Certified Safety Professional Practice Questions

Certified Safety
Professional
Practice Questions
TABLE OF CONTENTS
CSP PRACTICE TEST _____________________________________________________ 1
ANSWER KEY AND EXPLANATIONS _________________________________________ 39
CSP Practice Test
1. Within the realm of statistics, which of the following is TRUE with regard to the
fundamental counting principle?
a. When the principle is applied for a given sample, the standard deviation is always equal to
the variance.
b. The order or position of an occurrence always affects the overall probabilistic outcome of
an entire event.
c. The number of possible permutations is always greater than the possible number of
combinations.
d. The number of possible permutations is always less than the possible number of
combinations.
2. Which of the following sets of colors is associated with the NFPA 704 Diamond System for
the labeling of hazardous materials?
a. Magenta, green, black, gold
b. Blue, green, orange, white
c. Red, yellow, green, black
d. Yellow, blue, red, white
3. A company is developing a new pharmaceutical product to help counteract the effects of

mercury poisoning. Before it comes to market, however, the company must first seek
approval by which of the following U.S. government agencies?
a. U.S. Department of Health and Human Services (DHHS)
b. U.S. National Institute for Drug Abuse (NIDA)
c. U.S. Consumer Product Safety Commission (CPSC)
d. U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
4. Which of the following is NOT typically categorized as a “class” of hazard within an

industrial or process setting?
a. First-responder conveyance
b. Falling of loads
c. Handling of materials
d. Materials being in motion
5. If an injured worker wishes to file litigation against a company he or she feels is

responsible for his or her maladies, which of the following attorneys should he or she most
likely consult?
a. Compensatory tort
b. Criminal
c. Civil
d. OSHA attorney-general delegate
6. What are the two different categories of workers’ compensation laws?

a. Antecedent and post-factual
b. Compulsory and elective
c. Standard and closure
d. Transitional and disability
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7. Which of the following is NOT typically regarded as a primary safety hazard associated
with the use of powered vehicles in a work area?
a. Potential carbon monoxide overexposure
b. Exceeding load limits
c. Blind spots
d. Operator physical overexertion
8. What is the conventional definition of a blasting agent?

a. A material that demonstrates adequate stability in a stand-alone condition yet possesses
enough exothermic potential to prompt an explosion when initiated
b. A material, such as TNT, designed to detonate upon a threshold catalyst
c. A material designed to explode upon mechanical impact
d. Any solid or liquid substance that will easily ignite above standard temperature and
pressure (STP) conditions
9. Which of the following is NOT a type of conveyor mechanism that is primarily used for
transporting bulk products or materials within an industrial setting?
a. Belts
b. Buckets
c. Winches
d. Rollers
10. If a very large construction company experiences 369 work-related deaths, worldwide,
over a recent 10-year span, about what number of them would likely be attributable to falls?
a. 30
b. 80
c. 150
d. 210
11. What device is commonly used in industrial settings to measure potentially hazardous
noise levels?
a. An acoustics meter
b. A noise dosimeter
c. An audiometer
d. A gain-differential inductance meter
12. Which of the following is NOT a typical injury or illness-related metric that is regularly
tracked by federal agencies?
a. Frequency of work-related retaliation events
b. Frequency of work-related deaths
c. Frequency of job transfers
d. Frequency of restricted duty
13. Which of the following terms is typically NOT associated with the domain of gas or vapor
sampling?
a. Colorimetry
b. Chromatograph
c. Centrifugal separation
d. Grab sample
2
14. Which of the following is NOT inclusive of the OSHA Classification System for
Occupational Illnesses and Conditions?
a. Respiratory-related disorders or conditions
b. Radiation-related disorders or conditions
c. Skin-related disorders or conditions
d. Blunt trauma-related disorders or conditions
15. U.S. citizen employees who live and work in the United States have a legal right to
___________ certain records under their name.
a. inspect
b. replace
c. purge
d. transfer
16. A CSP and an industrial hygienist determine that the intensity of a certain physical
parameter or phenomenon within a work area measures two footlamberts. Which of the
following is being measured?
a. Gamma radiation
b. Ultraviolet radiation
c. Microwaves
d. Visible light
17. To counteract high-pressure environments (e.g., that seen during deep underwater
diving), which of the following tactics is typically implemented to counteract the potential
effects of nitrogen narcosis?
a. Replacing nitrogen with inert surrogate gases, such as helium
b. Increasing supplied-air oxygen levels by 0.5 percent for every 10 ft of depth
c. Requiring an ascension rate of at least 10 ft per min
d. Limiting underwater excursions to less than 1 hr for depths greater than 50 ft
18. Per the U.S. Clean Air Act, which of the following outdoor concentration readings would
be considered a violation of National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS)?
a. 0.5 ppm of carbon monoxide over an 8-hr period
b. 0.05 ppm of ozone over an 8-hr period
c. 1.0 μg/m3 of lead over a 3-month period
d. 10 ppb of sulfur dioxide over a 1-hr period
19. Which of the following functional-notation representations would depict a discount

factor for a present dollar value given a future value at a 3 percent annual interest rate over
7 years?
a. (F|P, 7, 3%)
b. (P|F, 3%, 7)
c. (P|F, 7, 3%)
d. (F|P, 3%, 7)
3
20. What is a typical three-step process that should always be employed in industrial
settings if there has been a hazardous material(s) spill?
a. Inspection, notification, cleanup
b. Isolation, mitigation, remediation
c. Evacuation, notification, remediation
d. Safety, containment, notification
21. Acquired data from two distinct and separate variables is known as which of the
following?
a. Bimodal data
b. Bivariate data
c. Tandem-statistical corollaries
d. Quadratic-bipolar data
22. In this data set (3, 7, 9, 12, 26, 32, 45, 58), which of the following is the mode?
a. 19
b. 24
c. None
d. 0
23. If the illustration shown here represents a standard normal distribution, approximately
what percent of the total area below the curve is comprised of [(–2sd < x < –sd) + (0 < x <
sd)]?
a. 44 percent
b. 48 percent
c. 52 percent
d. 56 percent
24. Which of the following U.S. federal agencies is responsible for distributing statistical
information pertaining to job-related injuries and illnesses?
a. U.S. Occupational Safety and Health Administration
b. U.S. Department of Health and Human Services
c. U.S. Bureau of Labor Statistics
d. U.S. National Institute of Occupational Safety and Health
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25. An ex-employee is looking to pursue legal action against his or her company for alleged
wrongdoing. The company, in turn, is planning on defending itself based upon the fellow-
servant rule. Which of the following grievance subject areas is the employee pursuing legal
action for?
a. Wrongful termination
b. On-the-job injury
c. Racial discrimination
d. Sexual harassment
26. Which agency or organization is typically responsible for setting the rate premiums that
employers will pay for workers’ compensation insurance?
a. U.S. Department of Commerce
b. U.S. Department of Labor
c. National Council on Compensation Insurance
d. National Commission on Banking and Insurance Fiscal Regulation
27. Sound octaves are conventionally characterized by _______________ with sequential octaves
normally differing by a factor of _______________.
a. wavelength, 10
b. pitch, 100
c. frequency, 2
d. tone, 10
28. If a pregnant employee is concerned about her child being exposed to potential
teratogenic sources, which of the following should she avoid?
a. Microwave radiation
b. PCBs
c. Coffee
d. Acetic acid
29. Which of the following is typically NOT a potential mode of particulate contamination?
a. Aerosols
b. Gases
c. Mists
d. Fumes
30. Which of the following is usually NOT regarded as a hazard typically related to the use of
high-pressure receptacles and containers?
a. Pressures exceeding design safety levels
b. Higher fire risks due to enhanced oxygen levels in certain containers
c. Container failure due to corrosion
d. Use of containers without always venting excess buildup
31. A monitoring system should be employed in tandem with a(n) _______________ system to
alert workforces of potentially hazardous conditions being at hand.
a. warning
b. emergency response
c. shutdown
d. actuator
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32. Which of the following is NOT a typical telltale sign that a chemical reaction may be
ensuing as the result of a spill?
a. Emission of smoke or vapor
b. Evaporation or sublimation
c. Bubble formation
d. Unusual odors
33. What is a financial covenant typically between an individual (e.g., an investor) and a
corporate or government body that guarantees to repay an investment, plus accrued
interest, at a predesignated time is known as?
a. A bond
b. A certificate of deposit
c. An equity agreement
d. A margin call
34. Which of the following graphical tools is typically regarded as the MOST useful for clearly
illustrating data groups that may fall within a particular value range?
a. Histogram
b. Bar graph
c. Stem-and-leaf plot
d. Box-and-whisker plot
35. Which of the following statistical parameters is NOT utilized if one wishes to calculate a
measure of dispersion for a given data set?
a. Variance
b. Standard deviation
c. Range
d. Median
36. What is the approximate standard deviation (σ) for the following “entire population”
data set?
(2, 7, 11, 24, 44, 62, 79, 81, 105, 120, 139, 162)
a. 39
b. 52
d. 54
d. 70
37. Which of the following is NOT a typical shape or characterization of a frequency curve?
a. Multimodal
b. Skewed
c. J-shaped
d. Step functional
38. If a population of 100,000 people incurred an “LD50” exposure to radiation or chemicals,

approximately how many acute deaths in that population would be expected?
a. 0
b. 2,000
c. 50,000
d. 100,000
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39. Which of the following is a detailed and systematic process to evaluate potential risks
associated with the design and operation of a multifaceted, complex technology?
a. Probabilistic risk assessment
b. Failure modes and effects analysis
c. Hazards assessment
d. Documented safety analysis
40. A group of individuals meets within an organization to discuss several potential tools
that may be used for assessing a wide range of workplace system hazards. One of the
individuals, in particular, insists that the best tool to employ for such a purpose is a
“simultaneous, timed-events plotting analysis” and has successfully utilized them
throughout his or her career. What is the MOST likely area of expertise of this individual?
a. Root-cause analysis
b. Probabilistic risk assessment
c. Industrial engineering
d. Safety engineering
41. Within the specific quality assurance domains of audits and inspections, what does the
acronym CAQ typically stand for?
a. Certification of Absolute Qualification
b. Condition Adverse to Quality
c. Codified Audit Query
d. Correction to Annotated Quantity
42. An individual who is employed by the U.S. Department of Defense has recently been
granted a “secret” level security clearance. Per U.S. NISPOM protocols, which of the following
document cover color combinations would the employee be allowed to access?
a. Brown, orange, red
b. Orange, amber, green
c. Red, green, blue
d. Blue, gray, green
43. A craft employee who was not paying attention while working with a circular saw lost
two fingers in an accident. Corporate Health and Safety Management reported the accident
to OSHA approximately 40 hours after the incident. According to OSHA 29 CFR 1904.39, the
company is
a. in violation of the allowable reporting time frame.
b. in compliance with the allowable reporting time frame.
c. in the probation zone of the allowable reporting time frame.
d. not required to file an OSHA report but is instead required to file with the U.S. Department
of Labor.
44. In a total workforce of 200 people (who each work 2,000 hours over a calendar year), if
there are 10 total cases of missed workdays, restricted duty, or transfer due to work-related
injuries over that calendar year, what is the resulting DART rate?
a. 10
b. 5
c. 20
d. 2
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45. A bar graph most closely resembles which of the following illustrative tools?
a. A box-and-whiskers graph
b. A stem-and-leaf plot
c. A histogram
d. A rectangular-regression plot
46. A job hazard analysis is performed for an upcoming task that is to take place within a
very high radiation area. What type of instrumentation would be most appropriate for use
by health physicists (or rad-techs) for determining actual radiation levels of the area before
workers enter to perform their assigned task?
a. A teletector
b. A Geiger counter
c. A multichannel analyzer
d. A thermoluminescent dosimeter (TLD)
47. A “fishbone diagram” is also known as which of the following?

a. A failure modes and effects analysis
b. An event tree study
c. A hazard and operability study
d. A cause-and-effect analysis
48. The 50th percentile value of a normal distribution is also always denoted as which of the
following?
a. Mean
b. Median
c. Mode
d. The bisecting point
49. Which of the following audit-finding classifications is usually considered the most
serious?
a. Conditions adverse to quality
b. Corrective action issue
c. Near miss
d. Tier-1 infraction
50. Per OSHA directive, VPP Merit-status employers are expected to commit to the
pursuance of star status within a period of how many years?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
51. A waste storage receptacle containing sulfuric acid from used batteries should have
which of the following waste code designation numbers?
a. D-001
b. D-002
c. D-003
d. D-004
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52. Which of the following should be regularly implemented or reviewed in coordination
with preliminary task walk-downs and pre-job briefings prior to the commencement of
activities?
a. Job safety analysis (JSA)
b. Task self-assessment (TSA)
c. Probabilistic risk assessment (PRA)
d. Hazard and operability study (HAZOP)
53. Which of the following is NOT an established component of NIOSH’s lifting equation?
a. Lifting index (LI)
b. Recommended weight limit (RWL)
c. Leverage stability coefficient (LSC)
d. Load constant (LC)
54. A floor surface that has a moderate slip potential has a coefficient of friction approaching
which of the following values?
a. –0.8
b. –0.5
c. 0.4
d. 0.8
55. In the following Cartesian data-point set, which of the following points would be
considered an anomaly compared to the others? [(0.5, 1.4), (2, 6), (4, 11.8), (7, 20), (9, 22),
(12, 37), (15, 45.8), (17, 50)]
a. (9, 22)
b. (0.5, 1.4)
c. (15, 45.8)
d. None
56. Which of the following is a TRUE statement with regard to root-cause analyses (RCAs)?
a. There can only be one tangible underlying root cause outcome for any given RCA.
b. An RCA is only performed after an event has occurred.
c. Historical RCAs should not be utilized for predicting possible events before they occur.
d. Incident management processes and RCAs are normally integrated and implemented in
tandem.
57. If a calculated statistical variance for a sample of data values is found to be

approximately 2.76, what is the associated standard deviation value correlated to that
variance?
a. 1.66
b. 7.62
c. 1.38
d. 5.52
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58. A masonry construction company regularly employs the use of a powder that is
comprised of 5 percent silica. What would be its calculated PEL (in ppm) when in use?
a. 2.76 ppm
b. 1.99 ppm
c. 1.41 ppm
d. 0.83 ppm
59. Xylene is being generated within a work area per the following contributory parameters:
V = 100,000 ft3, Q’ = 2,000 cfm, and G = 3 cfm, whereby V is the volume of the work
area; Q’ is the air flow rate in the work area divided by a design distribution
constant; and G is the contaminant generation rate. How much time will elapse
before the xylene concentration in the work area reaches 150 ppm?
a. 5.27 min
b. 7.64 min
c. 10.29 min
d. 13.88 min
60. For a worker deployed outdoors with a solar load, what is the calculated wet-bulb
temperature if the globe temperature is 85°F, the dry-bulb temperature is 92°F, and the wet-
bulb globe temperature index is 103°F?
a. 80.4°F
b. 91.2°F
c. 93.3°F
d. 109.7°F
61. Given the following set of data, what is the calculated correlation coefficient between the
two variables x and y?
x y
3 2
5 4
8 6
11 9
14 13
16 15
Total 57 49
Average 9.5 8.2
a. 1.000
b. 0.995
c. 0.990
d. 0.985
62. If the partial-pressure of Gasx = 12 atm, Gasy = 28 atm, and Gasz = 50 atm, what is the total
calculated pressure of the mixture of Gases x, y, and z?
a. 30 atm
b. 50 atm
c. 90 atm
d. None of the above
10
63. A steel wire is measured to have an electrical resistivity of 20 ohm-m. What is the
associated conductivity of this wire?
a. 0.05 siemens-m-1
b. 20 siemens-m-1
c. 1.0 siemens-m-1
d. 0 siemens-m-1
64. A company’s tool and die fabrication process requires a certain mold to be consistently
manufactured at a 3.25-in thickness. Seven random mold samples were collected and found
to have the following thickness measurements (in in): 3.21, 3.28, 3.32, 3.36, 3.25, 3.29, and
3.22. What is the calculated “t” value for the collected samples?
a. 1.356
b. 1.279
c. 1.183
d. 1.095
65. If a system (X) has two (and only two) codependent subsystems (y and z) required for its
operation, with one having a 0.0001 failure rate and the other having a 0.001 failure rate,
what is the overall probability of failure for the entire system (X)?
a. 0.001
b. 0.0001
c. 0.0011
d. 0.00055
66. If the pH of a sulfuric acid solution used in an industrial setting must be below 1.5 to burn
through worker PPE, what must the minimum associated hydrogen-ion concentration of that
acid be to reach such a pH?
a. 1.27
b. 0.76
c. 4.48
d. 0.032
67. A safety training examination given to 50 students showed a mean score of 74.3 percent,
with a standard deviation of 6.9. Only one student scored exactly an 80 percent on the exam.
If a normal distribution is assumed, how many students received a higher score than this
one student?
Z 0.00 0.01 0.02 0.03 0.04 0.05 0.06 0.07 0.08 0.09
0.7 0.7580 0.7611 0.7642 0.7673 0.7704 0.7734 0.7764 0.7794 0.7823 0.7852
0.8 0.7881 0.7910 0.7939 0.7967 0.7995 0.8023 0.8051 0.8078 0.8106 0.8133
0.9 0.8159 0.8186 0.8212 0.8238 0.8264 0.8289 0.8315 0.8340 0.8365 0.8389
a. 8
b. 10
c. 12
d. 14
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68. What is the calculated numerical difference (i.e., delta) between the upper-control limit
(UCL) and lower-control limit (LCL) for an accident control-chart distribution with the
following statistical parameters?
Mean = 6.50
Standard deviation (σ) = 0.75
Number of allowable standard deviations from the mean (z) = 3
a. 4.5
b. 2.25
c. 1.5
d. 1.125
69. In this right triangle, the tangent (TAN) of angle <BAC is equal to which of the following?
a. (0.50 ÷ 1.414)
b. x÷8
c. [(8)1/2] ÷ x
d. (6.93 ÷ 4)
70. Which of the following would have a larger “failure-per-hr” rate: a car engine component
operating for 10,000 hours with an established reliability of 0.998 or an aircraft component
operating for 20,000 hours with an established reliability of 0.997?
a. The car engine component would have a larger rate.
b. The aircraft component would have a larger rate.
c. The failure-per-hr rates would be identical.
d. It is not possible to determine from the information provided.
71. The following series of force equations characterizes a static hoist apparatus used in the
workplace for a given task:
2x1 + x2 – 4x3 = 6 N
5y1 = 3.5 N
x3 = 2y1
What is the calculated force of x2 given that x1 ≠ 0?
a. 2.250 newtons
b. 5.167 newtons
c. 14.429 newtons
d. cannot be determined from the information provided
72. If over a 5-year span, a large chemical processing company sees a total of 425 worker
accidents or injuries across the United States, according to H. W. Heinrich, approximately
how many of these accidents would likely be the result of direct actions of individuals?
a. 190
b. 265
c. 325
d. 375
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73. What is an endeavor to uncover and reduce hazards that may be at hand for product or
system users as well as to those who are accountable for their maintenance conventionally
known as?
a. Preliminary hazard analysis
b. Occupational health hazard assessment
c. Documented safety analysis
d. Technical safety requirement evaluation
74. In a fault-tree sequence, Events A, B, and C have estimated probabilities (frequencies) of

occurrence equal to 0.1, 0.01, and 0.005, respectively. For a resulting system failure to occur
(Event D), Events A and B or Events A and C must transpire. According to the fault-tree’s
analysis, what is the approximate overall probability that Event D may occur?
a. 0.0015
b. 0.0000050
c. 0.0010
d. 0.1150
75. A vehicle is moving along at a steady speed of 50 m/s. The driver then notices a
pedestrian up ahead and cautiously elects to slow down at a rate of –6 m/s. He or she
continues the deceleration for 100 m until the pedestrian completely moves out of the
thoroughfare, at which point he or she begins to accelerate again. What is the vehicle’s speed
at the point where the driver begins to accelerate again?
a. 30 mph
b. 32 mph
c. 34 mph
d. 36 mph
76. A plaintiff has sued a company regarding a wrongful injury he or she allegedly incurred
from the use of one of its products. During subsequent legal proceedings, the following took
place: (1) it was conclusively demonstrated that the product was indeed defective; (2) it was
conclusively demonstrated that the product was defective upon departure of the defendant’s
stewardship; and (3) it was suggested but not conclusively demonstrated that the defect was
responsible for the plaintiff's injury. As such, which of the following determinations would
likely result from the proceedings?
a. The defendant is found responsible for consumer fraud.
b. The defendant is found responsible for obligatory culpability.
c. The defendant is found responsible for strict liability.
d. None of the above will occur.
77. Per Mining Safety and Health Administration (MSHA) protocol, what is the calculated
severity measure (SM) rate for a mining operation that had five lost workdays and 125,000
hours worked over a given calendar year?
a. 8
b. 12
c. 5
d. 1.2
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78. If two separate containers are being simultaneously filled with a chemical at a rate of 2.5
gal/min, with one container being cylindrically shaped with a diameter of 12 in and a height
of 24 in, whereas the other is box shaped with dimensions of 16 in x 9 in x 30 in, which one
will have overflowed after exactly 4 min of filling?
a. The cylinder container
b. The box container
c. Neither
d. Both
79. The following list is comprised of hazard scores associated with each of the noted
categories within a given work area, on a scale from 1 to 10, where 1 depicts a minimal
hazard and 10 depicts a maximal hazard:
Hazard Score
Chemical containment 4
Noise 3
Open floor plans / 8
tripping
Lighting 1
Electrical 6
Fire suppression 2
Ergonomics 9
Machinery pinch points 7
From this data, which of the following can likely be surmised as a TRUE statement?
a. The measured 8-hr average ambient noise level in the work area is likely in the range of 90
to 95 dBA.
b. There are several partially exposed gears, pulleys, and/or belts in the work area that are in
need of more robust guarding.
c. The average ambient lighting level in the subject work area is approximately 2 foot-candles.
d. Most fire extinguishers in the work area are of the incorrect type and are past due for
inspection.
80. The half-life of the isotope Cobalt-60 is approximately 5.3 years. If the measured dose
rate from a subject point source at time = t0 is 2,000 mrem/hr at a distance of 9 ft,
approximately how long may one be exposed at a distance of 4 ft at time = to + 16 years
without exceeding the 10 CFR 20 annual occupational dose limit of 5 rem/year?
a. 1 hr
b. 2 hrs
c. 3 hrs
d. 4 hrs
81. Which of the following is larger: the measured area between the function f(x) = 2x3 + x2 –
5 and the x-axis between the points x1 = 0 and x2 = 3 or the area of a circle with a
circumference equal to 25. Note: both the function and the circle are plotted in the same
Cartesian coordinate system.
a. The function is larger.
b. The circle is larger.
c. Both areas are approximately the same in value.
d. it is not possible to determine which area is larger from the information provided.
14
82. Which of the following constitutes an example of an involuntary risk scenario?
a. Driving a car
b. Eating 3-month-old eggs
c. Breathing in secondhand smoke
d. Living on a golf course
83. A worker was exposed to a hazardous chemical for 4 hrs per day over a 3-day period. One
month later, the individual was diagnosed with a liver condition that has historically been
shown to manifest as a result of exposure to this chemical. Which of the following
characterizations hence most accurately depicts the type of exposure and health effects that
were incurred by the subject worker for this particular case?
a. Chronic exposure and localized health effects
b. Acute exposure and systemic health effects
c. Chronic exposure and systemic health effects
d. Acute exposure and localized health effects
84. In a horizontally oriented fire system (i.e., no elevation throughout the system), water
flows through a 4-in pipe. The measured head loss in a 500-ft section of the system is 20 ft.
The pressure at Point A is 30 psi, and the velocity at point A is 8 ft/s. If the velocity at Point B
is 10 ft/s, what is the pressure at Point B?
a. 16.8 psi
b. 19.3 psi
c. 21.1 psi
d. 24.7 psi
85. If a 170-1b worker falls off of a 20-ft-high scaffold, what would his approximate speed (in
mph) be at ground impact?
a. 25 mph
b. 31 mph
c. 21 mph
d. 16 mph
86. A parameter that is conventionally used to measure the quantity of time that an
unprotected worker may remain in an area that has been infiltrated by a known amount of
hazardous or toxic gas (or fumes) without suffering any adverse health effects is known as
an emergency exposure limit (EEL). Most EELs fall into which of the following time-unit
ranges?
a. S to min
b. Min to hrs
c. Hrs to days
d. Days to weeks
87. Which of the following isotopes is both radiologically and chemically hazardous to
human health?
a. Lead-208
b. Argon-40
c. Mercury-202
d. Plutonium-239
15
88. The following is a compendium of noise-level measurements within an assessed work
area over a two-week time span. From the provided data, which of the following conclusions
should be drawn?
Measurement Number of Hours Measurement Measurement
Day Measured Range Average
1 of 10 6.75 74-81 dBA 77 dBA
2 of 10 8 67-79 dBA 71 dBA
3 of 10 3 86-88 dBA 87 dBA
4 of 10 8 71-92 dBA 79 dBA
5 of 10 7 81-85 dBA 84 dBA
6 of 10 3.5 77-80 dBA 78 dBA
7 of 10 8 58-72 dBA 67 dBA
8 of 10 6.5 66-70 dBA 69 dBA
9 of 10 2.25 89-94 dBA 93 dBA
10 of 10 7.5 75-83 dBA 78 dBA
a. The work area should be designated as a hazardous noise area as per OSHA 1910.95, with
mandatory hearing protection PPE always worn.
b. The work area should be designated as a hazardous noise area as per OSHA 1910.95, with
hearing protection PPE recommended.
c. The work area meets the minimum TWA threshold levels of a part-time hazardous noise
area as per OSHA 1910.95; thus, hearing protection PPE is mandatory for at least 4 hrs per
workday.
d. The work area does not meet the minimum TWA threshold levels of a hazardous noise area
as per OSHA 1910.95, and thus, hearing protection PPE is not mandatory; however, it
should be recommended.
89. An industrial worker was recently occupationally diagnosed with the respiratory disease
Siderosis. Which of the following industries is this worker most likely employed in?
a. Asbestos remediation
b. Steelworking
c. Woodworking
d. Masonry
90. How many ppm of air contaminants theoretically make their way all the way through a
three-stage filter bank with individual respective efficiencies of 90 percent, 95 percent, and
99 percent?
a. 50 ppm
b. 500 ppm
c. 5 ppm
d. 53,333 ppm
91. If a gas at a pressure of 5 psia occupies a volume of 100 cm3 at a temperature of 20°K,
what will the resultant pressure be if the temperature is increased to 30°K at a volume of
150 cm3?
a. 2.5 psia
b. 5 psia
c. 7.5 psia
d. 10 psia
16
92. During a flight in a non-pressurized aircraft, a pilot begins to feel a bit confused, is
breathing more rapidly, and has a notably higher resting pulse rate. At what altitude range
(above sea level) is the aircraft likely flying?
a. 5,000 to 10,000 ft
b. 10,000 to 15,000 ft
c. 15,000 to 20,000 ft
d. Greater than 20,000 ft
93. If the inhalation dose conversion factor for isotope “X” is 1 rem per curie, and a facility
that processes this isotope releases 2.22 x 1013 becquerels of it per year, what is the
resulting annual inhalation dose to a downwind receptor who has a breathing rate of 18.31
in3 per s and is subjected to an atmospheric concentration dispersion coefficient of 1 x 10–7 s
per cm3?
a. 18 mrem
b. 600 rem
c. 600 mrem
d. 18 rem
94. If a work area has dimensions of 10 m x 10 m x 3 m, what is the shortest amount of time it
could potentially take for the entire supply of air in the room to (hypothetically) be
completely exchanged via an air-exchanger HVAC system that operates at a rate of 80 cfm?
a. 1.6 hrs
b. 2.2 hrs
c. 2.9 hrs
d. 3.4 hrs
17
95. A 48-hr radon survey was conducted in a work area that measured radon concentrations
every 2 hrs. Given the survey results (in Ci/L) provided in this table, which of the following
conclusions should be drawn in regard to whether EPA action levels have been exceeded,
and if they have been exceeded, which of the following measures should be taken?
Time Concentration (Ci/L)
1600 (Day 1) 1.2 x 10–12
1800 (Day 1) 9.3 x 10–13
2000 (Day 1) 1.8 x 10–12
2200 (Day 1) 2.7 x 10–12
0000 (Day 1) 4.3 x 10–12
0200 (Day 1) 3.8 x 10–12
0400 (Day 1) 1.9 x 10–12
0600 (Day 1) 1.3 x 10–12
0800 (Day 1) 8.8 x 10–13
1000 (Day 1) 8.1 x 10–13
1200 (Day 1) 1.1 x 10–12
1400 (Day 1) 1.4 x 10–12
1600 (Day 2) 1.3 x 10–12
1800 (Day 2) 9.9 x 10–13
2000 (Day 2) 1.5 x 10–12
2200 (Day 2) 1.1 x 10–12
0000 (Day 2) 1.6 x 10–12
0200 (Day 2) 9.5 x 10–13
0400 (Day 2) 1.3 x 10–12
0600 (Day 2) 8.5 x 10–13
0800 (Day 2) 1.0 x 10–12
1000 (Day 2) 1.2 x 10–12
1200 (Day 2) 1.3 x 10–12
1400 (Day 2) 9.6 x 10–13
a. No category of action level has been exceeded, and no actions are recommended.
b. The 2 pCi/L threshold is exceeded, and a moderate degree of remedial action should be
considered.
c. The 4 pCi/L threshold is exceeded, and a major degree of remedial action should be taken.
d. The average threshold level far exceeds EPA-recommended standards, and respiratory
protection should be used by workers.
96. What is the conventionally established definition for upper flammable limit (UFL) or
upper explosive limit (UEL) for a gas?
a. The maximum amount of heat (energy) one mole of gas is able to liberate associated with a
unit change in temperature equal to 1°K
b. The highest temperature at which a flammable gas is able to undergo detonation
c. The highest pressure at which a gas is able to undergo an equilibrium phase change
d. The highest concentration of gas (or vapor) relative to air at which a material is able to
ignite
18
97. Steve and Mary both work on an assembly line. Steve, who primarily works near one
unguarded pulley and three partially guarded belts, never tucks in his shirt and always
wears a loose-hanging bracelet. Mary, in contrast, who works near 18 fully guarded axles
and six fully guarded gears, always wears a long, dangling necklace to work, and has long
hair. From a generic risk perspective, who is seemingly more likely to be involved in a
“caught-in-a-machine”-related incident?
a. Steve
b. Mary
c. Both Steve and Mary
d. Not enough information
98. Which of the following current or voltage combinations would MOST likely result in
fatality?
a. 1 amp/1 volt
b. 0.5 amp/10 volts
c. 0.15 amp/100 volts
d. 0.001 amp/1,000 volts
99. Glassification and ceramification are two modes of immobilization used in the
disposition of hazardous, mixed, and nuclear wastes. A waste management company has 10
metric tons (MT) of waste (bulk ρ = 4.8 g/cm3) that it is required to dispose of (by mandate)
using either or both of these technologies. Cost-benefit analyses show that glassification
costs $1,000 per cubic ft of waste processed, and ceramification costs about $5,000 per cubic
ft of waste processed. Which of the following provides an accurate depiction of the total
projected cost estimate for disposing of the waste in equal (i.e., 50/50) quantities (by
weight) using both technologies?
a. $164,392
b. $220,716
c. $237,941
d. $261,855
100. What are the pressure and associated Reynolds number (Re) range for a pipe with a 6-
in radius and a laminar flow rate of 1,000 gpm?
a. 0.269 psi / Re < 2,000
b. 0.172 psi / Re > 4,000
c. 0.054 psi / Re < 2,000
d. 0.028 psi / Re > 4,000
101. A company physician recommends that an overweight employee implement a weight-

loss plan to lose 52 lbs. If the employee has been regularly eating 5,000 calories per day and
exhibits an equilibrium caloric intake level of 2,500 daily calories (the caloric daily intake
whereby weight remains stable), by what percentage must he or she decrease his or her
daily caloric intake to lose the target weight over 1 year’s time, assuming that he or she
burns 2,500 calories per day through normal metabolism and exercise over that year, and
that 1 ounce of fat is equivalent to 200 calories?
a. 59.1 percent
b. 58.2 percent
c. 57.4 percent
d. 56.3 percent
19
102. In a given industrial setting, an oscilloscope is employed for accurately calibrating
electronic equipment. From the associated display provided, which of the following
characterizations is correct?
a. Sine wave, amplitude = 4 units, period = 12 units

b. Cosine wave, amplitude = 2 units, period = 6 units
c. Sine wave, amplitude = 2 units, period = 2 units
d. Cosine wave, amplitude = 4 units, period = 1 unit
103. A 5-m diameter aperture circular antenna emits 1-cm wavelength microwaves at a
power level equal to 50 W. What is the associated power density level at a distance of 10 m
from the antenna?
a. 4.69 mW/cm2
b. 804 mW/cm2
c. 9,817 mW/cm2
d. 12,205 mW/cm2
104. What is the calculated head of a fluid moving inside of a pipe with a constant flow rate
of 4 ft/s?
a. 0.25 ft
b. 0.625 ft
c. 1.5 ft
d. 2 ft
105. A 10 micro-curie calibration source of X-isotope emits a single 2.5 MeV gamma ray 100
percent of the time when the isotope undergoes decay. What is the estimated dose rate from
this source at a straight-line distance away of 1 ft?
a. 0.000025 rem/hr
b. 0.00015 rem/hr
c. 0.0075 rem/hr
d. 0.010 rem/hr
20
106. What would be the calculated amount of heat released via a standard reaction between
92 g of pure sodium and 0.072 L of water if approximately 185 kJ/mole is normally released
in such a reaction?
a. 1,388 kJ
b. 1,110 kJ
c. 740 kJ
d. 370 kJ
107. Which of these severity ratings would MOST aptly categorize the following conditions
after a facility accident event: (1) considerable, but not totally irreparable, damage to
equipment or systems; (2) two killed workers and 14 injured workers in a workforce of 200;
(3) operational status or capabilities likely delayed for months; (4) roughly $5 million in
property damage; and (5) quantities of chemical releases to the environment which exceed
EPA NESHAP limits by 40 to 50 percent?
a. Critical
b. Catastrophic
c. Acute severe
d. Beyond design basis
108. A CSP is attempting to identify an unlabeled chemical within a work area and through a
process of elimination has narrowed it down to four separate possibilities, with one by far
being the most likely. He or she only has the chemical’s Safety Data Sheet’s “Exposure
Controls/Personal Protection” section summary (as shown) available for guidance.
Engineering Controls:
Provide robust exhaust ventilation or other engineering controls to keep airborne vapor
concentrations below their respective threshold limit value. Ensure that eyewash stations
and safety showers are near workstation locations.
Personal Protection:
Gloves, boots, face shield, full suit, vapor respirator—be sure to use an approved or
certified respirator or equivalent thereof.
Personal Protection in Case of a Large Spill:
Gloves, boots, face shield, full suit, vapor respirator—a self-contained breathing
apparatus should be used to avoid inhalation. Suggested protective clothing might not be
sufficient against this liquid material; it is recommended a specialist be consulted before
handling this product.
Exposure Limits:
TWA: 0.025 from ACGIH (TLV) [U.S.] SKIN TWA: 0.05 CEIL: 0.1 (mg/m3) from OSHA
(PEL) [U.S.].
Inhalation TWA: 0.025 (mg/m3) [UK]. Local authorities should be contacted as
appropriate for permissible exposure limits.
From the information provided, which of the following four candidates determined by the
CSP is most likely the unidentified material in question?
a. Methyl ethyl ketone
b. Ammonia
c. Mercury
d. Acetone
21
109. Conservatively assuming total replacement of O2 with CO2 during respiration, how long
will a rectangular-shaped confined space (with no air circulation, ventilation, or supplied
air) with dimensions of 10 ft x 8 ft x 6 ft (LxWxH) contain enough breathable oxygen for
survival if occupied by a worker who has an average breathing rate of 300 cm3/s?
a. 8.4 hrs
b. 7.2 hrs
c. 6.5 hrs
d. 4.9 hrs
110. Using the quadratic equation, for the expression 3x2 + 4x – 5 = 0, the solutions for “x”
would be which of the following?
a. –0.80, 1.55
b. 0.64, –1.24
c. –0.47, –1.27
d. 0.79, –2.12
111. Salt (sodium chloride) has a molecular weight equal to 58.44 g. How many molecules
would there be in a sample of salt that weighs approximately 14.61 g?
a. 3.012 x 1023
b. 1.506 x 1023
c. 6.023 x 1023
d. 2.409 x 1024
112. Which of the following series of seven elements can only exist as diatoms (dual-atoms)
in nature when they are standing alone? In addition, which of these has the highest level of
electronegativity (EN) in the entire periodic table?
a. Hydrogen, helium, argon, nitrogen, oxygen, iodine, bromine—iodine has highest EN.
b. Hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen, iodine, bromine, chlorine, fluorine—fluorine has highest EN.
c. Oxygen, helium, nitrogen, argon, radon, iodine, chlorine—chlorine has highest EN.
d. Lithium, boron, magnesium, phosphorous, fluorine, chlorine, xenon—phosphorous has
highest EN.
113. An employee is exposed to carbon monoxide (CO) concentrations of 100 ppm for 1 hr,
500 ppm for 2 hrs, and 750 ppm for 15 min. What is the resulting time-weighted-average
(TWA) of these exposures?
a. 152 ppm
b. 288 ppm
c. 396 ppm
d. 450 ppm
114. If an 8-hr PEL for a hazardous respirable dust is 20 mg/m3, what is the associated PEL
for an employee working a 10-hr shift?
a. 24 mg/m3
b. 20 mg/m3
c. 16 mg/m3
d. 12 mg/m3
22
115. A liquid mixture contains 50 percent methyl alcohol, 35 percent methyl ethyl ketone,
and 15 percent acetone. The respective lower flammability limits of the individual chemicals
are 1.5 percent, 1.1 percent, and 0.75 percent. What is the overall lower flammability limit
(LFL) for the entire mixture?
a. 0.79 percent
b. 1.25 percent
c. 0.96 percent
d. 1.17 percent
116. What is the calculated approximate recommended weight limit (RWL) in lbs that has a
load constant equal to 51 lbs; a horizontal multiplier equal to 0.75; a vertical multiplier
equal to 0.90; a distance multiplier equal to 0.87; an asymmetric multiplier equal to 0.85; a
frequency multiplier equal to 0.45; a coupling multiplier equal to 0.95; and a transitional
multiplier equal to 0.70?
a. 24 lbs
b. 8 lbs
c. 37 lbs
d. 11 lbs
117. Which of the following two noise scenarios yields a higher noise level at a distance of 30
ft? Scenario 1: a 100 dB noise that is heard 3 ft away from its source
Scenario 2: a 120 dB noise that is heard 1 ft away from its source
a. Scenario 1
b. Scenario 2
c. Both
d. Cannot be determined from the information provided
118. What are the equivalent polar-coordinates of the Cartesian-plotted point (6, 4)?
a. (8.27, 39.4°)
b. (7.21, 33.7°)
c. (8.27, 50.6°)
d. (7.21, 56.3°)
119. What is the minimum required air sampling volume for a gas that has an LOQ (range) of
5.2–65.7 micrograms and a target concentration of 880 ppm?
a. 0.031 L
b. 0.016 L
c. 0.0047 L
d. 0.0024 L
120. Per OSHA 29 CFR 1910.95, which of the following noise exposure scenarios is beyond
specified limits required of the standard?
a. 1 hr at 100 dBA
b. 30 min at 115 dBA
c. 4 hrs at 90 dBA
d. 2 hrs at 95 dBA
23
121. An industrial organization is in the process of acquiring a new Class-III biological safety
cabinet, which is the highest safety classification level available. The following is a list of
technical specifications sent by a candidate cabinet vendor. The resident CSP, safety
manager, and industrial hygienist all note one major flaw or omission in the specification
list.
Technical Specification Summary for Acme Corporation—Level III BioCab—Model #
2A6535001CM
Arm-length rubber gloves
Provides excellent physical protection to workforce
ASTM-rated at 90 percent negative pressure and 95 percent gas-tight efficiency
Sealed front panel
Air drawn into cabinet through HEPA filtration system
Dimensions: 80 in x 48 in x 36 in
Double-welded steel frame and casing
ASTM-rated lead-glass windows
Double-gasket O-ring seal design at outlets
Inflow velocity 150 fpm
Which of the following likely denotes the apparent inadequacy?

a. 90 percent negative pressure and 95 percent gas tight efficiency ratings
b. Arm-length rubber gloves
c. The 150 fpm inflow velocity
d. Lead-glass windows
122. Per the information provided, which of the following substances would have the highest
heat of combustion in these case scenarios?
a. 4,600 cal emitted by the combustion of one mole of Na-23
b. 908 cal emitted by the combustion of 0.1 lb of helium
c. 257 cal emitted by the combustion of 1 g of hydrogen
d. 10 kilocalories emitted by the combustion of 2.5 moles of sulfuric acid
123. What is the simplified solution of the following?

(i4 + 2i3 – 5i2 – 4i – 1)2
a. 36i + 8
b. –60i – 11
c. –48i +20
d. 12i
124. According to NFPA criteria, which of the following combustible liquid classes strictly
exhibits flash points that are ≥200°F?
a. Class IA
b. Class IC
c. Class II
d. Class IIIB
24
125. What is the calculated wind-chill temperature for an air temperature of 20°F and a wind
speed of 15 mph?
a. 12.4°F
b. 6.2°F
c. 3.1°F
d. 1.5°F
126. What is the kinetic energy of a 9,000-lb forklift moving at a speed of 5 mph?
a. 40.6 kJ
b. 20.3 kJ
c. 10.2 kJ
d. 5.1 kJ
127. If a company borrows $1 million to start a business, how much will the entire loan
actually cost the business over a repayment period of 10 years if the lender charges a 4
percent interest rate compounded monthly?
a. $1,363,298
b. $1,490,833
c. $1,622,916
d. $1,804,552
128. According to U.S. Bureau of Labor statistics, what accident category normally accounts
(by far) for the highest fatality rates across all industries (approximately 40 percent)?
a. Falls
b. Electrocutions
c. Contact with equipment or objects
d. Transportation-related incidents
129. The three fundamental categories of risk management (process) controls are
________________, _______________, and _________________.
a. physical, educational, avoidance
b. visual, procedural, mitigative
c. sensory, tactile, reflexive
d. precursory, process, serial
130. The density of Material-X is equal to approximately 3.5 g/ml. What is the specific
gravity of Material-X?
a. 0.70
b. 1.75
c. 3.5
d. Cannot be determined from the information provided
131. What are human cycles that are believed to affect behavior every 25 to 30 days and can
influence facets such as intellect, logic, emotions, strength, and stamina known as?
a. Human performance variants
b. Biometrics
c. Biorhythms
d. Autonomic frequency parametrics
25
132. Block-and-tackle equipment and devices are regularly used in industrial settings for
lifting heavy loads. An empirical formula of F = W ÷ x is typically employed for depicting the
relationship between the vertical force (F) required to lift the weight (W) of the load. The “x”
in the formula, however, is supposed to represent which of the following?
a. The gravitational acceleration constant
b. The number of times the connected chain or rope passes between the two ends
c. The static equilibrium constant accounting for all three dimensions (x, y, and z)
133. Which of the following pairs of computer software systems often work best in tandem
for optimally improving safety and minimizing hazards in the workplace?
a. Database management systems and computer-aided-design systems
b. DART and CAIRS database systems
c. JOBHAZ and ARCJOB safety assessment models
d. Failure modes and effects analysis models and probabilistic risk assessment models
134. The two primary standards of the BSCP Code of Ethics and Conduct mandate that
certified professionals of all levels uphold which of the following?
a. The steadfastness, diligence, and responsibility of a safety professional
b. The esteem, integrity, and influence of the safety profession
c. The traceability, transparency, and quality of the safety profession
d. The education, training, and ongoing qualification of a safety professional
135. A company vehicle’s odometer is broken. The fleet manager knows that the vehicle’s
tires (which are rated for 40,000 miles) have never been changed and is feeling uneasy
about the safety level of their present tread wear. The vehicle’s computer, however, does
have extractable data on how many rotations the driveshaft has made since the vehicle was
purchased new by the company 3 years ago. From this data, a calculation of tire mileage was
hence deemed attainable. Given the following information from the onboard computer as
well as the vehicle’s published technical specifications, approximately how many miles have
the subject tires been driven?
* 92,518,000 driveshaft rotations
* 3.6 driveshaft rotations = 1 complete tire rotation (straight-line driving)
* 30-in diameter tires
a. 35,498 miles
b. 38,229 miles
c. 41,062 miles
d. 44,370 miles
26
136. A CSP has been reviewing various safety-incident metrics that track the last 4 years of
performance at his or her organization. He or she was able to curve fit each of the 4 years’
rates into approximate representative functions (as a function of time), as per the following:
Year 1: f(t) = t2 + 4t + 3
Year 2: f(t) = 2t2 – 6t + 1
Year 3: f(t) = 3t3 + 2t – 5
Year 4: f(t) = 2t3 – t2 + 4t + 6
Given management’s perception that the workforce seems to be more accident prone in the
summertime than at any other time during the year, the CSP was asked to assess the rate of
change (of the functions) at the midpoint of each year (i.e., t = 6) and compare them for each
of the 4 years. Which year was ultimately determined to have the greatest rate of (incident)
change at t = 6?
a. Year 1
b. Year 2
c. Year 3
d. Year 4
137. What is the power in an alternating current circuit where the voltage is 75 V, the
impedance is 10 ohms, and the sine of the phase angle is 0.643?
a. 269 watts
b. 362 watts
c. 431 watts
d. 472 watts
138. The safety manager for an organization has recently revamped his company’s entire
occupational safety program. The table provides a brief description of each vital program
element addressed in the new program. Which of the following key facets, however, seems to
be omitted from the summary?
Program Tenet Tenet
Number
1 Hazard Identification
2 Work Control
3 Procedural Compliance/Document Control
4 Emergency Response
5 Incentives
6 Training/Requalification
a. Personal protective equipment (PPE)

b. Organizational hierarchical framework
c. Spill mitigation and remediation
d. Safety engineering
27
139. An injured employee goes onto short-term disability for a period of 3 months at full
compensation of his or her regular earned wage. At the end of the 3 months, he or she then
moves into a long-term disability plan for a period of 5½ months that pays 2/3 of his or her
regular earned wage, after which time he or she then returns to work as a 0.75 FTE for the
remainder of the year. If the employee’s regular earned wage is $50,000 per year, how much
income would he or she have made over that year?
a. $42,361
b. $27,778
c. $34,192
d. $38,716
140. Which government agency should be immediately notified (first) in the event of any
accidental release of hazardous materials during their transportation?
a. U.S. Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA)
b. U.S. Department of Transportation (DOT)
c. U.S. National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB)
d. U.S. Department of Homeland Security (DHS)
141. What are the five typical elements commonly associated with a robust risk management
program?
a. Query, measure, bin, correct, and reference
b. Categorize, characterize, calculate, correlate, and correct
c. Identification, assessment, mitigation, financing, and administration
d. Identification, evaluation, enhancement, training, and feedback
142. An organization’s CSP has conferred with a resident industrial hygienist, and it was
determined that a work area may potentially be contaminated with lead dust concentration
levels that are likely well in excess of established action levels. Which of the following types
of respiratory PPE should be (most appropriately) recommended for workers that are to
occupy this area during their assigned tasks?
a. Dust mask
b. Full-face respirator
c. SCUBA
d. Loose-fitting powered air purifying respirator (PAPR)
143. The technique of energy _________________ is regularly implemented by safety engineers to

protect people and products from impacts or damage that may result from accidents.
a. transfer
b. misdirection
c. isolation
d. conversion
144. Techniques such as peer collaboration, case-study deployment, and role-play are
commonly used when attempting to effectively train which of the following groups for
protocols not specifically laid out in procedural guidance?
a. Organizational/line management
b. Craft
c. Administrative or overhead
d. Junior or apprentice
28
145. A subject pressure vessel within a company factory normally operates at 500 psia with
a safety variability margin of ±15 percent. During a given shift, a plant worker notes that the
vessel pressure gauge is reading 625 psia. Which one of the following actions would hence
be MOST appropriate for the worker to undertake after reading the gauge?
a. Check the gauge again every 15 min to ensure that pressure is not increasing any further.
b. Immediately shut down the entire pressure vessel system.
c. Consult with other plant personnel to see if they have likewise recently noticed the elevated
pressure reading.
d. Immediately consult the appropriate system contingency plan or procedure.
146. A major safety hazard for electrical power industry personnel is _________________. These
hazards usually result in extremely high temperatures over very small time periods, along
with extremely high pressure waves. In addition, airborne shrapnel also typically manifests
from such an event.
a. electric arcs
b. megavoltage discharge transfers
c. high-current impedance offset events
d. high-energy electrocutive detonations
147. What is an individual who is hired for the specific purpose of impartially investigating
worker issues or concerns and then suggesting associated resolutions to directorial boards
known as?
a. A mediator
b. An arbitrator
c. An ombudsman
d. A freelance forward observer
148. Which of the following is NOT a commonly implemented conflict resolution method
utilized in industry?
a. Adjudicative resolution
b. Consensual dispute resolution
c. Contractual correspondent resolution
d. Legislative resolution
149. A chemical tank within an industrial processing facility has a large, highly visible
warning label located approximately 1 ft away from the tank, is clearly and legibly marked
with large red-colored English print, and presents clear and straightforward guidance. The
facility employs both native English-speaking and Spanish-speaking personnel. Which of the
following potential shortcomings regarding the label should be of the MOST concern?
a. There is only a single warning label.
b. The label is not bilingual.
c. The label is not actually affixed to the tank.
d. The label is in red print and not black print.
29
150. Which of the following product life-cycle phases usually concludes with the decision to
move forward with a product’s development?
a. The prototype-reconnaissance phase
b. The conceptual phase
c. The development-evaluation phase
d. The cost-benefit analysis phase
151. An employee who has been working in outdoor cold temperatures for his or her entire
shift approaches a resident CSP and on-call shift nurse before he or she heads home with
complaints of face numbness and drooping, tingling in the arms and legs, difficulty speaking,
difficulty walking, and an apparent sudden absence of lucidity. What is the employee most
likely experiencing, and what is the most appropriate response for the CSP and nurse to
immediately undertake in this scenario?
a. Bell’s Palsy—recommend the employee schedule a physician consult.
b. Stroke—seek immediate medical attention (dial 911).
c. Cold exposure symptoms—provide shelter, blanket, and warm beverage.
d. Not possible to definitively determine from information provided—seek immediate medical
attention (dial 911).
152. When undergoing an external audit, what is usually the MOST important aspect to an
auditor regarding an employee’s knowledge of a specific company procedural document?
a. The employee acknowledges he or she is aware that the actual procedure exists.
b. The employee is aware of the procedure and knows where to quickly access it for reference.
c. The employee maintains a certain degree of knowledge of the procedure from memory.
d. The employee is able to follow the procedure to the letter, from memory, if an emergency
situation should arise and the document is ultimately not accessible for reference.
153. Which of the following is NOT a typical mode in which heat is transferred between a
human and the surrounding environment?
a. Evaporation
b. RF-pulse emission
c. Conduction
d. Radiation
154. Which of the following documents is implemented across a wide array of industries for
directing the production of procedural guidance within the realm of system safety?
a. MIL-STD-882B
b. ANSI 404.9A
c. ASTM 972.1-C
d. OSHA 1929.14 Regulatory Guide 4A
155. What is typically NOT considered a key function of an air ventilation system?
a. Removal of carbon dioxide buildups
b. Enhancement of oxygen levels
c. Removal of odors
d. Elimination of toxins
30
156. A CSP is performing a walk-through of a heavily trafficked work area looking for
potential tripping hazards. Along the way he or she notices various items deposited
throughout the work area, including several tools, various refuse articles (rags, empty cans,
etc.), and pieces of lumber of various sizes. Which of the following would be the first course
of action for the CSP to undertake in response to these observations?
a. Emplace “tripping hazard” warning signs around the area(s) in question.
b. Report the infractions to the health and safety manager.
c. Recommend remedial safety training for responsible staff members.
d. Notify the responsible work parties in the area to remove, relocate and/or properly store
the articles in question.
157. What are calculations and assessments that evaluate company loss-rate records for
establishing worker compensation rates conventionally known as?
a. Actuarial baselines
b. Risk-equivalence correlators
c. Experience modifiers
d. Premium performance metrics
158. A system safety engineering and design team is ready to emplace a new product concept
into the production phase for rendering a prototype or beta version of the subject product.
They have paid meticulous detail to facets such as proper implementation, maintenance,
hygiene, and safeguards. Which of the following, however, is also a critical area that the team
likewise needs to devote considerable attention?
a. Capital costs
b. Utilization schedules
c. Product lifetimes
d. Ergonomics
159. During which of the following stages of the development process for a facility should the
most emphasis be placed on quality assurance and quality control?
a. Construction and modification
b. Design
c. Procurement
d. Planning
160. In the realm of safety-basis evaluation, a design-basis accident typically has a frequency
(probability) of occurrence in the range of 10–6 to 10–4 per year. If the consequences of such
an accident are calculated to potentially result in 100 to 300 deaths, what is the overall
potential range of risk for such an accident?
a. 0.001 to 0.003 per year
b. 0.0003 to 0.01 per year
c. 0.0001 to 0.03 per year
d. 10–6 to 10–4 per year
31
161. Bob and Bill are both workers in a loud processing area of a factory. Bob has partial
hearing loss and also speaks with a lisp, while Bill’s hearing is unimpaired. On nearly a daily
basis, Bob and Bill have miscommunications. Which of the following is the MOST likely
reason for why these miscommunications occur so frequently?
a. Bob’s partial deafness and lisp
b. Bill poor listening skills
c. Ongoing background noise in the work area
d. All of the above
162. A yellow warning sign that shows a downward arrow intersecting with a worker’s
hardhat is likely depicting which of the following?
a. Potential for falling objects
b. Extreme danger of an electrocution event to the head
c. Extreme danger of falling
d. The need for total awareness of one’s immediate surroundings
163. The ____________________________ states that an organization will undergo fiscal hardship if it
generates or disseminates a hazardous product and then ultimately neglects to resolve the
underlying issue(s).
a. Trans-liability axiom
b. Negligence responsivity clause
c. Law of safety progress
d. Statute of culpability and stewardship
164. Americium-beryllium (Am-Be) neutron sources, and the like, are often used in nuclear
reactors and other systems to provide initial quantities of neutrons to help foster an
eventual chain reaction that leads to a state of criticality. What is the most accurate
description of how an Am-Be source (which can be a significantly hazardous neutron
radiation source) generates its neutrons?
a. Through a (γ, n) nuclear reaction
b. Through an (α, n) nuclear reaction
c. Through a (β, n) nuclear reaction
d. Through a (n, n) nuclear reaction
165. Who is usually responsible for taking roll calls during a shelter in place or a building
evacuation?
a. Emergency response team manager
b. Emergency coordinator
c. Office warden
d. Office manager
166. A significant acid leak is detected in a chemical processing plant, a type that has never
been experienced before during the 40-year operating history of the plant. Which of the
following types of procedure categories should be immediately available and consulted for
dealing with this most unusual emergency?
a. Transient event procedure
b. Special safety procedure
c. Beyond-design-basis procedure
d. High-risk event response procedure
32
167. According to Frederick Herzberg’s theory of behavior, a worker’s desired extrinsic
outcomes typically include which of the following?
a. Status, promotion, and power
b. Networking and affiliating
c. Job security, income, and safe and comfortable working conditions
d. Personal recognition, praise, and respect
168. Approximately how much more often do workers who have habitual alcohol or drug
problems actually miss work (i.e., incur lost days)?
a. 15 times more often
b. 10 times more often
c. 5 times more often
d. 3 times more often
169. What is a goniometer typically used for within the realm of ergonomics?
a. Measuring average distance between vertebrae while seated
b. Three-dimensionally measuring a full range of motion during a work activity
c. Measuring the actual speed at which an object is lifted
d. Measuring angles associated with human joints (e.g., knees, elbows, wrists, and ankles)
170. A worker is required to undergo annual medical monitoring for his or her assigned
position. During the physical, his or her blood pressure is found to be 171/79, with a resting
pulse rate of 103. From these results, it is possible the attending physician may come to
which of the following preliminary sets of conclusions?
a. High diastolic
b. Low systolic
c. Possible tachycardia
d. Both a & c
171. Which of the following is typically NOT employed to create resistant forces within an
apparatus?
a. Springs
b. Inertia
c. Modular strain
d. Viscous damping
172. ___________________ sickness can be significantly mitigated by preventing overexposure to

high-pressure environments and by carefully and steadily employing rates of
___________________.
a. Bends/nitrogen
b. Decompression/decompression
c. Hypoxia/oxygen
d. High-altitude/pressurization
33
173. Which of the following would be appropriately categorized as a continuous control
mechanism?
a. Computer mouse
b. Light switch
c. Buttons
d. Computer keyboard
174. Within the realm of system design, the integration of multiple elements with
overlapping functions that permit the continuous, normal (ongoing) operation of a given
product in the case of one (or more) elemental failure(s) is known as which of the following?
a. Parallel architecture
b. Functional interdependency
c. Cross-reliability
d. Redundancy
175. A state-of-the-art facility employs a system that automatically powers down all major
electrical components if the ambient temperature within the facility exceeds a certain
predetermined threshold level. This type of system is conventionally known as which of the
following?
a. A lockout thermal regulator system
b. A fail-safe system
c. A thermostatic power modulator system
d. A passive autoregulation system
176. The robustness of hazardous waste shipping containers and casks has been thoroughly
tested over the years primarily at which of the following U.S. installations?
a. U.S. national laboratories
b. U.S. military bases
c. U.S. proving grounds
177. Which two federal agencies are primarily responsible for regulating the placement,
storage, and amounts of combustible materials within industrial settings?
a. ASTM and NFPA
b. FEMA and DHS
c. NFPA and OSHA
d. OSHA and NIOSH
178. A static analysis determination is made for a piece of piping within an industrial facility.
The following is ultimately concluded from the determination:
The overall compression force on the pipe is about 50 N.
According to laser-optic results, the pipe has not contracted (or altogether moved)
by any discernible amount.
What conclusion can be drawn from this information?
a. The associated torsional force on the pipe should be equal to 50N ÷ 2π.
b. The pipe’s outward directional forces should be equal to about 50 N.
c. The shear force on the pipe should be equal to about 100 N.
d. The pipe’s elastic modulus can be calculated by multiplying 50 N by the length of the pipe.
34
179. A negative safety margin value is theoretically correlated with which of the following?
a. A high risk of failure
b. A low risk of failure
c. A 100 percent probability of failure
d. A 0 percent probability of failure
180. How many OSHA regional offices are presently in existence across the United States?
a. 4
b. 10
c. 22
d. 50
181. Which of the following is TRUE with regard to large-quantity hazardous waste
generators (LQGs)?
a. There is no designated limit of the quantity of HAZMAT that is allowed to be stored at a
specific time.
b. LQGs are defined by the generation of >1 lb of acute HAZMAT per month.
c. LQGs typically have an allowed maximum storage time of 1 year or less for most wastes.
d. They are conditionally exempt from most EPA reporting requirements.
182. In a fault-tree analysis, what does the term or gate “XOR” represent?
a. An output event occurs if some input events occur.
b. An output event occurs if all input events occur.
c. An output event occurs if exactly one input event occurs.
d. An output event occurs if all input events occur in a specific sequence.
183. David is a CSP who works for a rural county located in a southeastern U.S. state. He
receives a telephone call from a locally well-known family farming operation that has an
ongoing agricultural cooperative agreement with the county. On the call he is told that there
has been a tractor accident injuring one of the farmhands and that he should immediately
come out to the property to investigate. Upon arrival at the scene, David learns that the
injured farmhand is actually the son of the farm’s owner. After verifying that the victim has
received necessary acute medical care, which organization or agency should be notified of
the incident?
a. The U.S. Department of Agriculture
b. OSHA
c. The local police department
d. No organization unless required by local statute or agreement
184. Per OSHA’s 29 CFR 1910.147, Control of Hazardous Energy, a hot tap is defined as which
of the following?
a. The emplacement of a lockout mechanism on an energy-isolating device
b. A maintenance or servicing procedure that entails pressurized welding operations for
installing connections or other support equipment
c. A prominent warning device or system
d. An access point via which an electrocution event is of high risk
35
185. Which of the following scenarios would be categorized as a privacy case on an OSHA
300 form, whereby the employee’s name is not ultimately recorded on the form?
a. An injury caused by an intentional destructive act (e.g., system sabotage)
b. An injury resulting from professional incompetence
c. An injury to the gonads
d. An injury resulting from alcohol or drug abuse
186. Most portable fire extinguishers must be hydrostatically tested once every how many
years?
a. 2
b. 5
c. 7
d. 10
187. A qualitative fit test for a respirator is conventionally defined by which of the following
actions?
a. Assessing the suitability of a respirator by measuring the amount of leakage into the device
b. A respiratory or pulmonary physical examination
c. Comparing blood-oxygen levels between times of respirator wear and normal breathing
d. A pass-or-fail evaluation to assess the level of fit adequacy based on a wearer’s response to
a testing agent
188. A turtle suit is a form of PPE that is often worn to protect against the hazards of which of
the following?
a. Neutron radiation
b. Pinch points
c. High-pressure water blasting
d. Tunneling
189. An employee working in a chemical manufacturing facility is regularly subjected to

several potential hazards during the daily work routine, namely of which include the
following: hydrochloric acid, hydrofluoric acid, nitric acid, regular machinery noise in excess
of 125 dB (unprotected), and falling objects. Which of the following PPE regimes should be
regularly prescribed or required for this employee?
a. Apron, full-face respirator, earmuffs, neoprene gloves, and hard hat (that can accommodate
earmuffs)
b. Coveralls, half-face respirator, earplugs and earmuffs, nitrile gloves, and hard hat (that can
accommodate earmuffs)
c. Apron, safety goggles, earplugs, PVC gloves, and hard hat
d. Coveralls, safety goggles, earplugs and earmuffs, butyl rubber gloves, and hard hat (that can
accommodate earmuffs)
190. What is a typical setting that a ground-fault circuit interrupter (GFCI) is normally set to
adequately protect workers from electrocution scenarios?
a. 0.05 mA
b. 0.5 mA
c. 5 mA
d. 50 mA
36
191. Which of the following scenarios would be categorized as exempt from workers’
compensation coverage?
a. An individual employed for 60 consecutive workdays within an employer’s private home
b. An individual performing services in return for monetary compensation provided by a
religious organization
c. A gardener
d. An individual who elects not to be covered
192. According to Abraham Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, personal facets such as creativity,
problem solving, morality, spontaneity, and lack of prejudice all fall under which human
need?
a. Esteem
b. Self-actualization
c. Love and belonging
d. Enhancement of superego
193. Which of the following leadership personalities typically permits employees to

contribute to decision-making processes and affords subordinates a considerable degree of
latitude in carrying out their tasks?
a. Permissive autocrat
b. Directive democrat
c. Permissive democrat
d. Directive autocrat
194. The __________________ Theory of Accident Causation asserts that accidents can, in large, be
caused or prevented by the manner in which situational characteristics interplay with
predispositional characteristics.
a. Human Factors
b. Chaos
c. Domino
d. Epidemiological
195. The multilinear events sequencing (MES) method uses a(n) _____________ to illustrate the
sequence of events or occurrences that contributed to or was the direct cause of an event.
a. flow chart
b. iterative algorithm
c. time line
d. hierarchy
196. Retention rate efficiencies vary greatly in humans depending upon what mode of
teaching or training is employed for a set of material. Which of the following delivery or
training methods typically results in the highest retention efficiency rates?
a. Discussion groups
b. Demonstrations
c. Teaching others
d. Audiovisual
37
197. An extremely dangerous shortcut that is all too often taken with pneumatic nail guns
and hammers is which of the following?
a. Using two machines at the same (i.e., one in each hand)
b. Electrically overloading to attain a faster punch rate
c. Deliberately disabling safety catches
d. Taping down triggers to get automatic repeated action
198. Which of the following storage configurations is considered allowable for oxygen
cylinders within the workplace? A separation distance from fuel gas cylinders (or
combustible materials) by a minimum distance of _________ ft, or by a noncombustible barrier
at least __________ ft in height that has a fire-resistance rating of at least ___________ hrs.
a. 20, 5, 1.5
b. 18 4, 1.5
c. 14, 3, 1
d. 12, 2, 1
199. For a worker to be permissibly located on a moving (mobile) scaffold that has a base of
4 ft, what is the minimum required height for that scaffold?
a. 6 ft
b. 8 ft
c. 10 ft
d. 12 ft
200. A hard hat’s safety zone is defined as the space or clearance between the hat’s shell and
its suspension. What is a typical minimum recommended measurement for this space or
clearance?
a. 0.5 in
b. 0.75 in
c. 1 in
d. 1.5 in
38
Answer Key and Explanations
1. B: The fundamental counting principle essentially applies to circumstances where the order (or
position) of an initial event occurrence ultimately influences the overall probabilistic outcome of an
entire event scenario. In essence, the principle maintains that if a first event has “a” possible
outcomes, and after that outcome has transpired, a subsequent event then has “b” possible
outcomes, then there are resultantly (a x b) potential ways the outcomes can occur in that
prescribed order.
2. D: The four colors of the NFPA 704 Diamond System are yellow (right side of the diamond,
depicting instability level), blue (left side of the diamond, depicting health hazard level), red (top
side of the diamond, depicting fire hazard level), and white (bottom side of the diamond, depicting
special hazard levels for oxidizers and water reactions). Numbers from 0 to 4 are provided in each
segment depicting the level of hazard (0 = lowest and 4 = highest).
3. D: The U.S. FDA is responsible for protecting the public at large from potential hazards associated
with the use of all pharmaceutical products as well as sold foodstuffs, organics, cosmetics, or any
other products available for curative applications.
4. A: Within an industrial or process setting, there are three principal hazard modes that a worker
may be subjected to: falling of loads, handling of materials, and materials being in motion. Examples
of dangers within these categories may include facets such as forklift accidents, toxic exposures,
and pinch points, respectively.
5. C: The majority of laws that involve worker safety and health fall under the purview of civil law.
The Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 is the chief civil law that is in use today for
protecting worker safety and health and is regularly enforced by the Occupational Safety and
Health Administration. Hence, injured workers should normally seek counsel from civil attorneys.
6. B: Workers’ compensation laws are typically categorized into two separate designations:
compulsory-related laws and elective-related laws. Compulsory laws require that employers
adhere to all facets of the laws, otherwise they may be subjected to legal consequences; elective
laws, conversely, provide employers the option of participation.
7. D: Primary safety hazards associated with the use of powered vehicles (e.g., backhoes,
bulldozers, etc.) in a work area may include inadvertent exceedance of load limits, potential carbon
monoxide overexposure(s), blind spots impeding operator visibility, power source malfunctions,
flammable fuels, and operator error due to poor training, inexperience, mental fatigue, or
incompetence. Operator physical overexertion is typically not expected because the balance of
required actions usually does not go beyond the manipulation of powered controls within a
climate-regulated cab.
8. A: The conventional definition of a blasting agent is a material that demonstrates adequate

stability in a stand-alone condition yet possesses enough exothermic potential to prompt an
explosion when initiated. OSHA 1910.109 defines it as any material or mixture, consisting of a fuel
and oxidizer, intended for blasting. A very commonly used blasting agent is ammonium-nitrate fuel
oil (ANFO).
9. C: There are several types of conveyor mechanisms regularly implemented within industrial
settings for transporting bulk products and materials; these include belts, buckets, rollers, and
39
chains. The primary hazards associated with these devices are usually pinch points, snags, and
falling materials.
10. C: Over recent years, fall-related deaths in construction have been accounting for approximately
40 percent of all fatalities in that industry, which is by far the number one cause. According to OSHA
statistics, out of 4,251 worker fatalities in private industry for CY 2014, 874 (20.5 percent) were in
construction, with falls accounting for 349 out of the 874 total deaths (39.9 percent). Hence, in the
case of 369 construction-related deaths, roughly 150 of them would likely be related to fall
incidents.
11. B: A noise dosimeter is a commonly used device for measuring potentially hazardous noise
levels in industrial settings. It is usually employed in a manner that continuously processes noise
levels throughout the duration of a work shift (in a particular work area) and then provides an
equivalent cumulative quantity at the end of that shift, depicting what a worker’s total noise
exposure would be in that area.
12. A: Federal safety-regulating agencies, such as OSHA, normally track a host of metrics related to
worker injuries and illnesses. Such metrics typically include frequencies of work-related deaths, job
transfers, and restricted duty.
13. C: A variety of terminologies and technologies are regularly employed within the domain of gas
or vapor sampling (for contaminants); these include colorimetry, chromatographs, and grab
samples. Centrifugal separation, on the other hand, is strictly used within the realm of particulate
sampling.
14. D: The OSHA Classification System for Occupational Illnesses and Conditions includes several
categorical facets, including respiratory- and lung-related disorders or conditions, radiation-related
disorders or conditions, skin-related disorders or conditions, toxic-related disorders or conditions,
and repetitive-motion or ergonomic-related disorders or conditions.
15. A: U.S. citizen employees who live and work in the United States have a legal right to inspect
certain records under their name.
16. D: There are several units that are regularly employed for characterizing or expressing visible-
light intensity levels, including footlamberts, foot-candles, and lumens.
17. A: To counteract high-pressure environments (e.g., that seen during deep underwater diving),
replacing nitrogen with inert surrogate gases, such as helium, is a conventionally implemented
strategy for counteracting the potential effects of nitrogen narcosis.
18. C: Per NAAQS protocol (40 CFR 50), the maximum allowable criteria pollutant concentration for
lead (Pb) is 0.15 μg/m3 over a 3-month period.
19. B: A discount factor for a present dollar value given a future value at a 3 percent annual interest
rate over a 7-year period would have an associated functional-notation representation of (P|F, 3%,
7).
20. D: A typical three-step process that should always be employed in industrial settings in the
event of a verified hazardous material(s) spill is (1) safety, (2) containment or isolation, and (3)
notification.
40
21. B: Acquired data from two distinct and separate variables is known as bivariate data (e.g., x and
y). Bivariate data can be displayed through a variety of illustrative and graphical tools, including
comparative tables, scatter plots, bar charts, and linear regression best fits.
22. C: For the data set (3, 7, 9, 12, 26, 32, 45, 58), there is no mode. The mode is defined as the data
value (or values) that occur(s) the most number of times relative to the rest of the values in a
statistical sample or population. Because each (and all) of the subject values only occurs once in the
subject data set, there is no mode.
23. B: For a standard normal distribution, approximately 48 percent of the total area below the
curve would correlate to the adding of the segments in the ranges of (–2sd < x < –sd) and (0 < x <
sd).
This is derived via the following per the 68-95-99.7 rule: The range of (–2sd < x < –sd) would
equate to an area allocation of ½(95%-68%) = 13.5%, and the range of (0 < x < sd) would equate to
an area allocation of ½(68%) = 34%. Hence, 34% + 13.5% = 47.5% ≈ 48%.
24. C: The U.S. Bureau of Labor Statistics is ultimately charged with and responsible for distributing
statistical information pertaining to job-related injuries or illnesses. Other agencies, however, such
as the U.S. Occupational Safety and Health Administration and the U.S. National Institute of
Occupational Safety and Health often cite or reference such published statistics in support of their
missions, campaigns, outreach, and enforcement initiatives.
25. B: The fellow-servant rule is an often-utilized defense posture corporate entities implement
against on-the-job injury claims filed by employees. Dependent upon the situation and extent of
litigation, however, other legal defense approaches such as contributory negligence and assumption
of risk may also potentially be utilized by employers who endeavor to protect their corporate
interests against such claims.
26. C: The National Council on Compensation Insurance is responsible for setting general rate
premiums that employers will pay for workers’ compensation insurance. Some employers,
however, may choose to institute their own private plans or programs with independent funding
mechanisms.
41
27. C: Sound octaves are conventionally characterized by frequency with sequential octaves
normally differing by a factor of two. Hence, an octave may exist at a frequency of 100 Hz, with the
octave directly below it existing at 50 Hz and the one directly above it existing at 200 Hz.
28. B: A teratogen is best defined as an agent, material, or chemical that can cause deformities or
birth defects in unborn embryos or fetuses. Substances such as alcohol, tobacco, psychoactive
drugs, various diseases, and an array of potential environmental contributors (including numerous
hypothetical workplace chemicals (e.g., PCBs and ionizing radiation) can all be potential teratogens.
29. B: Particulate contamination can come in a variety of forms, including aerosols, mists, fumes,
and smoke. Gases are an altogether different state of matter than particulates and hence do not fall
under the subject category as a potential form thereof. As such, there is an entirely separate
category of contaminants (contamination) that is strictly associated with gases.
30. D: There are several potential hazards that are conventionally tied to the normal use of high-
pressure receptacles and containers in the workplace; these may include: pressures exceeding
design safety levels, elevated fire risks due to enhanced oxygen levels in certain containers, and
possible container failure or rupture due to corrosion buildup.
31. A: A monitoring system should always be employed in tandem with a warning system to alert
workforces of hazardous conditions potentially at hand.
32. B: Quite often, hazardous material spills can ultimately result in an ensuing dangerous chemical
reaction. Typical observable characteristics of such reactions may include the emission of smoke
and/or vapors, bubbling, unusual odors, or the generation or buildup of heat.
33. A: A financial covenant typically between an individual (e.g., an investor) and a corporate or
government body that guarantees to repay an investment, plus accrued interest, at a predesignated
time is known as a bond.
34. C: A stem-and-leaf plot is typically regarded as one of the most useful graphical aids for clearly
illustrating data groups that fall within particular value ranges.
35. D: A number of statistical parameters may be potentially utilized if one wishes to calculate a
measure of dispersion for a given data set. These may include: variance, standard deviation, and
range.
36. B: The standard deviation (“σ”) for the whole population data set (2, 7, 11, 24, 44, 62, 79, 81,
105, 120, 139, 162) is calculated per:
Σ(𝑥 − 𝑥̅ )2
𝜎=√
𝑁
This equates to:
σ = [(4579 + 3927 + 3442 + 2085 + 659 + 59 + 87 + 128 + 1248 + 2533 + 4807 + 8525) ÷ 12]0.5 ≈ 52.
37. D: There are several characteristic shapes of frequency curves that exist in the realm of
statistics. These include multimodal, (left- or right-) skewed, j-shaped, U-shaped, and symmetrical
(such as a Gaussian normal distribution).
42
38. C: “LD50” is conventionally defined as a radiological or chemical dose quantity whereby 50
percent of an exposed population would be expected to acutely (rapidly) die as a result of the
subject exposure. Thus, if a population of 100,000 people incurred an LD50 exposure,
approximately 50,000 resulting acute fatalities would be expected in that population.
39. A: A probabilistic risk assessment (PRA) is a detailed and systematic process to evaluate
potential risks associated with the design and operation of a multifaceted, complex technology. A
chemical plant or a new transportation system, for example, would both undergo PRAs during its
conceptual design stage.
40. D: Simultaneous timed-events plotting analyses are routinely used by safety engineers for
assessing potential workplace system hazards. Such analyses typically assess events through a
time-sequence viewpoint.
41. B: Within the specific quality assurance domains of audits and inspections, the acronym CAQ is
defined as Condition Adverse to Quality. It usually depicts or categorizes conditions of a serious
nature and are typically given high priority (and resources) for prompt corrective action.
42. C: Per the U.S. National Industrial Security Program Operating Manual (NISPOM) security
classification protocols, document cover letter and label colors that indicate top secret, secret,
confidential, and unclassified are orange, red, blue, and green, respectively.
43. A: Injury information resulting from an accident event should be reported by corporate health
and safety management personnel as soon as possible after an occurrence. Specific OSHA protocol
(per 29 CFR 1904.39) mandates, however, that any work-related deaths must be reported within 8
hrs. Furthermore, any work-related amputations, in-patient hospitalizations, or loss(es) of an eye
must be reported within 24 hrs.
44. B: In a total workforce of 200 people (who each work 2,000 hrs over a calendar year), if there
are 10 total cases of missed workdays, restricted duty, or transfer due to work-related injuries over
that calendar year, the calculated resulting DART rate is 5. This is derived via the following:
[DART = (X/Y) × 200,000], whereby X = the total number of injuries or illnesses with missed
workdays or restricted duty and Y = the total number of hrs worked by all employees =
(10/400,000) x 200,000 = 5.
45. C: A bar graph most closely resembles a histogram. Both types of illustrative tools use
rectangular bars to certain rising (or extending) axis values for depicting a certain measured
quantity or value. A histogram is essentially a specific type of bar graph that displays a numerical
data (probability) distribution for a continuous variable.
46. A: A teletector would be most suitable for use by health physicists (or radiological technicians)
for determining actual radiation levels within a very high radiation area before workers would
enter to perform an assigned task.
47. D: A “fishbone diagram” is also known as a cause-and-effect analysis. Its primary function is to
provide a visual representation of the numerous potential causes behind a specific problem or
effect. It is often especially useful for scenarios in which there is very little existing data in support
of an evaluation or assessment.
43
48. B: The 50th percentile value of a normal distribution is also always denoted as the median. In a
normal (e.g., Gaussian) distribution, 50 percent of the subject values will be above the median (50th
percentile) value, and 50 percent will be below this value.
49. A: Conditions adverse to quality are usually considered the most serious of all audit-finding
classifications. Other types of findings from audits that fall into categories of lesser severity include:
conditions not adverse to quality, observations, and opportunities for improvement. All categories
would normally be entered, addressed, and closed out via the use of a robust corrective action
program database.
50. C: Per OSHA directive, VPP Merit-status employers are expected to commit to the pursuance of
star status within a period of 3 years.
51. B: Per 40 CFR 261, corrosivity (code #D002) is a designated hazardous waste material
characteristic to which the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency extends an ordinal waste code
value; strong corrosives (e.g., acids) would be categorized under this designation. The other coded
characteristics under 40 CFR 261 include: ignitability (code #D001), reactivity (code #D003), and
toxicity (codes #D004—#D043).
52. A: Job safety analyses (JSAs) should be regularly implemented or reviewed in coordination with
preliminary task walk-downs and pre-job briefings, prior to the commencement of activities.
53. C: Lifting indexes (LIs), recommended weight limits (RWLs), and load constants (LCs) are
established components of NIOSH’s lifting equation. In addition, the equation specifically takes into
account factors and parameters such as: object locations relative to the lifter, object locations
relative to the floor, vertical moving distances, degrees of lifter twisting, frequencies or durations of
lifting, and gripping forces.
54. C: A floor surface with a moderate slip potential has a coefficient of friction value of around 0.4.
This means that the surface’s traction is considered acceptably marginal and that a reasonable
chance of a slip-related accident occurring on such a surface exists under normal conditions.
55. A: In the following Cartesian data-point set: [(0.5, 1.4), (2, 6), (4, 11.8), (7, 20), (9, 22), (12, 37),
(15, 45.8), (17, 50)], the point (9, 22) would be considered an anomaly compared to all of the
others. This can be demonstrated by plotting all of the subject values via a scatter plot and noting
that all of the other points essentially construct a straight line. The point (9, 22) falls well outside of
this line, however, hence denoting it as an anomaly with respect to the rest of the data set.
56. B: With regard to root-cause analyses (RCAs), they are only performed for an event after the
event has occurred. Furthermore, there can hypothetically be several tangible underlying root-
cause outcomes for any given RCA. Moreover, historical RCAs may (should) be utilized for
predicting possible events before they occur. It should also be noted that incident management
processes and RCAs should not normally be integrated and implemented in tandem.
57. A: If a calculated statistical variance for a sample of data values is found to be approximately
2.76, the associated standard deviation value correlated to that variance is 1.66—SD = (Variance)0.5.
58. B: A powder that is comprised of 5 percent silica would have a calculated PEL of 4.88 mg/m3
per the following derivation found in OSHA 29 CFR 1910.1000, Table Z-3:
PELsil = (10 mg/m3)/(silica-% + 2) = 10/(0.05 + 2) = 4.88 mg/m3
44
To then convert into units of ppm from mg/m3, the following formula is employed:
ppm = [(4.88 mg/m3)(24.45)] ÷ [molecular wt of silica (SiO2)]
= [119.3] ÷ [60] = 1.99 ppm
59. A: Xylene being generated within a work area per V = 100,000 ft3, Q’ = 2,000 cfm, and G = 3
cfm—whereby V is the volume of the work area, Q’ is the air flow rate in the work area divided by a
design distribution constant, and G is the contaminant generation rate—will reach a concentration
(C) of 150 ppm within the work area in approximately 5.27 min. This is calculated per the
following:
T (time required) = {[-V/Q’] x [ln((G-Q’C) ÷ G)]}
= {[-50] x [ln((3-0.3) ÷ 3)]}
= {[-50] x [-0.1054]} = 5.27 min
60. D: Under normal conditions (indoor or outdoor) with no solar load, a wet-bulb temperature
(WB) is typically calculated via the following equation: WB = [(WBGT – 0.3GT) ÷ 0.7], where WBGT
is the wet-bulb globe temperature index and GT is the globe temperature. However, in the case
where there is a solar load, the equation is modified slightly to include a component from the dry-
bulb temperature (DB). Hence the adjusted equation now becomes: WB = [(WBGT – 0.2GT – 0.1DB)
÷ 0.7]. Hence, for the specific case provided, the calculated WB was determined to be 109.7°F.
WB = [(103 – 17 – 9.2) ÷ 0.7] = 109.7
61. B: Given the following set of data, the calculated correlation coefficient (CC) between the two
variables x and y is determined as follows:
x y
3 2
5 4
8 6
11 9
14 13
16 15
Total 57 49
Average 9.5 8.2
The fundamental equation that is used for calculating CC is:
CC = [N∑(xy) – (∑x)(∑y)] ÷ {[N∑(x2) – (∑x)2][N∑(y2) – (∑y)2]}1/2
Hence, the values for xy, x2, and y2 must now be calculated and added to the table:
x y xy x2 y2
3 2 6 9 4
5 4 20 25 16
8 6 48 64 36
11 9 99 121 81
45
14 13 182 196 169
16 15 240 256 225
Total 57 49 595 671 531
Average 9.5 8.2 99.2 111.8 88.5
Via deployment of the subject equation, we attain:
CC = [(6)(595) – (57)(49)] ÷ {[(6)(671) – (57)2][(6)(531) – (49)2]} 1/2
[777] ÷ {[777][785]} ½
777 ÷ 781 = 0.995
62. C: Total unit pressure for a mixture or combination of gases within a single container is equal to
the sum of the partial pressures of the constituent gases contained within. Thus, for the subject case
of Gasx = 2 atm, Gasy = 28 atm, and Gasz = 50 atm, the total calculated pressure for the three-gas
mixture is determined via the following:
P Gastotal = ∑ (P Gasx + P Gasy + P Gasz) = 12 atm + 28 atm + 50 atm = 90 atm
63. A: Conductivity is the measured degree to which a material conducts electricity and is the direct
inverse (reciprocal) of resistivity. Hence, a steel wire that is measured to have an electrical
resistivity of 20 ohm-m has an associated conductivity of 0.05 siemens-m–1.
64. C: The t-value test is often utilized for determining the extent of difference(s) between the
means of statistical samples. For the example case of a company’s fabrication process requiring a
certain mold to be consistently manufactured at a 3.25-in thickness, given seven random mold
samples of 3.21, 3.28, 3.32, 3.36, 3.25, 3.29, and 3.22 in, the calculated “t” value for those samples is
determined as follows:
T = {[(sample mean) – (desired target value)] ÷ [sample standard deviation]} x [Number of samples
– 1]1/2
T = {[(3.276) – (3.250)] ÷ [0.0538]} x [7 – 1]1/2
= {0.483} x 2.449
= 1.183
65. C: If a system (X) has two (and only two) codependent subsystems (y and z) required for its
operation, with one having a 0.0001 failure rate and the other having a 0.001 failure rate, the
overall probability of failure for the entire system X is equal to the sum of the two subsystem failure
rates, given that failure of system X will occur if failure occurs in either of the two subsystems.
Xfailure = yfailure + zfailure = 0.0001 + 0.001 = 0.0011
66. D: If the pH of a sulfuric acid solution used in an industrial setting must be below 1.5 to burn
through worker PPE, the minimum associated hydrogen-ion (H+) concentration of that acid must be
0.032 to reach the threshold of such a pH. This is calculated via the following: pH = –log[H+],
whereby [H+] = hydrogen-ion concentration. Hence, 1.5 = –log[0.032].
67. B: For an examination given to 50 students showing a mean score of 74.3 percent, with a
standard deviation of 6.9 and exactly one student scoring an 80 percent, if a standard distribution is
assumed, the number of students scoring higher than this one student (i.e., > 80 percent) can be
calculated via determining the statistical Z-score of the exam results.
46
Z = (Χ2 – μ) ÷ σ, whereby Χ2 is the singular result (chi-square value) to be assessed around, μ is the
mean, and σ is the standard deviation. Thus, (80-74.3) ÷ 6.9 = 0.826 = Z.
The provided normal distribution-Z table extract is then employed for determining what percent of
students scored above 80 percent on the exam:
Z 0.00 0.01 0.02 0.03 0.04 0.05 0.06 0.07 0.08 0.09
0.7 0.7580 0.7611 0.7642 0.7673 0.7704 0.7734 0.7764 0.7794 0.7823 0.7852
0.8 0.7881 0.7910 0.7939 0.7967 0.7995 0.8023 0.8051 0.8078 0.8106 0.8133
0.9 0.8159 0.8186 0.8212 0.8238 0.8264 0.8289 0.8315 0.8340 0.8365 0.8389
The Z value of 0.826 is located in the subject table as shown. It must be interpolated between the
0.82 value of 0.7939 and the 0.83 value of 0.7967. It is resultantly determined to be 0.7956. This
means that 79.56 percent of the students scored 80 percent or lower, and therefore 20.44 percent
of students scored above that mark: 0.2044(50 students) ≈ 10 students.
68. A: The numerical difference (i.e., absolute value or delta) between an upper-control limit (UCL)
and a lower-control limit (LCL) for an accident control-chart distribution can always be calculated
by 2 x (the number of standard deviations [z]) x (the distribution’s standard deviation value [σ]).
This is demonstrated via the following calculation:
UCL = mean + zσ
LCL = mean – zσ
UCL – LCL = (mean + zσ) – (mean – zσ) = zσ – (-zσ) = zσ + zσ = 2(zσ). Hence, for the subject case
stated in this problem, we attain: 2(3)(0.75) = 4.5.
69. D: In the right triangle shown, the tangent (TAN) of angle <BAC is equal to (6.93 ÷ 4), or 31/2, or
1.73.
This is derived via the fact that for a 30-60-90 triangle, the respective segment unit lengths (in
increasing order) are 1, 31/2, and 2. Thus, in the figure, because the hypotenuse is equal to 8,
segment AC must be equal to 4, and x must be equal to (4)(31/2). From this, it is now possible to
arithmetically determine the tangent of <BAC as [(4)(31/2) ÷ (4)] = [6.93 ÷ 4] = 31/2 ≈ 1.73. With a
calculator, alternatively, this may simply be processed as TAN 60°; however, the user must be able
to preliminarily infer that <BAC is in fact 60 degrees from the axiom that all interior angles of a
triangle always aggregate to a total of 180 degrees because the value of <BAC is not provided in the
diagram.
70. A: A car engine component operating for 10,000 hrs with an established reliability of 0.998
would have a higher failure-per-hr rate than an aircraft component operating for 20,000 hrs with
an established reliability of 0.997. This quantitatively determined via the following:
Reliability(t) = e-λt, whereby λ is the number of failures per hr and t is the operating time.
47
Car Engine Case:
0.998 = e-λ(10,000 hrs)

ln 0.998 = ln (e–λ(10,000 hrs))
–0.0020 = (–λ)(10,000 hrs)
λ = 2 x 10–7 failures per hr (or 1 failure every 5,000,000 hrs)
Aircraft Component Case:
0.997 = e-λ(20,000 hrs)

ln 0.997 = ln (e–λ(20,000 hrs))
–0.0030 = (–λ)(20,000 hrs)
λ = 1.5 x 10–7 failures per hr (or 1 failure every 6,666,666 hrs)
This scenario is demonstrative of the concept that just because a component has an overall higher
reliability than another component does not necessarily mean that its failure rate is always lower.
The amount of time in which reliability is measured is pivotal for accurately defining the relative
context of a component’s true reliability value.
71. D: Within the realm of statics and mechanics, a structure is considered statically indeterminate
if the number of forces (variables) exceeds the number of available equilibrium equations. In this
working example, there are four separate forces placed upon the static hoist, and yet there are only
three independent equilibrium equations depicting the relationships of these forces; the object’s
condition is hence considered to be statically indeterminate because the equations cannot be solved
to render a single definitive value attributable to each force variable.
72. D: According to H. W. Heinrich, out of every 100 accidents, approximately 88 of them, on

average, are the result of direct (erroneous) actions of individuals. Moreover, approximately 10 of
them are usually attributable to unsafe conditions, and two of them are typically characterized as
unavoidable. Hence, for the case example, out of 425 incidents, approximately 375 would be
attributable to the direct actions of individuals.
73. B: An endeavor to uncover and reduce hazards that may be at hand for product or system users,
as well as to those who are accountable for their maintenance, is conventionally known as an
Occupational Health Hazard Assessment. Such assessments also usually attempt to evaluate ways to
reduce risks or impacts resulting from such hazards if an associated undesirable event was to
subsequently unfold.
74. A: In a fault-tree sequence, Events A, B, and C have estimated probabilities (frequencies) of

occurrence equal to 0.1, 0.01, and 0.005, respectively. For a resulting system failure to occur (Event
D), Events A and B or Events A and C must transpire. According to the fault-tree’s analysis, the
approximate overall probability that Event D may occur is equal to 0.00105. This is derived via the
statistical approach of an “OR” (-gate) scenario being followed through the fault-tree to spawn the
aforementioned system failure (Event D). Mathematically, this is attained per the following:
Probability of Event D (system failure) = { [(PA x PB) + (PA x PC)] – [(PA x PB) x (PA x PC)] }
= { [0.001 + 0.0005] – [0.0000005] }
48
≈ 0.0015
75. D: For a vehicle moving along at a steady speed of 50 m/s followed by a deceleration rate of –6
m/s for 100 m, to determine the speed of the vehicle when the vehicle began to accelerate again
(after the 100 m slowdown), the following calculation is employed:
v2 = vo2 + 2ad, where v is the speed at the point of reacceleration; vo is the initial speed of the
vehicle; a is the acceleration; and d is the change in position between the two speed measurements.
v2 = (50 m/s)2 + 2(–6 m/s)(100 m)
= (2500) + (–1200)
= (1300)1/2
≈ 36 m/s
76. D: For a plaintiff to prove strict liability, he or she must convincingly demonstrate three
fundamental evidentiary levels regarding an allegedly defective product: (1) that the product was
indeed defective; (2) that the product was defective upon departure of the defendant’s
stewardship; and (3) that the defect resulted in direct injury to the plaintiff. A consumer-fraud
finding would not be applicable to the situation either because it was not demonstrated that the
defendant was intentionally selling a defective product. Obligatory culpability is not a finding that
could result from this court proceeding.
77. A: For work principally conducted in mines, the U.S. Mine Safety and Health Administration
(MSHA) typically employs a measurement parameter known as a severity measure (SM) that is
used for assessing levels of worker injury and/or loss. The formula for calculating SM over a
calendar year is the following: SM = [(number of lost workdays)(200,000)] ÷ [total number of
employee hrs worked]. Thus in this specific case, SM = [(5)(200,000)] ÷ [125,000] = 8.
78. C: If two separate containers are being simultaneously filled with a chemical at a rate of 2.5
gal/min, with one container being cylindrically shaped with a diameter of 12 in and a height of 24
in, whereas the other is box shaped with dimensions of 16 in x 9 in x 30 in, neither one will have yet
overflowed after exactly 4 min of filling. This is determined via the following:
Available filling capacity (volume) of cylinder = πr2h = 2,714 in3 = 11.75 gal
Available filling capacity (volume) of box = l x w x h = 4,320 in3 = 18.70 gal
If the fill rate is 2.5 gal/min, after 4 min only 10 gal would have been filled in both containers. The
cylindrical container would still have a 1.75 gal spare capacity at this point, and the box container
would still have an 8.70 gal spare capacity.
79. B: From the following list comprised of hazard scores associated with each of the noted
categories within a given work area, on a scale from 1 to 10, where 1 depicts a minimal hazard and
10 depicts a maximal hazard, it can likely be ascertained that a considerable portion of gears,
pulleys, and/or belts in the work area are in need of more robust guarding (regarding the provided
score of 7 for pinch point hazards).
Hazard Score
Chemical containment 4
Noise 3
49
Open floor plans / tripping 8
Lighting 1
Electrical 6
Fire suppression 2
Ergonomics 9
Machinery pinch-points 7
80. D: Given that the half-life of the isotope Cobalt-60 (Co-60) is approximately 5.3 year, after 16
years, a given sample would have undergone a decay equivalent to approximately 3 half-lives and
would thus be reduced by a factor of 7/8 (87.5 percent, i.e., only 1/8 of the original sample’s
activity—and hence, corresponding dose rate—measured at time t0 would remain at time = 16
years). So, if the original dose rate (@ to) was 2,000 mrem/hr at 9 ft from the source, the dose rate
(@t = 16 years) will equal approximately 0.125(2,000) = 250 mrem/hr at that same 9-ft distance.
Gamma-ray point-source (e.g., Co-60) intensities (and hence, corresponding dose rates) change
proportionally with the square of distance (d2). As such, the change in dose rate between a 9-ft and
4-ft distance is calculated as follows:
Dose rate @ 4 ft = [Dose rate @ 9 ft x (92 / 42)] = (250 mrem/hr) x (5.0625) ≈ 1,266 mrem/hr
= 1.266 rem/hr
Hence, for 10 CFR 20’s annual occupational dose limit of 5 rem not to be exceeded, an individual
cannot be exposed for more than approximately 4 hrs at a location of 4 ft from this source.
81. B: The measured area between the function f(x) = 2x3 + x2 – 5 and the x-axis, between the points
x1 = 0 and x2 = 3, is determined via the integration of the subject function and assessed at the point
limits of x = 0 and x = 3. Hence, the (definite) integral of the subject function is 2x4/4 + x3/3 – 5x;
upon plugging in the point limits of x = 0 and x =3, we obtain a resulting area (under the curve to
the x-axis) of:
[2(3)4/4 + 33/3 – 5(3) – 2(0)4/4 + 03/3 – 5(0)] = [40.5 + 9 – 15] = 34.5
In the case of the circle, if the circumference is 25, then the associated area of the subject circle is
derived via: C = π2r = 25; r is thus determined to be 3.98. Then, we are now able to derive the
circle’s area via: A = πr2 = π(15.84) = 49.8.
Area of circle (49.8) > Area under function (34.5)
82. C: Breathing secondhand smoke is an example of an involuntary risk scenario. Such a scenario
usually encompasses a situation in which a person is at risk due to a lack of understanding the
extent of a given risk or is unknowingly subjected to higher risks that are only known to the entities
that are responsible for the presence of an associated hazard at the onset. In contrast, examples of
voluntary risks include driving a car, smoking cigarettes, scuba diving, and skydiving.
83. B: A worker who was exposed to a hazardous chemical for 4 hrs per day over a 3-day period,
and a month later was subsequently diagnosed with a liver condition that has historically been
shown to manifest as a result of exposure to this chemical, is an example of an acute exposure
followed by systemic health effects. Acute exposures are typically categorized as those that occur
over a very short to short period of time (i.e., a few s to a few days); chronic exposures occur for
much longer periods (i.e., weeks to years). Moreover, systemic effects typically manifest in bodily
50
organs or systems that can have long-lasting, serious impacts, whereas localized effects are
typically less serious and more temporary in nature (e.g., eye irritation, skin burns, or mucus
membrane inflammation).
84. C: For a horizontally oriented fire system (i.e., no elevation throughout the system), water flows
through a 4-in pipe. The measured head loss in a 500-ft section of the system is 20 ft. The residual
pressure at Point A is 30 psi, and the velocity at point A is 8 ft/s. If the velocity at Point B is 10 ft/s,
the pressure at Point B may be determined via the following equation:
va2/2g + pa/w + za = vb2/2g + pb/w + zb + hab, whereby va is the velocity at point a; g is the
gravitational acceleration constant; pa is the pressure at point a; w is the water density (62.4 lb/ft3);
za is the elevation at point a; vb is the velocity at point b; pb is the pressure at point b; zb is the
elevation at point b; and hab is the piezometric head (equivalent to the sum of elevation-z and head
between points a and b)
Hence, employing va2/2g + pa/w + za = vb2/2g + pb/w + zb + hab, this particular problem is to solve for
p b.
[82/2(32.2)] + [30/62.4](144 in2/ft2) + 0 = [102/2(32.2)] + [pb/62.4] + 0 + 20
0.994 + 69.2 = 1.553 + [pb/62.4] + 20
70.2 = 21.553 + [pb/62.4]
48.6 = [pb/62.4]
3,036 lb/ft2 = 21.1 lb/in2
85. A: A worker (who weighs 170 lbs or any other weight for that matter) who falls off a 20-ft-high
scaffold will impact the ground at approximately 25 mph (ignoring any losses due to air friction)
and would thus be expected to sustain potentially serious injuries. This resulting impact speed is
calculated via the following:
Velocity at Impact = [(2) x (g) x (height)]1/2 = [(2)(32.2 ft/s2)(20 ft) x]1/2 ≈ 35 ft/s
= (35 ft/s)(mi/5,280 ft)(3600 s/hr) = 24.5 mph ≈ 25 mph
86. B: A parameter that is conventionally used to measure the quantity of time that a worker may
remain in an area that has been infiltrated by a known amount of hazardous/toxic gas (or fumes)
without suffering any adverse health effects is known as an emergency exposure limit (EEL). As the
nomenclature indicates, this value is typically employed in emergency situations when retrieval of
immobilized personnel or the stabilization of facilities is required. Most recommended EEL values
typically fall in the min to hrs range, with 8 hrs usually seen as a conventional ceiling. There are
potential situations, however, where if concentration and toxicity levels are high enough, only a
time frame in the seconds range can hence be tolerated.
87. D: Plutonium-239 is both radiologically and chemically hazardous. All plutonium isotopes
essentially maintain a chemical toxicity similar to that of lead and are extremely hazardous
radiologically (especially when inhaled) due to their very highly energetic alpha particle emissions.
In contrast, although lead-208 and mercury-202 are both chemically hazardous, they are also both
radiologically stable and therefore do not pose a radiation hazard. Argon-40 is a radioactive
isotope; however, it is not considered a chemical hazard.
51
88. D: Per the work-area noise-level measurements provided (assessed over a two-week time
span), a CSP, ASP, or IH should conclude that the area does not meet the minimum TWA threshold
levels of a hazardous noise area as per OSHA 1910.95 (i.e., an 8-hr TWA greater than 85 dBA); thus,
hearing protection PPE is not mandatory. However, it should be nevertheless recommended due to
average levels being close to this threshold, with occasional exceedances at hand.
Measurement Number of Measurement Measurement

Day Hours Measured Range Average
1 of 10 6.75 74-81 dBA 77 dBA
2 of 10 8 67-79 dBA 71 dBA
3 of 10 3 86-88 dBA 87 dBA
4 of 10 8 71-92 dBA 79 dBA
5 of 10 7 81-85 dBA 84 dBA
6 of 10 3.5 77-80 dBA 78 dBA
7 of 10 8 58-72 dBA 67 dBA
8 of 10 6.5 66-70 dBA 69 dBA
9 of 10 2.25 89-94 dBA 93 dBA
10 of 10 7.5 75-83 dBA 78 dBA
89. B: The respiratory disease Siderosis is known to be caused by exposure to iron oxide (rust) dust.
Working in a steel mill (given that iron is the major component of steel) thus entails higher risks of
contracting Siderosis. In contrast, asbestosis is caused by overexposure to asbestos fibers.
90. A: An air-contaminant concentration of approximately 50 ppm is expected to result in following

air-filtration through a three-stage filter bank with individual respective efficiencies (εx) of 90
percent, 95 percent, and 99 percent. This is calculated via the following:
Post-filtration contamination = [(1 – ε1) (1 – ε2) (1 – ε3)] = [(0.10)(0.05)(0.01)] = 0.000050 = 50

ppm
91. B: If a gas at a pressure of 5 psia occupies a volume of 100 cm3 at a temperature of 20°K, the
resultant pressure of the gas will remain at 5 psia if the temperature is increased to 30°K at a
volume of 150 cm3. The pressure remains constant in this case because both the temperature and
volume increased proportionally by the same quantity (50 percent). This principle is illustrative of
Charles’ Gas Law.
92. B: At altitudes of about 10,000 ft above sea level, lower concentrations of oxygen in the
atmosphere can begin to have noticeable physiological effects on humans (i.e., hypoxia), symptoms
of which may include confusion, tachycardia, skin color changes, shortness of breath, and sweating.
Over 15,000 ft, symptoms can become acutely serious with blood oxygen saturation levels dropping
to near 80 percent. At over 20,000 ft, consciousness will shortly be lost.
93. A: If the inhalation dose conversion factor (DCFi) for isotope “X” is 1 rem per curie (Ci), and a
facility that processes this isotope releases 2.22 x 1013 becquerels (Bq, 600 curies) of it per year, a
resulting annual inhalation dose of approximately 18 mrem is expected for a downwind receptor
who has a breathing rate of 18.31 in3 (300 cm3) per s and is subjected to an atmospheric
concentration dispersion coefficient (X/Q) of 1 x 10–7 s per cm3. This resultant dose is calculated via
the following:
Inhalation Dose ≈ (Source Term)(BR)(DCF)(X/Q)
52
= (2.22x1013 Bq)(1 Ci/3.7x1010 Bq)(18.31 in3/s)(16.39 cm3/in3)(1000 millirem/Ci)(1x10–7 s/cm3)
= 18 mrem
94. B: If a work area has dimensions of 10 m x 10 m x 3 m, the shortest amount of time it could
potentially take for the entire supply of air in the room to (hypothetically) be completely exchanged
via an air-exchanger HVAC system that operates at a rate of 80 cfm would be approximately 2.2
hours. This is calculated via the following:
Total air exchange time = (300 m3)(1 min/80 ft3)(35.31 ft3/m3) = 132.4 min = 2.2 hours
95. A: Radon, a naturally occurring gas that results from the radioactive decay of radium in earthen
soils, is primarily an alpha radiation source. If inhaled, radon’s energetic alpha particles (and
progeny) are very hazardous to lung tissues and can result in significantly increased risks or
incidences of lung cancer. The U.S. Environmental Protection Agency recommends a radon
concentration awareness action level at 2 pCi/L and a mitigation action level at 4 pCi/L.
For the case example of a 24-hr radon survey conducted in a work area that measured radon
concentrations every hour on the hour, the following may be concluded from the provided
information:
Time Concentration (Ci/L)

1600 (Day 1) 1.2 x 10–12
1800 (Day 1) 9.3 x 10–13
2000 (Day 1) 1.8 x 10–12
2200 (Day 1) 2.7 x 10–12
0000 (Day 1) 4.3 x 10–12
0200 (Day 1) 3.8 x 10–12
0400 (Day 1) 1.9 x 10–12
0600 (Day 1) 1.3 x 10–12
0800 (Day 1) 8.8 x 10–13
1000 (Day 1) 8.1 x 10–13
1200 (Day 1) 1.1 x 10–12
1400 (Day 1) 1.4 x 10–12
1600 (Day 2) 1.3 x 10–12
1800 (Day 2) 9.9 x 10–13
2000 (Day 2) 1.5 x 10–12
2200 (Day 2) 2.5 x 10–12
0000 (Day 2) 3.9 x 10–12
0200 (Day 2) 3.5 x 10–12
0400 (Day 2) 1.3 x 10–12
0600 (Day 2) 8.5 x 10–13
0800 (Day 2) 1.0 x 10–12
1000 (Day 2) 1.2 x 10–12
1200 (Day 2) 1.3 x 10–12
1400 (Day 2) 9.6 x 10–13
The average (mean) measured concentration for the 24-hr sampling period is found equal to
approximately 1.77 x 10–12 Ci/L, which equates to 1.77 picocuries/L (pCi/L); therefore, no EPA
categorical action level (i.e., 2 pCi/L or 4 pCi/L) has been exceeded, and thus no remedial action is
53
recommended. Given the temporary, clustered, and consistent nature of the elevated readings
(noted in bold) at 2200, 0000, and 0200 on both Days 1 and 2, it is very likely that these are due to
nighttime atmospheric inversion layer events, which keep the radon more suppressed at ground
levels.
96. D: The conventionally established definition for upper flammable limit (UFL) or upper
explosive limit (UEL) for a gas is the highest concentration of gas (or vapor) relative to air at which
such a gaseous material is able to ignite.
97. A: Steve and Mary both work on an assembly line with varying degrees of machine-guarding
adequacy. Steve, who primarily works near pulleys and belts, never tucks in his shirt and always
wears a loose-hanging bracelet. Mary, in contrast, who primarily works near axles and gears, has
long, loose-flowing hair and always wears a long, dangling necklace. Via the provided information,
because all of the machinery Mary works near is fully guarded (i.e., essentially fully enclosed), it is
extremely unlikely for either her necklace or hair to get caught in any of the machinery. Although
Steve works near much fewer potential pinch points (four versus 24 for Mary), they are either
unguarded or only partially guarded, therefore creating a realistic potential for Steve to be involved
in a “caught-in-a-machine”-related incident. Although other potential contributory variables such as
lengths of shifts, part-time versus full-time status, and precise work locations or functions relative
to pinch point angles and configurations are not known, it can be concluded from the information
provided that Steve is at a definitively higher risk due to all of Mary’s local potential pinch points
being fully guarded.
98. C: Current is the standard electrical parameter (not voltage) that potential electrocution deaths
to humans are measured by. In relative terms, it does not require considerable quantities of current
to adversely impact biological functions. Current levels in the range of 0.1 to 0.2 amperes (amps)
are typically denoted as the death range in which fatalities will most likely occur. Ironically, at
currents greater 0.2 amps, although breathing may temporarily stop and burns may occur, the
heart will often clamp itself shut during the period of exposure. A clamping condition such as this
actually protects the heart from entering into ventricular fibrillation, with a person’s chances for
resulting survival usually being quite optimistic following the event.
99. B: Glassification and ceramification are two modes of immobilization used in the disposition of
hazardous, mixed, and nuclear wastes. Such waste materials are usually industrially amalgamated
in tandem with stable glass or ceramic matrices to prevent the leaching of such materials into the
surrounding environment.
For the case of a waste management company required to dispose of 10 MT of waste using either or
both of these subject technologies, the cost of a 50-50 allocation (by weight) endeavor is calculated
via the following:
Cost to glassify 5 MT of waste with a bulk density (ρ) = 4.8 g/cm3 and at $1,000/ft3:
(5MT)(1000kg/MT)(cm3/4.8g)(1000g/kg)($1000/ft3)(ft3/28,317cm3) = $36,786
Cost to ceramify 5 MT of waste with a bulk density (ρ) = 4.8 g/cm3 and at $5,000/ft3:
(5MT)(1000kg/MT)(cm3/4.8g)(1000g/kg)($5000/ft3)(ft3/28,317cm3) = $183,930
Total cost estimate = $220,716
54
100. C: Given that the pipe’s flow is definitively characterized as laminar, by definition, the
Reynolds number (Re) must be less than 2,000. To calculate the pressure for such a pipe with a 6-in
radius and a laminar flow rate of 1,000 gpm, the following formula is employed:
P = Q2/891d4, where Q is the laminar flow rate and d is the pipe diameter
P = (1000 gpm)2 / (891)(12 in)4
P = 0.054 psi
101. A: A company physician recommends that an overweight employee implement a weight-loss

plan to lose 52 lbs. If the employee has been up to that point in time regularly eating 5,000 calories
per day and exhibits an equilibrium caloric intake level of 2,500 daily calories (the caloric daily
intake whereby weight remains stable), the percentage he or she must decrease daily caloric intake
to lose the target weight over 1 year’s time (assuming that he or she regularly burns the
equilibrium-level 2,500 calories per day through normal metabolism and exercise over that year,
and that 1 ounce of fat is equivalent to 200 calories) is determined via the following:
To lose 52 lbs over a year is equivalent to an average of 1 lb per week. To lose 1 lb per week
through caloric cutbacks alone, a total of 457 less net calories must be consumed per day. This is
derived per the following:
[(–200 cal/oz)(16 oz/lb)(1 lb/wk)(1 wk/7 days)] = –457 cal/day
Given that the worker’s equilibrium intake level is 2,500 calories, he or she must therefore take in
no greater than 2,043 calories (i.e., 2,500 – 457) on an average daily basis to meet the weight-loss
goal within a year’s time.
This is a 59.1 percent reduction in daily caloric intake from the present level of 5,000 calories/day.
102. C: Oscilloscopes are normally utilized within industrial settings for assessing electronic output
signals and associated parameters. Each block on the provided oscilloscope display represents one
unit. The signal’s amplitude is defined as the number of units from the x-axis to the peak of the
waves (2), and the period is defined as the number of units covered (x-directionally) from the start
of a wave cycle through its completion (2). The signal shape is symmetrically sinusoidal (i.e., a sine
wave) given that it starts and ends at a functional (y) value equal to zero on the x-axis, has maxima
and minima at the π/2 and 3π/2 points, and is symmetrically bisected by the x-axis.
103. C: Microwave power density from an antenna or similar RF-type source may be calculated at
any discrete distance via the use of the following formula: W = AP/λ2r2, whereby W = power
density, A = the effective area of the antenna, P = the antenna’s power, λ = wavelength distance, and
r = distance from the antenna.
55
W = { [π(250 cm)2] x [50,000 mW] ÷ [(1 cm)2 x (1,000 cm)2] } = 9,817 mW/cm2
104. A: Head of a fluid moving through a pipe is calculated via the following: hv = v2/2g, where v =
fluid velocity and g = gravitational acceleration constant (32.2 ft/s2). Thus, for this subject case,
hv = [(16 ft2/s2) ÷ 2(32.2 ft/s2)] = 0.25 ft.
105. A: Approximate exposure or dose rates from gamma sources at a distance of 1 ft can be
calculated per the formula D = 6CEN, where C = the number of curies of the source, E = the energy
of the emitted gamma ray (in MeV), and N = the percent of time the subject gamma ray is emitted
when a disintegration occurs. Thus, for a 10 micro-curie source with a single 2.5 MeV gamma ray
that is emitted 100 percent of the time, the estimated resulting dose rate (in rem/hr) at 1 ft is
calculated to be 0.000025.
D = 6CEN = 6(10x10–6 Curies)(2.5 MeV)(1.0) = 0.000025 rem/hr
106. C: Alkali metals, such as sodium, lithium, and potassium typically react strongly (and often
violently) when exposed to water. Soluble alkaline hydroxides and hydrogen gas are normally
produced in these highly exothermic reactions. From a safety perspective in the workplace, it is
always vital to keep these metals dry and isolated and away from any potential water or moisture
sources. In the subject case, the calculated amount of heat released via a standard reaction between
92 g of pure sodium and 0.072 L of water, if approximately 185 kJ/mole is normally released in
such a reaction, is determined as follows:
2Na + 2H2O  2NaOH + H2, with an associated heat release of 370 kJ (i.e., 2 moles x 185 kJ/mole)
2 moles of sodium = 46 g and 92 g = 4 moles
2 moles of water = 36 g and 72 g = 4 moles
Because 0.072 L = 72 ml and the density of water is 1 g/ml, there are therefore 72 g of water (i.e., 4
moles) for the case of this reaction.
Hence, because there are 4 moles of each substance involved in the reaction, the resultant quantity
of heat released is 4 moles x 185 kJ/mole = 740 kJ.
107. A: In risk-assessment space, a severity-rating of critical is typically associated with the

following conditional scenarios: (1) major damage to equipment or systems; (2) permanent partial
impairment or temporary total impairment to workforces (likely includes injuries and/or
fatalities); (3) appreciably disabled operational capabilities; (4) a major degree of overall property
damage; and/or (5) high degrees of environmental releases or impacts.
108. C: A chemical’s (Material) Safety Data Sheet (SDS) is virtually always produced and supplied
by the chemical manufacturer. Moreover, there are numerous SDS databases and resources
available via the Internet for locating a particular SDS, especially for generic-type materials. For this
subject case, a CSP is attempting to identify an unlabeled chemical within a work area per with
56
information he or she has analyzed in the chemical’s SDS’s “Exposure Controls/Personal
Protection” section, including the following:
Engineering Controls
Provide robust exhaust ventilation or other engineering controls to keep airborne vapor
concentrations below their respective threshold limit value. Ensure that eyewash stations and
safety showers are near workstation locations.
Personal Protection
Gloves, boots, face shield, full suit, and vapor respirator—be sure to use an approved or certified
respirator or equivalent thereof.
Personal Protection in Case of a Large Spill
Gloves, boots, face shield, full suit, and vapor respirator—a self-contained breathing apparatus
should be used to avoid inhalation. Suggested protective clothing might not be sufficient against
this liquid material; it is recommended a specialist be consulted before handling this product.
Exposure Limits
TWA: 0.025 from ACGIH (TLV) [U.S.] SKIN TWA: 0.05 CEIL: 0.1 (mg/m3) from OSHA (PEL) [U.S.].
Inhalation TWA: 0.025 (mg/m3) [UK]. Local authorities should be contacted as appropriate for
permissible exposure limits.
It can be resultantly determined (through the process of elimination from the provided
information) that the unidentified material in question is most likely mercury, particularly in light
of the very conservative TWAs and PEL presented. In addition, MEK, acetone, and ammonia would
typically not mandate the rigorous levels of PPE controls that are recommended.
109. A: Per OSHA’s 29 CFR 1910.146, confined space entry, a permit-required confined space,
means that the space may exhibit the potential for engulfing an entrant. In addition, the space may
contain an oxygen-depleted or hazardous atmosphere or may present an internal configuration
such that a worker could become trapped or asphyxiated by inwardly converging walls or by a floor
that slopes downward and tapers into a smaller cross-section.
For the case of a rectangular-shaped confined space (with no air circulation, ventilation, or supplied
air) with associated dimensions of 10 ft x 8 ft x 6 ft (i.e., 480 ft3), the amount of time it will contain
enough breathable oxygen for survival (on the high side, assuming total replacement of O2 with CO2
during respiration) if occupied by a worker who has an average breathing rate of 300 cm3/s is
determined as follows:
In this conservative case example, over time, the O2 in the air within a confined space will deplete
and be replaced by CO2 due to human respiration. Normal O2 levels in air are ~21 percent; however,
if depletion occurs for a long-enough time within a confined space, levels can become dangerously
low. Death typically occurs when O2 levels in air reach about the 7 percent level. Thus, for a worker
with an average breathing rate of 300 cm3/s, a 7 percent oxygen level will be attained in a 480 ft3
confined space (with no air circulation, ventilation, or otherwise supplied air, and a conservative
assumption that all O2 is replaced by 100 percent CO2 during the respiration process) in
approximately 8.4 hrs. This is derived per the following calculation:
(300 cm3 air/s)(0.21 O2 content) = 63 cm3 O2/s
57
480 ft3 = 13,592,160 cm3
(13,592,160 cm3 free-air in room)(0.21 O2 content) = 2,854,353 cm3 O2
(13,592,160 cm3 free-air in room + CO2 buildup)(0.07 O2 content) = 951,451 cm3 O2
2,854,353 cm3 – 951,451 cm3 = 1,902,902 cm3
Hence, the period of time it takes to consume 1,902,902 cm3 O2 at a rate of 63 cm3/s is the amount
of time a worker will have in the confined space until death occurs from oxygen deprivation.
1,902,902 cm3 ÷ 63 cm3/s = 30,205 s = 8.4 hrs
It should be noted, however, that fatal concentrations of CO2 (i.e., > 10 percent in air) may likely
occur prior to the oxygen level reaching ~7%. Hence, the actual survival time within this confined-
space scenario may in fact be considerably less than the 8.4 hrs calculated for oxygen-depletion
alone.
110. D: The quadratic equation is used for solving second-order expressions (in the form of ax2 + bx
+ c) that cannot be directly factored. The formula is as follows:
−𝑏 ± √𝑏 2 − 4𝑎𝑐
𝑥=
2𝑎
Hence, solving for the expression 3x2 + 4x – 5 = 0, the derived solutions for “x” would be as follows:
x = 0.79 and x = –2.12
111. B: Salt (sodium chloride) has a molecular weight equal to 58.44 g. By definition, this means
that 1 mole of salt = 58.44 g = 6.023 x 1023 molecules. Consequently, in 14.61 g of salt, there would
be ¼ (6.023 x 1023 molecules), or 1.506 x 1023 molecules.
112. B: The series of seven elements that can only exist as diatoms (dual-atoms) in nature when
they are standing alone are: hydrogen (H2), nitrogen (N2), oxygen (O2), iodine (I2), bromine (Br2),
chlorine (Cl2), and fluorine (F2). One will note that these are all gasses at standard temperature and
pressure. Moreover, fluorine has the highest level of electronegativity in the entire periodic table,
which means that it has the highest tendency of any atom to attract a bonding pair of electrons. In
the frequently used Pauling scale, which measures electronegativity, fluorine has an assigned value
of 4.0, which is higher than any other element in the periodic table.
113. C: Time-weighted-average (TWA) exposures to a singular chemical are calculated per the
following:
[(aC1 + bC2 +… xCz) ÷ (∑ exposure times)]
Thus, an employee who is exposed to carbon monoxide (CO) concentrations of 100 ppm for 1 hr,
500 ppm for 2 hrs, and 750 ppm for 15 min, receives a TWA exposure of 396 ppm.
{ [(1 hr)(100 ppm) + (2 hr)(500 ppm) + (0.25 hr)(750 ppm)] ÷ [3.25 hr] } = 396 ppm
114. C: If an 8-hr PEL for a hazardous respirable dust is 20 mg/m3, the associated PEL for an
employee working a 10-hr shift is equal to 16 mg/m3. This is derived via solving the following
equation for 10-hr extended shifts:
(8 hr PEL value)(8 hrs) = (x)(10 hrs)
58
(20 mg/m3)(8 hrs) = 10x
x = 16 mg/m3
115. D: To calculate an aggregate lower flammability limit (LFL) for a chemical mixture, the
following formula is applied:
LFLm = 1 / [(f1/LFL1 + f2/LFL2 +… fn/LFLn)]; where f = fraction of the mixture
Hence, a liquid mixture containing 50 percent methyl alcohol, 35 percent methyl ethyl ketone, and
15 percent acetone, with respective lower flammability limits of 1.5 percent, 1.1 percent, and 0.75
percent results in an overall (aggregate) LFL for the entire mixture of 1.17 percent.
LFLm = 1 / [(0.50/1.5 + 0.35/1.1 + 0.15/0.75)] = 1/0.8513 ≈ 1.17%
116. D: The calculated approximate recommended weight limit (RWL) in pounds that has a load
constant (LC) equal to 51 lbs; a horizontal multiplier (HM) equal to 0.75; a vertical multiplier (VM)
equal to 0.90; a distance multiplier (DM) equal to 0.87; an asymmetric multiplier (AM) equal to
0.85; a frequency multiplier (FM) equal to 0.45; and a coupling multiplier (CM) equal to 0.95 is
determined to be 11 lbs. (Note: there is no such parameter as a transitional multiplier.”)
Hence, the result is derived via the following calculation:
RWL = LC x HM x VM x DM x AM x FM x CM = (51 lbs)(0.75)(0.90)(0.87)(0.85)(0.45)(0.95) ≈ 11 lbs
117. B: To determine which noise would be louder at a distance of 30 ft from its source, the
following formula is employed:
dB2 = dB1 – |20log(d1/d2)|
For case #1, a 100 dB noise is heard 3 ft away from its source:
dB2 = 100 – |20log(3/30)|

dB2 = 80 dB @ 30 ft
For case #2, a 120 dB noise is heard 1 ft away from its source:
dB2 = 120 – |20log(1/30)|

dB2 = 90.4 dB @ 30 ft
Thus, at a distance of 30 ft, the 120 dB noise at 1 ft is louder than the 100 dB noise at 3 ft. In
addition, hearing protection would be required at this distance for an 8-hr TWA due to it exceeding
hazardous noise level thresholds.
118. B: The equivalent polar-coordinate (r, θ) of the Cartesian-plotted point (6, 4) is calculated as
follows:
The point (6, 4) is plotted in the Cartesian system, with “r” connecting the point (0, 0) to (6, 4). This
“r” in essence, is the hypotenuse of the resulting created triangle; thus, the Pythagorean Theorem
may be employed to find the value of “r.” It is 7.21.
The value of θ is the newly created angle (which completed the triangle) between the x-axis and “r.”
Through simple trigonometric application, the angle can be calculated. For example, sin θ = 4 ÷ 7.21
= 0.555. Arcsin 0.555 = 33.7°.
59
119. D: Minimum required air sampling volume for a gas is determined via the following equation:
Vmin = (1000 L/m3 x LOQ) / Ct, whereby LOQ = limit of quantification (range) [in mg], and Ct =
contaminant target concentration [in mg/m3]. (Note: 2.42 mg/m3 = 1 ppm.)
Hence, for a gas that has an LOQ (range) of 5.2 – 65.7 micrograms and a target concentration of 880
ppm, the minimum required sampling volume is derived as follows:
Vmin = (1000 L/m3 x 0.0052 mg) / 2,130 mg/m3 = 0.0024 L
120. B: Per OSHA 29 CFR 1910.95, 30 min of continual exposure at a 115 dBA noise level is twice
the specified limit (of 15 min) required by the standard. Thirty min of continual exposure is,
however, permitted at a level of 110 dBA or less.
121. A: A Class-III biological safety cabinet is the highest degree of protection available within the
biological safety classification system. Given the case example of an industrial organization being in
the process of acquiring a new Class-III biological safety cabinet, with the following comprising a
list of technical specifications provided by a candidate cabinet vendor, one major flaw or omission
is noted.
Technical Specification Summary for Acme Corporation—Level III BioCab—Model # 2A6535001CM

Arm-length rubber gloves
Provides excellent physical protection to workforce
ASTM-rated at 90 percent negative-pressure and 95 percent gas-tight efficiency
Sealed front panel
Air drawn into cabinet through HEPA filtration system
Dimensions: 80" x 48" x 36"
Double-welded steel frame and casing
ASTM-rated lead-glass windows
Double-gasket O-ring seal design at outlets
Inflow velocity 150 fpm
The cabinet should be 100 percent negatively pressurized and have a 100 percent gas-tight
efficiency rating.
122. C: Within the realm of thermodynamics, the term heat of combustion (hoc) is conventionally
defined as the amount of heat (in cal) emitted by the combustion of 1 g of a substance. For the four
generic-example scenarios provided to assess which has the highest associated hypothetical hoc,
individual evaluations must be performed to ascertain which has the highest cal count per unit g.
Case 1—4,600 cal emitted by the combustion of one mole of Na-23:
1 mole of Na-23 = 23 g; 4,600 cal/23 g combustion = 200 cal/g
Case 2—908 cal emitted by the combustion of 0.1 lb of helium:
0.1 lb of helium = 45.4 g of helium; 908 cal/45.4 g = 20 cal/g
Case 3—257 cal emitted by the combustion of 1 g of hydrogen = 257 cal/g
Case 4—10 kilocalories emitted by the combustion of 2.5 moles of sulfuric acid:
2.5 moles of sulfuric acid = 2.5 moles H2SO4; 1 mole of H2SO4 = 98 g; 2.5 moles = 245 g;
60
10,000 cal/245 g ≈ 41 cal/g
So, Case 3 (1 g of hydrogen) is determined to be the highest for this example problem.
123. B: The solution to the expression (i4 + 2i3 – 5i2 – 4i – 1)2 is determined as follows:
(Imaginary) value (i) = (–1)1/2
[((–1)1/2)4 + 2((–1)1/2)3 – 5((–1)1/2)2 – 4((–1)1/2) – 1]2 = [(1) +2(–i) – 5(–1) – 4i – 1]2
= [1 – 2i + 5 – 4i – 1]2 = [5 – 6i]2 = (5 – 6i) (5 – 6i) = 25 – 60i + 36i2 = 25 – 60i + 36(–1)
= –60i – 11.
124. D: According to NFPA criteria, Class IIIB combustible liquid classes strictly exhibit flash points
that are in exceedance of 200°F. A substance’s flash point is defined as the minimum temperature at
which it gives off a vapor in sufficient concentration to form an ignitable mixture with the air near
the material’s surface. As such, this class is considered the safest of all potential categories due its
susceptibility to ignition being the most minimal.
125. B: Wind-chill (factor) temperature is calculated per the following formula:
WC (°F) = 35.74 + 0.6215T – 35.75(V0.16) + 0.4275T(V0.16)
Hence, for the case of an air temperature (T) equal to 20°F and a wind speed (V) of 15 mph, the
associated wind-chill temperature is found to be 6.2°F.
WC = 35.74 + 0.6215(20) – 35.75(150.16) + 0.4275(20)(150.16)
WC = 35.74 + 12.43 – 55.14 + 13.19
WC = 6.22 ≈ 6.2
126. C: Kinetic energy (in joules [J]) is calculated per the formula KE = 1/2mv2, where m = mass (in
kg) and v = velocity (in m/s). Thus, the kinetic energy of a 9,000 lb forklift moving at a speed of 5
mph is calculated via the following:
KE = 1/2mv2 = { 0.5(9000 lb)(0.454 kg/lb)[(5 mph)(1609 m/mile)(0.000278 hr/s)]2 }
KE = 10,219 kg-m2/s2 = 10,219 joules = 10.2 kJ
127. B: If a company borrows $1 million to start a business, the entire loan will cost the business
$1,490,833 over a repayment period of 10 years if the lender charges a 4 percent interest rate
compounded monthly. This is calculated via the formula F = P(1 + i/n)nt, whereby F = loan future
value, P = initial loan amount, i = the interest rate, n = number of times per year the interest is
compounded, and t = the number of years loan is being repaid.
F = P(1 + i/n)nt = $1,000,000(1 + 0.04/12)(12)(10)
F = $1,000,000(1.490833) = $1,490,833
128. D: According to U.S. Bureau of Labor statistics, transportation-related incidents normally

account for the highest fatality rates across all industries (approximately 40 percent). The second-
highest is contact with objects or equipment at about a 20 percent incidence rate.
61
129. A: The three fundamental categories of risk management (process) controls are physical,
educational, and avoidance. Examples of physical controls are guarding, barriers, and signage;
examples of educational controls are knowledge, training, and skills; and examples of avoidance
controls are the initiation of programs or incentives by management in support of hazard-aversion
reinforcement goals.
130. C: A material’s specific gravity (SG) is defined as the ratio of that material’s density to that of
the density of water and is particularly important when addressing issues resulting from chemical
spills. In general, if an SG is < 1, the material will float, and if it is > 1, it will sink. Thus, if the density
of Material-X is equal to approximately 3.5 g/cm3 (or 3.5 g/ml), then the SG of that material is
calculated as (Densityx ÷ DensityH2O) = (3.5 g/cm3 ÷ 1.0 g/cm3) = 3.5.
131. C: Human cycles that are believed to affect behavior every 25 to 30 days and can influence
facets such as intellect, logic, emotions, strength, and stamina are known as biorhythms. In the
workplace (as in everyday life), it is important to recognize that employees will likely have varying
degrees of acuity and focus due to these cycles; thus, associated variances in human performance
metrics should resultantly be expected.
132. B: Block-and-tackle equipment and devices are regularly used in industrial settings for lifting
heavy loads. As such, the generic formula of F = W ÷ x is typically utilized for depicting the
relationship between the vertical force (F) and the weight (W) of the lifted load. The “x” in the
formula conventionally represents the number of times the connected chain or rope passes
between the load end and the anchored end of the block-and-tackle system.
133. A: Database management systems and computer-aided-design (CAD) systems often work best
in tandem for optimally improving safety and minimizing hazards in the workplace.
134. B: The two primary standards of the BSCP Code of Ethics and Conduct mandate that certified
professionals of all levels uphold the esteem, integrity, and influence of the safety profession.
135. B: Given the following information from the vehicle’s onboard computer as well as the
vehicle’s published technical specifications, the approximate number of miles the tires have been
driven can be calculated as follows:
* 92,518,000 driveshaft rotations
* 3.6 driveshaft (DS) rotations = 1 complete tire rotation (straight-line driving)
* 30-in diameter (15-in radius [r]) tires
Tire mileage = (2rπ/tire rotation)(1 ft/12 in)(1 mile/5,280 ft)(1 tire rotation/3.6 DS
rotations)(92,518,000 DS rotations) = 38,229 mile
Although the 40,000-mile limit has not yet been officially reached, good safety management
practices would mandate that the tires be changed at this point in time. This is all the more
substantiated by the visual inspection performed by the fleet manager.
136. C: For the CSP to assess the rate of change (of the functions) at the midpoint of each year (i.e., t
= 6), the slopes of the functions must be calculated for each of the functions at the point t = 6. This is
accomplished by taking the derivative of each function and then plugging in the value of 6 for “t,”
globally.
Year 1: f(t) = t2 + 4t + 3: Derivative = 2t + 4; @ t = 6, the slope = 2(6) + 4 = 16
62
Year 2: f(t) = 2t2 – 6t + 1: Derivative = 4t – 6; @ t = 6, the slope = 4(6) – 6 = 18
Year 3: f(t) = 3t3 + 2t – 5: Derivative = 9t2 + 2; @ t = 6, the slope = 9(6)2 + 2 = 326
Year 4: f(t) = 2t3 – t2 + 4t + 6: Derivative = 6t2 – 2t + 4, the slope = 6(6)2 – 2(6) + 4 = 216 – 12 + 4 =
208
Thus, the function for Year 3 is determined to have the highest slope (i.e., rate of change) at time
point t = 6.
137. C: The power (P) in an alternating current circuit where the voltage is 75 V, the impedance (R)
is 10 ohms, and the sine of the phase angle (Φ) is 0.643, is calculated via the following:
arcsin 0.643 = 40°
P = [(V2)(cos Φ)] ÷ [R] = [(5,625)(0.766)] ÷ [10] = 431 watts
138. A: A robust occupational safety program should include, at a minimum, the seven following
key categories or tenets: hazard identification, work control, procedural compliance and document
control, emergency response protocol, training, incentive programs (e.g., VPP), and proper use and
deployment of personal protective equipment (PPE).
139. D: For the case of a $50,000 per annum injured employee going on short-term disability for a
period of 3 months at full compensation, followed by long-term disability for a period of 5½ months
that pays two-thirds of his regular wage, and then returning to work as a 0.75 full-time-equivalent
(FTE) for the remainder of the year, the employee would have resultantly made $38,716 in
equivalent income over that year. This is calculated via the following:
{[(0.25 yr)($50,000/yr)] + [(0.4583 yr)($50,000/yr)(0.6667)] + [(1-0.25-0.4583

yr)($50,000/yr)(0.75)]} =
{[$12,500] + [$15,277] + [$10,939]} = $38,716
140. B: The U.S. Department of Transportation (USDOT) should be immediately notified (first) in
the event of any accidental release of hazardous materials during transportation. This includes, but
is not limited to, any chemical, radiological, or biohazardous media.
141. D: The five prototypical elements commonly associated with a robust risk management
program cycle are (1) identification, (2) evaluation, (3) enhancement, (4) training, and (5)
feedback. These elements are generally implemented as stand-alone items within the risk
management cycle; however, there can often be numerous overlaps and interdependencies among
them depending on the precise construct of the subject program at hand.
142. B: A full-face respirator is most appropriate while working in an area with high lead dust
concentration levels, which are likely in exceedance of established action levels. Although a half-
face respirator in many cases may also be adequately suitable from a respiratory-protection
standpoint, utilizing a full-face system provides protection to the eyes.
143. C: The technique of energy isolation is regularly implemented by safety engineers to protect
people and products from impacts or damage that may result from accidents. Prime examples
include car bumpers, crumple zones, and hard hats.
63
144. A: Techniques such as peer collaboration, case-study deployment, and role-play are commonly
used when attempting to effectively train supervisors and upper management on protocols not
specifically laid out in procedural guidance.
145. D: If a plant employee notes that a subject pressure-vessel pressure gauge is reading 625 psia,
when it normally operates at 500 psia with a safety variability margin of ±15 percent, the MOST
appropriate action for the worker to undertake after reading the gauge is to immediately notify the
shift supervisor of the situation and consult the appropriate system contingency plan or procedure
on how to appropriately respond to the transient (anomalous) reading.
146. A: Electric arcs are a major safety hazard for electrical power industry personnel. These
hazards usually result in extremely high temperatures over very small time periods, along with
extremely high pressure waves. In addition, airborne shrapnel also typically manifests from such an
event. Workers who survive such events are typically the victims of severe burns.
147. C: An individual who is hired for the specific purpose of impartially investigating worker
issues or concerns and then suggesting associated resolutions to directorial boards is known as an
ombudsman. Such individuals are typically independent contractors or freelancers to the subject
organization and have no direct affiliation or history (i.e., subjectivity) with its workforce or
management personnel.
148. C: Commonly implemented conflict resolution methods utilized in industry include

adjudicative resolution, consensual dispute resolution, and legislative resolution. These methods
can employ the use of negotiators, arbitrators, and possibly the court system.
149. B: A chemical tank within an industrial processing facility that has a large, highly visible
warning label located approximately 1 ft away from the tank, and is clearly and legibly marked with
large, red-colored English print and a clear and straightforward message, is a suitable warning
system for such a container. However, given the fact that the facility employs both native English-
speaking and Spanish-speaking personnel, the label should be posted in both English and Spanish.
150. C: The development-evaluation phase of the product life cycle usually concludes with the
decision of whether (or not) to move forward with a product’s development.
151. D: From the information provided, it is not possible to definitively determine with certainty
what the subject employee may be experiencing. He or she may possibly just be experiencing
temporary muscular or nerve tightness and numbness (and other possible symptoms) that often
accompany exposure to cold, or he or she may in fact be possibly experiencing the onset of a stroke.
The most appropriate response for the CSP and nurse to undertake in this scenario is to dial 911 for
a medical emergency in case it is indeed the latter scenario (given the litany of associated keynote
symptoms) and to provide shelter and warmth to the worker until the medical team arrives for its
evaluation.
152. B: When undergoing an external audit, the MOST important aspect to an auditor regarding an
employee’s knowledge of a specific company procedural document is usually whether the employee
is aware of the procedure’s existence and knows where and how to quickly access it for reference.
Auditors usually do not require employees to memorize any parts of procedures, and in fact, many
consider such an endeavor a liability given the increased likelihood of an error or noncompliance
when attempting to work from memory, as opposed to having a live or written copy available to
follow in a step-by-step fashion.
64
153. B: Heat is transferred between a human and the surrounding environment through means of:
(1) evaporation, (2) conduction, (3) radiation, and (4) convection. Heat is always transferred from
higher temperatures to lower temperatures. Too much heat dissipation can result in cold stress-
related conditions, and not enough dissipation can result in heat stress-related conditions.
154. A: MIL-STD-882B is regularly implemented across a wide array of industries for directing the
production of procedural guidance within the realm of system safety.
155. B: Air ventilation systems are usually responsible for a variety of functions within the
workplace. They facilitate the removal of carbon dioxide (CO2) buildups, they remove odors, and
they regularly eliminate toxins especially through the use of built-in filtration units. They do not,
however, directly increase the concentration of indoor oxygen levels (it is accurate to assert,
however, that they may indirectly increase oxygen levels via their CO2 removal capability).
156. D: Tools, refuse articles (rags, empty cans, etc.), and lumber can all be significant tripping
hazards depending on the size, weight, balance, and frictional coefficients of the item(s). In addition,
uneven floor or ground surfaces, open file drawers, and electrical cables are also regularly
responsible for tripping incidents in the workplace. The most appropriate course(s) of action for
the CSP would be to immediately notify the responsible work parties in the area to remove,
relocate, and/or properly store the articles in question. The CSP should also then notify the area
manager in regard to these safety infractions and also recommend remedial safety training for
responsible staff members.
157. C: Calculations and assessments performed by insurance companies that evaluate company
loss-rate records for establishing worker compensation rates are conventionally known as
experience modifiers.
158. D: On behalf of the user and to protect against liabilities, system safety designs normally
allocate considerable detail to vital product facets such as proper-use protocols, maintenance,
hygiene, safeguards, and ergonomics.
159. A: The construction or modification phase during a facility development process should place
considerable emphasis on quality assurance and quality control. Any significant lapse in these areas
at this final stage of the process could potentially result in severe consequences.
160. C: In the realm of safety-basis evaluation, a design-basis accident that has a frequency
(probability) of occurrence in the range of 10–6 to 10–4 per year and potential associated
consequences in the range of 100 to 300 deaths will have a resulting overall risk range of 0.0001 to
0.03 deaths per year. This is derived given that risk = probability x consequences that an associated
range would result from grouping the lowest probability and consequence combination for the low
end, and that the highest probability and consequence combination for the high end.
Low end of risk range = 10–6 x 100 fatalities = 0.0001
High end of risk range = 10–4 x 300 fatalities = 0.03
161. D: Given that Bob and Bill both work in a loud processing area, Bob has partial hearing loss
and also speaks with a lisp, and Bill’s hearing is unimpaired, it is likely that the frequent
miscommunications are due to Bob’s deafness, Bob’s not speaking clearly, and/or the ongoing loud
background noise in the work area. Indeed, the communication issues may be predominately tied to
one, two, or possibly all three of these factors; however, there may potentially be even other factors
65
at play that may not be regularly accounted for (e.g., Bill may not have good listening skills or is
always preoccupied or Bob and/or Bill may not be good body language communicators, etc.). In
summary, there are too many potential causal variables in this case (several more of which may be
unknown) to be able to render a firm determination as to the predominant (i.e., most likely) reason
why there is so much miscommunication between these two individuals.
162. A: A yellow warning sign that shows a downward arrow intersecting with a worker’s hard hat
is likely depicting a potential (danger) for falling objects. If the sign were red colored, it would be
representing a very high danger of falling objects.
163. C: The law of safety progress states that an organization will undergo fiscal hardship if it
generates or disseminates a hazardous product and then ultimately neglects to resolve the
underlying issue(s) that is/are causing the hazard.
164. B: Americium-beryllium (Am-Be) neutron sources, and the like, are often used in nuclear
reactors and other systems to provide initial quantities of neutrons to help foster an eventual chain
reaction that leads to a state of criticality. The most accurate description of how an Am-Be source
generates its neutrons is via the employment of an (α, n) nuclear reaction. Americium is a prolific
alpha-emitting radionuclide, and beryllium is very susceptible to absorption of such particles (i.e., it
has a high alpha cross-section). When an alpha particle is absorbed by a beryllium atom, the
beryllium undergoes a nuclear reaction in which its nucleus moves into a higher energy state and
resultantly expels a neutron to regain stability.
165. C: The office warden is usually responsible for taking roll calls during a shelter in place or a
building evacuation. These roll calls help to ensure that all employees are accounted for during an
emergency situation.
166. B: If a rare event is at hand, such as a significant acid leak in a chemical processing plant, a
special safety procedure that covers this type of event should be made immediately available and
ultimately implemented for dealing with this type of transient or anomalous scenario.
167. C: According to Frederick Herzberg’s theory of behavior, a worker’s desired extrinsic

outcomes typically include facets such as job security, income, and safe and comfortable working
conditions.
168. A: According to statistical measures, workers who have habitual alcohol or drug problems
miss work (i.e., incur lost days) approximately 15 times more often than those who do not have
such problems. This statistic is especially compounded for those cases in which workers come to
work in conditions not fit for duty and must subsequently leave the premises.
169. D: A goniometer is typically utilized within the realm of ergonomics for measuring angles
associated with human joints (e.g., knees, elbows, wrists, and ankles).
170. C: A blood pressure reading of 171/79 along with a resting pulse rate of 103 would likely be
inferred by an attending physician as a high systolic (hypertension) reading, a normal diastolic
reading, and possible tachycardia (rapid pulse).
171. C: There are numerous mechanisms and/or design configurations that can be employed
within system components and machinery to create desired resistant forces that serve a functional
purpose. Such mechanisms and configurations may include springs, inertia, and viscous damping.
66
172. B: Decompression sickness can be significantly mitigated by preventing overexposure to high-
pressure environments and carefully and steadily employing rates of decompression.
173. A: A computer mouse or joystick is categorized as a continuous control mechanism. Light

switches, buttons, and computer keyboards, although control mechanisms, are not of the
continuous variety.
174. D: Within the realm of system design, the integration of multiple elements with overlapping
functions that permit the continuous normal (ongoing) operation of a given product in the case of
one (or more) elemental failure(s) is known as redundancy.
175. B: A system that automatically powers down all major electrical components if the ambient
temperature within the facility exceeds a certain predetermined threshold level (due to fire) is an
example of a fail-safe system.
176. A: The robustness of hazardous waste shipping containers and casks has been thoroughly
tested over the years primarily at U.S. national laboratories such as Sandia National Laboratory and
Los Alamos National Laboratory. Evaluation modes have included thermal (high temperature), high
impact, and drop testing.
177. C: The two federal agencies that are primarily responsible for regulating the placement,
storage, and amounts of combustible materials within industrial settings are the NFPA and OSHA.
178. B: A static analysis determination is made for a piece of piping that renders the following
results:
The overall compression force on the pipe ≈ 50 N.
According to laser-optic results, the pipe has not contracted (or altogether moved) by any
discernible amount.
Then a conclusion can be drawn that the pipe’s outward directional force should (also) be equal to
about 50 N given that the pipe has had no record of discernible movement. This conclusion is in
accordance with Newton’s Third Law as well as the statics-based fact that the sum of the forces in
all directions must be equal to zero if there is no movement by a subject object.
179. A: A negative safety margin value is theoretically correlated with a high risk of failure. A
failure would hypothetically be expected to occur before a system or component reaches its
predetermined design limit or load.
180. B: There are 10 individual OSHA regional offices presently in existence across the United
States. They are located in Boston, MA; New York City, NY; Philadelphia, PA; Atlanta, GA; Chicago,
IL; Dallas, TX; Kansas City, MO; Denver, CO; San Francisco, CA; and Seattle, WA.
181. A: There are several unique characteristics regarding regulation criteria of large-quantity
hazardous waste generators (LQGs). These include no designated limit of the quantity of HAZMAT
that is allowed to be stored at a specific time; the generation of > 1 kg of acute HAZMAT per month;
an allowed maximum storage time of 90 days or less for most wastes; and a generation rate of >
1,000 kg per month for ordinary waste classifications.
182. C: In a fault-tree analysis, the term or gate “XOR” represents a condition whereby an output
event occurs if exactly one input event occurs. Other terms or gates used in fault-tree analyses
include: “AND,” “OR,” “Inhibit,” “Voting-OR,” and “Priority-AND.”
67
183. D: Given that farming family injuries do not officially fall under the jurisdiction or auspices of
OSHA, it is not necessary for any regulatory agency to be notified. David, may, however, follow any
local county protocols for logging or tracking the incident if the associated agricultural cooperative
agreement so requires it. Otherwise, no notifications should be made to any organization.
184. B: Per OSHA’s 29 CFR 1910.147, Control of Hazardous Energy, a hot tap is defined as a
maintenance or servicing procedure that entails pressurized welding operations for installing
connections or other support equipment.
185. C: An injury to the gonads would be categorized as a privacy case on an OSHA 300 form
whereby the employee’s name is not ultimately recorded. Other scenarios that could qualify as
privacy cases include a mental illness or condition, an injury or illness resulting from a sexual
assault, HIV, TB, hepatitis, and potentially contaminated needle-stick injuries.
186. B: Most portable fire extinguishers must be hydrostatically tested once every 5 years. There
are certain types of extinguishers (e.g., dry chemical or steel shell, halon, and dry powder),
however, that need only be hydrostatically tested once every 12 years.
187. D: A qualitative fit test for a respirator is conventionally defined by a pass-or-fail evaluation to
assess the level of fit adequacy based on a wearer’s response to a testing agent. In contrast, a
quantitative fit test is typically defined as an assessment to determine the suitability of a respirator
by measuring the amount of leakage into the device.
188. C: A turtle suit (or a water-armor protective suit) is a form of PPE that is often worn to protect
against the hazards of high-pressure water blasting. The suit adequately protects the legs, arms,
and chest from glancing water blows for pressures up to 40,000 psi.
189. D: An employee who is regularly subjected to several potential hazards, including strong
inorganic acids (e.g., hydrochloric, hydrofluoric, or nitric), excessively loud noise (e.g., > 125 dB,
unprotected), and falling objects should be required to adhere to the following PPE regimen in the
performance of his or her regular daily activities: coveralls, safety goggles, earplugs and earmuffs,
butyl rubber gloves, and a standard hard hat that can accommodate earmuffs.
Coveralls should be worn at all times to help protect from acid splashes to the torso or limbs; safety
goggles should be worn at all times to protect the eyes from acid splashes; and earplugs and
earmuffs should be worn due to double protection being required to lower noise levels down to
below 8-hr TWA hazardous thresholds. According to ANSI guidance, gloves made of butyl rubber
are usually best suited for protecting workers from strong, inorganic acids (e.g., hydrochloric,
hydrofluoric, and nitric); and a hard hat (which can accommodate earmuffs worn inside) should
always be worn to protect the head against falling objects.
190. C: Ground-fault circuit interrupters (GFCIs) are normally set at about 5 mA to adequately
protect workers from electrocution scenarios. The GFCI works by detecting potential leakage
current (a ground fault) in a circuit and then ultimately switches off the current in the circuit. This
leakage detection is usually via an exposed person who is just beginning to be shocked; once the
threshold of 5 mA leakage (loss) is attained, the GFCI switches off the circuit’s current in entirety.
191. D: There are several case scenarios that could be categorized as exempt from workers’
compensation coverage. These may include such instances as an individual who purposefully elect
not to be covered; an individual employed for fewer than 20 consecutive workdays within an
employer’s private home; an individual performing services in return for nonmonetary
68
compensation (e.g., aid or sustenance) provided by a religious organization or charity; or any
person directly employed in agriculture.
192. B: According to Abraham Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs, personal facets such as creativity,
problem solving, morality, spontaneity, and lack of prejudice all fall under the human need of self-
actualization.
193. C: A permissive democrat-type leadership personality typically permits employees to

contribute to decision-making processes and affords subordinates a considerable degree of latitude
in carrying out their tasks. Other types of leadership personalities include permissive autocrat
(semi-liberal style), directive democrat (semi-liberal style), and directive autocrat (prototypical
micromanagement style).
194. D: The Epidemiological Theory of Accident Causation asserts that accidents can, in large part,
be caused or prevented by the manner in which situational characteristics interplay with
predispositional characteristics. Situational characteristics essentially depict the current state of
affairs that workers are engaged in at a particular juncture, whereas predispositional
characteristics are those that essentially depict the emotional states and moods of their colleagues.
195. C: The multilinear events sequencing (MES) method usually employs a time line to illustrate
the sequence of events or occurrences that contributed to or was the direct cause of an event.
196. C: Retention rate efficiencies vary greatly in humans depending upon what mode of teaching
or training is employed for a set of material. Studies have repeatedly shown that teaching or
instructing others typically results in the highest material retention efficiency rates by a
considerable margin. Employing discussion groups, utilizing demonstrations, and audiovisual
training methods have also shown to be effective tools for yielding high retention but not as high as
that attained through the teaching or training of others.
197. D: An extremely dangerous shortcut that is all too often taken with pneumatic nail guns and
hammers is the taping or fastening down of triggers and switches to attain automatic (effortless),
repeated actuation of such tools. Numerous puncture accidents have occurred, particularly in the
construction industry, due to this hazardous tactic.
198. A: Oxygen cylinders in storage shall be separated from fuel gas cylinders (or combustible
materials) by a minimum distance of 20 ft or by a noncombustible barrier at least 5 ft in height that
has a fire-resistance rating of at least 1.5 hrs.
199. B: For a worker to be permissibly located on a moving (mobile) scaffold that has a base width
of 4 ft, the minimum required height for that scaffold must be at least 8 ft. OSHA requires at least a
2:1 height-to-base ratio for mobile scaffolds.
200. C: A hard hat’s safety zone is defined as the space or clearance between the hat’s shell and its
suspension. The typical minimum recommended measurement for this space or clearance is 1 in.
Many hard hat manufacturers, however, recommend a space of 1.25 in for additional safety margin.
69

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What is the NFPA 704 Diamond System?

What is the NFPA 704 Diamond System?

What government agency approves new pharmaceutical products?

What government agency approves new pharmaceutical products?

Certified Safety

3. A company is developing a new pharmaceutical product to help counteract the effects of

4. Which of the following is NOT typically categorized as a “class” of hazard within an

5. If an injured worker wishes to file litigation against a company he or she feels is

6. What are the two different categories of workers’ compensation laws?

8. What is the conventional definition of a blasting agent?

19. Which of the following functional-notation representations would depict a discount

38. If a population of 100,000 people incurred an “LD50” exposure to radiation or chemicals,

47. A “fishbone diagram” is also known as which of the following?

57. If a calculated statistical variance for a sample of data values is found to be

74. In a fault-tree sequence, Events A, B, and C have estimated probabilities (frequencies) of

101. A company physician recommends that an overweight employee implement a weight-

a. Sine wave, amplitude = 4 units, period = 12 units

Which of the following likely denotes the apparent inadequacy?

123. What is the simplified solution of the following?

a. Personal protective equipment (PPE)

143. The technique of energy _________________ is regularly implemented by safety engineers to

172. ___________________ sickness can be significantly mitigated by preventing overexposure to

189. An employee working in a chemical manufacturing facility is regularly subjected to

193. Which of the following leadership personalities typically permits employees to

8. A: The conventional definition of a blasting agent is a material that demonstrates adequate

This equates to:

PELsil = (10 mg/m3)/(silica-% + 2) = 10/(0.05 + 2) = 4.88 mg/m3

ppm = [(4.88 mg/m3)(24.45)] ÷ [molecular wt of silica (SiO2)]

= [119.3] ÷ [60] = 1.99 ppm

T (time required) = {[-V/Q’] x [ln((G-Q’C) ÷ G)]}

= {[-50] x [ln((3-0.3) ÷ 3)]}

= {[-50] x [-0.1054]} = 5.27 min

WB = [(103 – 17 – 9.2) ÷ 0.7] = 109.7

The fundamental equation that is used for calculating CC is:

CC = [N∑(xy) – (∑x)(∑y)] ÷ {[N∑(x2) – (∑x)2][N∑(y2) – (∑y)2]}1/2

Via deployment of the subject equation, we attain:

CC = [(6)(595) – (57)(49)] ÷ {[(6)(671) – (57)2][(6)(531) – (49)2]} 1/2

777 ÷ 781 = 0.995

P Gastotal = ∑ (P Gasx + P Gasy + P Gasz) = 12 atm + 28 atm + 50 atm = 90 atm

Xfailure = yfailure + zfailure = 0.0001 + 0.001 = 0.0011

0.998 = e-λ(10,000 hrs)

–0.0020 = (–λ)(10,000 hrs)

λ = 2 x 10–7 failures per hr (or 1 failure every 5,000,000 hrs)

Aircraft Component Case:

0.997 = e-λ(20,000 hrs)

–0.0030 = (–λ)(20,000 hrs)

λ = 1.5 x 10–7 failures per hr (or 1 failure every 6,666,666 hrs)

72. D: According to H. W. Heinrich, out of every 100 accidents, approximately 88 of them, on

74. A: In a fault-tree sequence, Events A, B, and C have estimated probabilities (frequencies) of

= { [0.001 + 0.0005] – [0.0000005] }

v2 = (50 m/s)2 + 2(–6 m/s)(100 m)

Available filling capacity (volume) of box = l x w x h = 4,320 in3 = 18.70 gal

[2(3)4/4 + 33/3 – 5(3) – 2(0)4/4 + 03/3 – 5(0)] = [40.5 + 9 – 15] = 34.5

Area of circle (49.8) > Area under function (34.5)

[82/2(32.2)] + [30/62.4](144 in2/ft2) + 0 = [102/2(32.2)] + [pb/62.4] + 0 + 20

0.994 + 69.2 = 1.553 + [pb/62.4] + 20

70.2 = 21.553 + [pb/62.4]

3,036 lb/ft2 = 21.1 lb/in2

= (35 ft/s)(mi/5,280 ft)(3600 s/hr) = 24.5 mph ≈ 25 mph