EXAMINATION COUNCIL OF HEALTH SCIENCES / UNZA

FINAL EXAMINATIONS
ENVIRONMENTAL HEALTH TECHNOLOGISTS
MIZ 332: MEAT INSPECTION AND ZOONOSIS III

JUNE, 2017
TIME: 09:00 HRS - 12:00 HRS

Candidate’s Examination Number: ……………………………………………………………………

Examination Centre…………………………………………………………………………………..….

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE
1. Time allowed is THREE hours,
2. Write your Examination Number in the spaces provide,
3. Read the questions very carefully before attempting to answer,
4. There are FOUR (4) sections in this paper, A, B, C and D,
5. Read instructions on each section carefully,

CELLPHONES & PROGRAMMABLE CALCULATORS ARE NOT ALLOWED IN THE

EXAMINATION ROOM

DO NOT TURN THIS PAGE UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO BY THE INVIGILATOR

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SECTION A: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:(Answer ALL questions by circling the correct
answer for each. All questions carry 1 mark: Total = 40 marks)

1. The following are the objectives of ante-mortem inspection except:

A. Screening all animals destined for slaughter
B. Identifying and excluding sick animals
C. Ensuring animals are rested properly
D. Treatment of sick animals

2. Which of the following is causative agent of blackleg

A. Clostridium septicum
B. Clostridium chauvoei
C. Clostridium novyi
D. Clostridium sordelli

3. Mycobacterium bovis can cause extra-pulmonary TB in

A. Buffaloes
B. Humans
C. Cattle
D. All of the above

4. During ante-mortem inspection in cattle, the normal ruminal contractions are

A. 2 – 4 contractions per minute
B. 14 – 24 contractions per minute
C. 10 – 14 contractions per minute
D. 4 – 10 contractions per minute

5. Which of the following causes Brucellosis in cattle

A. Brucellaabortus
B. B. mellitensis
C. B. suis
D. B. canis

6. Professional and technical knowledge during ante-mortem inspection utilizes among them:
A. Incision, palpation, records and olfaction
B. Palpation, olfaction, records and vision
C. Incision, observation, palpation and records
D. Olfaction, vision, incision and observation

7. Whole carcass condemnation may not occur in:

A. Emergence slaughter due pelvic fractures
B. Miliary bovine tuberculosis
C. Blackleg with septic fever
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 D. Sudden death due to snake bite

8. “Sit fast” skin lesion is common in:

A. Lumpy skin disease
B. Dermatophilosis
C. Dermatophytosis
D. Mange

9. Wooden tongue is a synonym for:

A. Actinobacillosis
B. Actinomycosis
C. Dermatophilosis
D. Vesicular stomatitis

10. Which organ is mainly affected by Mycobacterium aviumspparatuberculosis

A. Ileum
B. Caecum
C. Colon
D. Rectum

11. Toxoplasmosis can be acquired through

A. Carnivorism
B. Ingestion of food contaminated faeces
C. Congenitally
D. All of the above

12. During general ante-mortem inspection, all are recorded “hands off” the animal except
A. Respiratory rate
B. Pattern of respiration
C. Temperature
D. Appearance of the animal

13. The following are Post-mortem changes except:

A. Pseudomelanosis
B. Jaundice
C. Displacement of organs
D. Imbibiton of bile

14. Brisket edema in cattle maybe associated with:

A. Heavy drinking of water
B. Some parasitic diseases
C. Milk fever

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 D. Both A and B

15. Which of the following is not a bacterial infection?

A. Theileriosis
B. Actinomycosis
C. Anthrax
D. Actinobacillosis

16. Traumatic reticulopericarditis in cattle can be suspected if:

A. An animal grunts on a pole test and has an arched back
B. An animal has an arched back only
C. The animal appears dejected and emaciated
D. The withers test is negative and an animal has excessive salivation

17. Septic fever may occur in:

A. Ketosis
B. Tympany
C. Metritis
D. Hypocalceamia

18. All can cause sudden death in cattle accept

A. Anthrax bacillus
B. Pausterullamultocida
C. Lightening
D. Brucellaabortus

19. Which of the following is a Disease of National Economic Importance (DNEI):

A. FMD
B. CBPP
C. ASF
D. All of the above

20. In Zambia, ante-mortem inspection and subsequent slaughter is mainly unidirectional excluding
a few cases like:
A. Non-emergence cases of pregnant animals that must isolated to allowing calving
B. High priced and genetic pregnant animals
C. Pregnant animals with severe staphylococcus mastitis
D. Pregnant animals with pelvic fractures sustained during transportation

21. The parasite responsible for major economic losses as result of liver condemnation in cattle
arising from floodplains is:
A. Taeniasolium

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 B. Fasciola hepatica
C. Echinococcusgranulosus
D. Trichinellaspiralis

22. The following parameters must be obtained “hands on” on an animal during ante-mortem
inspection except:
A. Temperature
B. Facial asymmetry
C. Pulse rate
D. Heart rate

23. Diarrhea, fever, inappetence, emaciation and weakness are indicative of:
A. FMD with ketosis
B. ECF with milk fever
C. Any infectious disease including option A and B
D. Any infectious disease including Aand B but with no metabolic conditions

24. The routes of infection of Brucellaabortusis:

A. Ingestion of contaminated milk
B. Fluid from infected cattle
C. Direct skin contact with aborted materials
D. All of the above

25. Not well cooked or raw meat can be the because of the following disease in humans except:
A. Toxoplasmosis
B. Anthrax
C. Trypanosomosis
D. Both A and C

26. Name the lymph node easily identified after locating the parotid salivary gland in cattle
A. Submandibular lymph node
B. Parotid lymph node
C. Lateral retropharyngeal lymph node
D. Medial retropharyngeal lymph node

27. One of the following conditions is associated with haemoglobinuria

A. Babesiosis
B. Theileriosis
C. Anaplasmosis
D. Cowdriosis

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28. Gas gangrene is mainly associated with:
A. Anthrax
B. Blackquarter
C. Tuberculosis
D. Cellulitis

29. Mycobacterium bovis is normally associated with

A. Coagulative necrosis
B. Caseative necrosis
C. liquifactivenecrosis
D. Fat necrosis

30. Poorness is mainly associated with following except

A. High producing animals like dairy cows to diseases of production
B. Animals on low proteins
C. Muscles that are darker than normal
D. In highly infectious fatal diseases

31. Which disease is mainly found in imported dairy cattle kept under intensive conditions?
A. Haemorrhagicsepticemiae
B. Johnei’s disease
C. Bovine tuberculosis
D. Tetanus

32. “Lungers” are associated with

A. CBPP
B. FMD
C. ECF
D. HS

33. Traumatic reticuloperitonitis is mainly enhanced by:

A. The increased retention of sharp objects in the reticulum due to its anatomical disposition
B. The pericardium, the diaphragm and reticulum are closely related in situ
C. Both A and B are correct
D. Both A and B can be risk factors for traumatic reticulopericarditis

34. Which farmers’ group predominantly supply animals that are used for sausage and other beef
processing
A. Traditional farmers
B. Emergent farmers
C. Commercial farmers
D. Both A and B

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35. The palpable lymph nodes in a live female animal affected by ECF include:
A. Parotid, Prescapular, sub-mandibular and medial retropharyngeal lymph nodes only
B. Parotid, sub-mandibular and precural lymph nodes only
C. Parotid, sub-mandibular, prescapular, precural and suprammary lymph node in females
D. A and B

36. The recent reported outbreak of ASF in April 2017 occurred in:
A. Kabwe, Central Province
B. Mbala Northern Province
C. Lusaka, Lusaka Province
D. Mpongwe, Copperbelt Province

37. Transovarian infection of babesiarefers to:

A. The way vermicules are transmitted by stages of the next generation of ticks
B. The way vermicules reach the salivary glands of the next stage of the tick when feeding
commences
C. The sexual multiplication of vermicules
D. All of the above

38. All is true about ketosis except:

A. The carcass can be approved if odour is still pronounced after 24 hours
B. Its characterized by acetone breath (sweet smell)
C. Occurs in high producing animals about 10 days following parturition
D. There is abrupt decrease of milk production

39. In Zambia,CBPP outbreaks mainly occur in:

A. Central and Northern provinces
B. Southern, Northern and Western provinces
C. Lusaka and Southern Provinces
D. Northen and Eastern Provinces

40. Which disease best qualifies as both a Disease of National Economic Importance (DNEI) and
Transboundary Animal disease (TADs)
A. FMD
B. Actinomycosis
C. Actinobacillosis
D. Fascilosis

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SECTION B: TRUE OR FALSE SECTION (Answer ALL questions from this section. All
questions carry 1 mark. Total = 10marks)

1. Earobic environment and presence of aclostridial organism can precipitate the development of
hindquarter clostridial myositis
A. True
B. False

2. Inhalation is a less important route of infection forMycobacterioumbovisin cattle

A. True
B. False

3. Punctured or abomasal ulcers is one of the “classical” sign of theileriosis

A. True
B. False

4. Natural passages within the body (e.g. swallowing sputum) can lead to extra-pulmonary Bovine
TB in cattle
A. True
B. False

5. The thickened and corrugated intestinal mucous membrane are not indicative of paratuberculosis
A. True
B. False

6. Bovine cysticercosis is due to infection of cattle by larvae of Taeniasolium

A. True
B. False

7. Endocarditis is one of the common pathological lesions of diamond skin diseases in pigs
A. True
B. False

8. Humans are the only definitive hosts of Taeniasaginata

A. True
B. False

9. Ingestion of Fasciola egg species by both cattle and humans can be infective
A. True
B. False

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10. Clostridium tetani is not an absolute cause of lockjaw (Tetanus) in cattle
A. True
B. False

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SECTION C: SHORT ANSWER SECTION: Answer ALL questionsin this section. Each question
carries 5 marks. Total marks = 30 Marks)

1. Describe how you would manage a suspected case of Foot and Mouth Disease during your
routine Ante-mortem inspection at an abattoir in Choma District (5 Marks)

2. Describe the major Ante-mortem signs of African Swine Fever (ASF) (5 Marks)

3. State the risk factors for the continued spread of Porcine cysticercosis in Katete district of
Eastern Province (5 Marks)

4. State the modes of transmission of brucellosis in cattle (5 Marks)

5. State the measures to be undertaken by consumers to prevent the continued spread of

Toxoplasmosis (5 Marks)

6. State the significant AM lesions of Lumpy Skin Diseases in cattle (5 Marks)

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SECTION D: LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS:Answer ANY TWO questions from this section.
Each question carries 10 marks. Total marks = 20 marks)

1. During your routine general AM inspection at slaughter slab in Kazungula District of Southern
Province, the abattoir manager explains to you that there is sudden increase in the number of
farmers supplying animals. He further explains that two animals were reported dead during the
night. Owing to this clue, you decide to perform a thorough general Ante-mortem inspection.
You notice many emaciated animals have extended necks facing the direction of the wind and
are reluctant to move. Fever (40 o C) is an additional finding.

a. What is your tentative (suspected) diagnosis? (1 Marks)

b. What other ante-mortem signs are you likely to observe? (3 Marks)
c. Detail the expected PM picture (3 Marks)
d. Discuss the possible judgment you would pass on such a carcass? (1 Marks)
e. What are the trade implications of this disease and indicate how Zambia can control the
disease? (2Marks)

2. a. Define zoonoses (2 Marks)

a. List the various ways to classify zoonotic infections (3 Marks)
b. Briefly state the factors responsible for the continued spread of zoonotic infections in
Zambia (3 Marks)
c. What you understand about One Health Concept in combating zoonotic diseases
(1
Marks)

3. During your routine meat inspection at an abattoir based in Monze District of Southern Province
at the beginning of the rain season, you notice several animals with generalised
lymphadenopathy seeking shade, reluctant to move and some have violent blood-tinged
diarrhoea. On AM inspection, fever is a remarkable finding. Additionally, some farmers confess
that they do not adhere to effective tick control.

a. What is you tentative (Suspected) diagnosis? (1 Marks)

b. Detail other AM signs likely to be observed? (3 Marks)
c. Detail your PM picture (3 Marks)
d. What would be your judgment? (1 Marks)
e. State your advice to the farmers to prevent future economic losses (2 Marks)

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