


Safety Workshops
www.SpanSafetyWorkshops.com

AFETY

ROFESSIONAL

SELF STUDY

WORKBOOK

COMPREHENSIVE PRACTICES

VOLUME I

2nd Edition

~013
SPAN INTERNATIONAL TRAINING, LLC

LAS VEGAS SAFETY WORKSHOPS

402 W. Mt Vernon St #111

Nixa, MO 65714

Phone: 888-589-6757

Fax 417-724-2883

www.spansafetyworkshops.com

Dedicated to Environmental, Health, and Safety Professionals

Striving to Protect

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SPAN international
Safety Workshops
www.SpanSafetyWorkshops.com

The information contained in this study guide is intended to be used in preparation for the Certified
Safety Professional examinations and should not be used as an authority in the professional practice
of safety, industrial hygiene, or environmental compliance. The opinions expressed are those of the
authors and no guarantee, warranty. or other representation is made as to the absolute correctness or
sufficiency of any information contained in this study guide.

~ Copyright © 2013 by SPAN International Training, LLC


402 W. Mt Vernon St #111
~ Nixa, Missouri 65714
www.spansafetyworkshops.com

All rights reserved. No pan of this material may be reproduced, by any means, without permission

I
in writing from the authors, except by a reviewer who wishes to quote brief excerpts in connection
with a review in a magazine or newspaper. Inquiries by phone: 888-589-6757, Fax 417-724-2883,
email info@spansafetyworkshops.com.

I
I
ISBN 978-1-891017-64-3 (set)

ISBN 978-1-891017-62-9 (v.1)

ISBN 978-1-891017-63-6 (v.2)

SPAN International Training Safety Workshops

FOREWORD CSP Self Study Workbook Volume I

The major objective of this workbook is to serve as a guide in preparing for the Certified Safety Table of Contents
Professional (CSP) Comprehensive Practice examination. It is assumed that only fully qualified
safety practitioners will attempt to sit for the CSP examination, which means everyone using this
How to Use This Workbook ..................................................................................... 3

workbook has a solid foundation in the Safety and Health field. Given this assumption, no How to Study ............................................................................................................. 6

attempt has been made to provide a basic safety text. Rather, the problems presented in this book
are representative of questions that may be expected to appear on the CSP examination. The How To Use The "Q & A" Method Of Study........................................................... 7

workbook is designed to be used as the foundation document in your home-study effort. Study Techniques .................................................................................................... 10

However, it is imperative that you realize considerable additional reading and research will be
required to develop the study program required to pass the CSP examinations. About The CSP Exams ............................................................................................ 13

, Benefits of Certification .......................................................................................... 14

The material in this workbook is used during the CSP examination preparation workshops
conducted by SPAN International Training Safety Workshops. We sincerely believe attending Requirements for Certification ................................................................................ 15

our workshop is the fastest and easiest way to prepare for these challenging examinations.
The Examinations .................................................................................................... 16

...­
The workbook is divided into two major volumes. The first volume contains the basic course of How to Select A Calculator ..................................................................................... 18

instruction given during the workshops along with the Exam Prep CD. It is by necessity brief
and covers an almost unbelievable amount of subject matter. The second volume and/or CD Exam References ................................................................................................. 21

contain self-evaluation home study sessions. After each section of the workbook you will find Comprehensive Practice Examination Weighting of Subject Areas ....................... 25

fully developed explanations for the answer selected for each question. In many cases
information about all the selections offered as possible answers will be included to assist in
CSP Examination Breakdown ................................................................................. 26

developing a better understanding of the subject. These sessions are designed to allow the safety About the Computer Examination .......................................................................... 27

professional to measure his or her progress during the extended program of self study that is
normally required to pass the certification exams. Questions from Students on the Computer Exam ............................................... 28

Pearson VUE Testing Center Locations .............................................................. 31

Math and Science Introduction ............................................................................... 33

Please write in this book! You paid for it; why not use it to full advantage. If you simply look at
the math problems without actually performing the calculations, on paper, you will find yourself Calculator Warm-up Exercises ............................................................................ 34

ill prepared come exam day. Likewise, reading and paying attention to the explanations will Calculator Answers ............................................................................................. 36

result in learning. But remember, what's in these pages comes from us .... not from you. True Equations Most Often Used on the CSP Exam ....................................................... 38

learning, comprehension and significant growth comes only when you take up the ideas, test
them, ask questions and disagree. It is to your advantage to add your comments and/or
Scientific and Engineering Notation ....................................................................... 52

calculations to the pages of this workbook. Add your personal comments, questions, ideas, or Unit Conversions ..................................................................................................... 57

shortcuts to each page. Then see what happens the next time you review the workbook.
Unit Conversion "Prefixes" ................................................................................. 57

The process of gaining your certification is a difficult task that will challenge both your patience Unit Conversion Method ..................................................................................... 58

and ability. However, we are sure you will find it an extremely rewarding effort that will serve Equalities Between The Metric And English Systems ....................................... 59

you well as you progress in the safety and health field. Reciprocals ............................................................... ~ .......................................... 60

Conversion Exercise Questions ........ :.................................................................. 61

The material presented in this workbook has been carefully checked for accuracy, but errors may
Conversion Exercise Answers ............................................................................. 62

have been missed. Should you discover an error, it would be appreciated if you would bring it to
our attention via email info@spansafetyworkshops.com Math and Physics Review Questions ...................................................................... 66

Math and Physics Review Answers ........................................................................ 77

Engineering Economy ............................................................................................. 94

Copyright©20t3 SPAN International Training, LLC Paget


SPAN International Training Safety Workshops
SPAN International Training Safety Workshops

CSP Self Study Workbook Volume I


CSP Self Study Workbook Volume I

Engineering Economy Questions ............................................................................ 96


How to Use This Workbook
Engineering Economy Answers .............................................................................. 99
This workbook was designed to be used in a rapid-development three day workshop
Statistics................................................................................................................. 107
conducted by SPAN International Training Safety Workshops. It also can be used
effectively to provide direction and scope to a complete home study effort.
Decision Theory ................................................................................................ 107

Statistic Sample Problems ................................................................................. 110


Workshops are conducted periodically throughout the year so that students can take
Calculating "z" scores ........................................................................................ 116
the examination as soon as they are prepared. Generally it takes the average safety
Coefficient of Correlation.................................................................................. 127
and health professional (if there is such a thing) about 100 - 120 hours of dedicated
Probability calculations involving the Poisson Distribution ............................. 134
self study, in addition to a workshop, to adequately prepare for the examination. The
t-Distribution ..................................................................................................... 137
self study can generally be accomplished in about 8 to 10 weeks.
Operational Statistics ......................................................................................... 141

Chemistry............................................................................................................... 144
Following the concept of formal presentation coupled with home study, the
A
workbook is divided into two sections or volumes to allow both classroom material
Chemical Equations ........................................................................................... 144

and self-evaluation sections. If you are using this material as the foundation for a
"Partial" Periodic Table of the Elements ........................................................... 148

home study course without the benefit of the workshop, additional study effort will
Collecting Safety, Health, Environmental And Security Risk Information .......... 152

be required to master the material.


Collecting Environmental, Health, Safety And Security Risk Information

"Questions"........................................................................................................ 156
Considerable effort has been made to fully develop and explain the concepts and
Collecting Environmental, Health, Safety and Security Risk Information
techniques discussed. However, given the differences in the background and
"Answers" .......................................................................................................... 176
experience of the safety practitioners sitting for the CSP examinations, it is
Assessing Environmental Health Safety and Security Risk.................................. 202
impossible to explain all concepts to all students.
Assessing Environmental Health Safety and Security Risk "Questions" ......... 207

We suggest that you read the introductory pages of the workbook frrst and then
Assessing Safety, Health, Environmental and Security Risk "Answers" ......... 233

browse through the rest of the first volume stopping and actually reading whenever a
Managing Environmental, Health, Safety and Security Risk ............................... 273
subject or question piques your interest. Conversely, we recommend that you do not
Managing Environmental, Health Safety and Security Risk "Questions" ........ 278
read any o/volume two, although it is all right to browse quickly through the material
Managing Environmental, Health Safety and Security Risk "Answers" .......... 306
to get an idea what you are up against. The material in volume two is designed to be
used for self-evaluation as your study program progresses. If the material is to serve
that purpose you must refrain from studying the questions and explanations until
after you have used the material for a self-graded test. Remember, these are only
suggestions. You must use the study techniques that work for you.

After you have reviewed the workbook, you must establish a study plan. There are
many volumes of printed material available on the subject of setting up a home study
effort; we have provided some ideas later in this section and hope they prove useful.
However, at this point it is sufficient to simply say that you must have a plan. The
plan must provide adequate time to master the material and you must have a place
where you feel comfortable learning without distractions. We feel that the average
safety practitioner requires about 10 weeks of study for the Comprehensive Practice

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SPAN International Training Safety Workshops


SPAN International Training Safety Workshops

CSP Self Study Workbook Volume I


CSP Self Study Workbook Volume I

examination if he or she has the benefit of a workshop. Without the workshop add tell time. If you look you will be able to find someone willing to assist you for a
another 4 to 6 weeks. price (not necessarily money) you can afford.

This workbook is designed to allow you to make the most out of your study time. It From the introductory chapters, the workbook progresses to individual chapters on
has been developed to allow you to concentrate on areas that have historically been each of the three areas of the Comprehensive Practice examination. These three
presented on the test. There is no extraneous or "nice to know" information in this chapters also use the question and answer format and are designed to allow you to
workbook. All of the information is important. Concentrate on the areas emphasized become familiar with the type of questions offered on the exam. Explanations are
and you should be able to reduce your research and study time considerably. offered to reduce research time. The CSP examination covers a tremendous amount
However, keep in mind, the ASP and CSP tests have changed very dramatically in of subject matter and thus many questions can be developed from the areas covered.
recent times, major revisions have occurred. Therefore, you may be able to pass the
exam studying only the material in this workbook, and you may not! Most safety The workbook does not contain actual test questions. Rather the questions presented
professionals who have been out of school for a while would be well advised to are representative of the questions you will see on the actual examination. For this
.~pend additional time on a general safety and health review prior to taking the actual reason you must assure yourself that you understand the area or areas the question is
examination. We recommend you pay particular attention to the "How to Study" asking you about. Many times this will require additional study, however do not
section coming up in a few pages stray too far from the subject or you will lose the direction the workbook attempts to
provide.
This workbook uses a question and answer format with detailed explanations
provided for most answers. Difficult concepts or theories may have material Most safety professionals prefer to proceed straight through the workbook studying
presented in table or paraphrased format. This method is used to allow broad an area at a time. The workbook is presented in large type with plenty of room for
coverage of the material and is provided as a time saver. In almost all cases where you to complete the work on each question page. After completing volume one, we
tables are presented you will have to research the subject more thoroughly to gain an suggest that you use self-evaluation session number one as a mini-quiz. Do not look
in-depth understanding. You will find the answers to each chapter of the book at the answers until after you have graded the quiz. The results will show you areas
immediately following the questions. that require additional effort. Remember, the questions presented are tough, but the
actual test is a bear. You need about a 55-60% grade to pass the Comprehensive
Always Review All the Information in the Answers Practice examination, so you should aim for a better score on the self-evaluation
quizzes. Remember, there is always new information being added to the test. We
The [rrst chapters of the workbook are devoted to becoming familiar with your
estimate that we will cover only about 65% of the material you will be tested on!
calculator, performing conversions and reviewing elementary math and science
concepts. These chapters serve as warm-up exercises for the classroom presentations However, if you are very familiar with the subject areas contained in the
and should be used in the same manner if you are using the workbook as a home workbooks, you will be able to spend much more time on the not so familiar areas
study course. The workshops offer review sessions the last two days of study to of the examination come test day.
provide additional review for any weak areas.
Use the other three self-evaluation sessions to check your progress as your study
If you are using the workbook in a home study program without the workshop this program continues. The workbooks will provide direction for your program but you
may present a problem, since you will not have had the benefit of a guided review. must do the actual studying. The next few pages concern how to study using the Q &
The concepts illustrated in the first chapters require some elementary understanding A format.
before progressing. However, the trick is to learn the concepts and theories that
pertain and avoid costly research or study of material that will not be tested. Seek
help from co-workers, friends, or high-school science and math teachers. A void the
ones that want to teach you how to build a watch when you only need to learn how to

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SPAN International Training Safety Workshops
SPAN International Training Safety Workshops

CSP Self Study Workbook Volume I


CSP Self Study Workbook Volume I

How to Study
This section is designed to assist you with mastering a learning methodology. How To Use The "Q & A" Method Of Study
This workbook uses a Question & Answer format that allows you to concentrate
The Q & A method of study is easy to master because most of the work has been
on areas that you are not familiar with and avoid over studying material in areas
done by someone else. The research done for you involves someone actually
where you already possess enough knowledge to pass the exam. Fundamental to
taking the test and recalling areas of interest from which desired learning
this technique is a good core of questions and your ability to take advantage of the
outcomes are developed. The desired learning outcomes are then reduced to
guided study aspects of the process. The technique is intended to be useful to
Questions, Answers and Explanations. If this process is accomplished correctly,
practitioners who have mastered the skills and tasks necessary to perform in the
you are presented with a series of questions that approach the same level of
safety and health arena. As adult learners most of us are not fond of the process
difficulty as used in the examination. The subject matter and format parallel the
of study, however we do enjoy the process of learning. The difference lies in the
actual test questions. This allows you to determine if you currently possess the
jlbility to retain what is important to the accomplishment of a goal and reject what
knowledge required or if you need to gain a more in-depth understanding. The
. is not important.
method is very much in concert with the traditional method of learning that is,
progressing from the known to the unknown. However, in this case you determine
If you use this workbook properly we believe you can do just that; master those
the known and unknown and save a lot of time in the process.
areas important to your goal (passing the CSP examination) and expend minimum
effort on research and actual study. The technique also has some very beneficial
The steps to using the Q & A Method of Study are also very similar to the
side effects. You will find that the learning process will make you a better and
traditional steps for reading, or reviewing a textbook.
more proficient safety and health practitioner. However, the process assumes you
have the discipline to do the research and study the material that you are weak on.
• First, using all your learned test taking strategies, attempt to answer the
If you attempt to study using only the material presented in this workbook, you
question.
risk the very real chance of not being adequately prepared for the examination.

How do I do it? What is involved beyond reading the question and looking at the • Second, grade the results if you are doing a self-evaluation then read the
explanation.
answers? OK -- Lets look at the process and then make some suggestions about
your study habits.
• Third, answer the question - Was this a known or an unknown? Did I have
the knowledge base to determine the answer to this question or did I get the
right answer by an educated guess or worse yet, dumb luck?

Note: This is a key step in the process and determines if you can proceed or need
to gain more knowledge on the subject. Additionally, you need to ask yourself if
your knowledge base on this subject is broad enough to answer questions of equal
difficulty about other aspects of the subject.

Page 6 Copyright©2013 SPAN International Training, LLC Copyright©2013 SPAN International Training, LLC Page 7

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CSP Self Study Workbook Volume I


CSP Self Study Workbook Volume I

• Fourth, move on or take notes. If you are comfortable with your knowledge 1. We selected answer B because:
on the subject then move on to the next question. However, if you are not
comfortable with your current level of knowledge on the subject or other This area would require Class I, Div 2 electrical equipment in accordance with
aspects of the subject, then you should take notes about the information you OSHA 1910.107. Also see NFPA 70, ART. 500. The following table illustrates
need. We recommend you write in the margins of the workbook right next the classes and divisions of the NEC.
to the question.
dLASS
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• Fifth, research and study. When you complete a set of questions and make
,

notes on the information you need to study, you have developed a I Normally explosive Not normally present
deficiency study plan. Now all that remains is to research and study the Gases, Vapors and hazardous in an explosive concentration
material necessary to master the required knowledge. However, remember and Liquids (but may accidentally exist)
to stick with your notes and stay on subject. It is very easy to stray onto (ART. 501)
some other interesting subject and lose sight of your desired learning II Ignitable quantities Dust not normally
outcome. of dust normally is suspended in an ignitable
Dusts or maybe in concentration (but may
A look at an actual question, answer and explanation will tend to illustrate and (ART. 502) suspenSIOn or accidentally exist). Dust
explain the process. conductive dust may layers are present
be present
1. A paint storage area when flammable paints are present in closed
containers that is located adjacent to and communicates with a spray booth III Textiles, woodworking Stored or handled
requires which of the following types of electrical fixtures. Fibers etc. (easily ignitable in storage
and Flyings but not likely to be (exclusive of manufacturing)
A.) Class I, Div 1
(ART. 503) explosive)
B.) Class I, Div 2

C.) Class II, Div 3


This question obviously concerns the classes and divisions of the National

D.) Class I, Div 1, Group P


Electrical Code. The NEC classification of hazardous locations is a very

complicated subject and it is easy to see that many questions could be framed

around this subject. From very basic questions about what article defines the

hazardous locations, to complicated application questions about how equipment

is constructed to comply with NEC requirements. This question is pretty

detailed, because it asks about an area adjacent to a classified location. The

explanation does not tell us a great deal, but does provide a table illustrating

some of the provisions of the NEC articles dealing with classified locations. If

you previously had substantial knowledge in this area, the table is detailed

enough to refresh your memory.

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CSP Self Study Workbook Volume I

So, the question you should be asking yourself at this point is, how much do I material. The area should also contain any supplies or materials you use
need to know about the subject of hazardous locations as defined by the NEC? ie; stapler, highlighter, calculator, scratch paper, etc. The intent is to
Well, if electrical theory is your strong suit, you probably know a lot about the make your stay comfortable and cut down on interruptions.
NEC and some articles and will feel comfortable with this question and the
general subject. Another possibility is that you are knowledgeable on the • Your study area must not have a stereo, TV, telephone, refrigerator, or a
subject but need a little brush up. Yet another option is that you know very little really good view.
about the NEC hazardous location classifications, in which case you need to do
a lot of investigation into the details of the concept and the application Having a good place to study goes a long way toward eliminating external
techniques. How deep into the subject matter do you need to dig? The level of distractions. Another very important consideration in developing a good study
detail in the question provides a good indicator. As we stated earlier this program is eliminating internal distractions. The total elimination of external
question is pretty detailed and you probably need to know quite a bit about the distractions is almost possible. The total elimination of internal distractions;,is
.:subject. An additional indicator is the repetition of the question in our impossible. However, we all know you can make much more progress if your
.. workbook. If a question keeps appearing with only minor changes in format, it mind is free from daydreams, worries and the constant feeling that you are not
is a sure indication that the subject matter is important and we anticipate the going to make a deadline. So - attempt to free your mind for studying. You
actual exam to have several questions dealing with that subject. must:

In summary, the Q & A method of studying is similar to the outline method. • Reduce indecision and daydreaming. Set realistic time limits, determine
The basic outline is presented with the questions. You then determine if you what you are going to study and stay on schedule. If you study a subject
have what it takes to feel comfortable with the subject or not. If you need too long at one time you tend to daydream which reduces your
additional knowledge, you research and study to develop the required effectiveness.
knowledge or skill. The system works well for many different levels of adult
learners because "you" determine what you need to study and how hard. • Don't let personal problems interfere. If personal factors distract your
studies you will not be able to concentrate on either and the result will be
more frustration. If you have serious personal problems you should
Study Techniques consider dealing with them and rescheduling your CSP study, maybe
One of the most important items to establishing a good study program is finding even delaying the test date one cycle.
a place to study. Your study area must meet the following conditions:
• Deal with outside details. Busy minds often produce random thoughts.
• Your study space must be specific to studying. You must not use a Keep a card in your study area and jot down appointments and details of
garage, den, workshop, or other area where you play. You must find a projects as these brainstorms come to you. You cannot prevent these
place that signals "study". The place becomes a clue to you; when you details from surfacing, but if you deal with them it may free your mind so
enter you study - no other activities, none. that you can return to your studies.

• Your study space must be comfortable. The area must have good
lighting, ventilation, be temperature controlled and quiet. You need a
large table or desk where you can spread out your reference materials.
The area must have readily available your health and safety reference

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CSP Self Study Workbook Volume I CSP Self Study Workbook Volume I

You must also be physically and mentally prepared to study. All of the About The CSP Exams
following factors are just common sense, but probably deserve repeating:
Shortly after the turn of the century there began appearing in this country,
• You should eat a well balanced diet. Remember, the four food groups! persons practicing the art and science of safety work. These practitioners came
Don't forget the protein. A proper level of blood sugar can go a long way from different academic backgrounds and had a multitude of work experience
in making sure you feel like studying. ranging from operations to engineering. They all had one thing in common,
they were trying to promote the safety and health of employees. Until the
• Get enough sleep! Establish and maintain a regular bedtime. Certified Safety Professional certification program began, they also had no
standard measure of qualification.
• Exercise! Find a form of exercise that you enjoy and stick with it.
The Board of Certified Safety Professionals (BCSP) was chartered by the
AI • Mental fatigue comes from simply trying to do too much. Allot yourself American Society of Safety Engineers (ASSE) in 1969 to establish a method of
time for breaks and don't try too hard. The average safety and health measuring qualifications for the safety profession. The Board established
practitioner should study for the CSP exam for 100 to 120 hours. Don't qualification standards and began issuing certification shortly after its founding.
try to do it in twenty. Although chartered as an independent, separately-incorporated board, the BCSP
has several sponsoring organizations which provide members to the BCSP Board
The suggestions above are just that, suggestions. You must establish a study of Directors. These sponsoring organizations are the following:
program that makes sense for you and one that you can fit into your lifestyle. If
some of the items we proposed make sense, then try them out. If they don't • American Society of Safety Engineers
make sense for you, then don't do them. Find out what works for you.
• American Industrial Hygiene Association
Many of our students that are studying for certification exams tell me that
finding a suitable place to study is the toughest hurdle to overcome. Some have • National Safety Council
suggested that returning to work in the evening or early in the morning has
proven to be the solution. You may want to consider it. • Institute of Industrial Engineers

One last word about the Question and Answer method of study. Be sure you • Society of Fire Protection Engineers
are actually studying rather than just reading the material. Studying using the
Q&A method involves constantly asking yourself questions. Do I really know • System Safety Society
this subject? How could the examination rephrase this question to "test" me in
the same general area? Do I understand the concept? By constantly asking • National Fire Protection Association (NFPA)
yourself questions you develop focus and purpose to your research, as opposed
to random reading. Today the CSP designation is the premier certification in the safety profession.
No other single means of measuring your qualifications is as widely accepted or
Best of luck on your study program and on the C S P, Comprehensive respected. There are currently about 12,000 Certified Safety Professionals and
Practice examination. almost 1,500 actively seeking the CSP designation.

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SPAN International Training Safety Workshops
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CSP Self Study Workbook Volume I


CSP Self Study Workbook Volume I

Benefits of Certification exam should be taken as early in one's career as possible.

Note: The following infonnation concerning the requirements for certification may have

The process of certification commands a considerable amount of effort. Many changed after publication. It is strong1y suggested that you contact the BCSP for current

information, shou1d any question arise.

safety practitioners wonder if the advantages of certification justify all the effort.

The primary advantage of certification is that it provides a credential. The CSP Requirements for Certification
indicates that a safety professional has achieved a standard level of qualification
as judged by their professional peers. This level of qualification is important in A candidate for certification must have a Bachelor's degree in safety that meets
establishing credibility within the ever growing field of Environment, Safety and the Board's minimum course requirements or a combination of education and
Health. Employment opportunities are much greater for personnel holding CSP experience recognized by the Board plus a minimum of four years of professional
certification, the courts recognize the certification as a step toward authentication safety experience. A degree at the Bachelors level in any discipline or an
.; as a expert witness, and it is almost always required to do consultant work in the Associate level degree in Safety and Health is required, without waiver.
. field of safety today.
For exact requirements, go to the BCSP web site at www .bcsp.org and review the
Additionally, we think there are several reasons that should cause you to think candidate handbook. Along with the education and experience requirements.
about starting the process of obtaining your certification right now. First, there is candidates must successfully complete a series of two, one day examinations.
a growing trend by states to license safety professionals, much like physicians, Those candidates possessing other acceptable registration or certification may
engineers, architects and other professionals. The states have that authority under waive the first exam. Currently, the only acceptable means for waiving the first
their duty to "protect the health, safety and welfare of the pUblic." exam IS as a:

Second, federal legislation is constantly being proposed, there is substantial • Professional Engineer (P.E.) any state, any discipline
support to modify existing safety and health laws to include federally certified
"safety specialists". • Canadian Registered Safety Professional (CRSP)

Third, look at the help wanted ads in any major newspaper or talk to a safety and • Certified Industrial Hygienist (CIH)
health recruiter. Certified Safety and Health professionals obtain employment
earlier and receive greater compensation.
• Certified Health Physicist (CHP)

Fourth, the Board of Certified Safety Professionals has recently decided not to
offer certification to any practitioner without a four year college degree or a two
• Member, Singapore Institute of Safety Officers (SISO)

year degree in safety or health. This requirement was effective I January 1998. As
the requirements increase, we think the examinations will become even more
• Chartered Member of IOSH (CMIOSH)
dynamic. complex. difficult to pass and expensive, both in time and money.
• Chartered Professional Member SIA (CPMSIA)
We think these and other recent developments add up to a future environment
where certification is going to be the desired/required credential. Being a CSP • Chartered Engineer (CE) from the Engineering Council (UK)
will become much more important, more lucrative, and it will be harder to obtain.
Like the other professional certification/registration examinations the ASP-CSP • American Board for Occupational Health Nurses (ABOHN)

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CSP Self Study Workbook Volume I

Costs associated with the certification process are currently:


• Graduate Safety Practitioners (GSPs)
Initial application fee ......................................................................................... $ 160.00

• All others must successfully complete both the Safety Fundamentals


"Safety Fundamentals or ASP" examination fee .............................................. $ 350.00

and Comprehensive Practice exam prior to receiving the CSP


certification. ASP/GSP certification fee (annual) .................................................................. $ 140.00

"Comprehensive Practice" examination fee ..................................................... $ 350.00

The Examinations CSP certification fee (annual) ........................................................................... $ 150.00

A candidate for certification may take the first of the two examinations -- the The above information is accurate as of this printing. For more current

Safety Fundamentals, sometimes called the "ASP" or "CORE" exam -- after information, candidates should contact the Board at:
-; meeting the academic/experience requirements.
BOARD OF CERTIFIED SAFETY PROFESSIONALS

The Safety Fundamentals Examination is truly a Safety Fundamentals test. It BCSP

covers the basic academic knowledge expected of a safety professional at the


entry leveL A candidate passing the Safety Fundamentals Examination is 2301 W. Bradley Avenue

recognized as an "Associate Safety Professional" (ASP). This designation


indicates a candidate's progression toward certification.
Champaign, IL 61821

The second test in the series is the Comprehensive Practice Exam. Before taking
this examination, the academic/experience requirements must be met, passing (217) 359-9263

scores must be recorded on the Safety Fundamentals, (unless waived by other


registration or certification) and the candidate must have four years of acceptable Fax (217) 359-0055

professional safety experience.


www.bcsp.org

When a candidate has successfully completed the Comprehensive Practice


Examination, they are designated a "Certified Safety Professional". The
Comprehensive Practice exam is divided into three sections. The three sections
are Collecting Safety, Health, Environmental and Security Risk Information,
Assessing Safety, Health, Environmental and Security Risk and Managing Safety,
Health, Environmental and Security Risk.

The entire process of certification generally takes from 6 to 12 months. So don't


get in a hurry, you have plenty of time to PLAN your study program.

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"'":­

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How to Select A Calculator 2. In addition to the suggestions made by the Board, we believe the calculator
you select should have these functions (in order of importance):
The cSP exams all require the use of a good scientific calculator. It is suggested
in the material distributed by the Board that the calculator has functions for • A statistical function capable of calculating mean, standard
common logarithms, natural logarithms, trigonometric functions, powers and deviation and correlation.
roots.

On January 1,2004, the calculator policy relating to examinations leading to the


• A change sign function for numbers and exponents

Certified Safety Professional® (CSP®) designation changed. Those taking BCSP


examinations will be allowed to bring one or two calculators into the
• A universal power function

examination~ any calculator brought into the examination must be from the
:. brands and models listed below.
• Scientific notation
..
Brand and Models • Combinations, Permutations and Factorials

Texas Instruments: TI-30, TI-34, TI-35, TI-36 3. Lastly, the calculator should be large enough so that you can use it. Many
of the modem calculators have keys so small that it is almost impossible to
Casio: FX-115, FX-250, FX-260, FX-300 hit just one key . You will be doing a considerable amount of work during
this study effort, so make it as easy on yourself as you can.
Hewlett Packard: hp 9, hp 10, hp 12, hp 30
Obviously, many of the items on this list are personal preference. You should
Different versions of the above brands and models will be permitted. For evaluate these suggestions with respect to your own science and math skills and
example, the TI-30X lIS and hp 30s calculators will be allowed, as they are determine which functions are the most important to you. Let us explain why we
versions of the permitted brands and models. choose to include the functions listed above.

However, we believe you should be very selective in your decision on a calculator During your course of study, you will encounter several statistical problems
for this study effort. Technology has brought the price of calculators down to a involving the calculation of standard deviation, both population and sample.
very affordable figure. Unfortunately, not all manufacturers of calculators take the Determining standard deviation requires making a table, determining absolute
time or effort to supply a decent set of instructions with the machine. With the values, squaring numbers, etc. In other words, a lot of manipulation. Not the
complex manipulation required to operate many of these calculators, a good thing you want to do on a five hour test that allows you a minute and a half per
instruction manual is probably as important as the calculator itself. You will find question ~ If your calculator will perform this function with a single key stroke
that the instruction manual can be a very good friend as you progress through the (after you input the data), that is the way to go.
CSP study material, especially if you do not use a calculator in your everyday
work.

1. First, and most importantly, the calculator should have a well-illustrated


instruction manual. The manual should be large enough to read, not an
inch by an inch and a half. It should have examples of problems and
answers with illustrations.

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Likewise, coefficient of correlation calculations are very complicated and time Exam References
consuming to do with x and y tables. Operations that take seconds on a good The Board of Certified Safety Professionals (BCSP) provides a small pamphlet
calculator may require five or more minutes to set up on paper. It is just good entitled "Examination Guide". In this pamphlet several pages are devoted to the
time management to obtain a machine to do the work for you. Additionally, you subject of study references. There are 94 references listed for the Comprehensive
save a lot of memory effort by not having to worry about applying the correct Practices examination. However, it has been our experience that the following
formula. nine references are the ones that have proven to be the most valuable to safety
practitioners studying for this exam.
The same rationale holds true for scientific notation, combinations, permutations ------

and factorials. The problems involving probability and reliability all require use
of these tools; some to a greater extent than others. Again, why not let the Reference
machine do the work for you. I I

. NSC Accident Prevention Manual for Business & Industry, Administration and Programs,
13 th Edition (1)

.. There are a selected number of calculators that will serve you well during your
NSC Accident Prevention Manual for Business & Industry, Engineering and Technology,

CSP study effort. SPAN International Training Safety Workshops includes the
13th Edition (2)

TI-30X liS series calculator as part of the workshop because it has an adequate
NSC Accident Prevention Manual for Business & Industry, Environmental Management, 2nd

instruction booklet, performs all the required functions, is easy to use and read
Edition (3)

and, should you wish to buy a spare, it can purchased through SPAN for $20.
ISafety and Health for Engineers (8)
IFire Protection Handbook, 2008 Edition, National Fire Protection Assn. (5)
nd
1**Product Safety Management and Engineering.. 2 Edition (7)
INSC Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene, 5iJi Edition (4)
1**Chemistry of Hazardous Materia]s, 3rd Edition (6)

(*) Reference numbers refer to the listing of material shown below.


** Indicates references not specifically suggested by BCSP.

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Suggested References All of the NSC publications are available at the larger libraries and many safety
1. Accident Prevention Manual for Business and Industry, Administration and offices have several copies. They are expensive, so if you do not have ready
Programs (13th Edition). National Safety Council (NSC). This is volume access to a copy, it would be worthwhile to look around a bit. You might even
one of two in the latest series of Accident Prevention Manuals produced by try approaching the local safety council. Many times they will lend you a set for
NSC. It represents a combined effort of many authors but is assembled in a an extended basis. Also some American Society of Safety Engineers (ASSE)
standardized manner that is very logical and prevents duplication or chapters have a library. Plus, many of the American Industrial Hygiene
conflicting theories. It is truly an exceptional text. Things are changing in Association local sections have excellent libraries.
safety and health so fast the most current is always the best, so really try to
get the 11th Edition. The 10th and 11th Editions are also very useful but the 1. Fire Protection Handbook (2008 Edition). National Fire Protection
12th has been restructured and is more current. Try to obtain the 12th Association. This is an outstanding reference book covering many other
Edition if possible. You may order this book from NSC, Itasca, Ill. 1-800­ areas of mishap prevention in addition to fIfe prevention and protection.
621-7615. Website: www.nsc.org The 16th edition or later are acceptable. Order from the NFPA, Quincy,
..... "

Ma., 1-617-770-3000. Website: www.nfpa.org


2. Accident Prevention Manual for Business and Industry, Engineering and
Technology (13th Edition). National Safety Council (NSC). This is the old 2. Chemistry ofHazardous Materials by Eugene Meyer (2 nd to 4th edition).
stand-by Accident Prevention Manual many of us cut our teeth on, with a Prentice-Hall, Inc. This is the best text around if you need some
th
new name. It is the second volume in a two volume set. The 10 and 11 th elementary instruction on applied chemistry in the safety and fIfe field.
Editions are also very useful but the 12th has been restructured and is more Written for the fire service, the book is readily available in almost all fIfe
current. You may order this book from NSC, Itasca, Ill. 1-800-621-7615. departments. Should you have to purchase the book it is relatively
Website: www.nsc.org inexpensive and makes an excellent desk reference. H you need some
chemistry help, this is the one. You may order this book from Prentice­
3. Accident Prevention Manualfor Business and Industry, Environmental Hall, Englewood Cliffs, N.J., 1-800-947-7700.
Management (2nd Edition). National Safety Council (NSC). This book is
organized into three general parts: (I) General Framework, (TI) Waste 3. Product Safety Management and Engineering (2nd Edition) by Willie
Management, and (III) Special Concerns. This is the forth volume in a four Hammer. American Society of Safety Engineers. A fairly new book on the
volume set. You may order this book from NSC, Itasca, Ill. 1-800-621­ market that is just exactly what you need for the product safety and system
7615. Website: www.nsc.org safety portions of the CSP examination. The quality is superior, a well
written book. Mr. Hammer had a unique method of allowing us to grasp
4. Fundamentals ofIndustrial Hygiene (5th Edition). National Safety Council. and understand the difficult concepts involved in product safety. The
This is an exceptional text with rewritten chapters on The Skin and system safety sections are also excellent. Nice section on sneak-circuit
Occupational Dermatoses, Nonionizing Radiation, Thermal Stress, analysis. Order from ASSE 1-847-699-2929. Website: www.asse.org
Biological Hazards, General Ventilation, and Occupational Health Nursing.
The third and fourth editions are also acceptable, but I would steer away 4. Safety and Health for Engineers by Roger Brauer. American Society of
from the 2nd or 1st Edition for your CSP study. You may order this book Safety Engineers. Written by the Technical Director of the Board of
from NSC, Itasca, TIL 1-800-621-7615. Website: www.nsc.org Certified Safety Professionals. The information covered in this publication
ranges from line safety through management. Order from ASSE 1-847­
699-2929. Website: www.asse.org

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CSP Self Study Workbook Volume I

Many of these publications can be ordered online via websites such as Comprehensive Practice Examination Weighting of

Amazon.com, Bamesandnoble.com, etc. If you shop around, you may be able to


find some good deals on these books. However, be careful to read about the
Subject Areas l

availability of these items for shipment. It won't do you much good to buy the
Comprehensive Practice Examination

NFPA Fire Protection Handbook for $50 if it won't be shipped for 6 - 8 weeks and
your test is scheduled for next month. Sec ISection Title %

,----­
'Collecting Safety, Health, Environmental and Security Risk
1 28.6
The purpose of our home study workbook is to give direction to your study effort. I
Information
The book does a good job of narrowing down the enormous amount of material '---2--IAssessing Safety, Health, Environmental and Security Risk 36.6
that you could be tested on. However, knowing what to study is not enough. You 3 IManaging Safety, Health, Environmental and Security Risk 34.8
must also study the right material. That is, the right reference material. Finding
:: the right books to study from is probably the most important single element in
The Comprehensive Practice Examination was designed to test applied
developing your study plan. So take some time and do it right.
knowledge and the application of experience gained through professional
practice. The examination requires a greater depth of knowledge than what is
Some other references that may be useful in your studies include the following: required in the Safety Fundamentals Examination. The computerized test
consists of 200 questions.- You are allowed 6 consecutive hours to complete all
• ACGIH Industrial Ventilation Handbook, Manual ofRecommended questions. Laminated scratch paper (White Board) and a marker will be
Practices, American Conference of Governmental Industrial Hygienists provided by the testing service. You must provide your own calculators (two
www.acgih.org allowed). Mter you finish the computerized examination, you will receive an
immediate pass-fail grade. A detailed score report, sample shown on next page,
• Commercial Driver License (CDL) Manual, from your State will be mailed to you from the BCSP. As of this printing the passing score for
Department of Highway this examination is 55-63%.

• The Dictionary of terms used in the Safety Profession, American


Society of Safety Engineers, www.asse.org

• Threshold Limit Values and Biological Exposure Indices, American


. Conference of Governmental Industrial Hygienists, www.acgih.org

However, we do believe that the majority of the information you need to pass the
CSP Safety Fundamentals exam is contained in the nine suggested references.

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CSP Examination Breakdown


About the Computer Examination
One major goal of the BCSP is to offer certification examinations with a high
MAX% YOUR% degree of validity and reliability to promote a fair assessment of a candidate's
DomainlResponsibility competency as a safety and health practitioner. In support of this goal, computer
100.0 72.7
testing for the ASP/CSP certification was implemented early in 1997. The change
Overall Examination to computer testing offered considerable additional flexibility and convenience for
candidates.
Domain 1. Collecting SHE&SR Information 28.6 22.2
Task 1. 10.0 7.2
Task 2. 6.2 5.0 Testing on computer is performed at Pearson VUE Testing Centers. Each test
Task 3. 6.2 4.4 consists of 200 mUltiple choice questions. Examinations can be taken most
....... Task 4• 6.2 5.6 business days at numerous locations throughout the world. Many locations also
have evening and Saturday hours. One great benefit of this improved system is
Domain 2. Assessing SHE&SR 36.6 24.4 immediate test grading. As soon as you finish the computer examination you
Task 1. 15.6 10.0 receive a pass or fail grade. Later, a more detailed result sheet is sent via maiL
Task 2. 11.0 7.7
Task 3. 10.0 6.7 Once a candidate has been approved and considered eligible by the Board of
Certified Safety Professionals (BCSP) and has paid the examination fee ($350),
Domain 3. Managing SHE &SR 34.8 26.1
the Board will mail a testing voucJ:ler. Once you receive the test voucher, you
Task 1. 10.0 7.2
Task 2. 8.9 6.7 have 120 days to arrange for an actual examination date. Arrangements are made
Task 3. 7.2 5.5 directly with Pearson VUE via on-line or via the national 800 phone number.
Task 4. 8.9 6.7 Some Pearson VUE Testing Centers are busier than others, so try to schedule
early if you can.

At the Pearson VUE centers, a candidate signs in, presents identifications and is
seated at a computer workstation. The center provides one sheet of laminated
paper and a marker. There is a short orientation and practice program to acquaint
you with the examination procedure and then the test begins. A small clock in the
comer of the monitor screen keeps track of the remaining time. When you finish
the examination you will immediately receive a pass or fail grade.

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Question What is furnished in the exam cubicle?


Questions from Students on the Computer Exam
Answer One laminated sheet of paper, one marker and the computer
NOTE: Remember the best and most current source of infonnation on procedures
monitor, keyboard and mouse.
and policies for the computer test is directly from the BCSP at (217) 359-9263, Fax
(217) 359-0055. Question What is the workstation/cubicle like?
Question How do the questions appear on the computer screen? How do I
Answer Generally very nice, although this may vary with different
make answer selections? Can I back up or mark questions so that. I
Pearson VUE Centers. Cubicles are large, with a desktop
can come?
about 3'x 4', excellent lighting, very quiet, with comfortable
padded chairs (adjustable), The keyboard and mouse take up
Answer Examination questions appear one at a time and look very similar to
all space in front of the monitor, so calculations must be done
the questions in the workbook. With a mouse or keys, the candidate
'" off to the side. Our chairs were on rollers, so we could move
selects the preferred answer and moves on to the next question. You
around easily.
can also mark questions for further review or skip them and come
back. After the last question, a list appears and shows item numbers,
Question Are there any children in the exam room?
answers selected and questions marked or skipped. The computer
test is very friendly - you do not have to be computer literate to take
Answer No. The room is for adult testing only. All children activities
this exam.
are in separate areas of the Pearson VUE Center.

Question How many other people are in the room?


Question Can you bring food or drinks into the exam room?
Answer There are multiple workstations in the exam room. The
Answer No. They give you a small locker to put all your things in, including
number of people varies with time and day. The proctor has a
snacks, purses, watches, etc. You mayor may not be allowed access
view of the entire room (via glass window and comer mirrors
to your locker.
on the ceiling, plus being taped by video and audio
monitoring).
Question What can you take into the exam room?
Question Can you take breaks?
Answer Only your calculator(s) and ID cards. Everything else must go into
Answer Yes, as many and as often as you want. However, the clock
your locker. You can take two calculators into the exam.
keeps running and you must sign out and in each time. You
must have a finger print check each time you leave and go
back in. You can walk around, go to the restroom and even go
to the break room.

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General Comments:
Question Do you need ID's?
We found the computer exam to be a positive, convenient way to take the exam.
Answer You need one ID: with your photo and signature. They also take The Pearson VUE people were friendly and helpful. The cubicles were quiet and
your photograph and a finger print during sign-in. well lit. The chairs were comfortable. There was plenty of table space and the
computer was user friendly and non-threatening.
Question Do you need your Authorization letter?
This information is based on a limited number of exams and Pearson VUE
Answer They usually don't ask, but take it just in case. You will need the ID centers. Conditions may vary considerably between testing locations. Feedback
number when you call to schedule your appointment. from you on your testing experience will help us keep this information current and
accurate. Please call us at 1-888-589-6757. We greatly appreciate your feedback.
. Question Can you schedule the exam any time? A listing of Pearson VUE center locations is on the BCSP web site or by calling
,,"
or faxing the Board of Certified Safety Professionals.
Answer No. They usually have certain times set aside for professional exams.
Book your slot several weeks in advance to get the time and day you Good Luck on your exam!
want.

Question Is there enough time to finish the exam?


Pearson VUE Testing Center Locations
Answer This is very subjective. We found there was plenty of time to finish
and have review time, but we've talked to other people who haven't
For worldwide locations, look at the web site www.pearsonvue.com.
finished. The time per question ( 1.65 minutes) is the same as the
written exam and we found the computer not to be a factor in this
For all areas not listed, contact the BCSP for testing infonnation.
area.

Question Are there graphs to interpret? How are the graphics?

Answer Yes, there are a limited number of graphs to read. They are a little
harder to read on the screen, but not much. Graphics are pretty
good.

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Notes Math and Science Introduction


The Math and Science part of the workbook provides a foundation review. It is
designed to allow you to become familiar with performing calculations similar to
the ones encountered on the Comprehensive Practice examination. Additionally.
some elementary science concepts will be reviewed. You are reminded that this is
not a basic introductory text. this part of the workbook is designed as a refresher
for concepts you have already mastered. This part of the workbook is separated
into the following broad areas:

Conversions are an important part of the process used in solving many of the
.. ­
problems encountered on the CSP exams, several pages are devoted to the process
using the Unit Conversion method.

The Math Review section provides a review of information dealing with the
application tested on the ASP exam.

Engineering Economy deals with calculations involving the "time value" of


money.

The Statistics section contains sample problems involving standard deviation


calculations, Z-scores, coefficients of variance and correlation. the Poisson
distribution and the t-distribution.

A short Chemistry section discusses some of the chemistry concepts that may be
tested on the exam.

An Equations Section listing the equations that have historically been used most
often on the examination can be found in the front of volume two. All the terms
used in the formulas are fully defined and we are sure you will find this a most
useful section as you proceed through the workbook. We encourage you to refer
to it often.

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Calculator Warm-up Exercises 1


Solve the following using your calculator. Note: Solutions and screen display for 11. Calculate .............................................................._ _ __
45
the TI-30X lIS are on pages 2-3 and 2-4.

1. Calculate $69.95 - 10% discount = ..................................................._ _ __


12. Calculate (64)112 ................................. ........................._ _ __

2. Calculate 14 x 356 ............................................................................. - - - ­ 13. Calculate sine 30 ............................................................................... _ _ __

3. Calculate It x 3.62............................................................................... - - - ­ 14. Calculate arcsine of 0.5 ..................................................................... _ _ __

""
(
4. Calculate .1X 6 ) .......
-J9 ...............
......................................... .

Calculate (4x5)
(5x4) ........... ................................................................... .

2 2 ........... ..
15.

5. Calculate 54.87 .................................................. ••.•....•••••• .............. ••••. - - - ­


70+50

16. Calculate 12
............................................................................. - - - - ­
6. Calculate 4.87..J2535 ............................................................................- - - ­ 5x5

7. Calculate log 15.32 ............................................................................ - - - ­


17. Calculate J 4.5 x 2 .......................................................................... _ __

8. Calculate 90 + 16.61 X 10glO 2 ........................................................... _ _ __

18. Calculate 14 -:-. 12-:-. l. ~ . 1


3-:- 4-:- 8············································· .. _____
9. Calculate 1 - e-2.5 ................................................................................- - - ­
Note: Rounding of numbers for the examination is not a problem. Due to the
10. Calculate 45- 1 .....................................................................................- - - ­ differences in calculator accuracy, the test will use approximate answers that
will not be affected by reasonable rounding errors.

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CSP Self Study Workbook Volume I

Calculator Answers
1
11. Calculate - ...............................................................................................0.022

1. Calculate $69.95 - 10% discount =.......................................................... $62.96


45

On the TI: 69.95 10% x 69.95 On the TI: 1/45 =

2. Calculate 14 x 356 ....................................................................................... 4984 12. Calculate (64)1/2 .................................................................................................. 8


On the TI: 14 x 356 = On the TI: 641\(1/2) or 64/\ LJ2 =

2 13. Calculate sine 30 .............................................................................................0.5


3. Calculate 1t x 3.6 ........................................................................................ 40.72
2
On the TI: 1t x 3.6 = On the TI: sin30 =

14. Calculate arcsine of 0.5 .................................................................................... 30


.. 4.
Ct
Calculate ~
X62 )
.............................................................................................. 6 On the TI: sin-I 0.5 =

2
On the TI: (LJ2 x 6 ) I (-./9) = (4x5)
15. Calculate .............................................................................................. 1

Calculate 54.87 .............................................................................................. 2535


(5x4)
5.
On the TI: (4 x 5) I (5 x 4) =
On the TI: 5/\4.87 =

70+50
6. Calculate 4.87~2535 ............................................................................................ 5 16. Calculate 12 ............................................................................................... 0.4

On the TI: 4.87 1.",,(2535) = 5x5


On the TI: «70 + 50) 112) I (5 x 5)
7. Calculate log 15.32 ....................................................................................... 1.19
On the TI: log15.32 =
17. Calculate ..J 4.5 X 2 ........................................................................................ 3

On the TI: "';(4.5 x 2) =


8. Calculate 90 + 16.61 X 10glO 2 ....................................................................... 95
On the TI: 90 + 16.61 x log 2 =

9. Calculate 1 - e,2.5 ........................................................................................... 0.92 18. Calculate i + ~ + ~ + i + ~ ...................................................................................... 1.143


On the TI: t - e"-2.5 = On the TI: LJ41 LJ2/2-13/3-1417-18 = 11,1 In F 4 .. D => 1.143

1O. Calculate 45'1 .............................................................................................. 0.022


On the TI: 45/\-1 or 45. 1 ==

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'l·­
Equations Most Often Used on the CSP Exam Statistics & Probability Notes

Trigonometric Functions Notes x-~ c


t= " '\In
s
t t-score
3 X mean
Jl mean
Ace:: § = standard deviation
b

. 2 2 2 n = number of data points


3 +b =c
Z=
x- Jl
cr
sin A = a
c z z-score
X = individual data point
Jl mean
0' standard deviation

cos A = b
At
c Per) = (Atr e-
r!
p poisson distribution
TanA= a r number of observed events or rate
b A = expected number of events or baseline

"~
t = time
." j

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...
Reliability Notes Mechanics Notes

I PI = 1- R(t ) I r v=vo +at-- ]

Pr = Probability (failure)
v = Final velocity
R(t) = Reliability (t)
v0 = Initial velocity
a = Acceleration
;I
..
R(t)=e·"=e-~ I t = Time taken

s=v t+­
ae
R(t) = Reliability (t)
o 2
e = 2.71828

A. = The Failure rate (reciprocal of Mean Time Between Failure)


v0 = Initial velocity
t = A specified period of failure free operation
s = Distance traveled
m = Mean Time To Failure or Mean Time Between Failure (MTBF)
a = Acceleration
t = Time taken
Mechanics
I V' = V: + 2as I
I F=~ J v
v0
= Final velocity
= Initial Velocity
F = Force required
s = Distance traveled
!.l = Coefficient of friction
a = Acceleration
N = Normal weight
2

K.E.= mv

I F,d, = F,d, I 2

F = Force
K.E. = Kinetic Energy
d = Distance
m mass
v == velocity (ftlsee)

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Electricity Notes Gas Laws Notes

I V=IR
I PV=nRT
v = Voltage

I
= Current (Amperage)
P = Pressure
R = Resistance (Ohms)
V = Volume
n = Number of Moles

.
.: I P = VI
R
T
= Constant
= Temperature
P = Power (Watts)

I = Current (Amperage)

V = Voltage
~Vl _ P2 V2

~ T2

I RSERlES =R, + R z +... + RN I P = Pressure


R = Resistance (Ohms) V = Volume
T = Temperature
1 1 1 1 Note: This is known as the Combined gas law
- - - = - + - + ... + -
R pARAllEL R} R2 RN
Hydrostatics & Hydraulics
R = Resistance (Ohms)
Q2
~v == 891d4

Pv = Pressure velocity (psi)


Q = flow rate (gpm)
d = internal diameter in inches

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Ventilation Notes Ventilation Notes

_ [(S_R,)"54]
Q, -Q. (S _R.)"54
I Q=AV J
Q = Flow (gpm)
Q = Volume (CFM)

S = Static pressure (psi)


A = Area (Cross Section)

R = Residual pressure (psi)


V = Velocity (Lineal feet)

P=(~)' I
.
. I
~
....
v = 400S.J\TP m

V = Velocity (Lineal feet)


P = Pressure (psi)
VP = Velocity pressure
Q = Flow (gpm)

K = the orifice discharge coefficient (constant)

I TP=SP+ VP~- I
Q 1 ~ TP = Total Pressure
Q
2
= F, SP = Static Pressure
VP = Velocity Pressure
Q = Flow (gpm)
P = Pressure differential (S - R)
V= Q
2
P = 4.52 Q1.85 lOx +A
d Cl.85 d 4.81
V = Velocity

Pd = Pressure drop - psilft Q = Volumetric flow (cfm)

Q = Flow (gpm) x = distance to hood opening (ft)

C = coefficient of roughness (pipe) A = area of hood opening (ft2)

d = internal diameter in inches

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Ventilation Ventilation Notes


1

Q== 403x106 xSGxERxK TLVM = ft f2 fn

+ ..... +----
MWxC LFLt LFL2 LFLn

Q = Volumetric flow (cfm)


SG = Specific Gravity LFLm = Lower Flammable Limit of a mixture or solvent

ER = Evaporation Rate (pints/minute) f = Fraction by weight

K = K -factor or dilution ventilation safety factor (3-10 unitless)

... MW = Molecular Weight


• Radiation
C = Concentration (TLV)

Q,=G 12 =1 (dJ
C 1 (d 2 Y

Q = Volumetric flow (cfm) Inverse Square Law


G = Generation rate (cfm)
= Concentration (decimal value) I = Intensity

C
d = distance

c= G (1- e-
Ntl60

I I ;: [ I
)

;~~';'

%~:

i;:< ~ ::
S=6CiEf
. _~#~~;C!rr .
\.'"\~'::

C = Concentration (ppm)
= Generation rate (cfm) S = Roentgens!hour/foot

G
Q = Volumetric flow (cfm) Ci = Curie strength (curies)

= AUrchangesperhour E = Energy (MEV)

N
t = time interval in minutes f = fractional yield

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Noise Notes Noise Notes

W
L =lOloglO W
W 0
dB, =dB o + 20l0glO [ ::]

Lw = Sound pressure level (dB) dB] = Sound level at distance 1


W = final sound intensity dB o = Sound level at distance 0
.:. W0 = initial sound intensity do = Initial distance
" d1 = Second distance

L p =201og10 k

Po
TWA = l6.6lI0g1o[~]
100
+ 901
.

Lp = Sound pressure level (dB)


TWA = Time Weighted Average
P = final sound pressure
D = Dose (%)
po = initial sound pressure

8
T= 2[(L-90)/5]

T = Allowable exposure time


L = Exposure (dB)

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Engineering Economy Notes Heat Stress Notes

F=P(I+it
~WB+~.~~~
n

P=F(I+it
WBGT = Wet bulb globe temp.
F=A((l+~n-lJ WB = Wet bulb temperature
GT = Globe temperature
,.
A=F
( ) .
1
(l+iY -1 ~+o.;~~
P=A((I+i t -IJ
i(l+it WBGT = Wet bulb globe temp.
WB = Wet bulb temperature
A=P( i(l+it J GT = Globe temperature
(1 +it -1 DB = Dry bulb temperature

Concentration of Vapors & Gases


P = Present Value of money

F = Future Value of money

3
A = Series of payments (annuity)
ppm = mg/m x 24.45
1 = interest rate
MW
n = number of periods

ppm = concentration
mg/m3 = milligrams/cubic meter
MW = Molecular weight

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Scientific and Engineering Notation


Scientific and Engineering Notation
The concept of scientific notation is used extensively in Health & Safety work.
If you are not familiar with this concept, pay particular attention to this section. Exponent
Additional information is available in most elementary science texts, and in a
number of safety engineering and industrial hygiene works. /
10' = 10 x 10 x 10 x 10 x 10 x 10 ,000,000
In engineering work it is often necessary to use extremely large and very small Jase
numbers. For example, the mass of an electron is commonly cited as
0.0000000000000000000000000009107 grams. We need a simpler way to
.: express such numbers. Scientific notation eliminates the need to write all the So, 106 is equal to one million. How about 10 to the 8th?
~ zeros directly.

Basics: 108 =10 x 10 x 10 x 10 x 10 x 10 x 10 x 10 =100,000,000

1) Exponents and bases. A base can also have a negative exponent, for example, 10-6• We can always
write a base with a negative exponent as the reciprocal, with the sign of the
If you have been in the health & safety game long enough to be studying for the exponent changed to positive. The reciprocal of a number A is defined as 11A
ASP exam you are already familiar with the idea of raising a number to a
power. For example, 102 is read as 10 to the second power, and it is equal to 10
x 10, or 100. The 10 is known as the base and the 2 is called the exponent.
The exponent tells us the number of times the base is a factor in the Negative Exponent
mUltiplication. For example: ~ Reciprocal of Original
10.1 =(.J;)1;O.1

1~ Same exponent with a pos;tive ,;gn

10' = 1
ViiA;o
~ = 0.001
Exponent

102/
Since 10 1 = 10 and 10-
1
=0.1, then even a safety guy can figure out that 10° =1
Base t

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2. Multiply this decimal number by 10 raised to a positive power equal to the


number of places you moved the decimal point.
2) Writing numbers in scientific notation.
If the number is less than 1.
Any ordinary decimal number can be expressed as a decimal number between 1
and 10 multiplied by some power of 10. For example, the number 392,000 written 1. Move the decimal point to the right, counting the number of places you must
in scientific notation looks like: move it until you have a decimal number between 1 and 10.
3.92 x lOS
2. Multiply this decimal number by 10 raised to a negative power equal to the

'"
1
Decimal number
1

Powerofl0
number of places you moved the decimal point.

If the number is equal to or greater than 1.0 and less than 10.0.
Between 1 and 10
1. Simply write down the number and multiply it by 10° (1), because no (zero)
OR
movement of the decimal point is required.
3.92 E 05 because "E" = "x 10"
3) Converting scientific notation into ordinary decimal numbers.
The ordinary decimal number 0.00432 written in scientific notation looks like: To convert a number in scientific notation, such as 4.923 x 106 , into an ordinary
.decimal number, we start by examining the exponent. If the exponent is positive,
4.32 x 10-3 we move the decimal to the right a number of places equal to the value of the
or 4.32 E-03 exponent. You may have to fill in zeros. Remember that positive exponents are

1
Decimal number
1
Power of 10

associated with numbers greater than 10.

If the exponent is negative, we move the decimal to the left a number of places
Between 1 and 10

equal to the value of the exponent. Again, you may have to fill in zeros.
Remember, negative exponents are associated with numbers that are less than 1.

4) Multiplying numbers in scientific notation.


There are three rules for converting ordinary numbers to scientific notation.
To multiply two numbers written in scientific notation, multiply the two decimal
RULE L ------ If the number is equal to or greater than 10, then: numbers together in the usual manner and then add the two exponents, being
careful to treat the exponents as signed numbers. The sum is the correct power of
1. Move the decimal point to the left, counting the number of places you must lOin the product.
move it until you have a decimal number between 1 and 10.

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5) Division of two numbers in scientific notation. Unit Conversions
The process of division in scientific notation is similar to that of multiplication. To Unit Conversion "Prefixes"

divide two numbers written in scientific notation, we divide one decimal number

by the other in the usual manner and then we subtract the exponent in the

denominator (divisor) from the exponent in the numerator (dividend), being careful

I Multiplication Factor IPrefix ISymbol

18
to treat this as the subtraction of signed numbers. The difference is the correct 1000000 000 000 000 000 = 10 I exa IE

power of lOin the quotient.


15
1 000 000 000 000 000 = 10 1 peta
IP
12
6) Engineering notation.
1000000 000000= 10 tera IT

The SI (System International) or metric measurement system functions to a great 1000000 000 = Itt giga IG
• extent by moving in units of three decimal places. For example, the prefix milli is 6
3 1000000 = 10 mega 1M
equal to 10-3 , micro is equal to 10-6 • Likewise, the prefix kilo is equal to 10 and
mega is equal to 106 • Engineering notation is very similar to scientific notation 1000= 1tY kilo Ik
except that the exponent is moved in units of three to take advantage of the metric 2
I hecto Ih
3 100 = 10
notations. For example, 100,000 in engineering notation is 100 x 10 • This would
1
not be permitted in scientific notation since the "100" is a number greater than 10. 10= 10 I deka Ida
Stated another way, engineering notation is expressed as a decimal number 0
1 = 10 I Base
between 1 and 1000 multiplied by a power of 10 in multiples of 3. -
0.1 = 10.1
Let's try some comparisons between the two systems to make sure you understand.

Decimal number Scientific Notation Engineering Notation

0.01 = 10.
0.001 = 10.3
2
1 deci
centi
I milli
I:
1m
450,000 4.5 x 105 450 x 103

I:
0.000 1 1 X 10'4 100 X 10-6
0.000 001 = 10-6 1 nllcro
9,900,000 9.9 X 10 6
9.9 X 106
0.000 000 001 = 10. 9
nano
0.000 000 000 1 1 X 10- 10 100 X 10-12

0.000 000 000 001 = 10.12


100,000,000 1 X 108 100 X 106

So, if you see numbers that don't follow the rules for scientific notation, they may

0.000 000 000 000 001 = 10.


0.000 000 000 000 000 001 = 10.18
15
1 pico
femto I:
be expressed in engineering notation. They are still the same value, just expressed
latto la
differently.

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Unit Conversion Method Equalities Between The Metric And English Systems

The Unit Conversion Method depends on two mathematical facts: As you know, multiplication by 1 does not change the quantity that is being
multiplied, for example 8 foot x 1 = 8 foot. However, units might be changed when
• Any equality can be used to write a fraction equal to 1 multiplying by conversion factors. For example, if we multiply 8 kg by the factor
equal to 1, l000gl1kg, we get the answer 8000g:
• Like quantities in the numerators and denominators of fractions can be

"cancelled out". 8kg x 1000g = 8000 g

lkg

FRACTIONS ARE EQUAL TO 1. A quantity divided by itself is equal to 1. For

example, clearly 8ft/8ft = 1. The equality 1 m = l00cm tells us that the I m and 100 We can be certain that 8000 g is the same quantity as 8 kg because the multiplication
i ern represent exactly the same distance. Therefore, dividing 1 m by 100 cm is the by 1, but we have done a "unit conversion", i.e., changed the units from kilograms
same as dividing 1 m by itself, and therefore the fraction to grams.

For this simple example we could have used the following reasoning: if 1 kg is 1000
~=1 Similarly 100 em
, 1m =1 g, then 8 kg must be 8000 g. Frequently the conversions we are required to make on
100 em
the CSP examination and in Health & Safety work are a tad more complicated! So,
It is always true that an equality can be made into a fraction that is equal to 1, we recommend the general method of problem solving that follows.
and we call that fraction a conversion factor.
The steps to be taken in reading a problem and setting up a calculation by the "Unit
Conversion Method" are:
Write conversion factors for the following:

1 liter = 1000 mL f. l000mm = 1m 1. Identify the given quantity and unit and write it down.
a.

b. 1 kg = 2.21bs g. 760 mm Hg = 14.71b/in2 2. Identify the new quantity to be determined and write down the new units it is
to have.
e. 2.2lbs = 1 kg h. 760 mm Hg = 29.92 in Hg
3. Determine the conversion factors that will change the given into the new
d. 1000 g = 1 kg 1. 160z = 454 g quantity and unit. The factor will have given units in the denominator and
new units in the numerator.
e. l000m = 1 km J. lIb = 454 g

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Conversion Exercise Questions
4. Set up the calculation according to the following format: Do the following conversions: (answers at end of the section)

Given quantity conversion new quantity


and unit x factor and unit 1. 76 cm to meters.

Given unit new unit


x new unit 2. .53 kg to milligrams.
1 given unit

,"
3. 0.034 liters to milliliters.

Reciprocals 4. 5 inches to mm cm
Because of the relationship with 1, if you know one conversion factor you can use
the reciprocal to find the reverse process. For example:

39.4 inches = 1 meter. How many meters equal one inch? Answer: 39.4-] (or 1 5. 273 g to lbs.
divided by 39.4) equals 0.02538, so 1 inch must equal .025 meters! If you know
anyone conversion, you can easily compute the reciprocal.
2
6. 32 ftIsec meters per sec2•

7. 12 mg to lbs.

8. 5,000 glcc to kglm3

9. 400 mm Hg to Ib/in 2

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Conversion Exercise Answers


5) 273 g to lbs.
1) 76 em to meters.
273 g x 1 kg x 2.21b = 0.6011bs

1 1000g 1 kg

76cm x 1 meter =0.76 meter


1 100 em
OR

2) .53 kg to milligrams. 273 g x lIb = 0.6011bs


1 454g
" 0.53 x 1000 g x 1000 mg =530,000 mg 6) 32 ftlsec 2 meters per sec2 •
1 1 kg 1 g

32ft 30.48 em x 1m =9.754 meters


1 x 1 ft 100cm
3) 0.034 liters to milliliters.
OR
0.034L X l0oo mL=34mL
IlL
32ft x 1m =9.754 meters
1 3.28ft

4) 5 inches to mm em
7) 12 mg to lbs.
5 inch x 2.54 em x 10 mm = 127 mm 12mg Ig lIb 12
1 linch lcm --=-x x =
1 1000 mg 454 g 454,000

5 inch x 2.54 em =12.7 em =0.OOOO2641bs


1 1 inch
Which could be written:

2.64 X 10-5 or 26.4 xl 0--6 lbs

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8) 5,000 g/ee to kg/m3 Notes

5000 g 1,000,000 ee 1kg


----x x--~
1ee 1 m3 1000 g

= 5,000,000 kg/m 3

=5 X 106 kg/m3
..
9) 400 mm Hg to Ib/in2

400mmHg x 14.7 psi = 7.7Ib/in 2

1 760 mm Hg

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Math and Physics Review Questions How many moles of sulfur are there in 22 grams of the element?
Note: The atomic weight of sulfur is 32.
1) Which equation represents this problem? A laborer is paid time and a half A.) 6.8 moles

for all time over forty hours. Last week he worked 50 hours and earned B.) 0.68 moles

$462. Solve for normal hourly rate? C.) 0 moles

A.) 40x + 15x = 462


D.) 68 moles

B.) 3/2x = 462

C.) 40x times 3/2x =462


A 900 foot building casts a shadow at an angle of 36 degrees with the
D.) 10(3/2x) + 40x = 462x
ground. The length of the shadow is?
A.) 1500 feet
. 2) A vessel exhibits a vacuum pressure of -7 psig at sea level and STP, what is B.) 1239 feet
....
","
the pressure expressed in psia? C.) 653 feet
D.) 669 feet
A.) 9.7 psia

B.) 14.7 psia

The rule of thumb for determining the pressure exerted by a column of water
C.) 7.7 psia

IS
D.) 19.7 psia

A.) multiply each inch of rise by 0.433

B.) multiply each foot of rise by 62.4

3) If a vessel contains 70% air and 30% hydrocarbons, what is the oxygen
C.) divide each foot of rise by 62.4

content of the vessel?


D.) multiply each foot of rise by 0.433

A.) 21%

B.) 14.7%
What i s the volume in gallons of 400 pounds of gasoline with a specific
C.) 18%
gravity of 0.68? One gallon of water weighs about 8.34 pounds.
D.) 16.5%
A.) 170 gallons
B.) 1700 gallons
4) What is the molecular weight of dry air?
C.) 70 gallons
A.) 30
D.) 700 gallons
B.) 45

C.) 1
A large water storage tank is located on plant property. The tank is 32 feet in
D.) 90
diameter and 22 feet high. How much will this tank hold when filled to two­
thirds capacity?
A.) 19,700 barrels

B.) 87,350 gallons

C.) 132,350 gallons

D.) 12,970 cubic feet

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10) If 3500 cfm of air is drawn through an 8 inch diameter duct, what is the What radioactivity would remain from 1 Ci (curie) of Co-60 (5.24 years
velocity in feet per minute?
half-life) after a 20 year period?
A.) 1023 fpm

B.) 10,030 fpm


A.) .0071

C.) 800 fpm


B.) .071
A= Ao
D.) 1000 fpm
C.) .71

D.) 7.1
('
e
n2
i-]~
11) Given a velocity pressure reading of 0.60 in a circular duct, what is the
velocity in feet per minute?
If a source of Co-60 was discovered in a laboratory and had a reading of 2
A.) 3102 fpm
Ci, and the half-life of Co-60 is 5.24 years, what was the original reading for
B.) 15 fpm
the source? Paperwork found in the Lab indicates that the source was
• C.) 29 fpm
obtained 10 years ago .
D.) 1023m
A.) 3.4

B.) 5.2
A= Ao
12) Find the velocity pressure in a 1.5 inch (actual diameter) open ended pipe C.) 7.5

with 250 gallons per minute of water flowing?


D.) 8.0
(m2i-]~
e
A.) 114 psi

B.) 14 psi

C.) 44 psi
Your plant has had 50 serious vehicle accidents in the past 10 years, three
D.) 254 psi
involving fork trucks. What is the probability that the next serious accident
will involve a fork truck?
A.) 10%

13) Liquefied Petroleum Gas (LPG) is a mixture of gases and may be a mixture B.) no way to tell

of propane and n-butane. Based on the following LELs and that a sample C.) 9%

was found to be 2% LPG, what is the fractional volume of propane in the D.) 6%

sample?
Acetylene 2.5% Benzene 1.2% Methane 5%
Propane 2.1 % n-butane 1.8%
A.) .30

B.) .60

C.) .67

D.) .85

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Which of the following truss members have compression forces applied?


Note: The information illustrated below should be used to answer the following
A.) AB, BD, DF, EG
four questions. B.) AC, BC, AB, FH
2 Kip C.) GH, EG, CE, AC
D.) AB, DC, DG, FH
~D
-.to
A 20-foot-wide, 40-foot-long small barge, weighing 12,000 pounds is
I transporting three stacks of cargo, each weighing 3,000 pounds. To what
4ft depth will the barge sink in the water with this loading?
A.) .5 feet

... ~ H
B.) 5 inches
C.) 9 inches
c
3ft I E
3ft
I G 3 ft D.) 2.3 feet
RH
A water tank (tank A) that is filled half
full has a diameter of 25 feet. A smaller
17) Using the truss illustrated above determine the reactions at points RA and RH·
tank (tank B) has a diameter of 10 feet
A.) RA = 2 Kips, and RH = 2 Kips. and is floating in tank A as shown. When
B.) RA =4 Kips, and RH =4 Kips. a crane us used to lift tank B the water
C.) RA = 2 Kips, and RH = 1 Kips. level in tank A drops. When the water
D.) RA = 1 Kips, and RH =2 Kips. level in tank A drops 5 feet and tank B is
still partially submerged, the lift line
18) If the loading at point "D" is increased from 2 Kips to 8 Kips, what would breaks. What is the estimated load on the
the reaction be at RH? line when it breaks?
A.) RH = 10 kips A.) 24,5051bs
B.) RH = 8 kips B.) 95,000 Ibs
C.) RH =5 kips C.) 128,6501bs
D.) RH = 2 kips D.) 153,1521bs

19) Which of the following truss members could be replaced with a cable and a

turnbuckle tensioning device?

A.) Members AB and FH

B.) Members BD and DF

C.) Members BC, DE and FG

D.) Members DG, CD and GH

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23) Which of the following correctly illustrates the load radius of the lattice A microprocessor controlled multi-station elevator system detects an
boom crane shown below? unbalance condition on a cargo elevator and applies emergency braking. The
A.) Center of load to center of rotation rate of travel is 50 feet per second and the hoist will stop during a
B.) Center of load to remote tipping point malfunction in .5 seconds. What stress is placed on the single wire rope used
C.) Remote edge of load to remote tipping point to raise and lower the elevator during a malfunction, which, with cargo,
D.) Center of load to closest tipping point weighs 1.5 tons?
A.) 9,0001bs

B.) 12,3201bs

C.) 11 tons

D.) 4.5 tons

,,,"

<II

Safety requirements for the general public require a use zone of 6 feet to
surround stationary playground equipment. What are the minimum
measurements for the placement of monkey bars that are 7 feet tall and have
an 8 foot x 6 foot footprint?
Radius A.) 8 feet x 6 feet

B.) 14 feet x 12 feet

C.) 19 feet x 18 feet

D.) 20 feet x 18 feet

Safety requirements for the general public require a use zone of 6 feet to
surround stationary playground equipment. If a second set of monkey bars
were to be placed with the 8 foot sides facing each other, the minimum area
needed would be _ _ _ _'
A.) 8 feet x 18 feet

B.) 20 feet x 18 feet

C.) 20 feet x 33 feet

D.) 20 feet x 36 feet

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27) A motor vehicle carrying hazardous materials was required to apply all Modifications to the operations would allow a push with 42 pounds of force.
wheel brakes and make an emergency stop on a straight, level section of Consider an additional 10% of the rolling friction is required for starting.
interstate highway. The area was under construction and posted at 45 MPH. What weight could be carried in the "B" carts when pushed by employees?
The investigating official measured the average skid mark as 232 feet. A.) 144lbs
Assuming a coefficient of friction of .66 (dry asphalt), approximately what B.) 158lbs
speed was the vehicle traveling prior to the emergency stop? C.) 213lbs
A.) 50MPH
D.) 245lbs
B.) 60MPH

C.) 70MPH

D.) 80MPH
You have just received a report on the percentage of your workforce affected
by a chemical's toxicity. The toxic effects criteria are defined as a function
4
of concentration (C) and time (T), which yields dose (d) or d = C x T. Toxic
28) A pallet that weighs 100 kilograms falls off of a K-Ioader when the locks doses are as indicated below. If your workforce is exposed to a release of
fail. It lands flat and level on the tarmac and skids 30 meters before it come Gas Z for 30 minutes, what is the predicted minimum concentration that will
to rest. What was the approximate speed of the k-Ioader in KPH at the time cause fatalities in 50% of your personnel?
the pallet fell? (assume the coefficient of friction between the pallet and LTLso 50% population mortality
tarmac is 0.53.) LTLos 5% population mortality
A.) 22 KPH TLso 50% population irreversible effects
B.) 45 KPH
C.) 64KPH Gas Exponent LTLso LTLos TLso TLV STEL
D.) 75 KPH X (C}l·f)(T) 1.52 x lOll 4.05 X 1010 1.32 X 109 100 150
Y (C)l.O)(T) 3.77 x 104 1.66 X 10) 5.31 X 103 150 225
Z (C)L.)u(T) 3.4 x lOIS 1.7 X lOIS 1.6 X lOIS 10 15
29) Your plant manufactures electronic parts. These parts are moved throughout
the plant using two types of four wheel handcarts, type "A" which weigh 65 A.) 63 ppm
pounds and type "B" which weigh 105 pounds. The coefficient of friction B.) 3171 ppm
for both carts is 0.12. What weight can be carried in the "A" cart with a 22 C.) 733 ppm
pound pushing force? D.) 663 ppm
A.) 167lbs
B.) 118lbs
C.) 135 lbs
D.) 15lbs

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Notes
Math and Physics Review Answers
We selected answer A because:

Regular Wages + 10 hrs overtime = Total wages

40x + 10 ( ~ ) x = 462
40x + 15x =462

We selected answer C because:

Add 14.7 to psig to obtain psia


-7 + 14.7 7.7 psi a

We selected answer B because:

Normal air contains 21 % oxygen by volume. The vessel only contains 70%

normal air. Therefore: 0.7 x 0.21 = 0.147 or 14.7%.

We selected answer A because:

The molecular weight of dry air is about 30.

.We selected answer B because:

The atomic weight of sulfur is 32, which means that one mole of sulfur
weighs 32 grams. So 22 grams divided by 32 = 0.68 moles of sulfur.

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6) We selected answer B because:

tan A=~

b We selected answer B because:

b= _a Q=A V
tan A

V=Q
900 A
b
tan 36
4
. b=1239 ft
A=1tX(_)2
12
-; 7) We selected answer D because:

The Weight density of water is 62.4 lbs/fe. To convert to inch per foot of V= 3500
rise you must divide by 144 (square inches in a foot). This equals about 0.349
0.433 psi per foot of water.
V =10,029
8) We selected answer C because:

The gasoline weighs .68 times as much as water. 400 pounds of water is We selected answer A because:
about 48 gallons divided by .68 equals 70.5 gallons of gasoline.

V=4005..)VP
9) We selected answer B because: 2
V=n:d Xh
4
Step 1: Determining capacity v = 4005 x ..).60
in cubic feet
3.14x(32)2 x 22 =17,693euft
V= 4 V =4005x.77459

V =3102ft per min


Step 2: Convert to gallons 17,693x 7.48 gal per eu ft = 132,347

Step 3: Adjust for the tank:

only being 2/3 full.

132,347 x 0.66 = 87,349 gallons

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12) We selected answer B because: We selected answer B because:


2
p = Q A=
v 891 d 4

2
p v--~
_ 250 lei
A= ~~~~:~~~~~~~~~~ lCi _ 1Ci =0.071Ci
= e 2~64j - 14.08
891x1.5 4 e

62500 A = radioactivity remaining after time t


Pv 891x5.1 Ao = radioactivity at a given original time
t = elapsed time
T1I2 = half-life of the radio-nuclide
.II

62500 =13.86 psi In 2 = .693 (natural log)


Pv = 4511

We selected answer C because:


13) We selected answer C because:

Let x = the amount of propane and y = the amount of n-butane, then: A=


T
e ,r.;

2.1x + 1.8y = 2 and x + y = 1 (100% of the LPG)


Ao =Axe
since y = 1- x then 2.1x + 1.8(1-x) = 2
Ao =2xe =7.5Ci
Combine terms 2.1x + 1.8 1.8x = 2 or .3x =.2

Divide thru by .3 and x = .67 We selected answer D because:

An alternate solution would be to plug and chug the answers into the Probability is the number of fork truck accidents divided by the number of
formula total accidents.

2.1x + 1.8y = 2 Answer A would be 2.1 x .3 + 1.8 x .7,* 2 (1.89)


Answer B would be 2.1 x .6 + 1.8 x .4 2 (1.98)'* 3
P=-=0.06=6%
Answer C would be 2.1 x .67 + 1.8 x .33 = 2 (2.00) 50

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17) We selected answer A because: 2: Solve for the external reactions. Taking moments about point H and
solving for RA we get.
The truss is a simple skeletal structure. In design theory, the individual
members of a simple truss are only subject to tension and compression
forces and not bending forces. 2:M H =O

Thus, for the most part, all beams in a truss bridge are straight. Trusses are (lx3)+(2x6)+(1x9)-(R Ax12) 0
comprised of many small beams that together can support a large amount of
weight and span great distances. In most cases the design, fabrication, and (3) + (12)+ (9)== 12 RA
erection of trusses is relatively simple. However, once assembled trusses
take up a greater amount of space and, in more complex structures, can serve
• as a distraction to drivers. RA == 24 ==2 Kips i
12

Step 1: Draw a Free-Body diagram of the Truss.


Note: A "kip" is equal to 1,000 Ibs - ki kilo, P = pound.
1 Kip 2 Kip 1 Kip

~ Step 3: Since the structure

symmetrical it
IF=O
appears obvious the
reactions must be
equal. However, 2+R H -1-2-1=0
solving for RH we

get.

RA
3fl 3ft 3ft 3ft RH =2 Kips t
RH

We selected answer C because:

1 Kip 8 Kips 1 Kip


Step 1: Draw a
Free-Body ~
~ ~
diagram of

the Truss.

3ft 3ft 3ft


RI!

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Step 2: Solve for the We selected answer D because:
external reactions. IMH=O
Taking moments Again the illustration depicts a
about point Hand
solving for RA we
get.
(lx3) + (8x6) + (lx9) - (R Ax12) =0 perfectly stable structure that is
symmetrically loaded and shows the
forces involved. The analysis of a
Ifc/r\:0c
(3) + (48) + (9) = 12 R A statically determinate frame is more LTJLT-L T~ T~
appropriately accomplished by
drawing a free-body diagram of each
R A = 60 = 5 Kips i member and then applying the equilibrium equations for each diagram.
Step 3: Again, since the 12
IF=O
. structure and the
~

~ loading pattern are We selected answer B because:


symmetrical it appears 5+R H -1-8-1=0
obvious the reactions
must be equal. Solving Step 1: Determine the square
for RH we get. RH =5 Kips i footage of the barge 20 ft x 40 ft = 800ft 2

19) We selected answer C because:

Step 2: Determine total weight to be

This question leaves a lot to be 12,000 Ibs


supported by the water

desired because it does not give


3,000 Ibs
us nearly enough info on the use
of the truss. However, assuming
the question is really asking Ifc/r\:0c 3,000 lbs
+3,000 Ibs
which members are in tension,
we can use this illustration of
LTJLT-L Tl T~ 21,000 Ibs

the forces in a stable structure


that is symmetrically loaded. Caution: External forces such as wind can Step 3: Determine the volume of
change the loading. water to be displaced by the 21,000 Ibs x fe =337 fe
weight. 1 62.41bs

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Step 4: Detennine the amount of
depth (in inches) required by

v = area x depth We selected answer A because:


the barge to displace this

Load radius of mobile cranes is measured from the center of rotation to the
much water 337 800xdepth load hook. Selection "A" offers a measurement to the center of the load,
which may not always be correct, however it is the best selection available.
Note: The center of the load may not always be the center of gravity, which
337 ft3 = 0.42 ft is where the load blocklhook should be located.
800ft 3

0.42 ft x 12 in = 5 inches We selected answer B because:


I I ft
Step 1: Calculate the deceleration. v =Vo +at
0=-50+ (a x .5)
22) We selected answer C because:
a = 50 -;- .5 = 100 ft/sec 2

Step 2: Calculate inertia forces


• Calculate the usable volume placed on the elevator. Combining [F=m (-a)]and [m= W]
Deceleration is a g
2
V _1tXd negative acceleration Wx(-a)
usable X h F=--­
which accounts for the g
2 2 (-a) in the formula. 3,000 Ibsx (-100 ft! sec
2
= _ 9317 lbs
1t x (25 -10 ) X 5 = 2061.67 ft 3 )
V= 4 F= 32.2 ft! sec 2

b. Calculate the displaced water (water weighs 62.4lbs/fe)


Step 3: Add weight of loaded elevator to
-9,317Ibs
inertia forces to detennine total
2061.67 fe x 62.4 Ibs/ft 3
= 128,648Ibs forces on load line. -3,000 lbs
12,3171bs

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25) We selected answer D because: We selected answer C because:

The six foot "use zone" is a requirement from the American Society for From ASTM F1487, 9.2.3, two play structures exceeding 30 inches in height
Testing and Materials (ASTM) standard F1487, Playground Equipment for must be separated by a use zone of 9 feet (l08 in.). As can be seen in the
Public Use. A portion of this standard is reprinted below: figure, if the structures are separated by 9 feet and surrounded by a 6 foot
9.2 Stationary Play Equipment -- Stationary play equipment may be free-standing safety zone, it would add 12 feet to the length and 21 feet to the width (20' x
structures, may be in combination with other play equipment, or may be part(s) of a 33').
composite play structure.

9.2.1 The use zone for stationary play equipment shall extend no less than 72 in. (1830 6
mm) from all sides of the play structure. 6 8 6
J I
.... I
9.2.2 The use zones for two or more stationary play structures that are not physically
attached but are play-functionally linked shall be determined as if the separate equipment
f'.. /
were parts of a composite play structure. 1"- /
6
9.2.3 The use zones of two stationary pieces of equipment that are positioned adjacent to
V "-
one another may overlap if the adjacent designated play surfaces of each structure are no
more than 30 in. (760 mm) above the protective surface (that is, they may be located a
V ~
minimum distance of 72 in. (1830 mm) apart). If adjacent designated play surfaces on
either structure exceed a height of 30 in. (760 mm), the minimum distance between the
structures should be 108 in. (2740 mm).
9
As can be seen in the figure, if the monkey bars are surrounded by a 6 foot safety
zone, it would add 12 feet to each footprint dimension.

6 i'.. /
6 6 "- /
6

/ .......
V "-
6

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27) We selected answer C because: Step 4: y2 in feet per


second is replaced with
.. (VFPS = VMPHX 1.47)2
[f1 = 2~: Jand [V':' V~ x 1.47']
Apply the formula and solve V=~30xSxJl 2
Note: The constant 1.47 is yields Jl = x 1.47
often used to convert from 2Sg
Y = -J30 x 232 x 0.66 MPH to ftls, both sides of
the equation are squared to
solve for V2
V=-J4640

Jl = V~PH
2
Step 5: Multiply the givens X1.47
Y=68MPH 2Sg
. and simplify
2
Jl = VMPH x 2.15
Note: Acceleration of
Note: This formula is not given in the formula sheet provided by the BCSP on gravity is 32.2 ftls 2 64.4xS
examination day. It must be derived from the series of formulas shown on V2
Jl=~
the next few pages, which are given. 30xS

Step 1: Basic formula is

combined with mass equals

weight over gravity


[F = rna] and [m : Jyields F = ~a Step 6: Rearrange to solve Jl = V2
MPH

for Velocity in miles per 30 x S


hour. V~PH = 30 x S x Jl
Step 2: Acceleration is

substituted for velocity


[F = gWa Jand [y2] WV2

a = 2S yields F = 2Sg
V MPH = .,j30xSxJl

squared + by 2 times

distance
Step 7: This formula is
known as the locked wheel VMPH = -j30xSx J.l
skid mark formula and can or
be shown in either format.
Step 3: F is substituted ­
note that N = W on a level
y2 V MPH = 5.5-JSx J.l
surface which allows W to [ F = WV2
2Sg

Jand [F = Jl W ] yields Jl = 2Sg


cancel out of the equation

Note: If you do the conversions to make Velocity in KPH and the S in meters, the
conversion number is 255 instead of 30.

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Where: a ::::: acceleration S = distance We selected answer C because:


V::::: Velocity F=Force
g::::: gravity J.l = Coefficient of friction Xx1.1=421bs F=J.lN
m::::: mass

Note: The fonnula can be used for various physics problems involved with detennining 42 38.2=0.12xN
the velocity of moving objects when the coefficient of friction is known. X=-=38.21bs
1.1
N = 38.2 =318
28) We selected answer C because: 0.12

.. <
VMilesPH =~30 X S X f.1 N =318 - 105 = 213 Ibs

VKilometersPH = ~ 255 X S X f.1


We selected answer D because:
VKPH =.J255x30x.53 =63.67 ~ 64 KPH
Find the concentration of gas Z using C x T = dose

29) We selected answer B because: C 2.5 x30= 3.4x108

Force to move the cart = the force of friction times the weight of the cart
plus the load. 25 3.4x108 == 11,333,333
C . == 30
F:::::J.lN
2</C 2.5 = 2</11,333,333
22=0.12xN
C=663

~=N
0.12

N==183

N =183 - 65 (cart)=118 lbs

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Engineering Economy Notes

The fonnulas shown here are the same as those you will be provided in the fonnula
book provided at the test. They are shown here in several fonns to assist you in
solving for the various unknowns. However, you must be able to perfonn these
transpositions, without assistance, on the actual examination.

Where I = interest rate for a given interest period


n= number of interest periods
P= sum of money at the present time
F= future worth of a present sum of money after n interest periods, or
the future worth of a series of equal payments
A= a payment or receipt at the end of an interest period in a series of n
equal payments or receipts

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Engineering Economy Questions


5) What is the uniform annual payment that will amortize a loan of $400,000 in
1) If $1,000 is invested in an investment account paying 8% interest. How 8 years with a 14% interest rate?
much will be accumulated in the account at the end of 10 years?
A) $84,356
A) $2535 B) $86,228
B) $3125 C) $87,459
C) $2159 D) $85,765
D) $2076

2) In three years, $400,000 will be required for EPA modifications to your

plant. How much money should you invest at 10% to have the required 6) What is the lump sum of money required now to avoid an annual end-of­
amount when needed?
year expense of $2,000 for 7 years with interest at 11.25%?
4

A) $310,789 A) $8741

B) $300,526 B) $9456
C) $287,565 C) $9122
D) $293,824 D) $9349
3) It is anticipated that in 5 years from now you will need a new piece of

instrumentation. Assuming that the device can be purchased for $30,000


7) You are a safety professional in an industrial facility. During your
and that money is worth 15%, how much must be deposited yearly in an inspections you have determined some improvements are required that will
investment account to have the required amount? cost $100,000. You decide to put this in a five year strategic plan and know
A) $5449 that the cost of the project will be $150,000 in five years. How much money
B) $4549 would you need to invest on a quarterly basis into an account that receives
C) $3957 10% annual interest compounded on a quarterly basis to cover the cost of the
D) $4449 project in five years?

4) You are proposing to replace an old piece of equipment with a newer model,
A) $5872

because you are having a high accident rate on the old equipment. The
B) $5761

useful life of the new equipment is 10 years and the annual cost of the
C) $5963

accidents averages $1,000 per year. Considering only the cost of accidents
D) $6020

and that the annual rate for monies is 8%, what is the maximum investment

above the cost of the new equipment that would justify the purchase?

A) $6652

B) $7265

C) $6710

D) $6842

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8) Your company needs a shimshot machine. After searching you find two
Engineering Economy Answers
options. First, you can lease the machine for 10 years at $1,500 per year.
Second, you can buy the machine for $10,000 with a maintenance agreement I) If $1 ,000 is invested in an investment account paying 8% interest. How
that costs $500 per year. After 10 years, you can sell the machine as scrap much will be accumulated in the account at the end of 10 years?
for $5,000. Assuming the value of money will be 15% for the ten years, is
buying or leasing the better option?
i=.08 0=10 P=$l,OOO ?
A) $7634

B) $7389

C) $7528

D) $7495
F P(1+it
lJ'

9) If the $500 per year maintenance agreement was required for leasing, as well F= 1,000 (1 +.08)10
as buying the shimshot machine, which would be the better option (buying
or leasing) and what would be the percentage saved?
F=$2,159
A) Buying 13.21 %

B) Leasing 12.31 %

C) Buying 11.45%

Keystrokes for the TI-30X lIS calculator: 1000 x 1.08/\ 10 =2159


D) Leasing 10.90%

2) In three years, $400,000 will be required for EPA modifications to your

plant. How much money should you invest at 10% to have the required

amount when needed?

i .1 0 n = 3 F =$400,000 P =?

P F (I+itn

3
P =400,000 x (I.lt

P=$300,526

Keystrokes for the TI-30X lIS calculator: 400 000 x 1/1.10/\ 3 =300,526

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3) It is anticipated that in 5 years from now you will need a new piece of
instrumentation. Assuming that the device can be purchased for $30,000 5) What is the uniform annual payment that will amortize a loan of $400,000
and that money is worth 15%, how much must be deposited yearly in an in 8 years with a 14% interest rate?
investment account to have the required amount?
i=.14 n=8 P=$400,OOO A=?

i =.15 n 5 F = $30,000 A = ?

A=p(iO+i)"J
(1+i)"-l
A=F CI+ii)"_IJ
• 8
A 400,ooox(.14 x 1.14 J=$86,228
(1.14l'-1
A = 30,000 x ( .15 5 J $4,449
(1+.15) -1
On the TI-30X lIS calculator: 400 000 x (.14 X 1.14 A8) I (1.l4 A8 -1) = 86,228

Keystrokes on the TI-30X lIS: 30000 x .151 (1.15 A5-1) = 4449


6) What is the lump sum of money required now to avoid an annual end-of­
4) You are proposing to replace an old piece of equipment with a newer year expense of $2,000 for 7 years with interest at 11.25%?
model, because you are having a high accident rate on the old equipment.
The useful life of the new equipment is 10 years and the annual cost of
the accidents averages $1,000 per year. Considering only the cost of i =.1125 n =7 A $2,000 p=?
accidents and that the annual rate for monies is 8%, what is the maximum
investment above the cost of the new equipment that would justify the
purchase?
P=A (.1+i t -1J

1(1 +i)"

i .08 n=10 A=$I,OOO P=? P=A (O+i t -l]


iO +ir
P=2,OOOX( (1.1125)7-1 J=$9,349
.1125 x ( 1.1125 )7

P=I,OOOX( (1+.08)10- 1 ]
.08x(1 + .08i o =$6,710 On the TI-30X lIS: 2000 x (1.1125 A7-1) I (.1125 x 1.1125 A7) = 9,349

Keystrokes for the TI-30XIIS: 1 000 x (1.08 A 10-1) 1(.08 x 1.08 A10)=6,710

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7) You are a safety professional in an industrial facility. During your


To solve the next two problems, we must compare the costs related to each option
inspections you have detennined some improvements are required that will
based on "common ground". We chose to relate everything to a present value.
cost $100,000. You decide to put this in a five year strategic plan and know
that the cost of the project will be $150,000 in five years. How much .
8) Your company needs a shimshot machine. After searching you find two
money would you need to invest on a quarterly basis into an account that
options. First, you can lease the machine for 10 years at $1,500 per year.
receives 10% annual interest compounded on a quarterly basis to cover the
cost of the project in five years? Second, you can buy the machine for $10,000 with a maintenance
agreement that costs $500 per year. After 10 years, you can sell the
machine as scrap for $5,000. Assuming the value of money will be 15%
for the ten years, is buying or leasing the better option?
i =.10+4=.02S n =S x 4=20 F=$150,OOO A =?
We need to calculate all expenses and profits as present values:

Step 1: Calculate the present expense of leasing the machine for 10 years.
A=F CI -I)
+ ii),

i=0.15 n=10 A=$1,500 p=?

A = 1SO,OOO x ( .025 20 ) == $5,872


(1+.025) 1
Please = Al(~1 +i)n+ i)n-1]
(1

P, =1500X[ (1.15)10_ 1 ]=$7528


lease' .l5x(1.15)IO •

On the TI-30X lIS: ISO 000 x .02S/ (1.025 A20 - I) =S,872


OntheTI-30XIIS: IS00X(1.ISAI0-1)/(.ISX 1.1S A10) =7,S28

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Step 2: Calculate the present value of the maintenance agreement expense. Step 4: Calculate the present expense of buying the machine by adding the
present value of maintenance costs and subtracting the present value of revenue
for selling the machine as scrap in ten years.
i 0.15 n = lOA = $500 P ?
Pbuy = Pprice + Pmaint - Pscrap

Pmaint=A [(~+it-I] P buy = 10,000 + 2.509 - 1,236


1(1+it

Pbuy =$11,273
" P =500X[ (1.15)10_ 1 ]
maint .15x(1.15)JO =$2,509
As can be seen from the calculations, it would be cheaper to lease the
machine.

On the TI-30X lIS: 500 X (LIS" 10 - I) I (.15 X LIS" 10) = 2,509 9) If the $500 per year maintenance agreement was required for leasing, as
well as buying the shimshot machine, which would be the better option
(buying or leasing) and what would be the percentage saved?
Step 3: Calculate the present value of selling the machine for scrap in 10 years.
The cost to buy the machine remains the same as in the previous question at
$11,273. Using our answers from the previous question:
i=0.15 n=IO F $5,000 P=?
Step 1: Calculate the cost of leasing the machine by adding the present value of
maintenance costs to the present value of leasing the machine.
Pscrap = F [I + it"
P = Please + P maint
Pscrap = 5,000 x [1.15ro=$1,236

On the TI-30X lIS: 5000 X 1.15" -10 = 1,236 P =7,528 + 2,509 =$10,037

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Step 2: Calculate percentage saved by leasing.


Statistics
P buy - Please xlOO
%saved = Please
NORMAL DISTRIBUTION

11 ,273 -10,037 xl 00
%saved = 10,037

-3 -2 -1 0 +1 +2 +3

%saved = 12.31 %

99.73%

It is anticipated that upcoming CSP examinations will limit the questions


concerning hypothesis testing to the nonnal distribution. Therefore, a nonnal
distribution is illustrated here; it should be noted however that the procedures for
Hypothesis testing vary somewhat with the distribution. If you attempt Hypothesis
testing using a distribution other than the normal distribution a good review of
basic statistical theory is in order.

The "nonnal" curve has a single peak (bell shaped). The two tails extend
indefinitely, never touching the horizontal axis. The mean is represented by the
symbol X-BAR. The mean lies in the center. The median is the middle value of
the series. The number that occurs most often is called the mode. The standard
deviation is represented by the Greek letter sigma "0" or the small letter "s". No
matter what the value of the mean and the standard deviation, the area under the
curve is 1.00.
Decision Theory

The general procedure in decision theory is to state a hypothesis and then evaluate
against a model distribution that approximates the data available. If we reject a
hypothesis when it should have been accepted, we have committed a Type I error.
If we accept a hypothesis when it should have been rejected we have committed a

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Type II error. When testing a hypothesis the confidence level or significance level 1. State the hypothesis. "This test was conducted with a fair coin"
indicates the probability of the test being in error. The following example defines
the process. Ho Accept the hypothesis if the number of heads in 100 tosses of the coin in
question is between 40 and 60. Otherwise reject.
If we wished to test a coin to see if it was fair. We could conduct a test and then
compare the results with known data. The dispersion of heads and tails obtained 2. Specify the level of significance. In this case we picked 95%, which
when tossing a known fair coin follows this standard distribution: indicates a 5% chance of the hypotheses being rejected. Most confidence

-
- testing is conducted at the 95% or 99% levels of confidence.
X=50
.........

3. Conduct the test to determine if the coin is fair or not. Obtaining 40 to 60

.

~
/ I \
0=5

heads in 100 tosses would indicate within a 95% confidence that the coin
was fair. A result outside of this 40 to 60 range would force us to reject the
hypothesis. We would say that this result differed significantly from what
would be expected if the hypothesis were true. The probability for a Type I
error would be 5%. We would reject at the 5% significance level.
Assuming that we can accept a 95% confidence that the coin used in our test is fair,
the next step is to establish a zone of acceptance and rejection. Since we know that If one wished to be quite confident that they were not rejecting a possible fair coin,
approximately 95% of the values in a standard distribution will be within about + the confidence level could be increased to 99% or about + or - 2.4 standard
or - 2 standard deviations from the mean. We can develop the following model. deviations. The model would then appear as follows.

40-50 60-50 38-50 62-50


5 5 5 5
X=50 X=50
Z=+2

0=5 0=5

For example, if one obtained 63 heads in 100 tosses of a coin the coin would be
rejected at the 1% significance level. We would be 99% confident in the results of
This model indicates that with 100 tosses of a fair coin, a head would be observed the test. There would still remain however, a 1% chance that we could be making a
40 to 60 times. Type I error (rejecting a fair coin). So, in this case, we would reject at the 1%
significance level. This is very confusing terminology since a more significant test
corresponds to a lower significance level.
In practice, the significant level of 0.05 or 0.01 is used, however other values can

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be selected. If you use the 0.05 level, then there are 5 chances out of 100 that the Formula
hypothesis would be rejected when it should be accepted or there is a 95%
confidence level that the hypothesis is correct.
s= ~L(X2) WHERE (x = X - X)
Statistic Sample Problems n-l

1. Given the following numbers 10, 10, 15,25,35 compute the (sample)
standard deviation.
S=~L(X_X)2
Note: To solve this problem without the use of the stat function on our calculator n-l
we must build a table and then apply the formula .
.
TABLE
s= ~ 4701 =10.839
5-
X X X-X (X_X)2
10 19 -9 81
10 19 -9 81
Note: Most modern scientific calculators perform statistical functions. I
15 19 -4 16 recommend you learn to do standard deviation calculations on your calculator
25 19 6 36 prior to the exam. You will save yourself some time and avoid the possibility of
errors.
35 19 16 256
IX=95 I(X_X)2=470
On the TI 30X lIS: Set to STAT Mode then select I-VAR and enter: Press
DATA Xt=lO down arrow FRQ=1 down arrow X2=10 down arrow FRQ=1
down arrow X3=15 down arrow FRQ=1 down arrow ~=25 down arrow
FRQ=1 down arrow Xs=35 down arrow FRQ=1 down arrow, then press
STA TVA T select Sx = 10.839

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2. What is the standard deviation of the following complete set of data points?

100 ppm, 124 ppm, 115 ppm, 93 ppm, 85 ppm, 102 ppm, 109 ppm, 111
ppm, 114 ppm, 102 ppm, 104 ppm.
cr = ~'f.~') WHERE (x = X - X)

TABLE

X X X-X (X_X)2 cr = ~'f.(X: X)'


100 105.4 5.4 29.2

. 124 105.4 18.6 345.96

...
~

115 105.4 9.6 92.16


cr= ~1l81
93 105.4 -12.4 153.76 11
85 105.4 - 20.4 416.16
102 105.4 -3.4 11.56
109 105.4 3.6 12.96 a = 10.36

111 105.4 5.6 31.36


Note: This example of a "population" standard deviation calculation demonstrates
114 105.4 8.6 73.96
the need to do this type of problem solution on the calculator. There are simply too
102 105.4 -3.4 11.56 many failure points in the long hand method.
104 105.4 - 1.4 1.96
On the 11 30X lIS: Set to STAT Mode then select I-V AR and enter: Press
LX=1l59 L:(X-X)2=1181 DATA X l =l00 down arrow FRQ=1 down arrow X 2=124 down arrow
FRQ= 1 down arrow X3= 115 down arrow FRQ= 1 down arrow x,.=93 down
arrow FRQ=1 down arrow X5=85 down arrow FRQ=1 down arrow, continue
until all numbers are entered, then press STATV AT select ax = 10.36

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3. Calculate the sample standard deviation of the following X - X values: Often in statistical work the coefficient of variance (CV) is used to describe the
relationship between the standard deviation and the mean of the distribution.
3.8,0.8, -0.2, -1.2, -3.2

Coefficient of variance = CV = lOOcr


TABLE X
X-X (X-Xl
3.8 14.44 The CV gives us an indication of the clustering of data points around the mean of
the distribution. For example:
0.8 0.64

.
• -0.2 0.04
Which of the following exposures has a wider distribution:

-1.2 1.44 • a mean of 900 ppm with a standard deviation of 80 ppm; or


-3.2 10.24
• a mean of 300 ppm with a standard deviation of 20 ppm
I(X - X)2 = 26.80

CV = 100a CV = looa
X X

s = J'f.(X - X)' p6.S0 = 2.59 CV _loox80ppm CV _100x20ppm


n-l 4 900 ppm 300 ppm

CV=8.89 CV=6.67

The data with a lower CV is more tightly clustered around its mean. Therefore, the
data with a CV = 8.89 would have the wider distribution.

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Calculating "z" scores to detennine the percentile and the area under the curve 4. We selected answer B because:

4. The data shown in this chart depicts the reliability data for failure of a X-f.1
Z=
critical component in a subsystem assembly. Assuming the data follows a (J

normal distribution with a mean of 1800 and a standard deviation of 250,


what is the probability of the component failing at 2200 hours of operation?
2200-1800
Z
250

A.) 99.9%
0.09 I
0.08

400
B.) 94.5% Z=
~ 0.07 250
C.) 87.7% '! 0.06
~
D.) 82.5%
....
"'CI 0.05

:5 0.04 .:~ z=1.6


~ 0.03
.g 0.02

""~
~'" 0.01 Area under the curve; 1.6 = 0.4452

1200 1400 1600 1800 2000 2200 2400


Time to failure in hours Pf = 0.5 + 0.4452

Pf =94.5%

Finding The Area Under The Curve

The process of finding the desired area


under the curve often involves several x
steps. In this instance we are looking for
the entire area under the curve from the
beginning of the curve on the extreme left ~
o

~
side to 1.6 standard deviations on the other o
o
side of the mean. Z = standard deviation
and X-bar = mean. This is the area we are looking for.

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Table of the Nonnal Distribution (BCSP fonnu1a sheet) 5. What is the probability of the component failing if operated until 1400

z o 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
9
hours?

1.5 .4332
.4345
.4357
.4370
.4382
.4394
.4406
.4418
.4429
.4441

A.) about 11.66%

1.6 .4452 .4463 .4474 .4484 .4495 .4505 .4515 .4525 .4535 .4545
B.) about 8.33%

C.) about 7.5%

D.) about 5.5%

Step 1: From the table in the


BCSP Examination x From the table 5. We selected answer D because:
1.60 =0.4452
Reference Handout,

determine the area / Calculate a "z" value using fonnula
under the curve from

the X-bar to a Z of X - J.l


z
1.60 -- a Z of 1.60 (J
This area occupies 0.4452 of the curve.
would be 0.4452; a Z
of 1.61 would be 1400-1800

0.4463; 1.62 would be 0.4474 etc. z


250

400 =-1.6
z= 250

Step 2: Since we are looking for the


area of the curve, measured x
Area under the curve; -1.6 = 0.4452
From the table
from the extreme left side, ••
1.60 =0.4452
we must add in the left half • /
• Pc = 0.5 - 0.4452 = 5.5 %
of the curve, which is, of .:- ·A~32
••
course, 50% or half the
curve.
This is the area we are looking for.

0.5 + 0.4452 =0.9452 Note: Tables for the nonnal distribution can be found in the BCSP Examination
Reference Handout.

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6. What is the overall probability of the component failing between 1600 and
This time we are looking for the area x 2,000 hours.
under the curve from the beginning of
the curve on the extreme left side to­ A.) 33.3%

1.6 standard deviations this side of B.) 57.8%

the mean. Again, Z = standard C.) 61.6%

deviation and X-bar =mean. D.) 45.5%

This is the area we are looking for.


6. We selected answer B because:

Step 1: Calculate a "z" value using fonnula


Table of the Nonnal Distribution (BCSP fonnula sheet)
X X-fl
Z 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 7 8 9 Z=-- Z=
(j (j
1.5 .4332 I .4345 I .4357 I .4370 I .4382 I .4394 .4418 I .4429 I .4441

1.6 .4452 1.4463 I .4474 1.4484 I .4495 1.4505 1.4 .4525 1.4535 I .4545 2000-1800 1600-1800
z=---- z=---­
250 250

Step 1: From the table, detennine the


area under the curve from the From the table x 200 =0.8 -200 --0.8
X-bar to a Z of 1.60. There is -1.60 =0.4452 Z= 250 Z= 250
no negative Z or -1.6 on the
table because it would
occupy the same area.
However, it would lie to the
"
This area occupies 0.0548 of the curve.
Area; 0.8 = 0.2881 Area; - 0.8 = 0.2881

left of the X-bar. Negative


left; positive right. Step 2: Add each individual Pf =0.2881+0.2881=0.5762
area to detennine the
Step 2: Subtract the area occupied from that half of the curve. total area under the
curve Pc =57.6%
0.5 - 0.4452 = 0.0548

(explanation on next page)

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7. What is the probability of the component performing without failure if


This time we are looking for the area under the curve between two points. In this operated until 2400 hours?
case the distance from the mean is the same, that is ± 0.8 standard deviations from
the mean. So we can determine the area under one deviation and double it to A.) 8.02%
determine the total area. If they were different values we would simply add them B.) 0.82%
together. C.) 1.04%
D.) 1.82%

7. We selected answer B because:

Table of the Normal Distribution (BCSP formula sheet)

z 1 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 Calculate a "zit value X-f.1


z=
using formula. u
/).7 .2612 .2652 .2673 .2704 .2734 .2764 .2794 .2823 .2852
0.8 1.2881 1.2910 .2939 .2967 .2996 .3023 .3051 .3078 .3106 .3133
2400-1800
z=---­
250

From the table, determine the x 600 = 2.4


area under the curve from the X­ z= 250

bar to a Z of 0.8. There is no

negative Z or -0.8 on the table

because it occupies the same


Area; 2.4 = 0.4918
area. So to find the total area we

simply double the table value.


Pf =0.5+0.4918=0.9918

Determine reliability. R, =1-Pf

R, = 1- 0.9918 = 0.0082 = 0.82 %

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Step 2: Now we add in the other -


x
This time we are looking for the area
x side of the curve, which is,
under the curve remaining after
of course, 50% or half the
deducting the area occupied from the
curve.
beginning of the curve out to 2.4 From the table
standard deviations. 2.4 =0.4918
0.5 + 0.4918 = 0.9918

Table of the Normal Distribution (BCSP formula sheet) Step 3: Subtract from 1 to find the x
i 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 small area of the curve.
2.3 .4893 .4896 .4898 .4901 .4904 .4906 .4909 .4911 .4913 .4916
2.4 .4918 .4920 .4922 .4925 .4927 .4929
1-.9918=.0082 From the table
.4931 .4932 .4934 .4936 2.4 0.4918

Step 1: From the table, determine


the area under the curve

x
from the X -bar to a Z of

2.40.
From the table
Alternately, like some problems presented earlier you could have simply
2.4 =0.4918 subtracted the table value for 2.4, that is, 0.4918 from 0.5, with the same
results.

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8. You passed the CSP exam (of course) with a score of 139. The mean was Coefficient of Correlation
115 and the standard deviation was 15.8. If 300 people took the exam, how The CSP examinations have traditionally required examinees to compute one of
many scored higher than you? two different types of coefficient of correlation. The Pearson - Product Moment
Coefficient of Correlation (r), which is explained in this workbook, or the
A.) 38
Spearman - Rank Order Coefficient of Correlation (p), which is explained in the
B.) 19
Candidate Examination Guide obtained from the BCSP. Although, the
C.) 6
calculations are demonstrated on the following pages you are advised to learn how
D.) 169
to solve these problems using the "stat" functions on your calculator. As with the
standard deviation calculations, there are just too many steps required to do this
8. We selected answer B because: type of calculation by building tables and applying the formula.

~iep 1. Calculate Z score X-JI 9. Which of the following coefficient of correlation best describes the
z= relationships shown in this chart?
IT

A.) + .90

139-115
B.) ,90
--.- ·~-i...
35

z=--­
15.8 C.) + .05 30

~
D.) .05 25
...... . .
. - . ~ -... '.
:-.......,...

z = 1.519 ::::d ,52 20

. .":1:."
'.. ).ow:. . -.
'-,
15

-. I

Step 2. Find area from table on formula sheet


AREA=.4357
10


.
. ..• ••••
• • ... 1


:'\f;..

' ....

Step 3. Add .5 for left side of curve
o 5 10 15 20 25 30 35

TOTAL AREA =0.5 + 0.4357 =0.9357

Step 4. Subtract from 1 to get area above Z value


1-0.9357=0.0643

Step 5. Multiply by 300 people


300xO.0643= 19.3

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9. We selected answer B because:


10. As the safety director for a large organization, you have implemented a new
The statistical term for the amount of association between two variables is training initiative. Supervisors in some of your plants will test a new self­
correlation. The coefficient of correlation is an expression of the correlation study safety educational package. These supervisors reported each week to a
as a number between 0 and 1. Thus a perfect coefficient of correlation is 1, training center where they checked out self-study safety material. The time
on the other hand 0 represents no correlation. In the scatter diagram shown each supervisor spent reviewing the material was tabulated by training
in this question it is obvious that department personnel and when the supervisors felt they were ready they
there is a strong correlation
between the "Y" and "X" data,
35
30
. . .
.......... •
.,.
were administered a final written examination. You are also planning to give
these same supervisors an additional test after six months to determine
however the correlation is not
perfect and there are a number 25 _. :. JI'­ retention. The table below shows the hours each supervisor spent on self
• •• :: ••:1":. study and the raw score each received on the final examination. Using this
20 • • II I ••

of dots that seem to have no I' •


.-,.
.1::,....• · data, compute the Pearson Product Moment Coefficient of Correlation
- correlation. It is also evident by
inspection, that the correlation is
15 ....
- ..:r.
. • 1'6:..... : between the two sets of data.
. • I I ••-.- .
inverse or negative, that is, with
10
5 -.".-
:' . ... . . •
A.) 0.31
every increase in "Y" value
'. ,­ .. B.) 0.86

there is a decrease in "X" value.


C.) 0.67

o 5 10 15 20 25 30 35
The two sets of data are
D.) 0.72

inversely related. The only selection that offers a strong negative correlation
is liB". If the data had a strong positive correlation, it could be represented
by the chart shown here. In which case selection "A" would be the best Supervisor Hours Scores H Supervisor Hours Scores
choice. Answer "C" & "D" show almost no correlation and the scatter -
diagram depicting that condition would show a very random pattern. A 124 75 G 16 71
B 23 83 H 15 68
C 19.5 98 I 14.5 59
D 18 80 J 14 62
E 17 74 K 13.5 70
F 1 16.5 69 L 10 54

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N L(XY) - (L X)(LY)
10. We selected answer D because: Step 2: Apply the formula. r=t=========~========
~N L(X 2) - (LX)2 ~N L(y2) - (L y)2
Step 1: Build a table
Hint: Most scientific calculators
Supervisor X Y X2 y2 XY have a "stat" function, which
will allow you to compute 12 (14,821)- (201)(863)
A 24 75 576.00 5,625.00 1,800.00 r=~========~r==========

B 23 83 529.00 6,889.00 1.909.00


coefficient of correlation with
~12 (3,540) - (201)2 J12 (63,561) - (863)2
a single key stroke, after
C 19.5 98 380.25 9,604.00 1,911.00 entering the individual data
points. Consult your
D 18 80 324.00 6,400.00 1,440.00
calculator instruction book.
177,852 -173,463
I! 17 74 289.00 5,476.00 1,258.00 r=-r======~~==========
On the TI 30X lIS: Set to STAT .J42,480-40,401.J762,732-744,769
F 16.5 69 272.25 4,761.00 1,138.50
Mode then select 2-V AR and enter:
G 16 71 256.00 5,041.00 1,136.00 Press DATA X 1=24 down arrow
H 15 68 225.00 4,624.00 1,020.00 Y 1=75 down arrow X 2=23 down
I 14.5 59 210.25 3,481.00 855.50
arrow Y2=83 down arrow X3=19.5 r= 4,389 = 4,389 = 0 72
down arrow Y3=98 down arrow .J2,079.J17,963 6,111 .
J 14 62 196.00 3,844.00 868.00 )4=18 down arrow Y4=80 down
K 13.5 70 182.25 4,900.00 945.00 I
arrow Xs=17 down arrow Ys= 74
down arrow, continue until done, then press STATV AT select r = 0.72.
L 10 54 100.00 2,916.00 540.00
N=I2 LX=201 I:Y=863 LX2=3,540 I:y 2=63,561 I:XY=14,821

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Pearson Product Moment Coefficient of Correlation
Step 2: Apply the formula.
11. Compute the Product Moment Coefficient of Correlation for the scatter
diagram shown below.
N L(XY) - (L X)(L: Y)
r=~======~~=======
~NL:(X2)_(LX)2 ~NL:(y2)_(L:y)2
A.) 0.955 351••••••••••;..............................................

B.) 0.943
C.)
D.)
0.886
0.998
30 [························••·••••••••••···•··... ·1 ,
25 ....................................." ~

6 (3,450) - (135)(135)
r=r=========~========
~6 (3,475) - (135)2 ~6 (3,475) - (135)2
• 20t··..•·•·••..•••··•..•·..··.. 1
15 I"'''''''''! ·
10 I..........l ........,
·
··· .... · 20,700-18,225
r=~========~========
5 ··· ... · -.)20,850 -18,225 -.)20,850 -18,225
·· . ·
o 5 10 15 20 25 30 35

r= 2,475 = 2,475 = 0.943


-.)2,625 -j2,625 2,625
11. We selected answer B because:

Step 1: Build a table Hint: Most scientific calculators have a "stat" function, which will allow you to
compute coefficient of correlation with a single key stroke, after entering the
y2 individual data points. Consult your calculator instruction book.
x Y X2 XY
35 35 1,225.00 1,225.00 1,225.00
On the TI 30X lIS: Set to STAT Mode then select 2-VAR and enter:
30 30 900.00 900.00 900.00
Press DATA X 1=35 down arrow Y 1=35 down arrow X2=30 down
25 25 625.00 625.00 625.00 arrow Y2=30 down arrow X3=25 down arrow Y3=25 down arrow
20 20 400.00 400.00 400.00 Xt=20 down arrow Y4=20 down arrow X5= 15 down arrow Y5=10
down arrow, ~=1 0 down arrow Y6=15, then press STATVAT, select
15 10 225.00 100.00 150.00
r= 0.943.
10 15 100.00 225.00 150.00

LX=135 LY=135 LX2=3,475 Ly2=3,475 LXY=3,450

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13. As a consultant you have been given the task of investigating the safety at a
Probability calculations involving the Poisson Distribution
dangerous intersection. Police reports indicate that there are an average of 5
accidents per month. Your employer tells you to develop an action report to
12. Your supervisor has asked you to calculate statistics on the accidents at one
change the intersection if the probability of more than three accidents is .65
of your plants. The safety technician at the plant indicates that the total
or greater. What is the probability that there will be more than three
average number of accidents that occur during a given month is 5. What is
accidents at the intersection this month?
the probability that there will be exactly four accidents in the upcoming
month? A.) .26502 Develop report
B.) .26502 Take action
A.) .0067 C.) .73498 Develop report
B.) .0033 D.) .73498 Take no action
C.) .0842
•"" D.) .1755

12. We selected answer D because: 13.We selected answer C because:

P (r) = e-U{At y In order to solve this problem we must calculate the probability of 0, 1, 2, 3,
The value of "t" in this problem is 1. r1 accidents occurring, add these together, and then subtract from 1. The value
of "t" in this problem is 1.
e­5 54
Note: Find the probability of P4 = ­
4'
"exactly" four accidents alerts us to use e'5 50
P =-=0.00674 P = e'5 51 = 0.03369
the Poisson distribution. P =(0.00674) x (625) o O! ) l!
4 4x3x2xl
5
P = e- 52 = 0.08422 p = e'5 53 =0.14037
P
4
= 4.2125 0.1755 2 2! 3 3!
Select basic f~ihula and solve

l(0,1.2.3) = 0.00674 + 0.03369 + 0.08422 + 0.14037 = 0.26502

l(>3) = 1- 0.26502 = 0.73498

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t-Distribution
14. You have a machine in your shop that has gone out of service unexpectedly
12 times in the last two years. What is the probability that the machine will The "t" test is used to

operate the next two months without a break down?


determine if the

difference between a

A.) 37% Nonnal Distribution


treatment group and a
."
S.) 47%
control group is due to

C.) 50%
chance. The "t"

D.) 25% ........."'A: to degrees of freedom


distribution is

traditionally used

14. We selected answer A because:


when the sample size

.. AI

is less than 30. When

t distribution - has higher tails and a lower mean than the nonnal distribution
PIT) - (ILt)'e- using the "t"
as the degrees of freedom increase, it approaches the nonnal distribution.
r!

distribution the

confidence level will

Set t = 1 (a two month period) A=expected number of events, so if 12 need to be specified.

failures happened in 24 months, then for two months we would expect one
failure or A = 1. The "t" distribution uses the tails of the normal distribution .

.i
Rate (r) to solve for is "0". The "t" distribution is lower at the mean and higher at the tails than the normal

distribution.

I
P(0) (It e- - 37
-.
The procedure for solving "t" distribution is as follows:

Ii
I
1. State a hypothesis, designate it Ho 4. Test the decision from the sample
I study.
2. State the alternate hypothesis, 5. Decide on the statistical hypothesis
designate it as HI to be tested.
3. Specify the level of significance. 6. The results are used to accept or
reject the hypothesis.

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Step By Step Problem Solving, "t" Distribution


Where, n = number of data points
15. During a construction operation, the breaking strength of 10 lengths of rope
manufactured by ABC company were in doubt. Each of the ropes were from
a different lot number. Testing showed a mean breaking strength of 17,750 s= standard deviation
From the "t" distribution table at N=
pounds and a standard deviation of 750. The company claims a mean of population 10 and p =.99
breaking strength of 19,000 lbs. Using a 99% confidence value do the
readings obtained support the manufacturer's advertisement?
x =mean of sample
Table of Percentage Points fo
I. State the null hypothesis.
fl = mean of control group

I/o The mean is equal to 19,000 lbs. The manufacturer's claim is correct.
NJ­ p--7 0.750 0.90 0.95 0.99
2. State the alternate hypothesis. 1 1.0 3.078 6.314 31.82
5 0.727 1.476 2.015 3.365
HI The mean is less than 19,000 lbs. The manufacturer's claim is not correct.
3. Specify the level of significance. In this case 99%. Which indicates a 1% 10 0.700 1.372 1.812 2.764 , , '

chance of the null hypotheses being rejected. 15 0.691 1.341 1.753 2.602

4&5. Test the decision from the sample study by computing the value of the t-test
and rejecting if greater than table value:
t = 2.764
t-Distribution

t "­ x
= X-fl JD
s

17,750-19.000
t= 750 xJlQ

-1,250 x3.16=-5.27
t= 750

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t-Distribution Operational Statistics

16. Accident costs and probability in for the past year are reflected in the
following table. What is the expected value of accident costs?
--­ ­
5.27 A.) $6,000
B.) $11,500 Accident Costs Probability
~~~~
,
C.) $9,000 0 .1
D.) $0
,-~ ~~-~~

$5,000 .5
Reject ~~

. $10,000 .3
~
f-~~ ~-~
All calculated values for the t-distribution are read positive, thus the -5.27 $15,000 .4 i,\~,1~>\
calculated becomes 5.27. The calculated value of 5.27 is outside the table
'------~~

value of 2.764 so reject the null hypothesis and accept the alternative
~~~
hypothesis. That is, 99% of the time the calculated value should be 2.764 or

less. It is therefore easy to conclude that it is extremely unlikely that the

manufacturer's advertisement is justified.

Note: Tables for this distribution can be found in the Examination Reference 16. We selected answer B because:
,
Handout distributed by the BCSP and will be provided by the testing service at the
site of your CSP examination. The expected value of accident costs is the sum of the costs times the
probability of each occurrence.
If we reject a hypothesis when it should be accepted, a Type I error has been made.
The 99% confidence used in this example indicates that we have a 1 % chance of Accident Cost Probability Expected Losses
making a Type I error. That is, rejecting the manufacturer's claim when it is in fact
true. Another way of saying this is, "we had a 1% chance of being wrong in our
rejection of the manufacturer's claim".
°
$5,000
x
x
.1
.5
= $ °
$ 2,500
$10,000 x .3 = $ 3,000
$15,000 x .4 $ 6,000
$11,500

Software analysts are able to predict software errors using selected statistical
models. The following information estimates error rates versus project
development phases of a system.
Type I
:-~ \

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Notes
ERROR RATE VERSUS PROJECT DEVELOPMENT PHASES
Phase Errors/l00 Object Instructions
ValidationlAcceptance 0.597
Integration 0.899
Operational Demo 0.234
PerOp Exercise 0.433

17. Based on this information. the mean error rate is:

• A.) One error rate in 100 instructions


B.) One error rate in 200 instructions
C.) One error rate in 400 instructions
D.) One error rate in 800 instructions

17. We selected answer B because:

Errors per 100 instructions Instructions


0.597 100
0.899 100
0.234 100
0.433 100
2.163 400

If you have 2.163 errors per 400 instructions. then you have approximately 1
error per 200 instructions.

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Chemistry In order for an equation to be balanced, an equal number of each kind of atom has to
be present on each side of the equation. The number of atoms is found by
Chemical Equations multiplying the coefficient times the subscript. Balancing is always accomplished by
inserting proper coefficients. The coefficients must always be whole numbers. Piece
To balance equations, one must be certain the equation has the same number of of cake, right?
atoms of each kind on both sides of the arrow. An equation must be balanced in order
to satisfy the LAW OF CONSERVATION OF MATTER, which states, "matter
H2 + 02 - - - - -..
~ H20
can neither be created nor destroyed in a chemical reaction".
1 x 2 ::2H lx2=20 1 x 2 = 2H 1 x 1 = 10

Chemical reactions are "rearrangements" or "reshuffling" of atoms, but no new atoms subscript x coefficient subscript x coefficient subscript x coefficient

are formed, nor old ones lost.


.

..
~
'

Look at this equation and let's see if it is balanced.


Remember that when there is no coefficient, the coefficient is understood to be 1. A
balanced equation would have an equal number of each kind of atom on each side of
the equation. So this equation is WRONG, because there is only one oxygen atom on
C + O2 ------------.. CO2 the right. To balance an equation, you insert coefficients. NEVER ALTER
f f f SUBSCRIPTS because that would produce incorrect formulas.
1 carbon + 2 oxygen 1 carbon &
atom atoms 2 oxygen To balance this equation, we begin by placing the coefficient 2 before H20.

This equation is balanced because on each side of the arrow there are one carbon and Hz + 02 • 2H20
two oxygen atoms. What has changed is the way they are hooked together. Large
1 x 2 =2H 1 x 2 = 20 2 x 2 =4H 2 x 1 =20

numbers in front of the symbols are coefficients. The small numbers after the
subscript x coefficient subscript x coefficient SUbscript x coefficient

symbols are called subscripts.

/coefficien\

2H2~t ~

Subscripts
_, __, r":""l r - ; ' ' - ~ "":0-. "
_: ,--, ,''l'r
':'> !II
'~,'"
tV·"

',," ,,', 0,"

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Now there are two oxygen on each side of the equation, but the hydrogen balance is
upset. To correct this we put a 2 before H2 : Are the following equations balanced?

2H2 + 02 -----~~2H20 KOH + H2S04 -------- > K2S04 + H2 0

2x2 =4H lx2=20 2 x 2 = 4H 2 x 1 =20


subscript x coefficient subscript x coefficient subscript x coefficient
2Na + H20-------- > 2 NaOH + H2

Now the equation is balanced: 2H2 + O 2 --+~2H20

H2 +Ch ---- ---- > 2HCI


Bj:ilance an unbalanced equation by inserting coefficients. NEVER alter subscripts. In
tlie preceding equation, H2 + O 2 • H 20 could have been balanced by writing
H2 + O 2 ~ H20 2. But that would have been WRONG because we all know that
H 20 2 is not water! NaCl + 2 AgN0 3 -------- > NaN03 + AgCI

BALANCED CaS04 + Na2C03-- ---- -- > CaC03 + Na2S04

CaC(h + 2HCI .... CaCh + CO2 + H20


Ca COHCI 2H2 + 02 ---- ---- > 2H 2 0
Left Side I 1 3 2 2 Right Side 1 1 Ca C 0 H CI
322

UNBALANCED If you are still confused, better review again. Chances are excellent that you will see
three or four more of these "balance the equation" questions!
CaC03 + HCI - - - - - - - . . . CaCl2 + CO2 + H20

Ca CO HCI Ca C 0 H CI
Left Side 1 I 3 1 1 Right Side 1 1 3 2 2

Answers (Top to Bottom): No, No, Yes, No, Yes, Yes

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"Partial" Periodic Table of the Elements


Main groups
,

Main groups ELEMENT SYMBOL WT ELEMENT SYMBOL WT


IN'

I Key

1
Actinium Ac 227 Mercury Hg
201
H 2A
Atomic Number

I~'~ 2 Atomic Symbol


3A 4A SA 6A 7A Aluminum Al 27.0 Mo]ybdenum Mo
95.9
3 4 Relative Atomic mass 13 14 15 16 17 Americium Am 243 Neodymium Nd
144
2 Li Bt 5 6 7 8 9
8 C N 0
Antimony Sb 122 Neon Ne
20.2
(, .... 1 ~(/lm Transition metals F
II ' 12 10.1'. t~iJht1 Hoow.1 ,'......w 13WIW ~,o. Argon Ar 40.0 Neptunium Np
237
3 N. Mg 3B 4B 58 68 7B .--8B-----, 13 14 J1
lB 2B AI Si "
P
16
S Arsenic As 74.9 Nickel Ni
58.7
m_ lA,_ 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 II 12 2t''''f~ ('~«
C)
19 2~O 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 21 ¥I t17\t .*1 tJh~ .l~ .HJ, Astatine At 210 Niobium Nb
92.9
4 . . _J
K
37 ' 38
C.
.t0671
Sc
44,9559
Ti
~7 367
V
50U41l
Cr
H_, ~
Mo
9,)30
F.
H &.IS
Co
5&.9J31
Ni
:'II 69J4
29
C.
63 5~
30
Zn
65 19
' 31
C.
69711
' 32
G.
33
As
34
Sr
J'
Dr Barium Ba 137 Nitrogen N
14.0*
39 ' 40 41 ' 42 43 44 45 46' 47 48' 49
Tlo4 7.1'216 7.% 79900.* Berkelium Bk 247 Nobelium No
259
5 Rb Sr Y Zr Nb Mo Te R. 50 51 52 53
Beryllium Be 9.01 Osmium Os
190
,,il4/0?l ",bi 81,90l9 91.224 "2YOM ",.".
1""1
Rh Pd Ag Cd In Sn Sb Tr J
.. H ' 56 '7C 72 '73 74 75
111101
76
102'10:\' IQIo,.2 10; 11<>12 112411 11>4 8U il8?t0 1::111W) I., t,(J 126 'Xlo/5 Bismuth Bi 209 Oxygen 0
16.0*
6 Cs Ba 77 78' 79 80 81 82 ~ 83 84 . 8S
L.. Hr Ta W Rt Os Boron B 10.8 Palladium Pd
106
1.1:;o'l(155
87 '88'103
1,\7,127 "~967 17149
104
111094""
105
lila.
106
1116107
107
1901,1
108
Ir
1'1'2 217
Pt
1'i5 on t'l6_
Aa Hg
2<WU9
TI
lO-I llU
Pb
107 1
Bi
2i13 <;1110..
Po
1201'1111
At
Ilf19 '!91 Bromine Br 79.9 Phosphorus P
31.0
I 09 II 0 II I 112 113 114 ' 115 ' 116
7 f'r R. Lr Rf Db Sg Dh Hs Mt D5 Rg Cn Cadmium Cd 112 Platinum Pt
195
r1ZlJJ1) IW,OJI 1:1.61111 12jo1.l11 1:16::',111 121>6121 1:I.641l1 1:lffl1,I)
121>11,141 1271.151 1Z7J III 11771 f21-l1 [219 1 PilI 12nl Calcium Ca 40.0 Plutonium Pu 244
Californium Cf 251 Polonium Po 209
Lanthanide series ~5758 59- 60 61' 626l 64 -6165 6668 "69 ---'ij
L. : C~ Pr Nd Pm Sm Eu Cd Ho Tb, DyEr Tm \'b Carbon C 12.0* Potassium K 39.1
I3HO"i-'40...!16 _I.j()~, I~ N ,tl~~l.. -'~O,,+ .1~L~ 1~'}.'Il4_9!$,L,!,H(l.I~Q!)).1~7.2'!.I!>3,\lJiL .11!j)of Cerium Ce 140 Praseodymium Pr 141
Actinide series 89 I 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102
At' : Tb Pa U Np Pu Am Cm Bk Cf E5 Fm Md No Cesium Cs 133 Promethium Pm 145
112111)1 [zn()nI 2JJO.JW ,23"1)21'1 1231·Q~1 /144061 IlA.H'" JN7071 IlA7117J ,I~' llII] Im.OII,· 1:157 101, [Z~'IOI ,Il~ 161, Chlorine CI 35.5* Protactinium Pa 231
ltfbe labels on top (IA, 2A. etc,) are common American usase, The labels below these (I. 2, etc,) are those recommended Chromium Cr 52.0 Radium Ra 226
by the International Union of Pure and Applied Chemistry (JUPAl'). Cobalt Co 59.0 Radon Rn 222
Copper Cu 63.9 Rhenium Re 186
Curium Cm 247 Rhodium Rh 103
Periods: Horizontal rows of elements Dysprosium Dy 163 Rubidium Rb 85.5
Einsteinium Es 252 Ruthenium Ru 101
Groups: Vertical Columns of elements Erbium Er 167 Samarium Sm 150
Europium Eu 152 Scandium Sc 45.0
Group IA: Alkali metals - react directly with water to form alkaline Fermium Fm 257 Selenium Se 79.0
solutions Fluorine F 19.0 Silicon Si 28.1
Francium Fr 223 SHver Ag 108
Group I1A: Gadolinium Gd 157 Sodium Na 23.0*
Alkaline earth metals - these oxides react with water to form Gallium Ga 69.7 Strontium Sr 87.6
alkaline solutions
Group VIlA: Halogens "salt formers" combine with metals to form salts
Group VIllA: Noble gases - originally thought to be totally inert to chemical
combination

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ELEMENT SYMBOL WT ELEMENT SYMBOLWT Notes


Gennanium Ge 72.6 Sulfur S 32.1*
Gold Au 197 Tantalum Ta 181
Hafnium Hf 178 Technetium Tc 98.0
Helium He 4.00* Tellurium Te 128
Holmium Ho 165 Terbium 10 159
Hydrogen H 1.01 * Thallium n 204
Indium In 115 Thorium Th 232
Iodine I 127 Thulium Tm 169
Iridium Ir 192 Tin Sn 119
Iron Fe 55.8 Titanium Ti 47.9
Krypton Kr 83.8 Tungsten W 184
Lanthanum La 139 Uranium U 238
LJlwrencium Lr 260 Vanadium V 50.9
Lead Pb 207 Xenon Xe 131
Lithium Li 6.64 Ytterbium Vb 173
Lutetium Lu 175 Yttrium Y 88.9
Magnesium Mg 24.3 Zinc Zn 65.4
Manganese Mn 54.9 Zirconium Zr 91.2 ,.

Mendelevium Md 258

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Collecting Safety, Health, Environmental And Security Risk Information Task 2


Design and use data management systems for collecting and validating risk
This section of the workbook provides questions and answers similar to those on

information in order to evaluate safety, health, environmental, and security risk.


the Comprehensive Practice examination. The following responsibilities are

found on the examination. There are a maximum of 57 questions from this

area on the actual examination.


Knowledge Areas

Task 1
1. Mathematics and statistics
2. Qualitative, quantitative, deductive, and inductive risk assessment
Identify and characterize hazards, threats, and vulnerabilities using equipment

methods
and field observation methods in order to evaluate safety, health,

environmental, and security risk.


3. Chain of custody procedures
4. Electronic data logging and monitoring equipment
. 5. Data management software
Knowledge Areas
6. Electronic data transfer methods and data storage options
1. Types, sources, and characteristics of hazards, threats, and
vulnerabilities 7. Information security and confidentiality requirements
2. Job safety analysis and task analysis methods
3. Hazard analysis methods Task 3
Collect and validate information on organizational risk factors by studying
4. Qualitative, quantitative, deductive, and inductive risk assessment
culture, management style, business climate, financial conditions, and the
methods
availability of internal and external resources in order to evaluate safety, health,
5. Incident investigation techniques
environmental, and security risk.
6. Methods and techniques for evaluating facilities, products, systems,
processes, and equipment
Knowledge Areas
7. Methods and techniques for measurement, sampling, and analysis
8. Sources of information on hazards, threats, and vulnerabilities (e.g.,
1. Mathematics and statistics
subject matter experts, relevant best practices, published literature)
2. Qualitative, quantitative, deductive, and inductive risk assessment
9. Competencies of other professionals with whom the safety
professional interacts
methods
3. Incident investigation techniques
IO.Information security and confidentiality requirements

4. Sources of information on hazards, threats, and vulnerabilities (e.g.,


II.Internet resources

subject matter experts, relevant best practices, published literature)


5. Organizational and behavioral sciences
6. Group dynamics
7. Management sciences
8. Management principles of authority, responsibility, and accountability
9. Budgeting, finance, and economic analysis techniques
IO.Business planning
II.Competencies of other professionals with whom the safety
professional interacts

I2.Intemet resources

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Notes
Task 4
Research applicable laws, regulations, consensus standards, best practices, and
published literature using internal and external resources to develop
benchmarks for assessing an organization's safety, health, environmental, and
security performance and to support the evaluation of safety, health,
environmental, and security risk.

Knowledge Areas

1. Benchmarks and performance standards


. 2. Mathematics and statistics
3. Sources of information on hazards, threats, and vulnerabilities (e.g.,

subject matter experts, relevant best practices, published literature)

4. Sources of information related to local laws, regulations, and

consensus codes and standards

5. Product certification and listing agencies


6. Qualitative, quantitative, deductive, and inductive risk assessment

methods

7. Competencies of other professionals with whom the safety

professional interacts

8. Internet resources

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Collecting Environmental, Health, Safety And Security Risk Information 5) In accordance with 49 CFR part 391, at what alcohol level will a
"Questions" commercial driver be disqualified to drive a commercial motor vehicle?
I) When testing for chromium (VI) using the Biological Exposure Indices A.) .01
(BEIs), what determinate do you test for? B.) .02
A.) chromium in the urine
C.) .03
B.) chromium in the blood
D.) .04
C.) mandelic acid in the urine

D.) mandelic acid in the blood


6) During an incident investigation, it is important for the interviewer to use
what type of questioning?
A.) Reflective

?) Which of the following provides the best fire protection policy for B.) Open Ended

-; building construction, alteration, or demolition? C.) Close Ended

A.) Sprinklers should be operational in as many areas of the D.) Guided

building as possible
B.) Fire bottles should be available on all floors 7) Loss reduction means any action which reduces the losses incurred. The
C.) The Fire Marshal should make monthly visits to all areas of reduction may be by decrease of the physical destruction (e.g. as by
construction or demolition reducing the amount of material burned or the number of individuals
D.) A fire watch should be hired as soon as debris starts to injured) or by reducing the operational loss from a given amount of
accumulate destruction (e.g. by having stand by equipment or more effective medical
care for the injured). Which of the following is not considered loss
reduction?
3) Which of the following is not a reason that people resist change? A.) Having a CPR-First Aid person on each work team
A.) Fear of the unknown
B.) By installing a modernized fire suppression system
B.) False confidence
C.) By doing emergency planning for possible scenarios
C.) Loss of face
D.) By storing back up files at an off site location
D.) Lack of purpose

8) A chemical explosion requires oxidizer, fuel, ignition source and which


of the following?
4) Thoracic Outlet Syndrome is a disease caused by: A.) Overpressure

A.) An inflammation of a tendon B.) Confinement

B.) Compression of the ulnar nerve C.) Reduction

C.) Compression of the median nerve D.) Detonation

D.) Compression of nerves and blood vessels between clavicle


and first and second ribs.

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9) Owners and operators of steel underground storage tanks (USTs) must

choose anyone of following methods to provide corrosion protection


14) The primary benefit of using a data logger attached to your industrial
except: hygiene measuring devices is to?

A.) Add interior lining to the tank


A.) automatically record data

B.) B)Add cathodic protection


B.) does not need to be monitored

C.) C) Clad or coat unprotected steel USTs


C.) digitize data for future use and analysis
D.) D)Combine cathodic protection interior lining D.) code the data so it can't be read without the code

10) Catastrophe insurance for the insurers is most closely related to which of 15) Which of the following is not a safety precaution normally associated
the following? with the use of the chemical acrylonitrile (AN)?

_.. A.) General Liability


A.) Use of SCBA at any concentration above odor threshold
~ B.) Business Interruption - ­
B.) Treat as a flammable liquid

11)
C.)
D.)
Reinsurance

Disaster Liability

Safety sampling is a technique which employs the use of statistics to


measure:

-
-
-
.

16)
C.)
D.)
Goggles anytime possibility of contact exists
Must protect against skin contact (a NIOSH occupational
carcinogen)

Benchmarking is defined as?

A.) Accidental injury/illness performance


A.) making predictions based on past performance
B.) The effectiveness of the line managers safety activities B.) a process used to evaluate various aspects of business
C.) The risk potential for accidental injury/illness processes in relation to best practice
D.) Both A and C C.) a process of setting standards in order to predict profits
D.) setting standards for the rest of your industry, so that your
12) Your CIH has found that part of your workforce is being exposed to operation can be considered one of the best

Chromium (VI) and you have begun testing these employees at the end of

the work shift on Fridays. Where should you file the test results?
17) What is the primary function of a loss control system?
A.) on your computer A.) Assess risk, establish effective risk control measures,
B.) in your file cabinet eliminate risk

C.) in the employees personnel file


B.) Establish effective risk control measures for hazardous
D.) in the employees medical record conditions, establish effective control measures, eliminate
risk
13) Which of the following is not one of the symptoms of group conformity C.) Identify hazardous conditions, assess their risks, and
or "group think"? establish effective risk control measures
A.) collective rationalization
D.) Assure compliance with applicable regulatory requirements,
B.) cultural diversity
eliminate residual risk

C.) pressure for conformity

D.) illusion of invulnerability

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18) The following are criteria for evaluating cost-benefit analysis except: 21 ) Your company is setting up a laboratory to do experimental work for
A.) The cost-benefit ratio
their electroplating division. One workstation involves the use of
B.) Gross benefits
perchloric acid. They plan to purchase a local exhaust hood for this
C.) Rate of return
station and ask you for recommendations on hood specifications. Your
D.) Payback period
recommendations should include all of the following except?
A.) Hood and duct material must be non-reactive, acid resistant
19) There is a process in your plant that uses vinyl chloride. The and relatively impervious
concentration in the area is 400 ppm. What is the proper respiratory B.) Hood and duct should be designed for easy cleaning and
protection level for this exposure? built-in wash down facilities
A.) Face mask with particulate filter
C.) Construction should allow for easy visual inspection
B.) Half-face respirator with airline
D.) Utility controls should be inside the hood
.. C.) Full-face respirator with airline and escape bottle
D.) Self-Contained Breathing Apparatus operated in a positive­ 22) Of what is the following table an example?
pressure mode Line Item # Line Item ActualYTD BudgetYTD Difference YTD
Description
1 External safety $112,250 $100,000 ($12,250)
20) Recently, considerable Industrial Hygiene sampling has been conducted consultants-
using passive sampling techniques. Passive sampling uses a device that sampling & analysis
2 Monitoring $28,150 $25,000 ($3,150)
is capable of taking samples of gas or vapor pollutants from the hardware
atmosphere at a rate controlled by a physical process, such as diffusion maintenance
through a static air layer or permeation through a membrane. It does not 3 Fire Protection $15,000 $15,000 -0­
system maintenance
involve the active movement of the air through the sampler. Which of 4 External safety $12,000 $25,000 $13,000
the following principles form the theoretical basis for diffusive sampling? consultants-other
Line Item 1: Emergency required the use ofexternal resources more than expected
A.) Fick's Law
Line Item 2: Required replacement ofdamaged portable gas detector
B.) Charles's Law
Line Item 4: Timing difference - expect to use external consultants more next quarter.
C.) Raoult's Law
A.) Slack report

D.) Henry's Law


B.) Budget exception report

C.) Budget variance report

D.) Resource timing delivery report

23) Stack sampling for particulate aerosols is done in an isokinetic manner


to:
A.) avoid size discrimination of collected particles
B.) minimize particle deposition in the sampling tube
C.) collect the respirable size particles only
D.) collect samples suitable for direct analysis

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24) An employee was injured on the job and had lost workdays associated 28) Which of the following is characteristic of a root eause of an incident?
with the injury. When he returned to work, he was physically unable to
perform his previous job. He was given another job at less pay. The A.) Human error
legal doctrine that would keep the employee for suing the employer is? B.) A management system problem
C.) An error made by a manager or supervisor
A.) Exclusive Remedy
D.) Intentional unsafe act made by an employee or work team
B.) Gross Negligence

C.) Tort
29) You make a visit to a company to price a piece of air sampling
D.) Special Damage
equipment, however at the time of the visit, no purchase agreement is
made. Later the company mails you a proposed contract for the
equipment and states that the offer is valid until July 1 and that
25) Which of the following would best relate to the term "privity"? acceptance will be the contract signed and returned by US Mail. On June
-: A.) Group Negligence
15, you fax a copy of the signed contract to the company. Is there a valid
B.) Term Insurance
contract?
C.) A direct relationship
A.) Yes, an offer was made and accepted.
D.) Failure to exercise care
B.) Yes, a fax can be used in lieu of the US Mail
C.) Yes, an offer was made and accepted before July 1
D.) No, the acceptance was not as stated in the offer
26) A determination of the extent to which program operations have
contributed to achieving an objective related to accident or injury 30) With the growing concern over litigation involving improper use of
reduction is called a? products, warning labels are becoming an integral part of the
A.) effectiveness evaluation
manufacturing process. The labels are intended to warn users about the
B.) general evaluation
potential hazards of the product and may warn against improper use.
C.) procedural evaluation
Which of the following fundamental legal principles is involved in not
D.) administrative evaluation
labeling a large blade, hunting knife?
A.) Res ipsa loquitur

B.) Obvious peril

27) Which of the following is first item to be analyzed when implementing a C.) Foreseeability

job safety analysis program? D.) Tort

A.) The order of Jobs according to product flow moving through


each department 31) The concept that a producer of a product is liable for injury due to a
B.) The jobs generating the most complaints from supervisors defect, without proof of negligence or even fault, is called?
C.) The jobs contributing to the highest incident rates A.) Negligence

D.) The jobs exposing the most workers B.) Strict liability

C.) Privity

D.) Res ipsa loquitur

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32) The Department of Transportation regulates the issuance and 35) When a pitot tube is connected to a manometer for ventilation
recertification of Commercial Driver's License (CDL) permits. Part of measurements, the inputs to the manometer are and and
the requirements for obtaining a CDL is to pass a written test and a road the output is ?
test for the type of vehicle to be driven. In addition, there are
A.) VP & SP, TP
requirements for driver physical examinations. What are the physical
B.) VP & TP, SP
examination requirements for your over the road interstate drivers?
C.) TP & SP, VP
A.) Every 6 months D.) TP & SP, NP
B.) Every 12 months

C.) Every 24 months


36) Your plant has had 50 serious vehicle accidents in the past 10 years, three
D.) Every 60 months involving fork trucks. What is the probability that the next serious
. accident will involve a fork truck?
.'
,A

'33) What is the meaning of the exhibited CE marking on an electrical product


A.) 10%
B.) no way to tell
for sale?
C.) 9%

CE
A.) The product is a certified electrical device
D.) 6%

37) Some types of gas and vapor sample collectors are based on Fick's Law
B.) The product is a listed on the European Union certified
equipment list. of Diffusion. Based on the formula Q =(DA)t(Ce - Co)/L, the amount of
material collected is?
C.) The product can be exported from the European Union to

the United States or Canada.


A.) equal to the coefficient of diffusion squared
D.) The product conforms to European Union health, safety, and B.) equal to the square route of coefficient of diffusion
environmental protection standards. C.) proportional to the length of the diffusion path
D.) proportional to the cross sectional area and inversely
proportional to the length of the diffusion path
34) Which is an accepted probabilistic risk assessment methodology used to
global workplace environmental regulatory processes for understanding
and ranking environmental issues? 38) The process by which clumps of solids in water or sewage aggregate
A.) Environmental analysis through biological or chemical action so they can be separated from
B.) Fault tree analysis
water or sewage is called?
C.) Job safety analysis
A.) dewatering

D.) Safety and health analysis


B.) flocculation
C.) neutralization
D.) disinfections

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39) The Poisson distribution is used when the occurrences of an event are
small, but the number of cases is large enough to assure a few 43) Which of the following field instruments would be used to measure air
occurrences. velocity in the opening of a paint spray booth?
A.) True
A.) Rotating Vane Anemometer

B.) False
B.) Velometer

C.) Need standard deviation to calculate.


C.) Smoke tube

D.) Not enough information.


D.) Pitot tube

40) If mean accidents are 10 and standard deviation is 3, what is the 44) "Any action which reduces the losses incurred" is the definition of?
probability of less than 7 accidents at a location? A.) loss control

A.) 2.5% B.) loss transfer

• B.) 5%
C.) risk management

C.) 16%
D.) loss reduction

D.) 32%

45) The principle employed in wet collectors type ventilation system air
41) A study method that requires a multidisciplinary team, guided by an filters is to get the dust into direct contact with a liquid. Which of the
experienced leader and uses specific guide words (such as "no", following ventilation wet collector systems uses high velocity air through
"increase", "decrease", "reverse") that are systematically applied to a venturi throat to break up water that is also fed through the throat. The
parameters (e.g., temperature, pressure, flow) to identify the system results in a pressure drop of from 10 to 15 in. wg.?
consequences of deviations (e.g., reduced flow) from design intent for A.) Spray chamber

various processes and operations is called a? B.) Packed tower

A.) FTA
C.) Wet centrifugal

B.) ETA
D.) Venturi-type

C.) HAZOP

D.) FMEA

46) Which of the following statements best describes the term


"multiplexing "?
42) The form issued by the Factory Mutual Engineering Corporation to help A.) the synthesis of signals for increased bandwidth
deal with recommended practices for the protection of property from B.) the transmission of small compressed packets of information
damage by fire, lightning, explosion, wind and earthquake is called the? C.) a method of decreasing bandwidth and signal to noise ratio
A.) Property Loss Prevention Data Sheet D.) the transmission of multiple signals on a single path .
B.) Hazard Data Sheet
C.) NFPA Loss Data Sheet
D.) FMEC Data Sheet

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47) Of the areas of product development, manufacture and use, which area is
52) The notion of the "fire triangle" is that an ignition source must come
the most important to ensure that a safe product is placed in the hands of together with both fuel and oxidant, the latter usually being atmospheric
the consumer? oxygen, in order to initiate and sustain a fire. One method used to reduce
A.) Design the possibility of a fire hazard is to use an inert gas to reduce the oxidant
B.) Testing concentration. The most important inerting property of the inert gas is?
C.) Production A.) heat capacity
D.) Maintenance B.) molecular weight
C.) vapor pressure
48) What metal fume hazard may be present when stainless steel is welded?
D.) content of hydrogen

-~

."
-
A.) Hexavalent chromium

B.) Lead chromate


C.) Zinc oxide
D.) Magnesium oxide
- 53) In a conventional sanitary sewer, employees are continuously monitoring

the atmosphere's oxygen content, % of LEL, and for the presence of

hydrogen sulfide and carbon monoxide using a direct reading multi-gas


detector. The detector alarms due to a carbon monoxide reading of 1350
49) If you have tested two sets of data and there is no statistical difference ppm (IDLH for carbon monoxide is ] 200 ppm) while also displaying a
between the data sets, then you are said to have perfect? hydrogen sulfide reading of 9 ppm (TLV 8-hour TWA for hydrogen
A.) lack of variance sulfide is 10 ppm). What is the most likely explanation of this
B.) statistical significance
combination of readings in this environment?
C.) coefficient
A.) The detector's hydrogen sulfide gas-specific sensor is
D.) correlation malfunctioning.
B.) The hydrogen sulfide reading is correct and the hydrogen
50) Which of the following electrical devices would most likely contain sulfide in the atmosphere is interfering with the carbon
polychlorinated biphenyl (PCBs)? monoxide gas-specific sensor.
C.) The detector's carbon monoxide sensor is malfunctioning.
A.) Transformers, capacitors, fluorescent light ballasts
B.) Fuses, wiring and meters D.) The carbon monoxide reading is correct and the CO is
interfering with the hydrogen sulfide gas-specific sensor.
C.) Circuit breakers, panel board and unistrut

D.) Meters, relays and switches

54) Two sets of sampling data are compared; the coefficient of variation for
51) When completing the initial hazard recognition part of evaluating a new method "A" is 0.09, the coefficient of variation for method "B" is 0.08.
Assuming that the mean for each method is approximately equal, what
process, all the following are questions that should be answered except?
inferences can be made given this data?
A.) what are the raw materials
A.) The data from method A has a smaller chance of error
B.) what intermediate products are formed in the process
B.) Method A was developed from larger database then B
C.) what by-products may be released
C.) The standard deviation is larger for A than B
D.) when should you provide PPE
D.) The data for method A is clustered closer to the mean than
for method B

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55) You have designed a system that you want computerized. You give it to 59) All of the following are required steps to perform chain-of-custody on
the programmer to translate it into a programming language, this is evidence collected during an accident investigation except?
known as?

A.) collect

A.) assembly
B.) track
B.) programming C.) identify
C.) coding D.) log movement
D.) data entry

56) A CIH is involved in a monitoring operation using a Carbon Monoxide 60) is helpful in goal setting while is best
direct reading instrument. The instrument has been reading 35 ppm for 4
utilized in formulating realistic predictions of performance.
hours. Suddenly without any change in the conditions in the plant the
A.) Trend analysis; past history

: indicator increases rapidly to 65 ppm and has remained constant for 5


B.) Bench marking; trend analysis

minutes. Which of the following is the most appropriate action?


C.) Bench marking; histography
A.) Shut down all production operations immediately D.) Past history; histography
B.) Quit monitoring
C.) Continue monitoring 61) As a new safety manager you have been ask to develop an incident data
D.) Stop and recalibrate instrument collection system, what is the most important first step in this process?
A.) Identify existing data sources and codify the data
57) Which of the following is the most essential when conducting a B.) Establish incident reporting procedures.

successful hazard and operability study?


C.) Define the subsequent use of the data.
A.) Multiple union and management representatives familiar D.) Define investigation team parameters.
with safety procedures
B.) A study leader familiar with the process being studied 62) You have established a system with a sister company that allows you to
C.) A knowledgeable process safety engineer familiar with download safety data from their system. Which of the following types of
process safety regulations
software would you most likely use to run queries to obtain the data you
D.) Multiple subject matter experts knowledgeable about the
need?

process being studied


A.) HTML
B.) HTTP
58) All of the following are valid reasons for accident (mishap) investigation C.) Browser

except?
D.) search engine
A.) Prevent reoccurrence of similar events

B.) Establish casual factors

C.) Provide vehicle for discipline

D.) Provide data for trend analysis

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63) The primary benefit of an extranet is to? 66) Your company is having above average incident and accidents at one of
A.) enhance your intranet your locations. You have been instructed to implement action to reduce
B.) allow information to be down loaded thru the internet these rates. What is your first action?

C.) allow access to your internet by your employees when


A.) Survey the facility to determine the probable cause of the
offsite lllJunes
D.) securely share part of your business's information or B.) Bring a safety committee on-line to handle the problems
operations with suppliers, vendors, partners, customers or C.) Train all line supervisors in accident/incident prevention
other businesses D.) Schedule a meeting with upper management to discuss the
situation.

64) Your company has decided to implement a behavior based safety


..... program and you have been charged with collecting the initial data for 67) Air samples are taken in a work area over a 100 day period and based on
the implementation. What is the most important first step in the process? the sample data, the mean of the concentration was calculated at 0.7 ppm.
A.) Establish the data collection process The range was 0 ppm to 1.4 ppm. One hundred samples were taken, one
B.) Develop the questions to be asked during the collection each day at the same time. The lower limit of the sampling device for the
process contaminant is 1.4 ppm. What is the best conclusion you can make from
C.) Decide how to codify the data once it is collected this information?

D.) Define the subsequent use of the data


A.) there is a ±1 standard deviation chance that the contaminant
is 0.7 in the work area
B.) there is a ±2 standard deviation chance that the contaminant
65) Which of the following best describes the legal principle of TORT? is at or above 1.4 in the work area
A.) The exercise of reasonable care in the handling and
C.) there is a presence of the contaminant at or below 1.4 ppm in
preservation of a product in their possession so that it will the work area

not later cause injury to a user. D.) you do not have enough information to make a valid
B.) A person may be held liable for actions that result in injury
conclusion
or damage only when he was able to foresee dangers and

risks that could be reasonably anticipated.

C.) A wrongful act or failure to exercise due care for which civil
68) Which of the following is the common language of client/server database
legal action can result.
management?

D.) The concept that a producer of a product is liable for injuries


A.) SQL

due to defects, without the necessity for plaintiff to show


B.) URL

negligence or fault.
C.) HTML
D.) HTTP

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69) What is the process for collecting organic materials on the surface of an 73) Which device is best for measuring an employee's accumulated radiation
activated carbon filter? dose?
A.) Adsorption A.) Portacount
B.) Absorption B.) Currie counter
C.) Desorption C.) Pocket dosimeter
D.) Permeation D.) Geiger counter

70) Which is the best example of a safety performance benchmark?


A.) A thorough root cause analysis 74) Which of the following correctly evaluates the Boolean expression
B.) Incident rate below the industrial average shown below?
C.) Increased injury trends
D.) Employee involvement (A+A).(A+B)=A+B

71) Which of the following best describes the use of the Critical Incident A.) A and not-A or A and B equals A and B
Technique method during an incident investigation? B.) A plus not-A and A plus B equals A plus B
C.) A plus A BAR and A plus B equals A plus B
A.) A method to identify mechanical integrity issues in chemical
process equipment D.) A or not-A and A or B equals A or B
B.) An open-ended retrospective method of interviews that
identify the critical aspects of an incident.
75) Immediately following an incident investigation, the investigator prints
C.) A guided discussion as part of pre emergency planning
the digital pictures taken at the scene and makes notes on the pictures
exerCIse
describing the context, orientation of the photographer, lighting. date.
D.) A sampling of human behaviors through observations
time and other information that may be helpful later in the investigation.
What does this process describe?
72) According to the HAZCOM Standard. Material Safety Data Sheets shall
be readily accessible during each work shift to employees when they are A.) Chain of custody procedures
in their work area. The most effective way to handle this tasking is to? B.) Spoiled evidence protocols
C.) Forensic quality procedures
A.) Maintain copies of the MSDSs in each work area
D.) Evidentiary preservation regulations
B.) Maintain a central data base of MSDSs
C.) Provide a copy of MSDSs by CDRom
D.) Post the MSDSs on the company local area network

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Col/ecting Environmental, Health, Safety and Security Risk Information 5) We selected answer D because:
"Answers"
1) We selected answer A because: 49 Cf~ part 391.15 (c) (2)(i)(A) Driving a commercial motor vehicle
while a person's alcohol concentration is 0.04% or more.
The test for Chromium (VI) is for the "total chromium in the urine to be
6) We selected answer B because:
conducted at the end of shift at end of workweek."
According to the Root Cause Analysis Handbook, 2005 Edition, to gather
2) We selected answer A because:
data from people, the analyst must be a skilled interviewer. During the
The threat of fire during construction, alteration or demolition projects is interview the interviewer must ask open ended questions that require the
extremely high due to the presence of large quantities of combustible interviewee to respond with a long, descriptive answer
materials and debris and the many ignition sources available from
construction or destruction operations. Additionally, the arson threat is 7) We selected answer D because:
greater during construction than at any other time. The maintenance of an
.. operational fire sprinkler system with adequate water supply is the single
Storing back up files at an off site location would be considered loss
prevention and not loss reduction. Other examples of loss prevention are
most important fire prevention action one can take during these
replacing physical guards on saws, installing GFCIs or performing
operations. Fire sprinklers should be the first system enabled and the last
HAZCOM training. An example of loss reduction would be to equip and
system disabled during construction or demolition.
train a fire brigade.
3) We selected answer B because:
Some of the common reasons that people resist change are: 8) We selected answer B because:
• Fear of the unknown As described in Counter Terrorism for Emergency Responders, 2nd
• Disrupted habits Edition, a chemical explosion, like fire, requires oxidizer, fuel, ignition,
• Loss of confidence and chemical reaction but more importantly it requires confinement of
• Loss of control the oxidizer and fuel. Without confinement, the materials will not
• Poor timing explode; they will merely bum with great intensity.
• Work overload 9) We selected answer C because:
• Loss of face
• Lack of purpose In the Hazardous Materials Desk Reference, it is considered impractical
to coat or clad unprotected steel USTs. Answer choice A, B, & D are
A manager has to realize that sensitivity to change is a key element in the
characteristics of an effective manager. acceptable methods for corrosion protection.

4) We selected answer D because: 10) We selected answer C because:


Thoracic outlet syndrome is defined as a disorder resulting from a Insurance to protect businesses and residences against natural disasters
compression of nerves and blood vessels between clavicle and first and such as earthquakes, floods and hurricanes, and against man-made
second ribs at the brachial plexus. Can be caused by typing, keying, disasters such as terrorist attacks. These low-probability, high-cost events
carrying heavy loads or keeping the head, arms and/or shoulders in an are generally excluded from standard hazard insurance policies, and so
unnatural position. catastrophe insurance is required. Catastrophe insurance is different from
other types of insurance in that it is difficult to estimate the total potential

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cost of an insured loss and a catastrophic event results in an extremely 12) We selected answer D because:
large number of claims being filed at the same time. This makes it
difficult for catastrophe insurance issuers to effectively manage According to 1910, employee exposure records are part of medical

risk. Reinsurance and retrocession are used along with catastrophe records.

insurance to manage catastrophe risk. Reinsurance (insurance for 1910.1020(c)(5): "Employee exposure record" means a record

insurers) for catastrophic losses allows the insurance industry the ability containing any of the following kinds of information:

to absorb the multibillion dollar losses caused by natural and man-made


disasters such as hurricanes, earthquakes and terrorist attacks because 1910.1020(c)(5)(i): Environmental (workplace) monitoring or
losses are spread among thousands of companies including catastrophe measuring of a toxic substance or harmful physical agent,
reinsurers who operate on a global basis. Insurers' ability and willingness including personal, area, grab, wipe, or other form of sampling, as
to sell insurance fluctuates with the availability and cost of catastrophe well as related collection and analytical methodologies,
reinsurance. Retrocession is the practice of one reinsurance company calculations, and other background data relevant to interpretation
.-' of the results obtained;
essentially insuring another reinsurance company by accepting business
that the other company had agreed to underwrite. When one reinsurance
company has other reinsurance companies partially underwrite some of 1910.1020(c)(5)(ii): Biological monitoring results which directly
its reinsurance risk, it essentially diversifies its risk portfolio and limits assess the absorption of a toxic substance or harmful physical
its potential losses as a result of a catastrophe. agent by body systems (e.g., the level of a chemical in the blood,
urine, breath, hair, fingernails, etc.) but not including results which
11) We selected answer B because: assess the biological effect of a substance or agent or which assess
an employee's use of alcohol or drugs;
Safety sampling measures the effectiveness of the line manager's safety
activities, but not in terms of accidents. It measures effectiveness by 13) We selected answer B because:
conducting periodic samplings of how safely the employees are working.
Safety sampling is based on the quality control principle of random The following are the characteristics of "group think".
sampling inspection. The degree of accuracy is dictated by the number of
samples taken. 1. Illusion of Invulnerability: Members ignore obvious
danger, take extreme risk, and are overly optimistic.
2. Collective Rationalization: Members discredit and explain
away warning contrary to group thinking.
3. Illusion of Morality: Members believe their decisions are
morally correct, ignoring the ethical consequences of their
decisions.
4. Excessive Stereotyping: The group constructs negative
sterotypes of rivals outside the group.
5. Pressure for Conformity: Members pressure any in the
group who express arguments against the group's
stereotypes, illusions, or commitments, viewing such
opposition as disloyalty.

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6. Self-Censorship: Members withhold their dissenting views


and counter-arguments. 16) We selected answer B because:
7. Illusion of Unanimity: Members perceive falsely that Benchmarking (also "best practice benchmarking" or "process
everyone agrees with the group's decision; silence is seen as benchmarking") is a process used in management and particularly
consent. strategic management, in which companies evaluate various aspects of
8. Mindguards: Some members appoint themselves to the role their business processes in relation to best practice, usually within their
of protecting the group from adverse information that might own industry. Benchmarking is researching other organizations
threaten group complacency. methods, selecting the best techniques and applying them to your
organization. This then allows companies to develop plans on how to
14) We selected answer C because: adopt such best practice. Benchmarking may be a one-of event, but is
A data logger is an electronic instrument used to take measurements from often treated as a continuous process in which companies continually
,. sensors and store those measurements for future use. Some common seek to challenge their practices. A safety performance benchmark is
measurements include temperature, pressure, current, velocity, strain, similar to a goal. An example would be one year with no lost time
displacement and other physical phenomena.. injuries or illnesses at a particular work site. A bench mark is based on
research conducted on other similar organizations and applied to your
A data logger works with sensors to convert physical phenomena and organization. Incident rates are lagging indicators (sometimes referred to
stimuli into electronic signals such as voltage or current. These electronic as business metrics) of safety performance. Overall safety performance
signals are then converted or digitized into binary data. The binary data is cannot be evaluated by historical data such as these rates and are
then easily analyzed by software and stored on a PC hard drive or on typically poor performance indicators
other storage media such as memory cards and CDs.
17) We selected answer C because:
The ability to take sensor measurements and store the data for future use As described in Assurance Technologies, a loss control system must be
is, by definition, a characteristic of a data logger. However, a data­ able to identify the hazardous conditions as well as understand the real
logging application rarely requires only data acquisition and storage. risks associated with those hazardous conditions. A loss control system
Inevitably, you need the ability to analyze and present the data to is incomplete if it solely identifies hazardous conditions and does not
determine results and make decisions based on the logged data. take action to understand the risks. Therefore, the actions taken are
relative to the risks associated with the hazardous conditions.
15) We selected answer A because:
For example, in addition to the other precautions cited a positive pressure 18) We selected answer B because:
self-contained breathing apparatus is required at levels at or above 4000 The criteria for evaluating cost and benefits are:
ppm. See OSHA 1910.1045 for detailed information. • The cost-benefit ratio
• Net benefits, benefits minus cost
• Rate of return
• Payback period

Not all costs and benefits can be converted to quantitative terms, some
may only be expressed in qualitative terms. This can be the most
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difficult part of the fonnula.


21 ) We selected answer D because:
A major objective of applying cost-benefit analysis to safety is to provide

a systemic analytical approach to dealing with complex issues of cost and


Perchloric acid HC]04 is a common acid used primarily by the chemical,
benefit, assessing trade-offs in hazard control methods.
electroplating and incendiary (fireworks) industries. It is a strong
oxidizing acid that reacts with organic compounds, including cellulosic
Additionally, benefit-cost analysis is a tool to help management prioritize materials such as sawdust and cork. A mixture of perchloric acid and
corrective actions. Though fonnal risk analysis identify actions to reduce these materials may ignite spontaneously. Therefore, hoods and ducts
risk, a financial analysis is essential so managers have the infonnation to must be nonreactive, easily cleaned and inspected for acid build-up, and
make judgments on how to spend money and expend efforts needed to should include water washdown capability. The ACGIH Industrial
reduce the identified risks by implementing corrective actions. Ventilation Manual contains a list of design and work practices for
perchloric acid hoods. They recommend stainless steel with rounded
1.9) We selected answer D because: comers and all-welded construction. Never use perchloric acid in a
..
-
hood designed for other purposes •
Vinyl chloride is a suspected carcinogen with a TWA of 1 ppm and a
ceiling limit of 5 ppm. NIOSH recommends respiratory protection to 22) We selected answer C because:
consist of self-contained breathing apparatus with full-face piece and
operated in a positive-pressure mode. A full-face respirator with airline This table is a type of budget variance report.
can be utilized if operated in positive-pressure mode and used in
combination with an auxiliary self-contained breathing apparatus 23) We selected answer A because:
operated in a positive-pressure mode. A full-face respirator operated in a Isokinetic or "equal velocity" sampling occurs when the velocity at the
positive-pressure mode provides a protection factor of "1000", while an sampling probe tip is equal to the gas stream velocity. If the velocities are
SCBA provides a protection factor of approximately "10,000". substantially different (non-isokinetic), it can cause size-selective
segregation of particulate matter entering the probe, When the
20) We selected answer A because: stack/stream velocity is lower than the probe velocity, larger particles are
The theoretical basis for passive sampling for both diffusion and not able to tum with the gas flow into the probe nozzle leading to
penneation can be described as derivations of Fick's first law of underestimation of the mass concentration. Likewise, when the stream
diffusion. Charles's Law states "the volume of a gas varies directly with velocity is greater than the probe velocity, exaggerated readings of
the absolute temperature if the pressure is kept constant", Raoult's Law concentration are produced.
applies to the solvent in many liquid systems and states "the vapor
pressure of a volatile solvent in a dilute solution is proportional to its 24) We selected answer A because:
mole fraction". Henry's Law applies to a solute in a dilute solution and Exclusive Remedy: State workers' compensation statutes gave
states "the gas phase concentration of the material is proportional to its employees a definite remedy for injuries and diseases arising out of or
mole fraction in the solution". suffered in the course of their employment. In exchange fora definite
recovery, the workers' compensation remedy is exclusive, that is, with
The effectiveness of diffusion as a deposition mechanism is indirectly just a few exceptions, a worker's right of recovery against the employer is
related to the square of the particle diameter and directly to the velocity limited to the benefits provided by the workers' compensation law. The
of the aerosol. employee may not sue in tort.

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A legal doctrine that an employer who is normally immune from tort 26) We selected answer A because:
actions by employees because of workers' compensation laws may be
held liable for additional damages as a party who has committed a An effectiveness evaluation is defined as "a determination of the extent
wrongful or negligent act beyond its role as employer. Example: An to which program operations have contributed to achieving an objective
employee of an aerosol shaving cream manufacturer is injured by an related to accident or injury reduction. It involves (a) determining the
exploding can while handling stock. The manufacturer is liable to the change achieved in accident or injury involvement, (b) relating program
employee under workers' compensation laws, but it may also be held operations to the achieved change and (c) relating the program cost to the
responsible for manufacturing a defective can. The employee then may benefit derived from what the program accomplished.
choose to bring a civil suit, where the potential recovery is greater than
the statutory remedy of workers' compensation. 27) We selected answer C because:
In the NSC Accident Prevention Manual for Business and Industry:
;t.
Special Damages: Special damages are one actually sustained, rather Administration and Programs. 121h Edition, the jobs selected for job
than implied by law. They are either added to general damages arising safety analyses should not be selected at random. The order of analysis
from an act injurious in itself; such as when some particular loss arises should be guided by the following factors.
from the uttering of slanderous words, actionable in themselves; or are • Frequency of incidents
such as arise from an act not actionable in itself, but injurious only in its • Rate of disabling injuries
consequences; such as when the words become actionable only by reason • Severity potential
of special damage ensuing. To constitute special damage, the legal and
• New jobs
natural consequence must arise from the tort - not from a mere wrongful
act of a third person or a remote consequence. 28) We selected answer B because:
25) We selected answer C because: As described in Root Cause Analysis Handbook, An Effective Guide to
Incident Investigation. 2005 Edition, management system problems are
In product safety work Privity is defined as "A direct relationship unifying characteristics of root causes of incidents. Human errors and
between the injured party and the party whose negligence caused an equipment malfunction; are example of causal factors driving root
accident". Early English law held that there could be no negligence causes.
without privity. However, this rule was broken in the U.S. in the early
1900s when Judge Benjamin Cardozo ruled that an automobile 29) We selected answer D because:
manufacturer was liable for an injury accident involving a failed wheel.
The automobile manufacturer based its defense on the privity rule. The To be a valid contract, all requirements outlined in the offer must be
company had sold the car to a dealer, had no contract with the injured completed.
party, and was therefore not liable to the plaintiff. The dealer was not
liable since he had not built the car. The ruling however indicated that
the car manufacturer had a duty to inspect the product sold for defects,
anything less was negligence.

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30)
We selected answer B because: 33) We selected answer D because:
A manufacturer or distributor would not have to label a large blade This is a European marking that states the electrical equipment shall be­
hunting knife because the product involves an obvious peril, sometimes (a) safe; (b) constructed in accordance with principles generally
called an obvious hazard that is well known to the public. accepted within the member States as constituting good engineering
practice in relation to safety matters and in particular shall be designed
The term Res ipsa loquitur (the thing speaks for itself) is involved in and constructed to ensure that it is safe when connected to the electricity
accidents where the damage producing agent was under the sole control supply system by providing a level of protection against electric shock
of the defendant and the accident would not have happened if the which relies on a combination of insulation and the protective earthing
defendant would have exercised proper control. conductor contained within the electricity supply system or which
Foreseeability involves the liability for actions that a normal person achieves that level of protection by other means; and (c) in conformity
would have known to exist and would have taken precautions to prevent. with the principal elements of the safety objectives for electrical
.• equipment.
Tort is a wrongful act or a failure to exercise due care that results in
damage or injury in the broadest sense. Similar to the UL and FM listing in the United States, the CE marking is
used on many types or products offered for sale in the European Union
31) We selected answer B because: and indicates that that the product conforms to established safety and
Strict liability is the concept whereby the plaintiff need not show health standards though in the European Union. The implication is that
these standards are government-adopted.
negligence or fault to prove liability.

Negligence is the failure to exercise a reasonable amount of care or to 34) We selected answer B because:
carry out a legal duty so that injury or property damage occurs to another.
An example would be you were a landlord and did not provide adequate According to author Dev Raheja in Assurance Technologies, Fault tree
security and the renter was robbed. analysis is a commonly used method for assessing system availability. A
system is analyzed in the context of its work environment and actual
We selected answer C because: operation to find all credible ways in which the system can fail.
32)
DOT regulations require physical examination of any driver who has not 35) We selected answer C because:
been medically examined and certified as physically qualified to operate
a commercial motor vehicle during the preceding 24 months. Any driver
authorized to operate a commercial motor vehicle only within an exempt
intracity zone must be medically examined every 12 months.
Additionally, a driver may be required to be physically examined if
hislher ability to perform their normal duties has been impaired by a
physical or mental injury or disease. (Reference 49 CFR Part 391.43 &
FLO~
391.45)
TP

TP=VP+SP or VP=TP-SP
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36) We selected answer D because: 39) We selected answer A because:


Probability is the number of fork truck accidents divided by the number
A Poisson distribution is useful when an occurrence can occur more than
of total accidents.
once, for example, industrial accident experience over a period of time
3 where a worker may have more than one accident in a year or where the
p= =0.06=6% same type of accident may occur over and over.
50
40) We selected answer C because:
37) We selected answer D because:
There is a 16% chance of being less than 7 or more than 13.
The fonnula Q = (DA)t(Ce - Co)/L has the following units.

Q =mass uptake (g) 10


... -
D = coefficient of diffusion (cm2/sec)
X
A = cross-sectional area of diffusion path (cm2)

t = sampling time (sec)

Ce = external concentration being sampled (g/cm3)

Co = concentration at the interface of the sorbent (g/cm3)

L =length of diffusion path (cm)

38) We selected answer B because:


According to the EPA dictionary ­
Flocculation: Process by which clumps of solids in water or sewage
aggregate through biological or chemical action so they can be separated 41) We selected answer C because:
from water or sewage.
This is the description of a hazard and operability study, commonly
called a HAZOP study. When conducting a HAZOP, subject matter
Dewater: 1. Remove or separate a portion of the water in a sludge or
experts familiar with the process being studied are essential. A process
slurry to dry the sludge so it can be handled and disposed of. 2. Remove
hazard analysis leader familiar with the analytical method is important,
or drain the water from a tank or trench.
but it is not essential for the study leader to be familiar with the process
being studied.
Neutralization: Decreasing the acidity or alkalinity of a substance by
adding alkaline or acidic materials, respectively. 42) We selected answer A because:
Disinfections: A chemical or physical process that kills pathogenic The Property Loss Prevention Data Sheet is issued by Factory Mutual
organisms in water, air, or on surfaces. Chlorine is often used to disinfect Engineering Corporation (www.faetorymutual.com).
sewage treatment effluent, water supplies, wells, and swimming pools.

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43) We selected answer B because: 46) We selected answer D because:


The Swinging Vane Anemometer or Velometer would be the instrument Multiplexing is defined as the transmission of multiple signals over a
of choice where the exhaust opening is large and the air velocities are single transmission path (eg: data and voice at the same time). There are two
low as in spray booths or chemical hoods. The rotating vane anemometer primary types of multiplexing, frequency division and time division.
is useful for measuring the airflow through large supply and exhaust
openings where the air velocities are relatively high. In the calibration of Frequency division multiplexing is achieved by dividing the channel
airflow instruments, a spirometer is considered a primary standard. bandwidth into bands and allocating a band to each system, requiring the use
of the channel for the transmission of its' signals. This allows multiple
44) We selected answer D because: signals at the same time.

Loss reduction means any action which reduces the losses incurred. In a Time Division Multiplex system the information is discrete in time,
The reduction may be by decrease of the physical destruction (as by therefore, transmission scheme can provide rest periods between
• reducing the amount of material burned or the number of persons injured) transmissions. This form of multiplexing provides a simpler and cheaper
or by reducing the operational loss from a given amount of destruction form of multiplexing than frequency division multiplexing, however it only
(as having standby equipment or more effective medical care for the accesses one device at a time.
injured). It includes the concepts of loss prevention and control as well
as the concept of risk avoidance-the refusal to accept a given risk. 47) We selected answer A because:
Planning actions are not generally considered part of loss reduction. The According to Willie Hammer in "Product Safety Management and
four steps required in an effective loss control program are problem Engineering", management responsibilities throughout the process is the
identification, selection of corrective measures, implementation and most important, however during the design phase, the designers are the
feedback and control.
most important in producing a safe product.
45) We selected answer D because:
48) We selected answer A because:
As the name implies the Venturi-type is the correct answer. The According to the NSC Accident Prevention Manual for Business and
questions on the CSP examinations about the various wet collector Industry: Since chromium is used in all stainless steel alloys, welding
systems are usually not this friendly and require you to understand the stainless steel can cause fumes of trivalent or hexavalent form of
difference between at least seven types of wet collectors systems chromium to be released into the Wielder's breathing zone.
commonly employed in industry today. We suggest a good review of
this subject in the National Safety Council's Fundamentals of Industrial 49) We selected answer D because:
Hygiene. One of the oldest methods of spray cleaning is spray chambers
which result in a pressure drop of about 2.5 to 6 in. wg. Packed towers The definition of correlation is a statistical technique that measures the
are used by the chemical industry for gas absorption and sometimes for degree of relationship between two variables. It measures the tendency
toxic dusts. They have a pressure drop of only 1.5 to 3.5 in. wg. Wet of one set of data to vary with another set of data. It does not imply a
centrifugals use a combination of centrifugal force and water contact to casual relationship between variables. Two sets of data that has no
capture dust particles. Pressure drop is in the area of 2.5 to 6 in. wg. variation is said to have perfect correlation.
Another type of wet collector is the Orifice type, that has a pressure drop
from 1 to 20 in wg.
I

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50) We selected answer A because: 51) We selected answer D because:


Polychlorinated biphenyl (PCBs) are found in certain electrical devices According to the "Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene" the initial hazard
such as transformers, capacitors, fluorescent light ballasts, etc. as well as recognition process, includes the following are questions; what are the
in heat transfer enclosures and investment casting waxes in foundries. In raw materials?; what is produced?; what intermediate products are
1978, the EPA under TSCA banned the use of PCBs in light ballasts, formed in the process?; what by-products may be released?; what are the
transformers and capacitors however it is still possible to find equipment usual cleaning or maintenance procedures at the end of the day, end of a
containing PCBs. PCBs and PCB Items in service or projected for run or changeover to another product?; and what hazardous waste is
disposal: The written annual document log must be prepared for each produced and how is it disposed of?
facility by July 1 covering the previous calendar year (January through
December). 52) We selected answer A because:
(1) The annual records shall include the following:
According to the Fire Protection Handbook, the most important property
... (i) All signed manifests generated by the facility during the
,." is the heat capacity of a gas .
calendar year.
(ii) All Certificates of Disposal that have been received by the
53) We selected answer B because:
facility during the calendar year.
(iii) Records of inspections and cleanups performed in accordance According to the NSC Fundamentals ofIndustrial Hygiene, 5th Edition,
with Sec. 761.65(c)(5). Hydrogen sulfide is an interference agent with carbon monoxide sensors.
(2) The written annual document log shall include the following: In addition, Carbon monoxide is an unusual constituent in the
(i) The name, address, and EPA identification number of the atmospheres of sanitary sewers. Given the sudden reading of a large
facility covered by the annual document log and the calendar year (lethal) concentration of an unlikely component in a sanitary sewer, and
covered by the annual document log. given that the presence of hydrogen sulfide is likely, the most probable
(iii) The total number by specific type of PCB Articles and the explanation is that the hydrogen sulfide reading is correct and is causing
total weight in kilograms of PCBs in PCB Articles, the total an interference effect on the carbon monoxide sensor.
number of PCB Article Containers and total weight in kilograms of
the contents of PCB Article Containers, the total number of PCB 54) We selected answer C because:
Containers and the total weight in kilograms of the contents of
PCB Containers, and the total weight in kilograms of bulk PCB The coefficient of variation (CV)
waste that was placed into storage for disposal or disposed during CV=~
is a dimensionless number x
the calendar year. obtained by dividing the standard
(iv) The total number of PCB Transformers and total weight in deviation by the mean. The CV
kilograms of PCBs contained in the transformers remaining in allows comparisons to be made WHERE (J = Standard Deviation
service at the end of the calendar year. between different distributions. x = Mean
(v) The total number of Large High or Low Voltage PCB
Capacitors remaining in service at the end of the calendar year.

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55) We selected answer C because:


59) We selected answer A because:
When a programmer changes your information, he writes computer code
As a link in the Chain of Custody, that is a person with a duty to preserve
in a given programming language. There are literally hundreds if not
and protect evidence or someone with a vested interest in the outcome of
thousands of programming languages. Some of the examples of widely
the accident investigation, it is essential that from the moment the event
used computer programming languages are Visual Basic, C++, C, Java,
occurs you identify, track and log movement of your evidence. An
ADA, Pascal, COBOL.
example of Chain of Custody would be taking photos, printing photos,
making notes describing the angles that the photo were taken, lighting,
56) We selected answer D because:
dateltime, and any other information that could be helpful later in the
Based on the statement in the question that there were no changes in
process.
plant operations we feel the best course of action would be to stop

60) We selected answer B because:


....
monitoring and recalibrate the instrumentation. The reading of 65 ppm is

.AI"
not life threatening (the IDLH is 1200 ppm) and recalibration should be A bench mark is defined as a standard or point of reference used for
able to be accomplished in fresh air in a very short time. measuring or judging quality, value, efficiency, etc. Bench marking
takes into consideration what is the standard for the industry and
If hydrogen sulfide was present, since it is an interference agent with compares the current status of your company in relation to reference
carbon monoxide sensors, it would cause the CO readings to be incorrect. point or data. Trend analysis is the process of examining past
performance for trends and then using these trends, or tendencies to make
57) We selected answer D because: a prediction of what will take place under certain circumstances (e.g.;
As referenced in by the Center for Chemical Process Safety Guidelines changes, modifications, presumed improvements).
for Hazard Evaluation Procedures, 2nd Edition, subject matter experts
familiar with the process and sections of the process being studied are
61) We selected answer C because:
essential. A process hazard analysis leader familiar with the analytical In the book Safety Culture and Effective Safety Management, author

method is important, but it is not essential for the study leader to be Swartz explains that before collecting data and developing a system to

personally familiar with the actual process being studied. collect and manipulate the data, it is essential to define how the data will

be used.

58) We selected answer C because:


Accident investigation has as its primary purpose the prevention of similar 62) We selected answer D because:
occurrences and the discovery of hazards. The intent is not to place blame Search Engine: It is software that searches the internet for specific words
or administer discipline, but rather to determine how responsibilities may or word strings. There are many different search engines. A remotely
be defined or clarified and to reduce error producing situations. Accident accessible program that lets you do keyword searches for information on
investigation should improve the safety of operations, if accident the Internet. There are several types of search engine; the search may
investigation is used for punitive measures, the tool has the reverse effect. cover titles of documents, URLs, headers, or the full text.
Management system problems are unifying characteristics of root causes
of incidents or accidents. Human errors and equipment malfunctions are Browser: The software that is used to surf the net. Most common
the causal factors from which the root causes are derived. browsers are Netscape Communicator and Internet Explorer called IE. It
is a program which allows a person to read hypertext. The browser gives

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some means of viewing the contents of nodes (or "pages") and of 64) We selected answer D because:

navigating from one node to another. Netscape Navigator, NCSA The first step you must always take when collecting date is to determine

Mosaic, Lynx, and W3 are examples for !:>rowsers for the World-Wide the use of the data and restrict it to only that use.

Web. They act as clients to remote web servers.


65) We selected answer C because:

63) We selected answer D because:


The exercise of reasonable care in the handling and preservation of a
An extra net is a private network that uses internet protocols, network product in their possession so that it will not later cause injury to a user is
connectivity, and possibly the public telecommunication system to the definition of "Responsibility for Handling".
securely share part of a business's information or operations with A person may be held liable for actions that result in injury or damage
suppliers, vendors, partners, customers or other businesses. An only when he was able to foresee dangers and risks that could be
extranet can be viewed as part of a company's intranet that is extended to reasonably anticipated is the definition of "Foreseeability".
,. users outside the company (eg: normally over the Internet). It has also A wrongful act, or failure to exercise due care, for which civil legal
been described as a "state of mind" in which the Internet is perceived as a action can result is the definition of TORT.
way to do business with other companies as well as to sell products to
customers. An extranet requires security and privacy. These can include The concept that a producer of a product is liable for injuries due to
Ii-!'
l: firewalls, server management, the issuance and use of digital certificates defects, without the necessity for plaintiff to show negligence or fault is
'~If

or similar means of user authentication, encryption of messages, and the known as "Strict Liability".
use of virtual private networks (VPNs) that tunnel through the public
network. 66) We selected answer A because:
The most common computer networks are peer-to-peer and client/server. You must always base your findings and recommendations on facts, that
Peer-to-peer networks are generally described as having three to five means that your first action should always be to survey the situation and
users (more than that can be confusing), they can share printers, scanners collect the facts that may impact the situation.
and fax machines and generally the workstations have the same
capabilities. Intemets, intranets and extranets were created to permit 67) We selected answer C because:
communications among a variety of users and all systems are built using The sampling instrument is at or near its capabilities and its
TCPIIP protocols, the domain name system and Internet Protocol measurements are suspect at best. The device has detected some level of
addresses are the same on all systems and web browsers and e-mail can the contaminant, however using this information to perform any valid
be used on all of these systems. statistical analysis is not possible. The only real conclusion is that there
is a presence of the contaminant and that it is at or below the detection
Local Area Networks (LANs) are a common means of making limits of the device.
information available to multiple users. They consist of a network
operating system that is specifically designed for transmitting data, 68) We selected answer A because:
communication links are both software and hardware designed to SQL is the abbreviation for Structured Query Language. It is a
facilitate data transfer and ethernet is a LAN technology. standardized application language for relational databases that is used to
enter data into a database, modify data, delete date and retrieve data.
URL is the abbreviation of Uniform Resource Locator, the global address

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of documents and other resources on the World Wide Web. purification. Adsorption, ion exchange, and chromatography are sorption
HTML stands for Hyper Text Markup Language and is used for web processes in which certain adsorbates are selectively transferred from the
publishing. fluid phase to the surface of insoluble, rigid particles suspended in a
HTTP stands for Hyper Text Transfer Protocol and is a file transfer vessel or packed in a column.
protocol.

NNTP stands for Network News Transfer Protocol and is used to the 70) We selected answer B because:

distribution, inquiry retrieval and posting of news articles.


According to author Dan Peterson in Safety By Objectives, a safety
TCPIIP stands for Transmission Control ProtocollInternet Protocol which
performance benchmark is similar to a goal. A benchmark is based on
is a set of protocols that make Telnet, FTP, e-mail and other services
research conducted on other similar organizations and applied to one's
possible among computers that don't belong to the same network.
own organization.
IP stands for Internet Protocol which is the set of technology standards

..
AI
and technical specifications that enable information to be routed from one

network to another over the internet. 71) We selected answer B because:


The Critical Incident Technique (or CIT) is a set of procedures used
.!I 69) We selected answer A because: for collecting first hand observations of human behavior that have critical
11 significance and meet methodically defined criteria. A critical incident
i~~ Adsorption is the adhesion of atoms, ions, biomolecules or molecules of
can be described as one that makes a significant contribution--either
gas, liquid, or dissolved solids to a surface. This process creates a film of
positively or negatively-to an activity or phenomenon and to understand
the adsorbate (the molecules or atoms being accumulated) on the surface
the relationship between competencies and reasons for accidents. Critical
of the adsorbent. It differs from absorption, in which a fluid permeates or
incidents can be gathered in various ways, but typically respondents are
is dissolved by a liquid or solid. The term sorption encompasses both
asked to tell a story about an experience they have had. Through the use
processes, while desorption is the reverse of adsorption. Similar to
of the critical incident technique one may collect specific and significant
surface tension, adsorption is a consequence of surface energy. In a bulk
behavioral facts, providing a sound basis for making inferences as to
material, all the bonding requirements (be they ionic, covalent, or
requirements for measures of typical performance (criteria), measures of
metallic) of the constituent atoms of the material are filled by other atoms
proficiency (standard samples), training, selection and classification, job
in the material. However, atoms on the surface of the adsorbent are not
design, operating procedures, equipment design, motivation and
wholly surrounded by other adsorbent atoms and therefore can attract
leadership (attitudes), and individual behavior. Critical incidents can be
adsorbates. The exact nature of the bonding depends on the details of the
gathered in various ways, but typically responde~ts are asked to tell a
species involved, but the adsorption process is generally classified as
story about an experience they have had. CIT is a flexible method that
physisorption (characteristic of weak van der Waals forces) or usually relies on five major areas. The first is determining and reviewing
chemisorption (characteristic of covalent bonding). It may also occur due
the incident, then fact-finding, which involves collecting the details of the
to electrostatic attraction. Adsorption is present in many natural physical, incident from the participants. When all of the facts are collected, the
biological, and chemical systems, and is widely used in industrial next step is to identify the issues. Afterwards a decision can be made on
applications such as activated charcoal, capturing and using waste heat to
how to resolve the issues based on various possible solutions. The final
provide cold water for air conditioning and other process requirements and most important aspect is the evaluation, which will determine if the
(adsorption chillers), synthetic resins, increase storage capacity of solution that was selected will solve the root cause of the situation and
carbide-derived carbons for tunable nanoporous carbon, and water will cause no further problems.

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72) We selected answer D because: Notes


The most effective way is to post all Material Safety Data Sheets is by
use of the company local area network (LAN) and a data base program.
This allows updates to be posted when they are received and are available
to all work areas as soon as they are posted.

73) We selected answer C because:


A pocket dosimeter measures a person's accumulated radiation dose. A
pocket dosimeter is frequently used in conjunction with a film badge
; (themoluminescent dosimetry badge).

74) We selected answer D because:


.Ij When evaluating Boolean Logic and applications, the sign + is read "or"
:~ ie; A + B becomes A or B. The sign "." is read "and" thus, A . B is stated A
and B. The "A-bar" symbol is read "not-A".

The expression (A + A). (A + B)= A + B is read:

A or not-A and A or B equals A or B

The expression A x (B + C) (A x B) + (A x C) is also described as a union of


one subset with two others can also be expressed as the union of their
intersections.

75) We selected answer A because:


In the book Root Cause Analysis Handbook, An Effective Guide to
Incident Investigation. Chain of custody procedures for photographs start
with the photographer fully documenting the context, source, and
relevant information related to the photograph.

?"!

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Assessing Environmental Health Safety and Security Risk 23.Fire prevention, protection, and suppression

24.Hazardous materials management

This section of the workbook provides questions and answers similar to those 25.Hazardous waste management

on the Comprehensive Practice examination. The following Responsibilities 26.Healthcare safety (including patient safety)

are found on the examination. There are a maximum of 73 questions from 27.Industrial hygiene

this area on the actual examination. 28.Infectious diseases

29.Insurance/risk transfer principles

Taskl 30.Maritime safety

Evaluate the risk of injury, illness, environmental harm, and property damage to 31.Mining safety

which the public or an organization is exposed associated with the 32.Multi-employer worksite issues

organization's facilities, products, systems, processes, equipment, and 33.Mutual aid agreements

employees by applying quantitative and qualitative threat, vulnerability, and 34.Physical and chemical characteristics of hazardous materials

rtsk assessment techniques. 35.Pressure relief systems

36.Product safety

Knowledge Areas 37.Public safety and security

1. Qualitative, quantitative, deductive, and inductive risk assessment 38.Radiation safety

methods 39.System safety

2. Root cause analysis methods 40.Toxicology


3. Mathematics and statistics 41.Transportation safety and security
4. Basic sciences: anatomy, biology, chemistry, physics, physiology 42. Ventilation systems
5. Applied sciences: fluid flow, mechanics, electricity 43.Workplace violence
I
i
6. Organizational and behavioral sciences
7. Agriculture safety (including food supply safety)
44.Sources of information on risk (e.g., subject matter experts, relevant best
practices, published literature)

8. Biological safety 45.Information security and confidentiality requirements

9. Business continuity and contingency planning


IO.Chemical.process safety Task 2
II.Community emergency planning Audit safety, health, environmental, and security management systems using
I2.Construction safety appropriate auditing techniques to compare an organization's management
I3.Dispersion modeling systems against established standards for identifying the organization's
14. Emergency!crisis/disaster management strengths and weaknesses.
I5.Emergency/crisis/disaster response planning
I6.Environmental protection and pollution prevention Knowledge Areas
I7.Epidemiology 1. Safety, health, and environmental management and audit systems (e.g.,
I8.Equipment safety ANSIIAIHA Z 10, ISO 14000 series, OHSAS 18000 series, ISO 19011,
I9.Ergonomics and human factors U.S. Occupational Safety and Health Administration Voluntary
20.Facility safety Protection Programs)
2I.Facility security and access control 2. Management system auditing techniques
22.Facility siting and layout 3. Benchmarks and performance standards
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4. Methods and techniques for evaluating facilities, products, systems,


Task 3
processes, and equipment
Analyze trends in leading and lagging performance indicators related to safety,
5. Methods and techniques for measurement, sampling, and analysis health, environmental, and security management systems using historical
6. Qualitative, quantitative, deductive, and inductive risk assessment
information and statistical methods to identify an organization's strengths and
methods
weaknesses.
7. Root cause analysis methods
8. Mathematics and statistics Knowledge Areas
9. Basic sciences: anatomy, biology, chemistry, physics, physiology
1. Types of leading and lagging safety, health, environmental, and security
10.Applied sciences: fluid flow, mechanics, electricity
performance indicators
11.0rganizational and behavioral sciences
2. Benchmarks and performance standards
12.Management sciences
3. Safety, health, and environmental management and audit systems (e.g.,
;. 13.Management principles of authority, responsibility, and accountability ANSI!AIHA Z 10, ISO 14000 series, OHSAS 18000 series, ISO 190 11,
/' 14.Budgeting, finance, and economic analysis techniques U.S. Occupational Safety and Health Administration Voluntary
15.Business continuity and contingency planning Protection Programs)
16.Business planning 4. Management system auditing techniques
17.Business software 5. Mathematics and statistics
18.Change management 6. Organizational and behavioral sciences
19.Emergency/crisis/disaster management 7. Management sciences
20.Emergency!crisis/disaster response planning 8. Management principles of authority, responsibility, and accountability
21.Group dynamics 9. Budgeting, finance, arid economic analysis techniques
22.Hazardous materials management 10.Business planning
23.Hazardous waste management II.Business software
24.Job safety analysis and task analysis methods I 2.Change management
25.Multi-employer worksite issues 13.Competencies of other professionals with whom the safety professional
26.Report presentation strategies interacts
27.Competencies of other professionals with whom the safety professional 14.Training assessment instruments (e.g., written tests, skill assessments)
interacts
28.Sources of information on hazards, threats, and vulnerabilities (e.g.,
subject matter experts, relevant best practices, published literature)
29.Information security and confidentiality requirements
30.Intemet resources

:&....­

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Notes Assessing Environmental Health Safety and Security Risk $$Questions"

1) Given a 2 rope sling supporting 20,000 pounds, what is the tension on the
left sling? Sling angle to load is 60 degrees.
A.) 12,333 pounds
B.) 8,754 pounds
C.) 9,967 pounds
D.) 11,547 pounds

2) A 180 pound worker equipped with a fall arrest system slips and falls 6 j
feet. The total arresting force placed on the restraining anchor fixture is 1
900 pounds. How many additional "G" forces did this worker I
. experience?
l

A.) 1
B.) 2 1
C.) 4 1
D.) 14

3) Determine the required pressure for a fire protection sprinkler with a "K"
factor of 5.6, protecting 120 ft2 with a density of 0.22 gpm per ft2.

r
Hint

p; (~
A.) at least 7 psi
B.) 22.2 psi
C.) 33.3 psi
D.) 11.1 psi

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4) What size of cast-iron underground pipe should be specified to limit


7) A sprinkler system is designed with the pipes 9 feet apart and the
friction loss to a maximum of 0.04 psi per foot when delivering 4,000
sprinkler heads every 9 feet along each pipe. All sprinkler heads are the
gpm? You may assume a C factor of 100 for unlined pipe. Inside
same. If the k factor is 5.2 and each head requires 12.6 psi to operate,
diameter is 102.4% of indicated size.
what is the density requirement for the last sprinkler head?
2
Hint A.) .057 gpmlft
2
4.52 x QL85
B.) .228 gpmlft
Pd=---=-­ C.) .810 gpmlft
2
CL85 X D 4.87
2
D.) .202 gpmlft
A.) 8 inch
B.) 10 inch
C.) 12 inch
The following tables were extracted from 1926 Subpart P Appendix C and
.:: D.) 14 inch
are to be used for the following 3 questions•
.... Table C-l.l
Timber Trenching Shoring- Minimum Timber Requirements*
5) During hydraulic design of automatic sprinkler systems, NFPA 13 Soil Tvoe A P,.- =25 x H + 72 psf (2 ft Surcharge)
requires calculation of minimum allowable pressure and flows for fire Size (actual) and spacing of members**
sprinkler systems. Calculations are based on piping size, length, --~

Cross braces Wales Uprights


coefficient of roughness and a sprinkler discharge coefficient "K" which Depth
of Maximum allowable Horizontal
is dependent upon the brand and model of sprinklers that are to be used. Width of trench (feel) Venical Vertical
spacing
Trench Horiz. Size
Determine the required pressure for the first sprinkler (most hydraulically -­ Spacing Spacing
(feet) Spacing (in.)
Up Up Up Up Up to (feet) (feet)
remote) in the system described below. (feet)
t04 t06 109 to 12 15
Dose 4 5 6 8

2 x
"The fire protection sprinkler system is made from Schedule 40 black Upt06 4x4 4x4 4x6 6x6 6x6 4 NR -­ 6
piping ranging from three inch to 1 inch (id= 1.049) at the most remote UptoS 4x4 4x4 4x6 6x6 6x6 4 NR - 2x6
heads. The pipe has a "c" factor of 120 and 12 feet of equivalent length 5 Up to
4x6 4x6 4x6 6x6 6x6 4 SxS 4 2x6
2 to 10 --­
between each sprinkler. Density is assigned at 0.178 gpm per ft for an IO
c----­
Up to 2 x
Ordinary Hazard, Group 2 occupancy with each sprinkler protecting 120 4x6 4x6 6x6 6x6 6x6 4 SxS 4
12 6
ft2 and a typical "K" factor of 5.8." Upt06 4x4 4x4 4x6 6x6 6x6 4 NR -­ 3 x
S
A.) at least 7 psi

UptoS 4x4 4x4 4x6 6x6 6x6 4 SxS 4 2x6


B.) . 13.6 psi
10 Up to
4x6 4x6 6x6 6x6 6x6 4 Sx IO 4 2x6
C.) 16.3 psi
to 10
15 Up to 10 x
D.) 8.8 psi
6x6 6x6 6x6 6xS 6xS 4 4 2x S
12 10
UJ>..t06 6x6 6x6 6x6 6xS 6xS 4 6xS 4 3x6
6) Using the information from the preceding question, determine the friction UptoS 6x6 6x6 6x6 6xS 6xS 4 8x8 4 3x6
loss and flow for the second sprinkler. 15
Up to
8x8 8x8 Sx8 8x8 8xlO 4 8x 10 4 3x6
10
to
A.) 15.38 psi and 22.75 gpm
20 Up 10
Sx8 8x8 8:xS 8x8 8xlO 4
IO x
4 3x6
12 10
B.) 16.3 psi and 23.95 gpm
I

_Overl!L See Note 1 -­


i
C.) 11.2 psi and 33.6 gpm
* Mixed oak or equivalent with a bending strength not less than 850 pSI
D.) 9.4 psi and 12.6 gpm
** Manufactured members of equivalent strength may be substituted for wood.

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Table C-l.3 8) You need to select shoring material for a trench in Type C soil that is 13

Timber Trenching Shoring- Minimum Timber Requirements*


feet deep and 5 feet wide. The cross braces will be spaced at 6 feet

Soil Tvoe C Pa == 80 x H + 72 psf (2 ft Surcharge)


horizontally and 5 feet vertically, what size of timber is required?

Size (actual) and spacing of members**


Cross braces Wales
A.) 4x4

Uprights
B.) 8x8

Maximum
Depth C.) 8 x 10

Width of trench (feet) allowable


of
Trench Horiz.
Vertical
Size
Vertical Horizontal spacing D.) 10 x 10

Spacing Spacing (feel) See Note 2


(feet) Spacing (in.)
Up Up (feet) (feet)
(feet) Up Up Up 9) You need to select shoring material for a trench in Type A soil that is 17

to to Close
t04 to 6 t09
15 12 feet deep and 8 feet wide. The cross braces will be spaced at 10 feet

8 x horizontally and 4 feet vertically, what size of timber is required?

..." . Upt06 6x8 6x8 6x8 8x8


8
5 8xlO 5 2x6

Up to 8 8x8 8x8 8x8 8x8


8x lOx A.) 4 x4

5 5 2x6
10 12 B.) 6x6

5 10
to
Up to
8xlO 8xlO 8xlO 8xlO x
12 x C.) 8x8

5 5 2x6
:!i 10 12 D.) 8 x 10

:1» 10 10
:; See
Note 1 10) You need to select shoring material for a trench in Type C soil that is 25

8 x lOx feet deep and 5 feet wide. The cross braces will be spaced at 4 feet

Upt06 8x8 8x8 8x8 8x8 5 5 2x6


10 12
10 horizontally ahd 5 feet vertically, what size of timber is required?

12 x
Upt08 8xlO 8xlO 8xlO 8xlO x 5 5 2x6
12 A.) 8 x 10

10 10
to See B.) 10 x 10

15 Note 1 C.) Design by a registered CSP

See D.) Design by a registered professional engineer

Note 1
10
Upt06 8xlO 8xlO 8xlO 8xlO x 5
12 x
5 3x6 For the following 4 questions, refer to the following information:
12
10
See There are two tank farms on your plant. Tank farm number one contains one

15 Note 1
fuel storage tank 132 feet in diameter and 42 feet high. This tank farm has no

to See
20 Note 1 diking. Tank farm number two is completely diked and contains four fuel

See storage tanks. Tank number one is 100 feet in diameter and 35 feet high. Tank

Note 1 ,- 2 and 3 are 50 feet in diameter and 15 feet high. Tank number four is 40 feet in

Over diameter and 15 feet high. The area enclosed by the diking is 220 feet by 330

See Note 1
20
* Mixed oak or equivalent with a bending strength not less than 850 pSI. feet.

* Mixed oak or equivalent with a bending strength not less than 850 psi
** Manufactured members of equivalent strength may be substituted for wood.

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11) What is the capacity of the fuel tank located in tank fann number one?
15) A welding shop exhaust has some stationary ductwork that has a 12 inch
A.) 4,300,000 gallons
by 12 inch flanged exhaust duct opening that is fed by a 6 inch circular
B.) 200,000 barrels
duct. If the velocity of airflow measured at the face of the flanged
C.) 3,400,000 gallons
opening is 600 fpm, the velocity of air flowing in the duct is most nearly?
D.) 575,000 gallons
A.) 1,600 fpm

B.) 4,000 fpm

12) What is the required dike capacity for the storage tank located in tank C.) 2,000 fpm

fann number one? D.) 3,000 fpm

A.) 500,000 cu ft

B.) 575,000 cu ft
16) Your company has purchased a machine that is belt driven. The machine
C.) 600,000 cu ft
may present a serious hazard if the belt is not guarded. The following
" D.) 750,000 cu ft
four situations could contribute to an accident or injury. Which Boolean
expression could result in an injury to the operator?
13) Engineering has proposed a new dike for tank fann number one that is A=The belt guard is not in place
425 feet on each side and 3 feet high. Assuming that this dike meets all B=The belt breaks
the other distance requirements is it acceptable?
C-The belt is broken by an outside source
A.) NO, it is short on capacity by 250,000 gallons D=The belt guard will protect the operator
B.) YES, more than adequate
C.) NO, it is short on capacity by 25,000 gallons A.) . BD+CD

D.) YES, by a safety factor of 2 B.) AB+AC

C.) CD+BD

Note: The following information is extracted from NFPA 30 for your D.) (A+B)D+BC

information in performing the calculation for the following question.


17) A flammable liquid with a flash point of 50° F and a boiling point of 110°
"the capacity of a diked area enclosing more than one tank shall be F would be classified by the NFPA as a:
calculated after deducting the volume of the tanks, other than the largest tank, A.) Class I liquid
below the height of the dike". B.) Class IA liquid
C.) Class IB liquid
14) What is the required height for the dike enclosing tank fann number two? D.) Class II liquid
Assume no slope on dike walls.
A.) 3.9 feet

B.) 4 feet

C.) 4.1 feet

D.) 5.1 feet

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18) The reliability department has determined that the MTBF (Mean Time 21) During a flow test on a fire supply water system, determining the number
Between Failure) for a computer disk drive is 95,000 hours. What is the of hydrants to flow is important. Most often it is advisable to obtain a
probability that the disk drive will experience at least one failure in the 25% drop from static to residual pressure. Some insurance carriers
first 10 years of operation (87,000 hrs)? recommend a minimum of 15 psi differential. During one water system
A.) 60 % test the flow at 800 gpm reduced the pressure from a no-flow reading of
B.) 40 % 95 psi to 45 psi (a 50 psi drop). Without the use of special hydraulic
C.) 75 % graph paper, what is the approximate pressure with a flow of 400 gpm?
D.) 25 % A.) 12.5 psi
B.) 25 psi
19) Using the information provided in the illustration below, calculate the C.) 70 psi

flow in the duct at point "C".


D.) 82.5 psi

. A.) 2003 cfm A C

B.) 3500 cfm


VP =0.25 22) A 4 foot by 8 foot panel, the top of which is located, 18 foot below the
C.) 1750 cfm 12 inch water line on a dam wall is subject to how much force? (Assume the
D.) 2250 cfm panel is oriented with the long side horizontal).
!!I,c B
6 inch A.) 60,000 lbs
VP=0.05 B.) 50,000 lbs
C.) 40,000 lbs
D.) 30,0001bs
20) During a flow test on a fire supply water system the flow at 5,700 gpm
has dropped the pressure from 70 psi to 36 psi. What is the maximum 23) Your company is installing a new machine in your work area. Part of the
flow available from this system? Note: Maximum flow is achieved at 20 machine consists of two rollers rotating inward, creating a pinch point.
psi residual. What is the best way to protect employees from this hazard?
Hint A.) Install a fixed guard
B.) Install a removable guard
Q = QJ
2
[(S-
(S-
R2 )0.54 ]
R.)O.54
C.) Position the rollers far enough away so that employees
cannot reach them.
D.) Install hand restraints
A.) 5000 gpm

B.) 6000 gpm

C.) 7000 gpm

D.) 8000 gpm

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24) To assess a company's loss control perfonnance, several Key 28) One method of controlling noise is by the use of enclosures. Enclosures
Perfonnance indicators (KPI) are captured and analyzed. One of these is are designed to:
"Number of lost time cases experienced during the past year." This A.) isolate the individual from the noise source
measurement is an example of a: B.) reduce the noise level at the source
A.) Leading indicator
C.) reduce the internal sound pressure build up
B.) Lagging indicator
D.) increase the distance between to source and the receiver
C.) Optional indicator

D.) Occupational indicator


29) If you assume scientific STP, what is the mass of chlorine contained in a
cylinder that has a volume of 1000 cubic feet at 84 psi?
25) The Loss Ratio is defined as: A.) 6561bm

A.) 0.5 LosseslPremium B.) 1,130 Ibm

• B.) LosseS/«Experience Modification) (100» C.) 454lbm

C.) Losses/( (Manual Premium)(Experience Modification» D.) 565lbm

D.) Manual Premiuml«Losses) (100»


30) Assuming complete evaporation and no air change, does the
26) In conducting a safety and health audit you ask for workers' concentration created by the following conditions exceed the LEL? A
compensation cost data and find the location's experience modification leak in a pressurized piping system sprays 5 gallons of Ethyl alcohol in a
rate to be 0.55. How would you rate the location's safety and health room that is 15 feet by 15 feet by 8 feet. The molecular weight of Ethyl
perfonnance with respect to this measure? alcohol is 46 and the SO is 0.6. LEL is 3.3%.
A.) Excellent
A.) Yes, more than 3 times the LEL

B.) Good
B.) No, 50% of the LEL

C.) Fair
C.) No, 25% of the LEL

D.) Poor
D.) Yes, 10% over LEL

27) Whenever hazardous waste is being poured, mixed, spread, or othelWise 31) A large walk-in freezer has been leaking 60 cubic feet a day of gaseous
handled, all personnel involved in the operation must have immediate Freon 12. What is the dilution volume required to reach the TLV of 120
access to an internal alarm or emergency communication device. 'The ppm?
system must do all the following except. A.) 3,500 cfm

A.) All operations must cease B.) 350 cfm

B.) All employees must be notified by the alarm system C.) 690 cfm

C.) The system must be identified in the evacuation plan D.) 1,800 cfm

D.) The system must provide for a method of summoning


emergency equipment and personnel

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32) The vapor from a process tank is being generated at 1.2 cfm. The process 35) When using the formula S == 6 CiEf for gamma emitters, depicted on the
is located in a large room that measures 110 feet by 100 feet by 10 feet. BCSP formula sheet as S== 6CE, ensure that you understand the
Due to a broken fan, the dilution ventilation for this process has been differences between the formulas. What radiation reading would result
reduced to 2,000 cfm. What will the concentration be in the room, after from a unshielded 5 millicurie source of cesium-137 at a distance of one
the process has operated for 5 minutes, 15 minutes, 25 minutes? foot, given an MEV of .662 and a .9 gamma-radiation per second
A.) 28.4 ppm, 78 ppm, 120 ppm
disintegration?
B.) 809 ppm, 2223 ppm, 3,430 ppm
A.) 17.8 Rlhr/lft

C.) 76 ppm, 208 ppm, 319 ppm


B.) .047 Rlhr/lft

D.) 52 ppm, 143 ppm, 220 ppm


C.) .018 Rlhr/lft

D.) 46.8 mRlhrllft

33) Your company generates toxic hazardous material on one of the upper

floors of your facility and it has to be moved to the first level for 36) If the disintegration constant (k) of radium is 1.36 x 10- ll sec- I , what is the
disposal. The standard recommends that the least hazardous means of half life of radium?
transporting toxic and hazardous materials must always be used. Which
of the following would be considered the least hazardous? -ln l
T= 2

A.) stairway
k

B.) dumbwaiter
A.) 1600 yrs

C.) personnel elevator


B.) 800 yrs

D.) freight elevator


C.) 2200 yrs

D.) 6 months

34) Lighting, radiation and sound are energy sources that follow the inverse
square rule, which states: "The propagation of energy through space is 37) During an industrial inspection an enclosed parts cleaning operation
inversely proportional to the square of the distance it must travel". using a spray gun is observed. The operation results in one half pint of
Accordingly, if a lighting source has a illumination reading of 500 methylene chloride (MW=84.94 and SG= 1.336) being released each
footcandles at 1 foot, what will the illumination be at 8 feet? hour. You measure concentrations of 60 ppm methylene chloride which
is above the TLV of 50 ppm. How much dilution ventilation is required
A.) 4 footcandles
to lower the concentration to half the TLV? You may assume a K factor
B.) 40 footcandles
of 4.
C.) 80 footcandles

D.) 8 footcandles
A.) 50,710 cfm

B.) 25,350 cfm

C.) 8,452 cfm

D.) 4,225 cfm

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38) A generic process of evaluating competing courses of action by 41) The fire department has responded to a blaze that has ignited on the
examining the dollar costs of certain abatement actions versus the dollar surface of a combustible liquid in a large open container located in a
value of the benefits received is called: partially enclosed shed. The temperature in the shed is above 100°C,
A.) Prime cost assessment what hazard is related to the application of conventional fire suppression
B.) Cost analysis foam and should be considered by the fire fighters?
C.) Cost benefit analysis A.) the foam will not work at 100°C or higher
D.) Risk management B.) the high temperature will increase the solubility of the foam
and slow down the foam's ability to smoother the fire
39) Cost factor equals the total compensation and medical costs incurred per C.) foam is not a recommended extinguisher for a combustible
exposure, and is calculated by which of the following? liquid fire
A.) CF = Exposure I cost incurred D.) the application of the foam will form an emulsion of steam,
• air and fuel that may cause an increase in volume and
B.) CF = Cost x exposure
C.) Cost incurred x 1000 I total work-hours subsequent frothing of the burning liquid.
D.) Total work-hours I cost incurred * 100,000
42) Which of the following best describes a supervisor's safety performance
40) ISO 14001 is applicable to any organization that wishes to establish, activity measure?
implement, maintain and improve an environmental management system, A.) Reporting incidents to management
to assure itself of conformity with its stated environmental policy, and to B.) Identifying the financial impacts of losses associated with
demonstrate conformity with ISO 14001 by all the following except: incidents
A.) seeking by declaration that is conformance is adequate C.) Conducting incident investigation on reported incidents
B.) seeking confirmation of its conformance by parties having D.) Performing safe work observations of employees and
an interest in the organization, such as customers discussing the observations with them
C.) seeking confirmation of its self-declaration by a party
external to the organization 43) As described inANSUAIHA ZIO, for an organization's occupational
D.) seeking certification/registration of its environmental health and safety management system to succeed, top management
management system by an external organization. leadership and which of the following are most critical?
A.) Supervisor accountability
B.) Employee participation
C.) OHS written policy
D.) Sustainable safety observation program

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44) When auditing a company's confonnance with ISO 14001 and OHSAS
1800 I management systems, which of the following best provides
The next 3 questions refer to the following information:
minimally acceptable verification that the company is reviewing
RWL=LCxHMxVMxDMxAMxFMxCM
proposed or new legal requirements for applicability to the organization?
A.) A document identifying the date of any review of new or
RWL(lbs) = 51 (~) (1-.00751 V-3D/) (.82+ 1~)(1-(D.0032XA) )(FM)(CM)
proposed legal requirements and a statement detennining
applicability
B.) A certified letter from an attorney stating that the company Where
complies with all legal requirements H= Horizontal distance of hands from midpoint between the ankles
C.) An e-mail from a legal update review service demonstrating V= Vertical distance of the hand from the floor
that new legal requirements are routinely transmitted to the D= Vertical travel distance between origin and destination
• company A= Angle of asymmetry, the angular displacement of the load from the
D.) A signed consultants report outlining the legal requirements sagittal plane in degrees

applicable to the organization F= Average frequency of lift in lifts per minute

45) What characterizes a Class II, Division 2 location (according to the Notes and Modifications:
National Electrical Code)?
H= Must be between 10 and 25 inches
A.) A location where flammable or combustible vapors may be V= Must be between 0 and 70 inches
present in sufficient quantities to be hazardous
V= Is an, absolute value indicating the absolute deviation from 30
B.) A location where combustible dust is nonnally present in
inches ie; if V =36 the absolute value would be 6, likewise if V =
sufficient quantities to be hazardous
24 the absolute value would also be 6.
C.) A location where flammable or combustible vapors are not D= Must be between 10 inches and (70 - V) inches if less than 10
nonnally present, but might be due to abnonnal or periodic inches, D = 10
operations
F= Must be between .2 (one lift every five minutes) and 15 lifts per
D.) A location where combustible dust is not nonnally present minute - duration ranges up to 8 hours
but might be due to abnonnal or periodic operations A= Must be between 00 and 1350 angular displacement

RWL(kg) = 23( ii) (1-.0031 V-75 I) (.82+ ~) (1- (0.OO32xA) )(FM)(CM)

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Coupling Multiplier (CM) 46) The 1991 NIOSH lifting equation is a specialized risk assessment tool. It

r-
has been designed to meet selected lifting related criteria and

--1
Coupling Multiplier
H Coupling Type V < 30 inches
(75 cm)
V ~30 inches
encompasses biomechanical, work physiology and psychophysical
elements in a practical application framework that, if followed, will result
(75 cm)
I :I , Good 1.00 1.00 in a reduced number of work place mishaps. Based on the 1991 NIOSH
Fair 0.95 1.00
lifting formula, what is the Recommended Weight Limit (RWL) for the.
following conditions: Weight to be lifted =20 lbs, Distance between
r- J--,
Poor 0.90 0.90
I body and hand grip on the object to be lifted = 24 inches, Vertical
Frequency Multiplier Table (FM) position at the beginning of the lift = 36 inches, Vertical position at end
I I I

IIW I
I Work Duration of lift = 46 inches, Frequency of lift = once every 5 minutes for eight
I I
Frequency
:51 Hour > 1 but :52 > 2 but :58 hours. Note: Hand coupling is poor and this job requires a twist from the
Lifts/min. Hours Hours
(F)** "eyes front" position of 15°.
V< V~ v< V~ V~
30* 30 30 V<30 A.) 14.81bs

30 30
:5 0.2 1.00 1.00 .95 .95 .85 .85 B.) 16.81bs

D 0.5 .97 .97 .92 .92 .81 .81


C.)
D.)
20lbs

26.81bs

] .94 .94 .88 .88 .75 .75

T 2
3
4
.9]
.88
.84
.91
.88
.84
.84
.79
.72
.84
.79
.72
.65
.55
.45
.65
.55
.45
47) What is the Lifting Index for the conditions cited in the question shown
above?

v
5
6
.80
.75
.80
.75
.60
.50
.60
.50
.35
.27
.35
.27
A.) '0.55

B.) 1.35

C.) 0.82

7 .60 .70 .42 .42 .22 .22


D.) 0.90

8 .52 .60 .35 .35 .18 .18


9 .45 .52 .30 .30 .00 .15 48) What is the RWL given the following conditions: Weight to be lifted =
10 .41 .45 .26 .26 .00 .13 30lbs (13.6 kg), Distance between body and hand grip on the object to be
11 .37 .41 .00 .23 .00 .00 lifted = 18 inches (45 cm), Vertical position at the beginning of the lift =
12 .00 .37 .00 .21 .00 .00 30 inches (75 cm), Vertical position at end of lift = 40 inches (100 cm),
13 .00 .34 .00 .00 .00 .00 Frequency of lift =once every 5 minutes for one hour. Note: Hand
*Values of V are in inches.

** For lifting less frequently than once per 5

]4 .00 .31 .00 .00 .00 .00 coupling is good and this job does not require any twisting movement.
minutes, set F =.2 lifts/minute.
15 .00 .28 .00 .00 .00 .00 A.) 14.0 kg

> 15 .00 .00 .00 .00 JOO .00 B.) 12.1 kg

C.) 13.6 kg

RWL = 51 O~) (1- .00751 V - 30 f) (.82 + It) (1- (0.0032 X A) ) (PM) (CM) D.) 12.8 kg

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49) According to OHSAS 1800 1, a successful management system should be Five


based on all the following except? Total LWDs LWD Cases Days Days of
Year I Recordable Columns Away Restricted , Hours
A.) A generic occupational health and safety policy Columns H& I from Work Activity
B.) Identification of occupational health and safety risks and G, H, I, J Work

legal requirements. 92 I 1932 I 67 I 1565 I 367 I 1,398,765

2 I 88 I 2002 I 81 I 1622 I 380 I 1,456,732

C.) Objectives, targets, and programs that ensure continual 3 I 119 I 1821 I 98 I 1384 I 137 I 1,129,565

improvements. 4 I 118 J 1754 I 90 I 1316 I 438 I 1,623,451

D.) Management activities that control the occupational health 5 I 122 I J234 I 98 I 740 I 494 I 1,834,225

and safety risks. 53) Given the information in the accident information chart shown above,
determine the DART rate for year 4.
50} The ratio of the risk exposure to the project cost is called: A.) 2.16

"
A.) Cost ratio B.) 27.6

B.) Loss ratio C.) 11.1

C.) Risk exposure ratio D.) 9.01

D.) Risk ratio


54) Determine the recordable accident rate for the last three years shown in
51) A company decides to reflect the worker's compensation losses against the chart used in the preceding question.
the profit function and to determine how many units must be sold to A.) ,15.7

offset these costs. Indirect costs are five times direct costs and there is a B.) 11.8

profit margin of 15% on each unit sold and the worker's compensation C.) 31.4

for the last year were $90,000. What is the volume in sales needed to D.) 2.76

offset the worker's compensation losses, when the losses are treated as
production costs? 55) Determine the cumulative DART incident rate for the 5 years shown in
A.) $ 600,000 the chart used in the preceding question.
B.) $ 3,000,000 E.) 27.7

C.) $ 3,600,000 F.) 2.76

D.) $30,000,000 G.) 10.9

H.) 11.7

52) A steel manufacturing plant with a $1,100,000 payroll sustains workers·


compensation losses of $90,000 in cy 1997. The experience modification 56) Which of the following techniques would be used to determine the
factor for this plant is 1.4 and the manual premium is $82,000. What is effectiveness of recently implemented controls to reduce the exposure to
the loss ratio for this company? benzene?
A.) 128%
A.) Urine test before and after each work shift
B.) 8%
B.) Blood tests every other week
C.) 154%
C.) Saliva test before work each shift
D.) 78%
D.) Urine test after the work shift
.
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57) The 5-Whys is an analytical technique used to identify which of the 60) Which of the following techniques are not normally considered to be
following?
system safety techniques?
A.) Root causes of incidents
A.) FfAIFMEA

B.) Outcomes of incidents


B.) PERT/CPM

C.) Behavior-based safety rules


C.) PHNOHA

D.) Human behavior errors


D.) MORTIFfA

58) Organic azides differ in degrees of stability and sometimes pose a 61) Which of the following is a correct interpretation of this Pareto Diagram?
100
~~ ~ 90
disposal problem. Which of the following best describes the hazards of
disposal of azides down a laboratory sink?
80
A.) Cause toxic fumes 10
'" 60
B.) Will plug up collection systems
50
C.) Causes fire when mixed with water
40
D.) Can become highly explosive when in contact with metals 30
Back Hand
59) According to William G. Johnson in "MORT Safety Assurance Systems",
"Change is the Mother of Trouble". Which of the following is not
5
o I Arm
I Other 1== 0
A.) Backs represent 20 percent of the injuries
included in Mr. Johnson's description of change analysis. B.) The combined number of Hand and Arm injuries total 30
A.) Change analysis in safety should reflect the multiple C.) Arm injuries account for 10 Percent of injuries
sequence realities rather than rely on possibly simplistic D.) Back and Hand account for 70% of all injuries
detection-correction of a single causative change.
B.) If a system has been operating in a stable manner but now 62) A consists of the equipment used to keep an
has troubles, change is probably not the cause of the employee from reaching a fall point. such as the edge of a roof or the
problem. edge of an elevated working surface?
C.) Sensitivity to impending or probable change is a key A.) fall restraint system

component in the work of a good, experienced manager or B.) fall protection system

safety professional. C.) fall arrest system

D.) In complex systems, attention must be given to the D.) safety net system

compounding of change, for example a change made two


years ago combined with a change made a month ago may 63) Which of the following professionals is dedicated to the science that
produce the undesired event. studies the harmful, or toxic, properties of substances?
A.) Industrial Hygienist

B.) Industrial Toxicologist

C.) Health Physicist

D.) Medical Pathologist

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64) The fire tetrahedron states that combustion requires an oxidizer, fuel, heat 65) A building at an explosive processing laboratory contains a number of
and which of the following? ovens used for environmental testing of explosive materials by heating.
A.) Confinement This type of oven has rarely been known to heat excessively due to faulty
B.) Surface area heat controls and cause detonation. Considering that a passerby fatality
C.) Chain reaction is the most likely consequence and safety controls and on each oven
D.) Deflagration make this event failure remotely possible. A proposed corrective action
of a barricade outside of the building with a 75% effectiveness for
Use the following chart for the next question. protecting a passerby from an explosion with a cost of $5000. The
critical justification rating has been arbitrarily set at 10. Using the rating
Factor Classification Rating factors in the hazard evaluation system exhibited, calculate the
1.Consequences a. catastrophe, numerous fatalities: damage
~
over$1.000 ,000: major disruption of activities...... " .. " ..... . 100
justification score and detennine if the suggested corrective action is
~st Probable resutt of b. Multiple fataJities; damage $5000.000 to $999,999............ 50 justified.
Hie potential accident c. Fatality, damage $100,000 to $500.000 ........... . 25
d. Extremely serious injury: damage $1,000 to $99.999 ........ 15 A.) 18.75; yes it is justified

e. Disabling injUry; damage up to $1000........................ 5 B.) 0.55; no it is not justified

f. Minor cuts, bruises, bum..Q?, l1liJl()f damage................ . 1


2. Exposure Hazard-Event OccUfS~
C.) 28; yes it is justified

a. Continuously (or many times daily)............... ............... 10 D.) 4.20; no it is not justified

The frequency of b. Frequently (approximately once daity)............ ................ 6


occurrence of the c. OccasiOnally (once perweekormonthly)........................ 3
hazard event d. Usually (once per month to once peryear)...................... 2
e. Rarely Cit has been known to occur)...... ............ ...... .. 1
f. Remotely possible (not known to have occurred).............. 0.5
3. Probability Complete accident sequence:
a. IS the most likely and expected result if the haZard-event
likelihood that accident takes place................. .................................. ...... 10
sequence will follow to b. Is quite possible, not unusual, has an even 50150 chance.. 6
completion. c. Would be an unusual sequence or coincidence............... 3
d. WOUld be a remotely possible coincidence................... 1
e. Has never happened after many years of exposure, but is

1. =~:jr:os::e·~;re~~e·(has·n~hawen~i·.·... Ig:~

4.Cost Factor Over $50,000... ...... ... ..,.. .""'" ... ... .................. 10
$25.000 to $50.000................................................ ..... 6
EStimated dollar cost of $10,000 to $24.999............... ......... ............ ......... ..... 4
proposed oorrective $1000 to 59.999......................... ............. .................. 3
action. $100 to 5999................ .............................................. 2
$25 to $99................... ....... ........................................ 1
Under $25.. ... ... ...... ................................ 0.5
5.Degree of Correction Hazard positively eliminated 100%........................................... 1
Hazard reduced at least 75% ................................................... 2
Degree to Which haZard Hazard reduced by 50%-74%................................................... 3
wII be reduced. Hazard reduced by 25%-49%................................................... 4
Slight effect on Hazard (Jess than 25%)........................... 6

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Notes Assessing Safety, Health, Environmental and Security Risk "Answers"

1) We selected answer D because:


20,000
Sin A = a a=-­
c 2

a
c=-­
Sin A

10,000 = 11,547 lbs


",.
c= Sin 60

HINT: Double divided SLINGS are SIN full. Divide the load by the number of
sling legs and then divide again by the SIN of the angle.

20,000 + 2 + Sin 60 =11,547Ibs

2) We selected answer C because:

The workers weight is a function of gravity. He or she weighs 180

pounds in the gravity of earth, so, at rest (stationary) the worker is

experiencing 1 "G" force. 180 lb = 1 G. The worker was then subjected

to an additional 720 pounds of force or 4 "Gs" (4 x 180 = 720).

Remember in the measurement of G forces either positive or negative, we

always measure from the baseline of +1 G (one gravity).

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3) We selected answer B because:


4) We selected answer C because:

Step I: Detennine quantity of water required for this application 4.52 X Ql.85
P d =----.::..­
120fe 264 C ,S5 X d4,87
Q = 0.22gpm
I

fe
X
1
=. gpm

d = 4,§.71 4 .52 X QI.85


CI ,85 X Pd
Step 2: Detennine the required pressure in psi

4'
P=(~J d = 4.8..71_4_.5_2_X_4_0-=-00-=-1_,85
1001.85 X 0.04

_(26.4J2
p- 6 . 4.7142
5.
d = 4'~7/20842481.2
200.47
P=22.2 psi
d = 4.8';./1 03965.5
Note: While selection "B" is the best answer, selection "A" may well be true
considering that, in general, NFPA requires all sprinkler heads to have at least 7
psi.
d =10.72 in
Reference NFPA 13,5-3.6 Exposure Protection.
Assuming this is a fire protection question, use the Hazen-Williams fonnula.
"5-3.6.1 Piping shall be hydraulically calculated in accordance with Section
6-4 to furnish a minimum of 7 psi (48 kPa) at any sprinkler with all sprinklers Note: The calculated size of 10.72 is larger than 10 inch unlined pipe (lOx
facing the exposure operating." 102.4% = 10.24 in.) and so the best selection would be the more common 12
inch pipe.

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5) We selected answer B because:


Step 2: Add friction loss to determine pressure at second sprinkler
Step 1: Determine quantity of water required for this application 13.61 + 1.77 = 15.38 psi

0.178 gpm x 120 fe = 21.4 gpm Step 3: Calculate the flow from the second sprinkler

p=(~)'
Q= fe 1

Step 2: Determine the required pressure in psi

p=(~)' Q=K X FP

..
p­_(21.4J2
8 =3.692 Q = 5.8 X -J15.38 = 5.8 X 3.92

5.

P=13.61 psi Q=22.75 gpm

6) We selected answer A because:


7) We selected answer B because:
Step 1: Calculate the friction loss between the first two sprinklers
4.52 X Q1.85 Step 1: Determine required flow
P = xL
d Cl.85 X d 4.87
P=(~J
P = 4.52 X 21.41.85 X 12 = 15,688.64 Q=K JP =5.2 -J12.6

d 1201.85 X 1.0494 .87 8,864.66

Q=18.46 gpm

Pd =1.77 psi

Note: The length between sprinklers has been added to the basic formula
as a time saving measure.

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Step 2: Calculate protection area of each sprinkler alternative, paragraph (c)(3); or, i the alternative, paragraph (c)(4) as
Area = 9 ft X 9 ft follows:

1926.652(c)(I): Option (I) - Designs using appendices A, C and D.


=81 fe Designs for timber shoring in trenches shall be determined in accordance
with the conditions and requirements set forth in appendices A and C to
this subpart. Designs for aluminum hydraulic shoring shall be in
Step 3: Calculate the density
accordance with paragraph (c)(2) of this section, but if manufacturer's
Q=Density x Area
tabulated data cannot be utilized, designs shall be in accordance with
appendix D.
Q
..... Density = Area 1926.652(c)(4): Option (4) - Design by a registered professional
engmeer.

Density = 18.46 gpm 1926.652(c)(4)(i): Support systems, shield systems, and other
81 ft protective systems not utilizing Option 1, Option 2 or Option 3,
above, shall be approved by a registered professional engineer.
Density=0.228 gpm per fe 11) We selected answer A because:
2
8) We selected answer B because: V 1t d xh
4
According to the table for Type C soil, 8 x 8 timber is required.

V = 3.14x(132Y x42

9) We selected answer C because: 4

According to the table for Type A soil, 8 x 8 timber is required. V = 574,760cu ft

10) We selected answer D because:


574,760x7.48 gal percu ft = 4,299.200 gallons
I 926.652(c): Design of support systems, shield systems, and other

protective systems. Designs of support systems, shield systems, and other

12) We selected answer B because:


protective systems shall be selected and constructed by the employer or

his designee and shall be in accordance with the requirements of

paragraph (c)(1); or, in the alternative, paragraph (c)(2); or, in the

Ii-
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2
V=ltd Xh
Step 2: Determine the footage occupied by tank 2,3 and 4.
4
Tank #2and3

2
x42 = 574,760 cu ft
V -=-=-=--~-'--- A= It d
4

13) We selected answer A because:


2
A= 3.14x(50Y

V=ltd Xh
4

A = 1963 sq ft each
• x42
4

v = 574,760 Cll ft
Tank #4
425 ftx425 ft 180,625x 3 ft =541,875cu ft
z
The proposed dike is too small to hold all the material that could be A = ltd

stored in the tank by about 33,000 cubic feet or 250,000 gallons. 4

14) We selected answer C because: A = 3.14x(40Y


4
Step I: Determine Total footage of diked area.
220x330=72,600sq ft
A =1257 sq ft

TOTAL =5,183 sq ft
!

I
1

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Step 3: Determine total area not occupied by smaller tanks 15) We selected answer D because: Q=AV

Total area - Tank area = Area available Discussion: The principle involved is the

quantity of air entering the opening remains


Q=AV<==

constant. So if we determine the quantity

72,600 - 5,183 = 67,400 entering. we can solve the velocity down

stream.

2
v = 1t d xh

4
Step 1: Determine area of hood

A =Length x Height
v = 3.14x(100Y x35

41 4

A=I ftxl ft
v = 274,889cu ft
A-Ife
Step 4: Determine volume in the largest tank
Step 2: Determine the volume of air flowing thm hood

274,889 = 4.07 feet required Q=V x A

67,417

Step 5: Divide volume in largest tank (cu ft) by total area available Q=600xl
(sq ft) to determine required height of diking

Note: The difference between answer B and C is about 35,000 gallons Q=600cfm
of product that would not be contained.

Step 3: Compute area of duct

A=nxr2

_
A-3.14x (3)2
12

A=O.196ft 2
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18) We selected answer A because:


Step 4: Determine the rate of airflow in the duct.
Apply formula and solve
Q=V x A A _ll

Pf =1 - e- =1 - e 1m

V=Q= 600
Pc = 1 - e -87000/95000
A 0.196

v = 3,061 ft per min Pc 0.60


,
-~
A= Failure rate
16) We selected answer B because:
Where: t =time
Injury

This may be easier to see in a small fault tree.


m=MTBF
Determine the condition that could result in an

injury, in this case A and B or A and C has to


A=_l
exist and either situation will produce an injury,
MTBF
therefore an OR gate.
t
At=­
m

17) We selected answer C because:

19) We selected answer C because:


Flammable and combustible liquids are subdivided into classes as shown below
(taken from NFPA 30 and 321, Basic Classification o/Flammable and
Combustible Liaui, Q A +Qs=Q c

The flows in each branch of the duct are additive.


Step 1: Determine the Velocity of air flowing in branch "A".
IB at or above V =4005 .JVP
lOOF
Ie at or above 73 F
and below 100 F v = 4005 .J0.25

II

V =4005xO.5

V=2003fpm

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Step 2: Determine the area of the duct in branch "A". Step 5: Determine the area of the duct in branch "B".
A = 1t r2 A = 7t r2

A =3.14 x C~)' A=3.14 xC~J


A =3.14 x 0.25 A =3.14 x 0.0625

A = 0.7854 square feet A = 0.1963 square feet



Step 3: Determine quantity of air flowing in duct "A".
Step 6: Determine quantity of air flowing in duct "B".
Q=VA
Q=VA
Q = 2003 x 0.7854
Q = 896 x 0.1963 = 176 cfm
Q=1573cfm
Step 7: Determine the sum of the two branch flows.
Step 4: Determine the Velocity of air flowing in branch "B".
QC=QA +QB

V=4005-JVP Qc=1573+176

V = 4005 -J0.05 Qc=1749cfm

v = 4005 x 0.224 = 896 fpm

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20) We selected answer C because:


Step I: Select formula QJ _.JP;
Where, QJ = initial flow
Q2 - Jp;
Q2 subsequent flow

R, =initial residual press.


800 .J5O
400 - jP;
R2 = subsequent residual

S = static pressure
Step 2: Transpose
54
Jp; = .J5O x 400
Q2 = QI[(S - RJO. ] 800
(S- RJ°.54
- (2828)2 =12.5 psi
P2 - 800
Q = 5700 x (70- 20t'54
Step 3: Subtract from no-flow
2
(70-36t'54
pressure to obtain residual
pressure 95 - 12.5 = 82.5 psi

Q2 =5700x1.2315 =7020gpm
22) We selected answer C because:

21) We selected answer D because: Step I: Determine the area of the panel
AREA = Length x Width
This problem can be solved by using either of the two formulations
shown below. Since the question asked for approximate pressure we AREA 8x4
chose the easiest one to transpose
QJ _ jP;

AREA=32sqft
Q2 - -JP;

Q2 _ (S - R2 )0_54
Step 2: Determine pressure at the nominal value of 20 feet (top of
QI - (S- R 1 t 54
panel 18 feet) (bottom of panel 22 feet)

Where, p. = initial pressure change


Pressure = Weight x depth
~ = subsequent pressure change

Pressure =62.4 lbs per cu ft x 20 ft

Pressure = 1248lbs per sq ft

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27) We selected answer A because:


Step 3: Detennine total force

According to 40 CFR 264.34:


TOTAL Force = Area x Pressure

(a) Whenever hazardous waste is being poured, mixed, spread, or


otherwise handled, all personnel involved in the operation must have
TOTAL Force =32x 1248 immediate access to an internal alarm or emergency communication
device, either directly or through visual or voice contact with another
employee, unless the Regional Administrator has ruled that such a device
TOTAL Force = 39,9361bs is not required under Sec. 264.32.
(b) If there is ever just one employee on the premises while the facility
is operating, he must have immediate access to a device, such as a
23). We selected answer A because: telephone (immediately available at the scene of operation) or a hand­
'" Assuming that the pinch point in question does not require frequent held two-way radio, capable of summoning external emergency
access for maintenance or cleaning, the obvious best answer is a assistance, unless the Regional Administrator has ruled that such a device
permanent guard that makes removal difficult. We would choose a fixed is not required under Sec. 264.32.
guard.
According to 40 CFR 264.52:
(f) where there is a possibility that evacuation could be necessary.
24) We selected answer B because: This plan must describe signal{s) to be used to begin evacuation,
evacuation routes, and alternate evacuation routes (in cases where the
Lagging indicators (such as historical statistics) provide data on how well primary routes could be blocked by releases of hazardous waste or fires).
the loss control system has performed and is useful for understanding
how well a management system change affected loss control 28) We selected answer C because:
performance. However, lagging indicators are not as useful for predicting
future loss control performance. Generally, an enclosure is placed around a noise source to prevent noise
from getting outside. Enclosures are normally lined with sound­
absorption material to decrease internal sound pressure buildup.
25) We selected answer C because:
Loss Ratio = Losses/«Manual Premium) (Experience Modification)

26) We selected answer A because:


The experience modification is developed from the location's
injury/illness frequency and severity rate and the industry rate. If the
plant had the same experience as the industry as a whole the experience
modification rate would be 1. Since this plant had an experience
modification rate of 0.55 it would be considered excellent.

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I

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29) We selected answer B because: 30) We selected answer A because:

Step 1: Using the combined gas law detennine how many fe at Step 1: Determine Volume in m
3

scientific STP are in the container. Assume pressures are in psia.

15 ft x ·305 m =4.6 m
PI VI P2 V 2
11ft
TI T2

8 ft x .305 m = 2.44 m

PI VI = P2 V 2
-11ft

84 x 1000 = 14.7 x V 2
4.6 x 4.6 x 2.44 =51.6 m3
.
Step 2: Determine weight

84 X 1000 = 5,714 ft3


5 gal 8.34 Ibs x 0 .
6 = 25 Ibs
--x
V2 = 14.7
1 gal

Step 3: Convert-Ibs to mg

Step 2: Convert fe to lbs


251b .4545kg l000g l000mg
--x x----"'­
- -fex
X
5,714
- 1I x 1 mole x 71 g xl I b = ,
1 130 Ib s
1 lIb lkg 1g

1 0.03531 fe 22.4 I 1 mole 454 g

= 11 ,362,500

OR

Using the lb-mol conversion and remembering that a Ib-mol occupies 359 fe: =1.14x 10 7
mg

5,714 fe X 71lbs =1,130 lbs Step 4: Compute-ppm

3
1 359 fe
mg/m x 24.45
ppm =
MW

7
(1.14x 10 /51.6) x 24.45
ppm=--------------­
46

ppm = 117,043

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31) We selected answer B because:


Step 5: Convert to %
117,043 JXI00 =11.7% Step 1: Convert the 60 fe a day to cfm so that the output of the
( 1,000,000
general dilution formula will be in the proper units. That is, units that
agree with the answers.
Alternate Solution
Step 1: Detennine- Volume 60fe 1day Ihr
--x x--­
1day 24hrs 60rnin

15 x15 x8 = 1800 fe

. Step 2: Detennine­ 60
......... weight 24x60 =0.0412 cfrn

5 gal x 8.3451bs x 0.6 = 25 Ibs

I gal

Step 2: Apply general dilution fonnula and solve. Note that the
Step 3: Detennine the volume occupied by the Ethyl alcohol room size is not used in the equation.
46lbs 25 lbs

392fe X Q'= G and C= TLV

6
C 10
X= 25 x 392

46

Q= G X106
TLV

X 213 fe

Step 4: Detennine concentration of Ethyl alcohol in the 1800 fe


0.0417 x106
room.
Q 120

213fe

1800 fe x 100 =11.8% Q=0.OOO3475x106

Q=347.5cfm

! I

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32) We selected answer D because:


Step 4: Apply formula and solve for 15 minutes of exposure.

Step I: Compute volume of room and detennine the number of air


changes per hour - G
C- - X (1 -e -Ntl6O)
Q
V=LxWxH
V =IOOxllOxIO C=~ x (1 _e-(L09><I5/6O))
2000
V = 110,000 fe C =0.0006 x (1 e -0.2725 )
N= Q x 60 C = 0.0006 x 0.239
V
C=0.000143
N= 2,000 x 60
• 110,000 Step 5: Convert to ppm
N=1.09 ppm =C x 1,000,000
ppm =0.000143 x 1,000,000
Step 2: Apply formula and solve for 5 minutes of exposure. ppm 143
C= G X(1 _ e-Ntl6O )

Q
Step 6: Apply formula and solve for 25 minutes of exposure.
1.2 (1 -e -(1.09><5}/6O)
C =--x C = G x (I - e -Ntl6O )

2000 Q
C = 0.0006 x (1- e-o·(9 ) C = ~x (I ­ e-(1.09x25/6O))

C = 0.0006 x 0.0861 2000


C = 0.0006 x (I ­ e -0.454 )
C=0.0000517
C = 0.0006 x 0.365
Step 3: Convert to ppm C=0.000219

ppm=C x 1,000,000 Step 7: Convert to ppm


ppm = 0.0000517 x 1,000,000
ppm = C x 1,()()O,OOO
ppm =51.7
ppm = 0.000219x 1,000,000
ppm=219

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36) We selected answer A because:

33) We selected answer B because:

We would select the dumbwaiter because it is the only option of those -lnl
listed that has the material isolated from personnel during the transport T= _2
k
phase

34) We selected answer D because: T= 0.69314718


1.36 x 10-11

h=ll x (dl)2

(d2 T = 5.096670441 X 1010 sec

......
(IY Convert to years:
12 = Il x (8y
5.096670441 X 1010 sec 1 min 1 hour 1 day 1 yr
T= x x x x---=­
_ 1 1 60 sec 60 min 24 hours 365.25 days
12-500x­
64

T = 1615 years

12 = 7.8 ftc

35) We selected answer C because: 37) We selected answer C because:


6
Q = 403 x 10 x SG x ER x K

=
The formula depicted on the BCSP of S 6CE is a "shortcut" formula for
MWxC

cobalt-60, since the "f' value for cobalt-60 is one. See the formula

information in Volume II for the exact definition of the formula.

Q= 403 x 1,000,000 x 1.336xO.0083 x 4


S-6CiEf
84.94 x 25

S =6 x 0.005 x .662 x.9 =.018 roentgenlhr/ft Q= 17,875,146


2,124

Q=8,416 cfm

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Note: Remember the solvent is being applied at an hourly rate, thus the All the requirements in ISO 14001 are intended to be incorporated into
need for the "60" minutes in the equation. We also reduced the TLV to any environmental management system. The extent of the application
25 instead of 50. The "K" factors are safety factors and run between 3 to will depend on factors such as the environmental policy of the
10 and depend on: organization, the nature of its activities, products and services and the
location where and the conditions in which it functions.
1.) The toxicity of the material (lower TLV = higher "K").
2.) The evolution rate of the contaminant (usually non-uniform). 41) We selected answer D because:
3.) The effectiveness of ventilation (location in air flows).

It is anticipated that questions on the professional exams requiring this


According to the Fire Protection Handbook, the temperature of the liquid
type of calculation will provide "K" factors or safety factor, you simply
itself is above the boiling point of water used to create the foam, a frothy
.:. apply the formula. Don't forget the "length of release", 60 minutes in this
and voluminous emulsion of steam, air and burning fuel may occur upon
/ problem. application of the foam to the surface of the fire.

38) We selected answer C because: 42) We selected answer D because:

Cost benefit analysis is a generic process of evaluating competing


courses of action by examining the dollar costs of certain abatement Author Dan Peterson explains that Activity measures are leading
actions versus the dollar value of the benefits received. (proactive) measures a line supervisor should do as part of his or her
normal responsibilities as being accountable for the safety of employees.
39) We selected answer C because: Techniques ofSafety Management: A Systems Approach. 4th Edition.

Cost incurred x 1000 I total work-hours is the formula for cost factor. 43) We selected answer B because:

40) We selected answer A because:


According toANSllAlHA Z10, top management leadership and employee
participation are the main divisions in the scope of this standard.
ISO 14001 is applicable to any organization that wishes to establish,
implement, maintain and improve an environmental management system, 44 ) We selected answer A because:
to assure itself of conformity with its stated environmental policy, and to
demonstrate conformity with ISO 1400 1 by: A member of the management team must certify that such reviews were
conducted and must include when the review was conducted and fmdings
• making a self-determination and self-declaration, or
of applicability. This type of written certification is common practice in
• seeking confirmation of its conformance by parties having
auditing methods because it is not practical for auditors to observe and
an interest in the organization, such as customers, or
verify that all management processes were conducted.
• seeking confirmation of its self-declaration by a party
external to the organization, or
• seeking certification/registration of its environmental
management system by an external organization.

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45) We selected answer D because: 47) We selected answer B because:


Class II, Division 2 locations are those in which combustible dust is not
normally present but might be due to abnormal or periodic operations. L
During those times, sufficient dust may be present in the air to produce LI= RWL

explosive or ignitable mixtures. A Class II, Division 2 location is an area


nonnally free of dust, but due to some incident, dust may be introduced.
Mechanical breakdown of a valve or a break in a pipe are examples of
L I = 20 = 1.35

conditions that would require an area to be classified as Division 2. 14.8


46) We selected answer A because: The Lifting Index provides a numerical indicator of the need for redesign.
RWL=LCxHMxVMxDMxAMxFMxCM A LI of greater than one means the job needs to be redesigned. As one
,.> can readily see from the previous question, this job could benefit from
.>
locating the work closer to the employee. Additionally, some value might
RWL = 51 (~) (1-.00751 V- 301) (.82 + I~) (1- (0.0032 x A)) (FM) (CM) be gained by shortening the length of the workday devoted to lifting.

RWL = 51 (~~) (1- .0075 X 6) (.82 + ~>g) (1- (0.0032 x 15)) (0.85) (0.9) 48) We selected answer D because:

RWL = 51x0.417x.955xlxO.952xO.85xO.9 R~=LCxHMxVMxDMxAMxBMxCM

RWL = 14.81bs R~(kg) = 23(~) (1-.0031 V-751) (.82 + i;)(I-(0.OO32xA))(BM) (CM)

R~(kg)= 23UD(1-.003xO) (.82+ in(I-(0.OO32xO))(1)(I)

R~(kg)= 23xO.555xlxlxlxlxl

R~(kg) = 12.77 kg

· ~l',

'>
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49) We selected answer A because: 52) We selected answer D because:


OHSAS 18001 is an Occupation Health and Safety Assessment Series for . losses
health and safety management systems. It is intended to help an Loss ratIo =
E- Mod x Manual PrelTIlum
organization to control occupational health and safety risks. It was
developed in response to widespread demand for a recognized standard
against which to be certified and assessed. OHSAS 18001 will measure L = 90,000
your managements system with regards to several dimensions. The extent R 1.4x82,000
of application will depend on such factors as the occupational health and
safety policy of the organization, the nature of its activities, and
conditions under which it operates. A successful management system LR =0.7839
should be based on:
,4"
• An occupational health and safety policy appropriate for the 53) We selected answer C because:
company. H & I Recordables x 200,000
• Identification of occupational health and safety risks and legal Ra t e = - - - - - - - - - ­
Total hours worked
requirements.
• Objectives, targets, and programs that ensure continual
improvements. Rate = 90x 200,000

• Management activities that control the occupational health and 1,623,451

safety risks.
• Monitoring of the occupational health and safety system
perfonnance. Rate = 18,000,000

1,623,451

• Continual reviews, evaluation, and improvement of the system.

50) We selected answer C because: Rate =11.1


Risk exposure ratio is the ratio of the risk exposure to the project cost. The incidence rate for lost workday cases is the most meaningful
perfonnance indicator for a safety program.
51) We selected answer C because:
,
The profit margin is 15% and the indirect cost is 5 parts of the total and
the direct cost is 1 part of the total. Production costs are direct costs.

\ 150/0 + 6 = 2.5% per unit


I! Since the profit on the production on the direct cost is 2.5%, we must
have a volume of $3,600,000 to cover the workman's compensation
losses.
90,000 + .025 = 3,600,000

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54) We selected answer A because: 119 55) We selected answer D because:


118 67
Step I: Total the number of accidents for the 122 81
period in question. 98
359 Step 1: Total the number of accidents for the period in
question. 90
98
1.129,565 434
Step 2: Total manhours for the same period.
1,623,451
1,398,765
1,834,225
1,456,732
'" 4,587,241 Step 2: Total manhours for the same period.
1,129,565
Step 3: Apply the formula and compute the cumulative accident 1,623,451
rate.
1,834,225
Total Recordables x 200,000
Ra t e = - - - - - - - - - ­ 7,442,738
Total hours worked

Step 3: Apply the formula and compute the cumulative accident


Rate _ 359 x 200,000

rate.
4,587,241

H & I Recordables x 200,000


Ra t e = - - - - - - - - - ­
Total hours worked
Rate = 71,800,000

4,587,241

Rate = 434 x 200,000


7,442,743
Rate =15.7
Rate = 86,800,000
7,442,743

Rate=I!.7

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56) We selected answer D because: • In complex systems, attention must be given to the compounding
of change, for example a change made two years ago combined
Biological monitoring to determine the effectiveness of recent changes

with a change made a month ago may produce the undesired event.

would involve urine tests to determine the S-Phenylmercapturic acid or

t,t-Muconic acid content after each work shift.

60) We selected answer B because:


57) We selected answer A because: Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT) and Critical Path
Method (CPM) are both scheduling techniques. Although they can be
5-Whys is a qualitative analytical technique to identify the root causes of
used by the system safety practitioner to spot bottlenecks and periods of
an incident sequence by asking "why" at least 5 times. Once the causal
production pressure, they are not considered to be true system safety
factors (human errors, equipment malfunctions, etc) are known, a 5­
techniques.
Whys analysis can be performed on each causal factor to determine

.:. "Why" the causal factor was allowed to exist.

... 61) We selected answer D because:


58) We selected answer D because: The analysis of a Pareto diagram evaluates categories that represent the
greatest frequency of cases. It evaluates the greatest number of incidents
An azide is a compound of hydrogen or a metal ion and the monovalent ­
not necessary severity. In this example from Safety Metrics 2nd Edition,

N3 radical. For example, lead azide PbN 3 , one of the most important

the frequency of injuries were classified according to the body part

azides, can decompose explosively when subjected to shock and heat.

affected. Over this period, backs accounted for 40 % of all injuries,

Lead azide forms violent explosive salts if mixed with carbon disulfide.

hands 30%, arms 20%, and all other were 10%. To construct a Pareto

Sodium azide (NaN 3) is a powerful mutagen. The azides should never be

diagram, the category that accounted for the greatest percentage of cases

poured down the sink because they can decompose explosively on

is placed to the left of the diagram and the remaining categories are

heating and can form shock sensitive and highly explosive mixtures if

arranged in descending order of overall percentage of injuries. A Line is


exposed to other heavy metals or hydrogen. For example, phenyl azide
constructed that indicates the cumulative of injuries. In this chart, back
(C6H SN3' azidobenzene) is used as a heat-sensitive explosive.
and hand injuries account for 70%; back hand and arm account for 90%.
59) We selected answer B because: 62) We selected answer A because:
In William G. Johnson's book "MORT Safety Assurance Systems", he
The best selection is A because the definition of a fall restraint system
states that "Change is the Mother of Trouble", the following are areas of
consists of the equipment used to keep an employee from reaching a fall
concern. point, such as the edge of a roof or the edge of an elevated working
• Change analysis in safety should reflect the multiple sequence
surface. The most commonly utilized fall restraint system is a standard
realities rather than rely on possibly simplistic detection-correction
guardrail. A tie off system that "restrains" the employee from falling off
of a single causative change. an elevated working surface is another type of fall restraint.
• If a system has been operating in a stable manner but now has
\1
troubles, change is probably the cause of the problem.
I • Sensitivity to impending or probable change is a key component in
\ the work of a good, experienced manage or safety professional.

, ~
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Fall protection systems consist of: Guardrail systems; Safety net systems 64) We selected answer C because:
• Personal fall arrest systems
According to The NFPA Fire Protection Handbook, for combustion to
• Positioning device systems
occur, four components are necessary: Oxygen (oxidizing agent);
• Warning line systems Fuel(substrate); Heat(ignition); and a self sustained chemical reaction
• Controlled access zones (also referred to as the chain reaction). These components can be
• Safety monitoring systems graphically described as the "fire tetrahedron". Each component of the
• Covers tetrahedron must be in place for combustion to occur. Remove anyone of
• Protection from falling objects the four components and combustion will not occur. If ignition has
• Fall protection plan (limited) already occurred, the fire is extinguished when one of the components is
Personal Fall Arrest Systems must include 4 elements referred to as removed from the reaction.
ABCD's of Fall Arrest:
• A - Anchorage - a fixed structure or structural adaptation, 65) We selected answer D because
'"
often including an anchorage connector, to which the other In Techniques of Safety Management, you must first calculate the Risk
components of the PFAS are rigged. Score. Risk Score = Consequences X Exposure X Probability.
• B - Body Wear - a full body harness worn by the worker. Considering that fatality was most likely, consequence =25. Exposure is
• C - Connector - a subsystem component connecting the rarely = 1. Probability is remotely happens = 1. Risk Score = (25 x 1 x
harness to the anchorage - such as a lanyard. 1) = 25
• D - Deceleration Device - a subsystem component designed Second, you must calculate the Justification. The Justification formula
to dissipate the forces associated with a fall arrest event. IS:
Justification = Risk Score/Cost Factor X Degree of Correction
63) We selected answer B because: Justification = (25x 1x 1)/(3x2) or J= 25/6 = 4.20.

According to the Fundamental of Industrial Hygiene, an Industrial

Toxicologist is one who studies the harmful, or toxic, properties of


This factor is well below 10 and therefore not justified.
substances and determine dose thresholds. An Industrial Hygienist is

one devoted to the art and science of anticipation, recognition, evaluation

and control of those environmental factors in the workplace that may

cause sickness, impaired health and well being. A Health Physicist

studies the field of science concerned with radiation physics and radiation

biology with the goal of providing technical information and proper

techniques regarding the safe use of ionizing radiation. Pathologists are

physicians who diagnose and characterize disease in living patients by

examining biopsies or bodily fluid. Pathologists may also conduct

autopsies to investigate causes of death.

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Notes Managing Environmental, Health, Safety and Security Risk


This section of the workbook provides questions and answers similar to those on
the Comprehensive Practice examination. The following Responsibilities are
found on the examination. There are a maximum of 69 questions from this
area on the actual examination.
Task 1
Design effective risk management methods using the results of risk assessments
to eliminate or reduce safety, health, environmental, and security risks.
Knowledge Areas
1. Engineering controls
2. Principles of managing risk throughout the design process
.',.' 3. Administrative controls
4. Personal protective equipment
5. Qualitative, quantitative, deductive, and inductive risk assessment methods I

6. Root cause analysis methods ~t:


r.r
7. Risk-based decision-making tools
8. Mathematics and statistics
9. Applied sciences: fluid flow, mechanics, electricity

IO.Basic sciences: anatomy, biology, chemistry, physics, physiology

11.Organizational and behavioral sciences


12.Management sciences

I3.Management principles of authority, responsibility, and accountability

I4.Budgeting, finance, and economic analysis techniques

I5.Business planning

I6.Business software

17.Adult learning

18.Cultural norms and population stereotypes

19.Training methods

20.Training assessment instruments (e.g., written tests, skill assessments)

21.Agriculture safety (including food supply safety)

22.Biological safety

23.Business continuity and contingency planning

24.Change management

25.Chemical process safety

26.Community emergency planning

27.Construction safety

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28.Education and training methods

29.Emergency/crisis/disaster management
Task 2
30.Emergency/crisis/disaster response planning
Educate and influence decision makers to adopt effective risk management
31.Employee assistance programs
methods by illustrating the business-related benefits associated with
32.Employee/stakeholder incentive programs
implementing them to eliminate or reduce safety, health, environmental, and
33.Environmental protection and pollution prevention
security risks.
34.Epidemiology

35.Equipment safety
Knowledge Areas
36.Ergonomics and human factors
1. Risk-based decision-making tools
37.Facility safety
2. Budgeting, finance, and economic analysis techniques
38.Facility security and access control
3. Business planning
.;39.Facility siting and layout 4. Business software
." 40.Fire prevention, protection, and suppression 5. Education and training methods
41. Hazardous materials management
6. Interpersonal communications
42.Hazardous waste inanagement
7. Mathematics and statistics
43.Healthcare safety (including patient safety)
8. Organizational and behavioral sciences
44.Incident command methods
9. Management sciences
45.1ndustrial hygiene
10.Management principles of authority, responsibility, and accountability
46.1nfectious diseases
11.Organizational protocols

47.1nsurance/risk transfer principles


12.Presentation media and technologies

48.Labels, signs, and warnings (including international symbols)


13.Presentation strategies

49.Maritime safety
14.Project management concepts

50.Mining safety
15.Target audience background

51.Multi-employer worksite issues

52.Mutual aid agreements

53.Physical and chemical characteristics of hazardous materials

54.Pressure relief systems

55.Product safety

56.Public safety and security

57.Radiation safety

58.System safety

59.Toxicology
60.Transportation safety and security
61.Ventilation systems
62.Workplace violence
63.Competencies of other professionals with whom the safety professional interacts
64.Sources of information on risk management options (e.g., subject matter experts,
relevant best practices, published literature)
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Task 3 Task 4
Lead projects to implement the risk management methods adopted by decision Promote a positive organizational culture that is conscious of its safety, health,
makers using internal and external resources to eliminate or reduce safety, environmental, and security responsibilities by communicating these
health, environmental, and security risks. responsibilities to all stakeholders and by training all stakeholders as part of the
organization's overall risk management program.
Knowledge Areas
1. Project management concepts Knowledge Areas
2. Management sciences 1. Management sciences
3. Management principles of authority, responsibility, and accountability 2. Management principles of authority, responsibility, and accountability
4. Methods of achieving project stakeholder acceptance of project goals 3. Methods of achieving project stakeholder acceptance of project goals
5. Financial management principles
4. Organizational and behavioral sciences
~'6. Schedule management principles
5. Organizational protocols
'". 7. Risk-based decision-making tools
6. Cultural norms and population stereotypes
8. Organizational and behavioral sciences 7. Group dynamics
9. Business software
8. Interpersonal communications
1O.Project management software
9. Labels, signs, and warnings (including international symbols) II'"!
II.Change management
IO.Multi-employer worksite issues
"

"
I2.Group dynamics
II.Organized labor/management relations
I3.Interpersonai communications
I2.Presentation media and technologies
I4.Methods of facilitating teamwork
I3.Presentation strategies
15.Organizational protocols I4.Protocols for public announcements
16. Presentation media and technologies I5.Public communication techniques
I7.Presentation strategies I6.Risk communication techniques
I8.Principles of supervising people 17.Stakeholder participation committees
I9.Competencies of other professionals with whom the safety professional 18.Target audience background

interacts I9.Adult learning

20.Education and training methods

2I.Behavior modification techniques

22.Training methods

23.Training assessment instruments (e.g., written tests, skill assessments)

24.Business communication software

25.Competencies of other professionals with whom the safety professional

interacts

26.Standards development processes

27.Information security and confidentiality requirements

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Managing Environmental, Health Safety and Security Risk IIQuestions" 5) Verbs or actions words used in learning objectives must be as specific as
1) Which of the following factors is the MOST important when the possible. The behavior must be observable and measurable. Which of
supervisor is evaluating a subordinate during the annual employee the following verbs does not meet this criterion?
performance report cycle? A.) understand

A.) Safety performance B.) identify

B.) Attentiveness to details C.) troubleshoot

C.) Measurable objective criteria D.) enter data

D.) Quantity of production in comparison to peers


6) Which of the following would be the most inappropriate for a supervisor
2) According to contemporary machine tools risk assessment models, which when evaluating a subordinate during the annual employee performance
of the following is true regarding the concept of "Zero Risk"? report cycle?
.
.II'

A.) Zero Risk is attainable given the correct task analysis was A.) Offering advise about safety performance
performed B.) Counseling about personal hygiene habits that affect job
B.) Zero Risk does not practically exist performance
C.) Zero Risk can occur with the proper safety culture C.) Rating performance based on measurable objective criteria
D.) Zero Risk is the ultimate goal of any safety program D.) Providing definitive comments about the worker's potential
to fail in industry or business.
3) All of the following would be covered under a contractor's Completed
Operations Liability insurance policy except? 7) All of the following are methods of performing a task analysis except?
A.) Use of the wrong epoxy to seal a pipe results in occupant A.) Observing the task
illness. B.) Performing the task
B.) A cabinet falls because it is screwed into the plaster wall C.) Developing the task procedures from scratch
instead of the wooden studs. D.) Reviewing company written SOPs and policies
C.) The homeowner trips over a wrench left behind by a
plumber.
D.) Someone becomes sick as a result of an improper chimney 8) In order for Health and Safety Training to provide maximum
cap. effectiveness, firm training objectives should be established and used.
Which of the following requirements of training objectives is the least
4) Which of the following training methods is primarily used to find new, important?
innovative approaches to issues? A.) Training objectives should be Reasonable
A.) Meeting B.) Training objectives should be Measurable
B.) Brainstorming C.) Training objectives should be Obtainable
C.) Case Study D.) Training objectives should be Written
D.) Role Playing

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9) A flood destroys your company's operations facility. After the emergency 12) Which of the following would be the most important when defining
management issues are addressed, your company implements several training goals?

plans to: Recover critical files and infonnation that had been stored

A.) the CFRs


offsite, establish a temporary facility from which operations can be
B.) worker interviews
conducted, and infonn customers of the situation and how they will be
C.) job task analysis
served. These plans are among examples of a comprehensive loss control
activity called: D.) critical incident analysis

A.) Emergency Management/Emergency Response 13) Which of the following is true concerning the use of the signal word
B.) Situational Awareness "DANGER" on product warning labels? Danger is used where there is an
C.) Disaster RecoverylBusiness Continuity Planning immediate hazard which if encountered will result in:
D.) Business Impact Analysis
... A.) Death or severe personal injury
B.) Death, severe personal injury, or extensive property damage
10) Insurance contracts are unilateral, meaning that only the insurer makes
C.) Death, extensive property damage, extensive product
legally enforceable promises in the contract. The insured is not required
damage and severe personal injury
to pay the premiums, but the insurer is required to pay the benefits under
D.) Death, loss of livelihood, and property damage
the contract if the insured has paid the premiums and met certain other
basic provisions. Which of the following represent the general parts of
an insurance contract? 14) You are the Safety Director of a textile plant that has received an OSHA
inspection. You were cited for several violations and your citations have
A.) Declarations, Definitions, Insuring agreement, Exclusions, been received at the main plant. Which of the following actions is most
Conditions, endorsements correct?

B.) Incontestability, Definitions, Conditions, Declarations

A.) You must pay the fine within 15 working days


C.) Investigation, Exclusions, Conditions, Privity
B.) The workers must be allowed to see the citation
D.) Endorsements, Definitions, Executor, Decalration
C.) You must fix the discrepancy within 30 days
11) An analysis that is a thorough study of an organization or specific D.) You must post the citations for at least three days
job/task to determine how training can help the organization to improve
its safety, effectiveness or efficiency or if the specific job/task can be 15) Instructor's actions have a major impact on how a student reacts to the
enhanced is called a? instruction being presented. Which of the follow is false concerning how
A.) Organizational analysis a student will react to an instructor's actions or reactions?
B.) Training analysis A.) observers learn by watching and imitating others; they tend
C.) Needs analysis to behave as the have seen others to behave
D.) Task analysis B.) observers will more likely imitate a model that has prestige
in their eyes
C.) observers will more likely imitate a model, when they see
the model being rewarded for their actions
D.) observers will more likely imitate a model, when they see
the model being punished for their actions
~..
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16) An implied warranty is an implication by a dealer that the product is 20) When developing a training program to train an operator on a specific
suitable for a specific purpose. The statement of warranty can be made in piece of equipment, your training program should include all of the
many ways and could include all of the following except: following except?

A.) Placing it on sale for that purpose


A.) a description of the design specifications for the equipment.
B.) Advertising that it will satisfy that purpose B.) a description of how the equipment works and the built in
C.) Indicating in the operating instruction that it will accomplish safety devices.

that purpose
C.) how to identify specific hazards associated with the
D.) Making it look like a product that will accomplish the equipment.

purpose
D.) when specific safe guards can be removed.

17) A learning objective is a brief, clear statement of what the trainee should 21) The primary purpose of ISO 19011 is to provide guidance on?
~

. - be able to do as a result of training. All of the following should be A.) developing S&H systems
accomplished prior to learning objective development except?
B.) developing environmental control systems
A.) Needs analysis C.) Implementing an ES&H management system
B.) Task analysis D.) Managing and conducting quality and environmental
C.) Lesson plan management system audits

D.) Document what the trainee should be able to do after

training
22) Which of the following is not considered a major premise when
conducting a risk assessment to estimate, evaluate, and reduce risks
associated with machine tools?
18) Which of the following list the required four parts of any legal contract?
A.) probability of occurrence

A.) Consent, legal tender, parties, consideration


B.) severity of harm

B.) Management, labor, money, contract


C.) cost benefit ratio of risk reduction options
C.) Agreement, consideration, purpose, legal tender D.) exposure to hazard

D.) Agreement, consideration, purpose, competent parties

19) What principle is employed to identify the "vital few", whether 23) Which of the following lists basic elements of a safety plan?
customers, customer needs, product features, or inputs to help assure that
resources and attention is concentrated where they will do the most A.) Manuals, procedures, policies
good? B.) List of actions, implementation schedule, cost
C.) Requirements, standards, specifications
A.) Hystograph Principle D.) Departmental listing, roles and responsibilities, corrective
B.) Juran Principle actions

C.) Pareto Principle

D.) Smith Principle

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24) What are the three basic legal principles that can be used by plaintiffs in 28) The risk remaining after preventive measures have been taken is called:
product liability cases?
A.) Acceptable risk
A.) Negligence, strict liability, Res Ipsa Ioquitar B.) Tolerable risk
B.) Strict liability, express warranty, implied warranty C.) Unacceptable risk
C.) Negligence, strict liability, breach of warranty D.) Residual risk
D.) Negligence, strict liability, tort
29) When you develop the tests and evaluations for your training program,
25) One training technique especially useful when dealing with craft you should use all of the following guidelines except?
employees during safety and health training is the case study. Which of
A.) Test items must be reliable.
the following is the most correct concerning a case study?
B.) Evaluations are norm-referenced
A.) Case studies must always involve fictitious situations or C.) Each test item must have criterion-related validity
.. accidents so that no one group or person will have hurt D.) The evaluation tool should be developed before the training
feelings begins

I
B.) Case studies should be written and passed out as handouts to

be most effective because most craft employees do not have


30) The detailed aspects for significance is determined by the organization
a long attention span establishing and maintaining an Environmental Management
i C.) Case studies are good problem solving tools System(EMS). In the effort of continuous improvement related to ISO
D.) Case studies involving real situations should only be used if 14001, ideally your goal is to eliminate emissions and discharges in your
they can be presented by the actual participants/victims operations, but in practice Environmental Policies reflect which of the
following?
26) According to most adult training experts, adults have four basic training
A.) BACT
needs. Which of the following is not included in those needs?
B.) EVABAT
A.) Need to be in control of their learning C.) NPDES
B.) Need to know why they are learning a topic D.) RCRA Cradle to Grave
C.) Need to change the material to fit their understanding of the

requirement

D.) Want to learn things that will make them more effective and

successful

27) In a business or industrial setting, there are powerful reasons to focus on

behavior before attitudes. These include all the following except?

A.) A change in behavior does lead to a change in attitude

B.) A change in behavior does not lead to a change in attitude

C.) Behavior can be measured and therefore managed

D.) Attitudes present major measurement problems

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31) Risk can be expressed as the frequency of an event multiplied by the 34) Which of the following is NOT considered a basic principle of loss
consequence of the event. Usually, consequence is expressed in units of control?
monetary value used as a comparison of financial risk across different
A.) "An unsafe act, an unsafe condition, and an accident are all
areas. Which of the following scenarios has the higher annual risk?
symptoms of something wrong in the management system."
Scenario A: Minor employee injuries occur about twice per month and B.) We can predict that certain sets of circumstances will
cost the company about $3,500 in lost work productivity and $2,500 in produce severe injuries. These circumstances can be
medical and insurance compensation. identified and controlled."
Scenario B: Catastrophic incidents occur about once every 30 years and C.) "The key to effective line safety performance is management
cost the company about $1,500,000 in lost work productivity and procedures that fix accountability."
equipment damage, and $2,500,000 in legal fees and other compensation. D.) "Safety must be managed as a special company function­
A.) Scenario A has the higher risk set apart from the normal planning process to ensure
. B.) Scenario B has the higher risk management's commitment to safety is clearly visible among
C.) Scenarios A and B both have about the same risk
employees. "
D.) Risk value for these scenarios show a frequency ratio of 1:2

35) The integration of hazard analysis and risk assessment methods early in III
r 32) As manager of the safety and health function, you are privy to all the cost the design and redesign processes and taking the actions necessary so that
II!
".
~
f'
! data that relate to insurance, medical, wages and operations. How would
the risks of injury or damage are at an acceptable level is termed:
you determine the total cost of an incident?
A.) Severity
A.) Combine insurance cost for medical and compensation paid B.) Prevention through design
to claimant C.) Safety through design
B.) Sum the insured and non-insured costs
D.) Hierarchy of controls
C.) Determine the direct cost and multiply it by a factor of ten

D.) Determine the direct cost and add 50% 36) Safety and health training can involve many different delivery systems
and training techniques. Often group methods are used to increase the
33) A company operating as a manufacturing facility doing contract jobs for effectiveness of training and the active participation by students. Which
their customers is in worker's compensation Class 3650. The company
of the following would be the best use of the role playing technique?
employs 65 people and the average salary per person is $42,000 with a
A.) In human relations training
worker's compensation Class has a manual rate of $11.50. The company B.) For job instruction training in a one-on-one situation
has a current experience modification factor on workers' compensation C.) To illustrate the complexities of a step-by-step detailed
insurance of 1.1. Next year, it will drop to 0.90. What is the firm's industrial task
estimated worker's compensation premium for the next year? D.) For in-depth technical subjects
A.) $185,834
B.) $282,555
C.) $78,500
D.) $24,329

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37) One technique often used in safety and health training in the industrial 41) Which of the following is not a valuable attribute of interactive
environment is the conference method. Which of the following is the computer-assisted training, sometimes called distance learning?
most correct concerning this important training tool?
A.) works well for organizations with small workforces
A.) Individual knowledge is not particularly important during a B.) works well for organizations that cannot remove large
conference session groups from their jobs at one time
B.) The conference technique is not particularly suited to C.) allows instructors to interact with each other without
problem solving restrictions
C.) The success of the conference technique depends on the D.) trainees can work at their own pace
ability of the main presenter
D.) The success of the conference depends almost entirely on 42) Reinforcement of desired behaviors is best accomplished by:
the ability of the facilitator
4
A.) cash incentive
38) What defines successful communications? B.) negative reinforcement at the end of the work shift
C.) positive reinforcement as soon as possible
A.) sender and message D.) not required, employees will change their behaviors only if
II,
B.) sender and receiver the desire to do so
C.) message and receiver

I 39)
D.) sender, message and receiver

Behavior is most influenced by:


A.) Activators
43) When selecting a communications medium for a training presentation,
which aspects are listed in increasing order?
A.)
B.)
experience, auditory, words

words, auditory, visual pictures

B.) Consequences C.) displays, auditory, words

C.) Discipline D.) demonstrations, auditory, words

D.) Feedback
44) Successful adult training can be measured by all of the following except?
40) To effectively administer a safety & health management system, safety
directors should as many levels of management as possible. A.) Demonstrate the application
B.) Show a tape of a previous experience
A.) report to C.) Let the trainee practice the new skill
B.) acquire access to D.) Discuss how the new skills can be applied
C.) cite violations of standards for
D.) Have budget approved by 45) When performing instructor duties for a Health and Safety Training
session, it is most important to?
A.) Dress for the occasion

B.) Know what you are talking about

C.) Use plenty of visual aids

D.) Use a well prepared lesson plan

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46) All of the following are considered to be benefits of safety training. 49) A company was charged for failure to use engineering controls to reduce
Which is considered to be the primary benefit? the noise levels below those depicted in Table G-16, 29CFRI910.95.
A.) reduced costs The ruling was overturned because OSHA failed to prove economic
B.) improved performance feasibility. What was this ruling based on? .
C.) fewer incidents/accidents A.) This is not a violation
D.) reinforcement of the operational goals of the organization B.) no cost-benefit analysis was provided
C.) the company provided hearing protection with
47) Risk is a combination of: administrative controls in lieu of engineering controls
A.) Frequency of occurrence of an adverse event and the D.) economic feasibility is not defined and can not be used as a
probability of occurrence of the adverse event. reason for a fine

B.) The probability that an adverse event will occur and the

'" consequences of the adverse event.

C.) Probability that a hazardous condition will occur and the


50) What is the primary purpose of a warning sign?
consequences of the hazard. A.) information for the supervisor
D.) Consequences of exposure to a particular hazard. B.) information for the employees
C.) for the employees to recognize and understand the hazard
48) In order to engender trust, OSHA's VPP approach to applicants is based D.) to protect the company from regulatory citations and
on all the following principles except: lawsuits

A.) The VPP is strictly voluntary.

B.) During the application process, prior to approval, the


51) Your company has a process that uses a highly toxic chemical and you
application is confidential. have proposed to install gas detectors as a safety measure. If the cost
C.) Under the OSH Act, compliance with the provisions of the benefit ratio is defined as the cost in dollars associated with each fatality
Act and the standards set under the authority of the Act is reduced by installing the detectors, what is the cost benefit ratio for
mandatory. detector installation?

D.) VPP participants will work independently to resolve any


Detector installation $250,000
safety and health problems that may arise during projected fatalities if not installed .04
participation. projected fatalities if installed .025
A.) $1,700,000/fatality
B.) $6,250,OOOIfatality
C.) $10,OOO,OOO/fatality
D.) $ 16,666,667/fatality

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52) Fire detection and alarm systems protect property and processes and are 56) The OHSAS 18001 specification requires only minimal documentation.
widely used in the United States. These fire protection systems use three It is important that documented OH&S procedures are developed and
distinct types of fire alarm signals: supervisory, alarm and ? adequately controlled. A compilation of documents that form the basis
A.) Trouble for the management system is normally called?
B.) Activation A.) List of Documents
C.) Warning B.) Safety Policy Manual
D.) Sabotage C.) Master List
D.) Document Inventory Index
53) A rate-of-rise detector responds to which condition?

A.) Smoke particulate in the air

B.) Water pressure in the fire suppression piping


57) Proof testing is defined as?

.. C.) Indoor humidity


A.) a test where you stretch the sling until it breaks
D.) Heat B.) a decision tree designed to help you select the proper sling
~" C.) a chemical test to ensure the correct material was used to
54)
I
~,

i,
!~
A sprinkler system was designed to cover Ordinary Hazard, Group I
Occupancies. It requires a minimum of 225 gpm for sprinkler operation
and an additional gpm to support exterior hose streams.
D.)
construct the sling
a nondestructive tension test performed by the sling
manufacture or an equivalent entity to verify construction
,

l'
A.) 100 and workmanship of a sling
B.) 250
C.) 500
D.) No additional flow needed 58) All of the following are included in ANZI/AIHA ZIO except?
A.) S&H policy development
55) Which statement best characterizes the implication of substituting the B.) employee participation
term "design to achieve minimum risk" with the term "design to achieve C.) management review
~
acceptable risk"? D.) evaluation and corrective action
A) The two terms are synonymous.

B) Designing to achieve acceptable risk is appropriate only when

designing to achieve minimum risk is shown to be unachievable.


59) The National Institutes of Health (NIH) publishes Biosafety guidelines
C) Designing to achieve minimum risk may require spending much commonly used for containm~nt of biohazardous agents in workplaces
more money to reduce the risk of a certain event far below what (Biosafety in Microbiological and Biomedical Laboratories), how many
would be an acceptable risk level. Biosafety levels (BSL) are there?

D) Designing to achieve minimum risk is what safety and health


A.) 2
professionals should solely advocate since safety and health B.) 3
professionals must have no opinion on what constitutes acceptable C.) 4
risk. D.) 5

. ,,
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60) A company has adopted OHSAS 1800 1 to maintain continuous 63) The Management Grid® by Robert Blake and Jane Mouton, illustrates
improvement in their safety and health management system. Based on management styles by drawing a grid which has on the "Y" axis Concern
the OHSAS 1800 1 guidelines that the management system should be for People and the "X" axis concern for production. Thus a 9,1
suitable, adequate and effective, which of the following should indicate supervisor could be called a:
that a management evaluation should be performed?
A.) Country Club Manager
A.) profits are down from the preceding year B.) Dictator

B.) the ES&H Director has been held by three individuals


C.) Workaholic

during the last 18 months


D.) Company Man

C.) the company's environmental performance has been

questioned by the local "green" group

D.) the safety performance of the company is 40% lower than


64) A manager who utilizes an external reward and punishment system to
AI last year affect performance is manager.
A.) Theory X
61) Which of the following is not part of developing an effective safety B.) Theory Y
culture? C.) MBO Manager
D.) TQM Manager

A.) Safety is a function of management

B.) Front-line supervisors need to correct unsafe behaviors

C.) Workers need to want to be safe and work as a team


65) A large metal building is constructed on your property. The building
D.) The Union needs to make safety part of its role in protecting supports about 90 workers and is classified as a storage occupancy. The
members facility houses warehousing operations and some general office areas for
workers that are incidental to the storage operations. The facility
measures 900 feet by 300 feet. There is no possibility of explosions
62) In project management, the work that must be performed to deliver a involving the material stored. The contents are not hazardous materials
product, service or result with the specified features and functions is but could bum fairly easily if subject to fire and if they were to bum
called the? would give off considerable volumes of smoke. What is the classification
A.) project schedule of the hazard of contents for this facility?

B.) project scope


A.) Low hazard

C.) project scope statement


B.) Ordinary hazard

D.) project scope management plan


C.) High hazard
D.) Extra high hazard

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1h
,I';;

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66) If the storage facility described in the preceding question was used to
store flammable products, where the possibility of explosion if involved 69) Advanced emergency management planning is the best way to minimize
in a fire was high, what would be the maximum travel distance to exits, potential loss from natural or human caused disasters and accidents. The
with and without a fire sprinkler system installed, allowed by NFPA primary responsibilities of emergency planning must include all the
101 ®, Life Safety Code®? following except:

A.) 75 feet without and 150 feet with an approved fire sprinkler A.) continuation of operations for the sake of the customers
system B.) provide for the safety of the employees and the public
B.) 100 feet without and 150 feet with an approved fire sprinkler C.) protect property and the environment
system D.) establish methods to restore operations to nonnal as soon as
C.) 200 feet without and 200 feet with an approved fire sprinkler possible
system
,.'....
D.) 75 feet without and 100 feet with an approved fire sprinkler
system 70) According to current safety philosophy, which would have the most
impact on changing safety behavior?
A.) a sign stating "Wear Your Eye Protection"

67) A needs assessment does all the following except B.) turn off all machines when you are finished

A.) Identifies the type of training required C.) complementing an employee for wearing their eye

B.) Identifies the problem or need before designing a solution protection

C.) Saves time and money by ensuring that solutions effectively D.) a free meal for a safe month on the plant floor

address the problems they are intended to solve


D.) Identifies factors that will impact the training before its
development 71) Which of the following factors is a hygiene factor as opposed to
motivation factors according to the work of Frederick Herzberg?
A.) Money

68) Which of the following is not required under Total Quality Management B.) Recognition

(TQM)? C.) Responsibility

A.) D.) Achievement

commitment by top management to quality in all areas of the


organization.
B.) continuous improvement programs implemented throughout
the organization.
C.) a technical process control to document improvements.
D.) measure systems used to identify areas where improvements
can be used.

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I
72) You have been hired as the Safety Director of a company that has 75) A process that seeks to verify documented expectations, typically
traditionally had a "paper safety program". You have a staff of three and regulations and policies, by conducting interviews, reviewing records and
report to one of three vice presidents. The rates for the company are making first-hand observations is called a?
much higher than the rates for companies in the same SIC. Your initial

assessment is that there is very little interest in safety at all levels. You
A.) Environmental visit

have been given the authority to increase the safety staff and have been
B.) Environmental audit

given a sizable increase in the department's budget. You have hired new
C.) Environmental site assessment

staff and reorganized the department, the next step would be to: D.) Standardization and Evaluation assessment

A.) increase the safety training effort for all employees 76) The behavioral management safety concept is often criticized as only
B.) organize a safety committee and get management to appoint dealing with behavioral modification. The major flaw in this view of
members
behavioral based safety management is that it overlooks the fact that
... C.) start an inspection program to identify areas that need behavioral safety also plays a key role in?
attention
D.) integrate safety accountability into job descriptions, A.) securing management involvement
appraisals, objectives, etc. B.) establishing employee involvement in the planning process
C.) identifying the behavioral aspects of design and engineering
for facilities, tools and equipment
73) How long should a manufacturer keep records relating to product safety? D.) establishing a feedback loop to report the status of safe and
unsafe actions by observers
A.) As long as possible

B.) Life of the product guarantee


77) Sick building syndrome is defined as?
C.) Well beyond life of the product

D.) Thirty years A.) a lack of adequate make-up air

B.) a high level of carbon monoxide


C.) formaldehyde is being released from new carpet at an
74) When applying TQM techniques the concept of empowering the worker unacceptable rate
frequently surfaces as a foundational issue. Which of the following is not D.) a building in which a significant number (more than 20%) of
considered to be a strategy of empowerment?
the building occupants report illnesses perceived as building
related.

A.) Allow employees ownership of a tasking

B.) Teams must own the problem


78) Recently, numerous tools have been left behind after maintenance has
C.) Delegate authority to the lowest possible level been completed. Which would be the best way to increase tool
D.) Develop rigorous procedure for multi-level review of team accountability to alleviate this problem?
recommendations
A.) Associate employee number to tool usage
B.) Develop a remotely monitored system
C.) Utilize a bar-coding system
D.) Install a computerized system

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79) A "standard bureaucratic model" has all of the following attributes

except?
83) Which of the following characteristics of a Product Recall is the most
important?
A.) specialized jobs

B.) homogenous departments


A.) Quick response
C.) decentralized authority
B.) Written detailed plan
D.) narrow span of control
C.) Action sheets for each department
D.) Detailed procedures for notifying the authorities and
advertising which products are defective
80) Which of the following is not a purpose of an Environmental, Safety and
Health audit? 84) In project management, a deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition
of the work to be executed by the project team to accomplish the project
A.) gather data for manager's perfonnance reports objectives and create the required deliverables is called the?
...
'

B.) determine and document compliance status

A.) work authorization system

C.) develop a basis for optimizing SH&E resources

D.) improve overall SH&E perfonnance


B.) work package

C.) WBS dictionary

D.) work breakdown structure

81) Which ISO standard covers environmental management?

The next three questions pertain to the following scenario:


A.) 9000

B.) 10000
A fire occurred in your manufacturing business. As a direct result of the
C.) 12000
fire, one wall and the ceiling were damaged, and the building contents
D.) 14000
(raw materials, goods in progress, merchandise, furniture and office
supplies) were damaged by smoke. Your company made a total of
$265,000 last year and was in operation for 265 days. The operation was
82) The steps for the continuous improvement safety process are the same as shut down for 72 hours while repairs were being made. Cleanup and
in the continuous quality improvement process. These include all of the start-up costs after repairs were completed cost you $1,000.
following except:
A.) specify standards

B.) measure compliance


85) What kind of insurance would cover your loss of income during the
C.) follow procedures
repairs?
D.) provide feedback on improvement
A.) Standard Fire and Smoke

B.) Comprehensive Liability

C.) Business Interruption

D.) Contingent Liability

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86) How much would the insurance for loss of income cover?
90) In the basic study of behavioral science the theory of human needs by
A.) $3,000
Abraham Maslow is often cited. In Maslow's theory a need is a
B.) $3,500
deficiency a person feels the compUlsion to satisfy. Central to this theory
C.) $4,000
is the progressive principle, that is, the needs are arranged in a hierarchy,
D.) $8,000
only after a lower level need is satisfied can the next highest level
become active. Which of the following needs are at the lowest level in
87) Which building contents would be covered under a Standard Fire Policy? Maslow's hierarchy?
A.) Raw material and merchandise
A.) Esteem

B.) Furniture and office supplies


B.) Social

C.) Furniture and merchandise


C.) Physiological

.... D.) All of the above


D.) Safety

.'..,'
88) A staff safety engineer is given the authority by the General Manager to 91) As a safety professional, you may need to have insurance protection,
stop operations on a construction site whenever he or she observes an depending on your business status. There are numerous types of
imminent danger situation. Which of the following correctly identifies coverage, one type for safety consultants is professional liability that
the authority granted by the General Manager? covers all the following except?
A.) Staff authority
A.) errors and omissions

B.) Staff to line authority


B.) fire damage

C.) Authority of delegation


C.) libel and slander

D.) Functional authority


D.) negligence

89) According to Willie Hammer, hazards fall into three broad categories.
These are all of the following except: 92) The basic principle of the modem method of estimating the uninsured
costs of work injuries and "accidents" includes which of the following?
A.) Inherent properties or characteristics of equipment
B.) Failures of materials or humans A.) lost time cases, doctor's cases, first-aid cases, no-injury
C.) Environmental stresses accidents
D.) Mechanical stresses B.) lost time cases, doctor's cases, first-aid cases, injury
accidents
C.) lost time cases, doctor's cases, first-aid cases, property
damage
D.) lost time cases, property damage, first-aid cases, no-injury
accidents

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93) A number of different agencies might be responsible for controlling and Notes
cleaning up the more complex hazardous materials incidents. Which of
the following is the most critical step in responding to chemical release
when multi agencies are involved?
A.) Approve the Incident Action Plan
B.) Establish the Incident Command System
C.) Approve resource requests
D.) Order demobilization

94) In the history of the chemical and petroleum industries, causal factors for
major events have often related to inadequacies in these four
i management processes:
A) maintenance of mechanical integrity; action items follow-up;
management of change; process safety training and competency
B) near miss reports, accident trends analysis, incident investigation
reports, management of change
C) training assessment, near miss reports, leading indicators, lagging
indicators
D) leading indicators, accident reports, balanced score cards,
behavior based observations
95) Understanding cost effectiveness has become a more important element
in risk acceptance decision making. Which of the commonly used
acronyms in the risk assessment and applied risk reduction literature best
promotes a management review, the intent of which is to achieve
acceptable risk levels?
A.) ALARA
B.) ALARP
C.) AARP
D.) AHMP

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Managing Environmental, Health Safety and Security Risk nAnswers"


4) We selected answer B because:
1) We selected answer C because:
Employee annual performance evaluations should always be based on Brainstorming is a technique of group interactions, often defined as 5-7
sound measurable objective criteria, that is fully understood by both the members, that encourages each participant to present ideas on a specific
supervisor and employee. The rating will be most valuable if the rating is issue. The method is normally used to find new, innovative approaches
discussed with the employee and directions for improvement are to issues. There are four ground rules:
indicated.
1. Ideas presented are not criticized.
2. Freewheeling creative thinking and building on ideas are
2) We selected answer B because:
positively reinforced.
According to international standards on Machine tool safety such as 3. As many ideas as possible should be presented quickly.
:. ANSI B 11 series and EN 1050 (now ISO 14121), Zero Risk does not 4. Combining several ideas or improving suggestions is
• practically exist. The goal is to reduce risk to a tolerable level then fully encouraged.
communicating any residual risk to the user. Hazards and their effects
can best be identified by analyzing tasks and can be classified by the 5) We selected answer A because:
worst credible injury that may occur from a hazardous event. The Risk is
determined by estimating the severity of the hazard - and the probability Some words that should be avoided when writing learning objectives are;
of occurrence of a hazardous event
know, understand, appreciate, learn, cover, study. It is almost impossible
• Hazards and their effects can best be identified by analyzing tasks to determine if the student has accomplished those objectives. Some
• Hazards can be classified by the worst credible injury that may occur example preferred words are; explain, classify compare, calculate,
from a hazardous event demonstrate, operate, measure, troubleshoot, analyze, develop, plan. An
• Risk is determined by estimating the severity of the hazard - and the example is "each individual will describe in their own works the three
probability of occurrence of a hazardous event primary ISO standards that apply to safety management".
3) We selected answer C because: 6) We selected answer D because:
Completed Operations liability insurance pays claims for damage caused
by mistakes, imperfect ingredients, or foreign substances, as well as The annual performance evaluation provides an excellent opportunity to
improper handling, labeling, packing, or delivering. The intent is to train, counsel and encourage employees. However, correcting employee
provide liability protection for defects, errors, or mistakes made in shortcomings or encouraging superior performance should occur during
connection with the manufacture or preparation of products to be offered normal daily supervision. The employee annual performance evaluations
for sale. The protection also includes losses that can be attributed to should always be based on sound measurable objective criteria that is
defective materials. Completed Operations does not cover the liability fully understood by both the supervisor and employee. The meeting
for accidents involving delivery, pickup and the existence of tools, should never be used as a way for the supervisor to express his or her
uninstalled equipment and the abandonment of unused materials. These personal feelings about the lack of potential of a worker. Providing
would be covered under the Owners, Landlords and Tenants (OL&T) and negative comments about the potential for success or failure is an
Manufacturers and Contractors (M&C) liability policies. extremely poor practice and is, we believe, the most inappropriate.

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7) We selected answer C because: 10) We selected answer A because:


A task analysis is a sequential list of all the steps necessary to perform a The parts of an insurance contract include:
specific job skill. This step will also help determine it training is required • Declarations - identifies who is an insured, the insured's address, the

or not. It is used later in the training process to develop training insuring company, what risks or property are covered, the policy

objectives and to develop ways to test the performance. limits (amount of insurance), any applicable deductibles, the policy

period and premium amount. These are usually provided on a form

8) We selected answer D because: that is filled out by the insurer based on the insured's application and

Training objectives should above all be reasonable, measurable and attached on top of or inserted within the first few pages of the

obtainable. It is very desirable, but not imperative that the objectives and standard policy form.

goals for any program be written, so as not to be misplaced or relegated • Definitions - define important terms used in the policy language.
• Insuring agreement - describes the covered perils, or risks assumed, or

..:. to a low priority.


'
nature of coverage, or makes some reference to the contractual

agreement between insurer and insured. It summarizes the major

When writing training objective use action verbs such as add, answer,
promises of the insurance company, as well as stating what is covered.

compare, line up and not words such as understand, know, as these are
difficult to measure. • Exclusions - take coverage away from the Insuring Agreement by

describing property, perils, hazards or losses arising from specific

To gain a competitive edge, training had to involve more than basic job causes which are not covered by the policy.

skills. Included now are advanced skills and understanding of customers • Conditions - provisions, rules of conduct, duties and obligations
required for coverage. If policy conditions are not met, the insurer can
and the manufacturing system. The training is linked to strategic
business goals and objectives and uses an instructional designed process deny the claim.
• Endorsements - additional forms attached to the policy form that

to ensure the training is effective and compares favorably with training


modify itin some way, either unconditionally or upon the existence of

programs found in other companies.


some condition. Endorsements can make policies difficult to read for

nonlawyers; they may modify or delete clauses located several pages

9) We selected answer C because:


earlier in the standard insuring agreement, or even modify each other.

According to Risk Analysis and the Security Survey, 3rd Edition, business Because it is very risky to allow nonlawyer underwriters to directly

continuity planning is a key part of a loss control program. Such plans rewrite core policy language with word processors, insurers usually

should include recovering corporate information, setting up operations, direct underwriters to modify standard forms by attaching

and financing temporary operations until a new facility can be endorsements preapproved by counsel for various common

commissioned. Depending upon the risk of a natural disaster, some modifications.

companies purchase business interruption insurance to help finance


operations.

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11) We selected answer C because:


15) We selected answer D because:
This is the definition of a needs analysis and will help you decide
According to Robert F. Mager "Making Instruction Work", answer Dis
between training and non-training needs. The primary question that has
incorrect.
to be answered, "is this a problem that training will resolve or is there a
better solution?" After you define the performance discrepancy, instead
16) We selected answer D because:
of training, maybe a new set of work instructions will solve the problem.
An example could be to hang out a PPE required sign to remind Implied warranty is the implication by a dealer that the product will serve
personnel that PPE is required when they operate a particular machine. a specific purpose. The implication must be made by:
An analytical approach to support the needs analysis would be to • Placing it on sale for that purpose
complete an operational hazard analysis. • Advertising it for that purpose
• Indicating it will operate in a manner that could reasonably be
I~ We selected answer C because: interpreted as being suitable for that purpose in books or manuals
Most training experts rate the job task analysis as the primary aid in
developing course training goals and content. 17) We selected answer C because:
Learning objectives are always completed before you develop the lesson
13) We selected answer A because: plan.
There are three traditional levels of warnings:
18) We selected answer D because:
• Danger is used where there is an immediate hazard, which, if A legal contract must have four parts:
encountered, will result in severe personal injury or death.
• Warning is the signal word for hazards or unsafe practices, which • Agreement
• Consideration
could result in severe personal injury or death
• Caution is for hazards or unsafe practices, which could usually result
• Purpose
• Competent parties

in minor personal injury, product damage, or property damage. 19) We selected answer C because:
This is the definition of the Pareto Principle, sometimes referred to as the
Evaluation of the adequacy of the warning requires consideration of at 80-20 rule that indicates that 80% of the problems come from 20% of the
least the dangerousness of the product, the intensity of and form of the operations. It is also true that 20% of the corrective actions and risk
warning given, the likelihood that the particular warning will be reduction actions can mitigate 80% of the risk, when the risk is
adequately communicated and the burden is upon the manufacturer to understood.
provide the warning.
20) We selected answer A because:
14) We selected answer D because:
During a training session you want to explain what the operator need to
You are required by OSHA to post the citation at or near the location of know and not all the extraneous data connected with the equipment.
the violation for three days or until corrected whichever is longer. Teach them how to tell time, not how to build a watch.

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21) We selected answer D because: 24) We selected answer C because:


ISO 19011 is an international standard that sets forth guidelines for: The three basic legal principles that can be used in most states are:
• Negligence, which tests the conduct of the defendant.
• quality management systems auditing
• Strict liability and implied warranty, which test the quality of the
• environmental management systems auditing
product.
• Express warranty and misrepresentation, which test the
22) We selected answer C because:
performance of the product against the manufacturer/seller's
Risk assessment was introduced and specifically addressed by the representations. This may be referred to a Breech of Warranty.
American National Standards Institute in ANSI Bl1.TR3:2000 entitled
Risk assessment and risk reduction-A guide to estimate, evaluate, and 25) We selected answer C because:
, reduce risks associated with machine tools. The ANSI B 11. TR3 explored
The case study is an especially effective technique for safety and health

:: three major premises of risks:


training, since it often illustrates the multi-causal aspects of accidents as

• probability of occurrence-very likely, likely, unlikely, or remote well as the tragic consequences. The case study is an excellent problem

• severity of hann--catastrophic, serious, moderate, or minor solving technique thatfadUtates interactive learning. Normally case

• exposure to hazard-frequency and duration, extent of exposure, studies are presented to a group that has the goal of evaluating the

or number of people exposed mistakes made in the situation and providing real world solutions. The

ANSI B 11.TR3 explains that zero risk does not exist and is therefore technique is particularly effective when the group is allowed to come to

unattainable. Some amount of residual risk remains even after the the conclusion that they can benefit from the mistakes of other

application of machine safeguarding. Cost benefit is not part of a Risk organizations and thus prevent accidents. The case study is an excellent

Assessment. In essence, the common primary objective in both ANSI tool for developing analytical skills.

B II.TR3 and ANSI B 11-2008 is that reasonably foreseeable hazards


must be identified and dealt with. Both standards contain scoring/rating A major disadvantage to the case study is that a preexisting case may not

systems to establish various risk reduction categories. The European actually relate to the training situation

Machinery Standard EN 1050 (now ISO 14121) follows the same general
format and addresses risk assessment in the same manner, however, It 26) We selected answer C because:
utilizes terms and phrases which are common to European standards.
According Clay Carr in Smart Training, The Manager's Guide to

23) We selected answer B. Training for Improved Performance, adults have four basic training

needs.

According to numerous safety texts, a safety plan must have these basic 1. Adults need to know why they are learning a particular topic or skill,

elements: list of actions, implementation schedule and cost. because the need to apply learning to immediate, real-life challenges.

2. Adults have experience that they apply to all new learning.


3. Adults need to be in control of their learning.
4. Adults want to learn things that will make them more effective and
successfuL

To help accomplish these needs, include precise behavioral guidelines

and procedures that the trainees are required to follow.

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30) We selected answer B because:


27) We selected answer B because:
According to the ISO 14001 Environmental Systems Handbook, clause
According to "The Behavior Based Safety Process" a change in behavior
4.2 Environmental Policy, top management shall define the
does lead to a change in attitude.
organization's environmental policy and ensure that it is appropriate to
the nature, scale and environmental impacts of its activities, products or
28) We selected answer D because:
services within the defined scope of the EMS. The Economic Viable
Residual risk is defined as the risk remaining after preventive measures Application of Best Available Technology (EVABA T) is an acronym for
have been taken. No matter how effective the preventive actions, the use of technology to control environmental impacts without causing
residual risk will always be present if a facility or operation continues to an organization financial hardship.
exist.
,
....
~
31) We selected Answer A because:
29), We selected answer B because:
These are essentially equivalent, however, Scenario A is slightly the
Reliability is a measure of how well a test item discriminates the higher risk.
knowledge level of the participants.
Step One: Calculate the cost of Minor incidents per year
Evaluations for training purposes are NOT norm-referenced. Norm­ The minor incidents cost the company $144,000 annually ($6,000 per
referencing means that how well a trainee scores depends on how well or incident multiplied by 24 times per year).
how poorly other trainees perform.
Step Two: Calculate the cost of Major Incidents per year
Evaluations for training purposes should always be criterion­ The major incidents only happen once every 30 years, but cost
referenced. This means performance is measured against a pre-set $3,700,000 when they do happen. Dividing this over 30 years yields and
standard. The test must measure what it is suppose to measure. annual risk exposure for the catastrophic incident of $123,333.

The evaluation tool should always be developed before training begins. 32) We selected Answer B because:
Pretest and posttest should cover equivalent subject matter, however it Incident costs include both those that are insured and those that are not
should not be the same test or test questions. insured. The insured include medical and compensation costs paid to the
claimant by the insurance company. The non insured include time lost by
Well developed multiple-choice questions on knowledge assessment tests others who observed or rendered assistance at the time of the incident,
permit the most objective pass or fail decisions to be made and the most time lost to investigate the incident, time to train a replacement, cost for
reliable performance statistics can be calculated. damaged materials, etc.
After the training is completed, ensure that you obtain trainee feedback
along with your statistical data to ensure continuous improvement.

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33) We selected Answer B because:


36) We selected answer A because:
Estimated premium is calculated in this case by determining the
Role playing is ideally suited for human relations education or training. It
estimated payroll, dividing the estimated payroll by $100 (since rates are
allows the students to become participants in a "drama" or "play" that
based on $100 of payroll), multiplying that number by the rate for
depicts the interaction of humans during stressful or error provocative
machine shops and the experience modifier for the new year.
Estimated Premium = [(# Emp x Avg Sa) / Empl) / $100] x Manual Rate x
situations. The technique is not suited for problem solving or technical
Experience Modifier training.
EP =[(65 x $42,000) I $100] x $11.50 x 0.90 37) We selected answer D because:
EP =$282,555
One of the most valuable group techniques is the conference method. The
strength of the conference method is in the individual knowledge and
34) We selected Answer D because
experience of the participants. The number of members should be kept
; According to Peterson's Techniques of Safety Management, only small to allow maximum exchange of ideas. The establishment of goals
answers A, B, and C are representative of basic principles of loss control and objectives is crucial to the success of this method. But more than
anything else, this teaching method hinges on the capability of the
35) We selected answer C because: facilitator or instructor. The facilitator logs the objectives and keeps the
Safety through design is defined as the integration of hazard analysis information and opinions flowing during sessions. After the conference,
and risk assessment methods early in the design and redesign processes the facilitator distributes recommendations and informs members of
and taking the actions necessary so that the risks of injury or damage are actions taken as a result. Shortfalls associated with this method is the
at an acceptable level. This concept encompasses facilities, hardware, facilitator ensuring that the conference does not become a bull session
equipment, tools, materials, layout and configuration, energy controls, and if management does not follow up on the recommendations, then the
environmental concerns and products. Severity. The extent of harm or group will not support future efforts.
damage that could result from. Prevention through design. Addressing
occupational safety and health needs in the design and redesign processes 38) We selected answer D because:
to prevent or minimize the work-related hazards and risks associated with Communications consists of three basic elements: the sender, the
the construction, manufacture, use, maintenance, and disposal of message and the receiver. When you are communicating, whether orally
facilities, materials, equipment and processes. Hierarchy of controls is a or in writing, always provide for feedback. This is the only way to
systematic way of thinking and acting, considering steps in a ranked and ensure that the message got through.
sequential order, to choose the most effective means of eliminating or Some experts expand the definition to include communications source,
reducing hazards and the risks that derive from them. An example is the encoding, the message, the channel, decoding, the receiver and feedback.
requirement of suppliers of services to attest that processes have been Effective environmental risk communications by industry can help
applied to identify and analyze hazards and to reduce the risks deriving decision makers better understand public perception and more easily
from those hazards to an acceptable level. [There is precedent for having predict response to proposed actions.
suppliers attest that risk analyses have been completed. Manufacturers of Risk that affects the public must be explained to the public in a carefully
equipment to be used in the European Union are required by International planned way. First, the public must be alerted to the identity and
Organization for Standardization (ISO) standards to certify that they have magnitude of the risk in a straight forward easy-to-understand way and
met applicable standards, including ISO 12100-1 and ISO 14121.] next, the public must be reassured that the risk is being managed and the
steps that are being taken to manage the risk will be effecti ve.
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39) We selected Answer B because: 42) We selected answer C because:

According to E. Scott Geller, The Psychology of Safety,


Most experts agree that the two things needed for reinforcement of
All four answers have an impact on behavior, consequences, in general,
desired behaviors are to provide positive reinforcement and to the closer
have the most impact. Discipline and feedback can be considered types of
in time a reinforcement is associated with a behavior, the stronger the
consequences, but there are others to be considered including positive
effect. Some experts say to effect long term changes for minor
reinforcement and reward.
infractions, you can use a negative reinforcement without overreacting.

40) We selected answer B because: When discussing the "carrot and stick" management philosophy, some
experts believe that the stick is no longer available and the carrot is
Access to managers throughout an organization will assist the safety becoming less of an incentive.
. director in developing an accepted, consistent, effective safety
-: management system. It is critical that the top management understand 43) We selected answer B because:
and support the safety & health management system. If the safety
function reports at a high level in a company that does not value safety, Media used for any purpose takes advantage of the two senses people use
the level of reporting is irrelevant. most when learning, sight and hearing. The scale in increasing order is:
• Words, spoken or written
41) We selected answer C because: • Auditory aids
• Still pictures
According to the NSC, the valuable attributes of interactive computer­
• Motion pictures
assisted training, sometimes called computer based training (CBT) or
distance learning are: • Live television
• Workers can work at their own pace. • Displays
• Records can be automatically kept of all training. • Familiarization
• Correct answers are required before the student can proceed. • Demonstration
• Workers receive training as time is available. • Simulations
• Instructors can guide workers step by step thm the lesson plan. • Actual experience
• Works extremely well for organizations with a small workforce or that •
44) We selected answer B because:
cannot remove large groups from their jobs at anyone time.
When someone completes course work away from an actual training Adults want satisfactory answers to the following questions to accept and
facility, it is generally called distance learning. This is an umbrella term apply learning.

for many types of learning, including online training and training 1.) Why is it important?

available through the maiL Before implementing CBT or any type of 2.) How can I apply it?

training, a needs analysis should be completed to ensure that the best 3.) How does it work?

method is being selected. 4.) What do I need to know?

The concept of a learning curve is best described as "the level of


proficiency tends to reach a limit as the time devoted to learning a task
increases".

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48) We selected answer D because:


45) We selected answer D because: According to the VPP Philosophy, the VPP approach to applicants is
The use of a lesson plan will provide standardization to a presentation based on the following principles:
and avoid omission of essential material. The lesson plan also helps the • Voluntarism
instructor conduct the class according to a timetable and should provide • Confidentiality
for student participation or involvement. • Compliance and Beyond
• Hazard Prevention
Presenting technical information requires training and practice. The most • Cooperation - VPP staff and approved VPP participants will work
practical method of delivery is using a manuscript. together to resolve any safety and health problems that may arise
during participation.
The effectiveness of a technical presentation depends upon the trainee as The program consists of four major elements, management commitment,
: well as the instructor. The trainees will be much more open to learning if work site analysis, hazard prevention & control and safety & health
the instructor succeeds in eliciting sense of disequilibrium among the training.
trainees.
49) We selected answer C because:
46) We selected answer B because:
According to 29CFR1910.95 (b) (1) "When employees are subjected to
According to the NSC, the goal of effective training is learning that leads sound exceeding those listed in Table G-16, feasible administrative or
to improved on-the-job performance. engineering controls shall be utilized. If such controls fail to reduce
Other benefits include reduction in rejected production items, sound levels within the levels of Table G-16, personal protective
improvement in housekeeping and the number of preventable accidents is equipment shall be provided and used to reduce sound levels within the
lower. After a training program has been conducted, what is actually levels of the table."
applied on the job will be influenced most by the expectations of the
superiors, peers and subordinates. 50) We selected answer C because:
47) We selected answer B because: 1910.145 (extracted)
The word "sign" refers to a surface on prepared for the warning of,
Risk is defined as the probability that a substance or situation will or safety instructions of, industrial workers or members of the
produce harm under specified conditions. Risk is a combination of two public who may be exposed to hazards. Excluded from this
factors: 1) the probability that an adverse event will occur; 2) the definition, however, are news releases, displays commonly known
consequences of the adverse event. as safety posters, and bulletins used for employee education.
Risk encompasses impacts on public health and on the environment, and
arises from exposure and hazard. Risk does not exist if exposure to a The wording of any sign should be easily read and concise. The
hannful substance or situation does not or will not occur. Hazard is sign should contain sufficient information to be easily understood.
determined by whether a particular substance or situation has the The wording should make a positive, rather than negative
potential to cause harmful effects. Risk ... is the probability of a specific suggestion and should be accurate in fact.
outcome, generally adverse, given a particular set of conditions.
"Major message" means that portion of a tag's inscription that is

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more specific than the signal word and that indicates the specific
53) We selected answer D because:
hazardous condition or the instruction to be communicated to the
employee. Examples include: "High Voltage," "Close Clearance," There are three types of heat detectors you should be familiar with
"Do Not Start," or "Do Not Use" or a corresponding pictograph for the examination. They are listed below with their general
used with a written text or alone. characteristics:

"Signal word" means that portion of a tag's inscription that Fixed-Temperature Designed to alarm when the temperature
contains the word or words that are intended to capture the of the operating element reaches a
employee's immediate attention. specified point. These units are
susceptible to "thermallag".

51) , We selected answer D because:


-; The difference between the risk reductions is .04 - .025 for a net benefit Rate Compensation Designed to alarm when the temperature
of 0.015. To calculate the cost to benefit ratio, divide the cost by the net of the surrounding air reaches a
benefit. predetermined level, regardless of the
rate of temperature rise. Element
250,000 + 0.015 = 16,666,667 configuration compensates for thermal
lag.
52) We selected answer A because:
Rate-of-Rise Designed to alarm when the rate of
Protective signaling systems provide three categories of signals: temperature increase exceeds a
• Alarm signals - used to indicate water flow, manual station actuation, predetermined value (usually 12 to 15°F
fire detector activation, discharge of a system, or other indication of a per minute). An example of use would
fire.
be on a petroleum-based hydraulic pump
• Supervisory signals - used to indicate time critical input, such as guard to prevent explosions.
check-in, or loss of water or agent pressure, valves in wrong position,
exit light not functioning, etc.
• Trouble signals - used to indicate a fault in the system, shorted wiring, 54) We selected answer B because:
loss of signal, ground fault, etc.

Note: The preferred reference for additional study is NFPA 72,


Light hazards require a minimum of 0.1 gpm/sq ft and an additional 100
Protective Signaling Systems. gpm for hose stream demand.
Ordinary hazards require a minimum of 0.15 gpm/sq ft (Group I) and 0.2
gpm/sq ft (Group II) and an additional 250 gpm for hose stream demand.
Extra hazards require a minimum of 0.3 gpm/sq ft (Group I) and 0.4
gpm/sq ft (Group II) and an additional 500 gpm for hose stream demand.

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55) We selected answer C because:


59) We selected answer C because:
Those who oppose use of the term acceptable risk often offer substitute
terms. One frequent suggestion is to say that designers and operators There are 4 Biosafety levels.
should achieve minimum risk levels or minimize the risks. Requiring that • BSL-l - agents not known to consistently cause disease in healthy

systems be designed and operated to minimum risk levels, that risks be adults

minimized, is impractical because the investments necessary to do so • BSL-2 - agents associated with human disease, hazard is from

may be so high that the cost of the product required to recoup the percutaneous injury, ingestion, mucous membrane exposure

investment and make a reasonable profit would not be competitive in the • BSL-3 - indigenous or exotic agents with potential for aerosol

marketplace. transmission; disease may have serious or lethal consequences

• BSL-4 - dangerous/exotic agents which pose high risk of life­

threatening disease; aerosol-transmitted lab infections; or related

56) ..,'.:. We selected answer C because: agents with unknown risk of transmission .

. According to author Joe Kausek of OHSAS 18001 Designing and Additional information can be found in "Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene"
Implementing an Effective Health and Safety Management System,
clause 4.4.4 requires electronic or hard copy of the information that 60) We selected answer D because:
provides an overall description of the main elements of the HSMS, how :1
The purpose of adopting OHSAS 18001 health and safety management ;I

these elements interact and reference to any documents that describe system is to maintain continuous improvement. If the management

these activities in more detail. Normally the first step in establishing system finds a significant reduction in the company's safety performance,

control is to develop a master listing of the procedures, instructions, it should indicate that a comprehensive management review of the items

forms, and other documents that form the basis for the management causing the reduction.

system. This is normally called the master list. A Safety Policy Manual
may serve as the Master List, but is not specifically mentioned, nor 61) We selected answer A because:
therefore required.
According to the National Safety Council, some of the elements of an
effective culture are:
57) We selected answer D because:
• the CEO has to express support for safety and show it by their actions

and decisions.

Answer D is the definition listed in the definitions of 29CFRI910.184. • the management team has to consistently support safe work conditions

and obtain safer materials/machines.

58) We selected answer A because:


• the front-line supervisors need to correct behaviors as well as obtain

ANSI/AIHA Z10 provides the blueprint for widespread benefits in health the right equipment.

and safety, as well as in productivity, financial, performance, quality, and • the workers must want to be safe and work as a team.
other organizational and business objectives. The seven sections include • the union must make safety part of its role in protecting the members.
Management Leadership and Employee Participation, Planning,
Implementation and Operation, Evaluation and Corrective Action, A total safety culture requires continual attention in the domains of

Management Review. environment, person factors and behavior. In an effective organization,

line management is responsible and accountable for enforcing SH&E

policies.

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62) We selected answer B because:


A TQM manager manages with an organization-wide commitment to
continuous work improvement, product quality and totally meeting customer
This is the definition of a project scope. needs, by applying them to all aspects of the operation. Under TQM an
employee's initiative to work safely is achieved by instilling a commitment
to quality teamwork and continual improvement.
63) We selected answer B because:
Management Grid These managers are of several types, the line manager who is responsible for
The 9,1 supervisor would
9 activities making direct contributions to the production of the organizations
be one who is interested
more in production than in
8
1
Concern for 6

1'1,9 9,9/ product, the staff manager who has special technical expertise to advise and
support the line manager and function managers that are responsible for a
t}le interests of their People or 5
I
Relationships 4 support area such as finance, marketing, personnel, etc. A Safety
employees and thus would
3 Professional can have line authority if he works under the plant manager in
be labeled a Dictator or
organizational manager.
2 /1,1 9,1, an operational extension (extended or extensio) capacity. They should also
be sensitive to changes in management styles and be able to characterize
Conversely a 1,9 manager 23456189
them, so that they can understand them and develop programs accordingly.
might be referred to as a Concern for Production or Task

country club manager.


65) We selected answer B because:
64) We selected answer A because:
Section 4-2 of the NFPA 101®, Life Safety Code®, classifies the hazard of
The Theory X manager (according to McGregor's Theory) holds that contents of any building or structure as low, ordinary, or high based on
people must be motivated to work by external reward and punishment the characteristics of the contents. These are not the same classifications
because they are unmotivated toward work. used to categorize sprinkler systems (see NFPA 13).
• Low hazard contents are seldom encountered and consist of
A Theory Y manager assumes all workers are basically interested and materials of such low combustibility that no self propagating fire
motivated to work and therefore have a reduced need for an external can occur.
reward system.
• Ordinary hazard contents are those that are likely to burn with
moderate rapidity or to give off a considerable volume of smoke.
Management by objectives (MBO) is a process of joint objective setting • High hazard contents are classified as those that are likely to burn
between a superior and subordinate. It is also known as management by with extreme rapidity and from which explosions are likely.
results. The managers meet the following perfonnance objectives:
A review of the NFPA 101®, Life Safety Code®, is highly recommended
1. Targets a key result to be accomplished prior to taking the CSP Specialty examination. The fifth edition of the
2. Identifies a date for achieving results "Life Safety Code Handbook" (based on the 1991 code) provides a
3. Offers a realistic (measurable) and attainable challenge background on the reasons for the code and is much easier to read and
4. Is specific and as quantitative as possible comprehend than the code itself.
Note: ® Registered trademark National Fire Protection Association, Inc., Quincy,
MA.
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68) We selected answer C because:


66) We selected answer D because:
Section 29 of the NFPA 101 ®, Life Safety Code®, provides guidance on According to the National Safety Council's definition of Total Quality
the maximum travel distance to exits. In the preceding question the Management (TQM), TQM requires the following:
hazard of the contents was classified as ordinary hazard and the distance
to an exit could not exceed 200 feet, or 400 feet if equipped with an
• commitment by top management to quality in all areas of
approved automatic fire sprinkler system. However, any area used for the organizational life, particularly health and safety.
storage of high hazard materials shall have an exit within 75 feet of the
• training and education in safety matters at all levels of the
point where persons might be present. This distance can be extended to
organization
100 feet when fire sprinkler protection is provided. Travel distances vary
• continuous improvement programs implemented throughout the
with different occupancies, again a review of the Life Safety Code® is
organization
..i certainly in order prior to the examination.
• measure systems used to identify areas where improvements can
67) We selected answer A because: be made.
• communication fostered between management and employees,
encouraging employee involvement and participation in quality
According to the NSC, a needs assessment helps to: improvement.

• Distinguishes between training and nontraining needs 69) We selected answer A because:
• Identifies the problem or need before designing a solution
• Saves time and money by ensuring that solutions effectively
According to the National Safety Council, advanced emergency
address the problems they are intended to solve
management planning should include the following and they should be
• Identifies factors that will impact the training before its ranked as they are sequenced.
development
• provide for the safety of the employees and the public
After the needs assessment, training goals are developed and during that
• protect property and the environment
process you will determine what knowledge the trainee needs to know to
• establish methods to restore operations to normal as soon as
eliminate the problem. Remember, if you want them to tell time, then
teach them how to tell time, not how to build a watch. possible

When developing emergency management plans, sometimes the


fundamental purpose is lost, which is to protect life, property and the
environment. Though command and communication responsibilities are
important and must be part of the planning process, the fundamental
strategies have to be developed to protect people, property and the
environment and then the tactics can be applied.

When developing a risk management plan, one must anticipate what will

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go wrong and make timely attempts to overcome identified loss 72) We selected answer D because:
scenarios. The risk management process consists of the following steps:
According to Dr. Roger l. Brauer in "Safety and Health for Engineers",
• Identify the loss scenarios
making safety part of a supervisor's or manager's daily responsibilities
• Develop alternatives to control them
and including it in their appraisals, job descriptions, apply to possible
• Implement the best solution(s)
promotions and salary increases is the primary requirement for a
• Manage and control the risk successful safety program.
70) We selected answer C because: When determining the staffmg level at a given locations, areas to
consider are the injury rate, the number of recognized hazards and the
Most experts agree that there are two primary actions that influence worker compensation costs per employee. The number of employees
.})ehavior change the most, positive reinforcement and reinforcing the will impact the final decision, but is not as important as the previous
behavior as close to the time of the action as possible. three considerations.

The first step in improving behavior in an organization is to establish an 73) We selected answer A because:
ethics program to address the organization culture issues.
Due to product liability claims, a manufacturer should keep product
71) We selected answer A because: safety records as long as possible. The time varies from state to state.

Frederick Herzberg in his book "Work and the Nature of Man" develops 74) We selected answer D because:
a motivation-hygiene theory. The theory attempts to explain how The key concepts in empowerment strategies are generally felt to include:
. persons are satisfied by certain job factors while being motivated by
• Ownership. Ownership implies trust and should come with delegation
other factors that are quite peripheral to the job being performed.
of authority commensurate with the tasking. No self-directed work
team is truly productive until the team members hold themselves
mutually accountable.
• All contributions are valuable. It is important to value all input and in
Money Achievement
many cases a "try it you will like if' attitude is in order. Every idea is
Status Recognition important to the originator.
• Everyone has a value. All jobs have dignity, treat everyone with
Relationships with Boss Enjoyment of work
respect.
Company policies Possibility of promotion • Listen to the smallest voice. Contributions come from all comers,
often the greatest offering will come from the lowest stature
Work rules Responsibility
employee.
Working conditions Chance for growth • Delegate authority to the lowest possible level. If the employees are
As is shown in the chart money is a hygiene or satisfaction factor as competent then let them do their job. No one knows more about the
opposed to a motivation factor. particulars of a job than the person doing it.

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• Teams must own the problem. Teams must be given autonomy. If


77) We selected answer D because:
management does not trust the team, then management is the problem.
Management, within reason, cannot change the recommendations that Answer D is the ASHRAE definition of a "Sick Building".
come from the teams.
78) We selected answer C because:
Selection "D" offers a typical bureaucratic review process that will kill The bar-coding system would be the best choice for tool accountability.
the initiative of a team, because it burdens them with extensive In this type of system, tools entering an area would be scanned prior to
justification at many levels. Ownership is a simple concept, but hard to the employee entering. When work was completed, the tools would be
accomplish. Any attempt at nitpicking, over supervision, rephrasing, scanned as they left the area. If a tool were left inside, the final scan list
rearranging etc. will undermine the empowerment thru ownership would show that a tool had entered and was not scanned as having left
strategy. the area. This type of system is widely used in industries where an errant
....
~

tool left in an area could cause damage or result in other severe


75) tie selected answer B because: consequences. Associating employee numbers to tools checked out from
This is the definition of an environmental audit, sometimes called a a tool crib would aid in accounting for who was using certain tools.
compliance audit. However, just checking out the tool would not be sufficient for
accounting as to the location of the tool (i.e.; tool bag, left behind).
An environmental site assessment is a process that seeks to characterize a
physical property or operation from an environmental view with an 79) We selected answer C because:
overall objective of understanding site-specific conditions. Information Bureaucratic organizations, formally, are defined by these main features:
is collected through interviews, record reviews and first-hand • hierarchy of control (Le. decisions are made one or more levels above
observations. It may also involve testing environmental media and where the work is done)
facility characteristics.
• specialization of function (resulting in some efficiencies but also in
non-communicating sub-cultures within their "silos" or "chimneys")
These definitions are not used consistently throughout the profession, so • centralization of information and control (resulting in under­
ensure you are clear about the definitions with the parties that you are utilizing the knowledge and creativity of most workers and managers)
engaged in operations with.
• formal rules, policies and procedures govern behavior (resulting in
greater consistency but creating structures that are very hard to change
76) We selected answer C because:
when it becomes necessary
• strict separation of the private life from official role of all employees
Some safety engineering professionals question the lack of design and (Bidwell, 1986)
engineering influence on the accident causation model advanced by
management theorists (based on behavioral aspects). However, The ES&H manager should give attention to outside influences such as
understanding the motivations for people's actions, as well as realizing the external environment, community interests and other external
how they act, allows us to design better and safer facilities, equipment concerns. The Contingency management style is the primary style that
and tools. reacts to outside influences.

When choosing an appropriate organizational model, a manager should


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understand that there are mUltiple arrangements that will produce the best
result with minimum difficulty in the situation in which the organization The ISO 14000 family addresses "environmental management". This
operates. Given the discretion and the fact that some configurations means what the organization does to:
appear to influence employee performance and satisfaction, managers • minimize harmful effects on the environment caused by its
should consider carefully the behavioral implications when they make activities, and to
structural decisions.
• achieve continual improvement of its environmental performance.
80) We selected answer A because:
82) We selected answer C because:
According to the National Safety Council, SH&E audits are performed Most of the Behavior Based Safety experts define the "continuous
for the following reasons (listed in order of importance).
improvement safety process as consisting of:
J. determine and document compliance status
• specifying standards
;2. improve overall SH&E performance

3. assist facility management • measuring compliance


4. increase the overall level of SH&E awareness • providing feedback on improvements
5. accelerate the overall development of SH&E management control
systems 83) We selected answer B because:
6. improve SH&E risk management system The single most important part of a successful product recall is the
7. protect the company from potential liabilities establishment of a detailed written plan that outlines individual and
8. develop a basis for optimizing SH&E resources company responsibilities and actions. This "Emergency Action Plan"
9. assess facility management's ability to achieve SH&E goals must encompass all aspects of a recall and could include items such as;
communication of a warning if necessary; details of the hazard;
81 ) We selected answer D because: instructions for continued usage or return; removal and modification of
existing products from inventory; compensation for injury; investigation
The ISO 9000 ("quality management") and ISO 14000 ("environmental of the causes of error, lack of warning, or design etc.
management") families are among ISO's most widely known standards
ever. ISO 9000 has become an international reference for quality 84) We selected answer D because:
requirements in business to business dealings, and ISO 14000 looks set to
achieve at least as much, if not more, in helping organizations to meet This is the definition of a work breakdown structure (WBS). The
their environmental challenges. The ISO 9000 family addresses WBS also organizes and defines the total scope of the project. Each
"quality management". This means what the organization does to descending level represents an increasingly detailed definition of the
fulfill: project work. The WBS is decomposed into work packages. The
deliverable orientation of the hierarchy includes both internal and
• the customer's quality requirements, and external deliverables.
• applicable regulatory requirements, while aiming to enhance
customer satisfaction, and
• achieve continual improvement of its performance in pursuit of
these objectives.

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85) We selected answer C because: 88) We selected answer D because:


The operational control delegated the safety engineer to shut down
Business Interruption Insurance reimburses the insured for profits and dangerous jobs by the General Manager is functional or line authority.
fixed charges lost as a result of damage from a named peril (fine in this This authority, or lack of it, is hotly debated by safety and health
case). The policy will cover the insured subject to the following professionals. One position calls the delegation of such power
conditions: unnecessary. This opinion states that even the threat of a shutdown is
1.) There must be physical damage to property most certainly going to be a confrontational issue. An issue that will
2.) There must be a shutdown of business caused by the physical eventually have to be resolved by higher authority and that often leads to
damage long lasting negative relations between staff and operations. The other
3.) During the shutdown, it must be established that the business side of this debate feels they need the reserve strength over line managers
would have continued to operate and would have continued to because of the conflict between organizational demands and safety
4 earn profits concerns. They further advance the argument by noting that the act of
delegation of authority is in itself a strong commitment by senior
Declarations, conditions, exclusions and the insuring agreement itself management to the safety process.
form an insurance contract.
The authority of the safety professional has been linked to accident
86) We selected answer C because: experience in many studies. Since the job is usually of a staff nature, the
authority is usually subtle. It is most effectively derived if the safety
Business Interruption insurance covers loss of income plus any fixed professional enjoys the confidence of a major executive.
costs resulting from the shutdown, such as clean-up or start-up costs. I
Based on the last year, this company was making an average of $1,000 Another term that is used is "extensio", which is Latin for the state of
per day. For a three-day shutdown, the total insurance coverage would be being extended or the General Manager's authority has been extended to
$3,000 plus the $1,000 clean-up/start-up costs. In reality, this would be the Safety Professional.
much more complicated involving a total accounting of all earnings and
costs expected during the downtime. 89) We selected answer D because:
According to Willie Hammer in "Handbook ofSystem and Product
Safety", answers A, B and C are correct.
87) We selected answer D because:
90) We selected answer C because:
Standard Fire Policies for business property normally include the
At the bottom of Maslow's "Hierarchy of human needs" are the
building and contents of the building. In many states, a "general form" is
physiological or survival needs of food, water and physical well-being.
used to define and describe the property to be insured. This general form According to the progression principle, as soon as these survival needs
1describes "stock" as all merchandise, raw materials, goods in progress, are met, one attempts to satisfy the next level of needs; those of, security,
packaging materials, labels, etc. It also describes separately such items as
protection and stability in day-to-day life activities. If these are met, one
furniture, fixtures, machinery, appliances, tools and accounting records. moves on to social needs, etc. The first three needs in the model are
called lower order needs and are concerns for a persons desire for social

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and physical well being. The top two needs in the pyramid are the high 92) We selected answer A because:
order needs that satisfy psychological development and growth. Maslow's
needs are often used as the most elementary model in the complex study According to Grimaldi and Simonds in "Safety Management" the basic
of mans needs and desires. The chart below shows how needs are principle of the modem method of estimating the uninsured costs of work
satisfied in life and in business. injuries and "accidents" includes lost time cases, doctor's cases, first -aid
cases and no-injury accidents.
Life in general ~ Human ---7 On the job
Needs
93) We selected answer B because:
Need for self fulfillment; to grow and Self­ Providing creative-challenging work, allow
use abilities to fullest and most ~ Actualization ~ participation in decision making, flexibility
creative extent and autonomy According the NFPA Hazardous MaterialslWMD Response Handbook (2008),
Need for esteem in eyes of others, Esteem Responsibility for important jobs,
All of the answers are tasks for the Incident Commander. A vital step during
need for respect,'prestige, recognition ~ ~ promotion to higher status, praise and

pre-incident planning is to identify these agencies. The first thing to establish is


and self esteem,ri>ersonal sense of recognition from superiors

competence and mastery


the Incident command system and designate who is in charge. The National
Need for love, affection, sense of Social Friendly co-workers, satisfying interaction
Incident Management System Establishes the following functions as the
belonging in one's relationships with ~ ~ with customers or clients, pleasant primary responsibilities of the incident commander:
other people supervisor • Have Clear Authority and know agency policy
Need for security, protection and Safety ~ Safe working conditions, job security, base • Ensure incident safety
stability in the events of everyday ~ ---, salary and benefits
living
• Establish the incident command post (lCP)
• Set Priorities, determine incident objectives and strategies
Most basic of all needs includes the Physiological Rest and refreshment breaks, physical
need for food, water and physical ~ ~ comfort on the job, reasonable work hours • Establish the incident command system (lCS)
well-being • Approve the incident response plan (lAP)
• Coordinate command and general staff activities
91) We selected answer B because: • Approve resource requests and use of volunteers and auxiliary personnel
Safety Consultants Professional Liability covers errors and omissions, • Order demobilization as needed
libel and slander, negligence, oral and written publication of information • Ensure after action review
that causes damage and infringement upon copyrighted materials. Safety
Consultants Commercial General Liability covers bodily injury/property 94) We selected answcr"A~ait'el :; ~.f ~;. .;~~
damage, fire damage and medical expenses. The publication Process 8a~'Leading and Lagging Metrics, published
by the Center for Chemical Process Safety (2007) gives specifically
related guidance on determining and applying leading and lagging
indicators in the practice of safety. Three types of process safety
performance metrics are described and the text on their selection and
application is extensive. The metrics are lagging metrics, leading metrics,
and near miss and other intemallagging metrics. The metrics pertain only
to chemical process incidents and near misses, to the exclusion of types
of incidents that are not process related. The leading process safety
metrics given particular attention are: maintenance of mechanical
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integrity; action items follow-up; management of change; process safety
Notes
training and competency (and training competency assessment).
Companies should identify which of these components are most
important for ensuring the safety of their facilities, and should select the
most meaningfu] leading metrics from the examples [above], and where
significant performance improvement potentially exists. Other leading
metrics may be defined as well if applicable.

95) We selected answer B because:


Use of the ALARA concept as a guideline originated in the atomic
eliergy
... field and stands for as low as reasonably achievable and precedes
the term ALARP. According to Nuclear Regulatory Commission
ALARA means making every reasonable effort to maintain exposures to
ionizing radiation as far below the dose limits as practical; ALARP
stands for as low as reasonably practicable and promotes a management
review, the intent of which is to achieve acceptable risk levels. Several
depictions of the ALARP concept begin with an inverted triangle because
it indicates that risk is greater at the top and much less at the bottom.

'e.ERT "SE UBRARY


___ !?RfCli'ERTY

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