Mixed Model Exit Exam BVSc 2016

1. Epidemiologists are interested in learning about ____________________.

A. The causes of diseases and how to prevent and control them.
B. The frequency and geographic distribution of diseases
C. The causal relationships between diseases and risk factors
D. The occurrence of diseases in random fashion

Answer: D

2. The coronavirus (COVID-19) simultaneously affected the people of China and several
other countries above the level of expectation. This disease occurrence across the countries is
said to be:
A. Sporadic
B. Epidemic
C. Endemic
D. Pandemic
Answer: D

3. The mode of transport of an infectious agent through the environment to a susceptible host
is __________
A. Carrier B. Reservoir
C. Vector D. Vehicle
Answer: D
4. One of the following is not an essential factor for the development of infection or
disease________________________
A. The population at risk C. Strategic interventions
B. Reservoir host D. Modes of transmission and entry
Answer: C
5. Disease transmission during non-aseptic surgery/medical practice

A. Vertical transmission B. Direct transmission

C. Aerial transmission D. Iatrogenic transmission

Answer: D

6. One of the following is not correct about the maintenance strategies of infection/pathogens
in the population
A. Creation of resistant forms.

B. Develop strategies for avoiding the host’s immune response.

C. Rapidly-in, rapidly-out strategy

D. All in-all out strategy

Answer: D

7. What is the best design you choose to study the prevalence of a disease?

A. Cohort study C. Cross-sectional study

B. Case-control study D. Survey

Answer: C

8. If the researcher goes to a dairy farm of 56 lactating cows, puts the ID numbers of cows in
the hat, and chooses without looking to get a sample of 8 cows. What type of sample is this?

A. Systemic random sampling C. Convenience sampling

B. Simple random sampling D. Stratified random sampling

Answer: B

9. All are the main objectives of animal health monitoring except,

A. To monitor endemic diseases

 B. To identify as yet unknown diseases
C. To trace outbreaks of known diseases
D. To spread the disease quickly
Answer: D
10. Which of the following is an effective means of lowering the risk of animal diseases?

A. Isolation of sick animals

B. All-in-all-out operations
C. Ignoring sanitation practices
D. Keeping infected animals in the herd
Answer: B
11. What is disease eradication?

A. The reduction of morbidity and mortality from disease

B. The identification and removal of animals harboring pathogens
C. The destruction of infected animals to prevent further spread of disease
D. The treatment of infected animals
Answer: C
12. What is the 'test-and-removal' strategy used for?

A. Disease eradication campaigns

B. Pre-emptive slaughter during epidemics
C. Identification and removal of animals harboring pathogens
D. Treatment of infected animals
Answer: A

13. Of the following statements, which one is wrong about mastitis?

A. Subclinical mastitis signs are observed as red, hot, and swelling inflammation of the
udder.
B. Treatment with parenteral injection or intramammary infusion of antibiotics
C. Transmission can be contagious and environmental.
D. Clinical mastitis signs are observed as hot, red, painful, and swelling of the udder.
Answer: A
14. Which one of the following is not the general impact of livestock disease in Ethiopia?
A. Mortality and morbidity B. Loss of productivity
C. Zoonotic importance D. None
Answer: D
15. Which one of the following Brucella species is transmitted through drinking raw cow’s
milk and direct contact with infected fetus membranes and discharges of aborting cows?
A. Brucella abortus B. Brucella ovi
C. Brucella suis D. Brucella cani
Answer: A
16. Suppose there was an acute febrile disease that occurred in dairy farms characterized by a
sudden rise in body temperature, fever, inappetence, listlessness, diarrhea, and dyspnoea.
The nervous signs developed like restless walks in circles, making sucking movements,
and standing rigidly with tremors of the superficial muscles. During postmortem
examination, hydropericardium, hydrothorax, intestinal congestion, edema of the
mediastinal and bronchial lymph nodes, petechiae on the epicardium and endocardium,
congestion of the brain, and moderate splenomegaly were observed. What would be your
tentative diagnosis?
A. Rabies B. Coenuruses
C. Cowdrosis D. Anaplasmosis
Answer: C
17. One of the following is not true about Anthrax
A. Acute infectious diseases of all warm-blood animals and birds
B. Caused by gram-positive aerobic spore-forming rod-shaped bacteria
C. Common in agricultural regions with neutral or alkaline soil
D. Spore of B. anthracis can stay in the soil for many years
Answer: A
18. From the following, one is incorrect about Blackleg
A. Characterized by emphysematous swelling with crepitating sound of affected
muscles
B. It is a zoonotic disease, humans affected when the meat of the affected animal is
consumed
C. Fast-growing young cattle of age 6 months up to 2 years are most susceptible
D. Early treatment with Penicillin antibiotics can be effective in animals
Answer: B
19. Which one of the following is not correct about Rabies?
A. Rabies virus is truly neurotropic and one of the larger fragile virus
B. Rabies virus is transmitted by the bite of rabid animals
C. Carnivores are the major source/transmitter of the disease
D. Bats are common transmitters of the disease in Ethiopia
Answer: D
20. Which one of the following is not a tick-borne disease?
A. Trypanosomiasis
B. Cowdriosis
C. Babesiosis
D. Anaplasmosis
Answer: A
21. Why is FMD probably the world’s most important animal disease in economic losses?
A. Because it causes a high mortality rate
B. Because it causes loss of meat and milk production
C. Because it facilitates livestock and livestock product trade among countries
D. Because it increases the income of prevention and control measures
Answer: B
22. Which of the following statements is wrong about African horse sickness?
A. It is a highly fatal vector-borne viral disease of equine
B. Disease is endemic in tropical and subtropical areas of Africa
C. Horses are less susceptible than mules and donkeys.
D. Culicoidus imicola is the principal vector of African horse sickness virus
transmission
Answer: C
23. Among the following pair of disease, which has cross protection?
A. Rabies and Rift Valley Fever
B. Anthrax and Blackleg
C. Rinderpest and FMD
D. Sheep pox and LSD
Answer: D

24. What is the primary mode of transmission for Canine Distemper Virus (CDV) among
dogs?

A. Ingestion of contaminated food

B. Direct contact with infected urine
C. Inhalation of respiratory droplets
D. Transmission through mosquito bites

Answer: C

25. What is the most effective method for preventing canine parvovirus infection in dogs?

A. Regular grooming
B. Vaccination
C. Raw food diet
D. Herbal supplements

Answer: B

26. The following given chooses are causes of nonregenerative anemia except
A. Lethargy C. Nutritional deficiencies
B. Kidney disease D. Bone marrow diseases
Answer: A
27. The dry form of feline infectious peritonitis is characterized by:
A. Accumulation of fluid in the abdomen and causes a pot-bellied appearance
 B. Infection and inflammation around the blood vessels, brain, liver, kidneys and lungs
C. Accumulation of fluid in the chest cavity and making difficult to breathing
D. Inflammation of blood vessels and causing fluid leaking from the blood vessels into
the abdomen and chest
Answer: B
28. A client come to veterinary clinic with cat which showing symptoms of noise
breathing, difficulty in exercise and he/she told you his/her cat vomiting last night and
there was problem in breathing. From the given below which disease show above
clinical signs?
A. Infectious tracheo-bronchitis C. Pneumonia
B. Brachycephalic air way obstruction D. Rhinitis
Answer: B

29. Which tick species is commonly associated with transmitting Ehrlichia canis to dogs?

A. Brown dog tick

B. Deer tick
C. Lone Star tick
D. American dog tick

Answer: A

30. What are common risk factors for Leptospirosis in dogs?

A. Exposure to or drinking from rivers, lakes, or streams

B. Contact with infected ticks
C. Consuming raw meat
D. Living in urban areas

Answer: A

31. What are the two forms of Feline Infectious Peritonitis?

A. Dry form and wet form

B. Acute form and chronic form
C. Respiratory form and gastrointestinal form
D. Neurological form and ocular form

Answer: A

32. Which one of the following choices is not the major challenge of one health program in
a developing country?
A. Budgetary constraints C. Inefficient information sharing
B. Cultural and perception issues D. One health is unimportant
Answer: D
33. What is not true about Hydatidosis/ Echinococcosis
A. The cysts of E. granulosus are symptomatic.
 B. Heart are most common sites.
C. The scolex of the parasite attaches to intestine.
D. People act in the biological cycle.
Answer: B
34. What is not true about bovine tuberculosis?
A. In cattle it can cause lowered productivity, but seldom death.
B. It can be eradicated by a test and-slaughter program.
C. People suffering from pulmonary TB of bovine origin retransmit the infection to cattle.
D. The disease can be spread from cow-to-human by inhalation.
Answer: D
34. From the following choices, which one is incorrectly stated about avian influenza
(Bird flu)?
A. Migratory birds pose risk.
B. Birds can carry the virus without showing any clinical signs.
C. Almost all avian spp. is susceptible to the virus.
D. Domestic birds are the natural reservoirs for avian influenza.
Answer: D
35. Arbovirus is a term used to describe a group of viral infections transmitted to
humans from a group of insects known as arthropods, especially mosquitoes.
Diseases not transmitted by mosquito is/are:
A. Dengue fever
B. Yellow fever
C. Hemorrhagic fever
D. Japanese encephalitis
Answer: C
36. From the following choices one is not associated risk factor for the Outbreak of
staphylococcal food poisoning.
A. Insufficient heating or cooking.
B. Storing food in warming machines.
C. Preparing food with cutting-edge technologies.
D. Poor personal hygiene practicing.
Answer: C
37. Any biological, chemical, or physical property that may cause a food to be unsafe for
human consumption is called.
A. Food safety C. Food suitability
B. Food safety hazard D. Food hygiene
Answer: B
38. Which one of the following is not external parameters influencing bacterial load in
food?
A. Storage temperature
B. PH of the food
C. Relative humidity of environment
D. Presence and activity of other Mos
Answer: B
 39. Assume that Mr. X purchased ox at market and transported it to the Addis Ababa
abattoir. There was a bruise on the carcass after the animal was killed. What would be
your judgment?
A. Reject the carcass C. Check the generalized infection
B. Trim the affected parts D. Reject other organs like kidney and lungs
Answer: B
40. Which of the following is in favor of emergence and re-emergence of zoonotic
infection worldwide?
A. Genetically modified breeds
B. Change in nutritional habit
C. Illegal slaughtering of animals
D. Increased stray dogs and wild carnivores
Answer: A

41. Safe and wholesome meat production demands _______.

A. Knowledge about animal welfare
B. Good hygienic practices from farm to table
C. Checking withdrawal period
D. Trekking animals
Answer: B

42. Which of the following bacterial zoonoses is transmitted to humans through the
consumption of raw or undercooked meat, milk, and vegetables?
A. Salmonellosis, listeriosis, leptospirosis, brucellosis
B. Campylobacteriosis, E. coli infections, Salmonellosis
C. Listeriosis, shigellosis, SARS, tuberculosis
D. Shigellosis, anthrax, listeriosis, lyme disease
Answer: A

43. The shelf life of chilled meat is dependent on all of the following except:-
A. Relative humidity
B. Temperature
C. Hygienic status
D. All
Answer: D
44. Which of the following is not an indicator of poor animal welfare?
A. Increased life expectancy C. Impaired growth
B. Emaciation D. Immune-suppression
Answer: A
45. Which of the following is not true regarding treatment and handling of sick and injured
animals?
A. Any operation performed on an animal shall be carried out by a certified veterinarian
B. Sick and injured animals shall be treated immediately
C. Any operation performed to change the appearance of the animal shall be encouraged
D. Equines and camels shall not be carrying loads without having cushions on their backs
Answer: C
46. Which one of the following is not included in the five freedoms of the animals
A. Freedom from pain, injury, and disease
B. Freedom from discomfort
C. Freedom from hunger and thirst
D. Express equal freedom with human beings
Answer: D
47. The treatment of animals in a manner of action that causes the least possible harm to
an animal is called
 A. Inhumane
B. Abusive
C. Humane
D. Human
 Answer: C

48. Which of the following is not true about animal welfare at slaughter?
A. Animals shall be slaughtered by stunning
B. Floors must be slippery
C. Adequate ventilation should be provided
D. Sick and injured animals shall be slaughtered immediately
Answer: B
49. Which of the following statements contradict with the concept of Animal Sentience?
A. An animal can experience positive and negative affective states
B. It is the ability to choose negative and avoid positive experiences despite their
intelligence
C. It is the capacity to experience suffering and pleasure
D. It is the ability to feel, perceive or experience subjectively
Answer: B
50. Which one of the following is not a professional ethics of veterinarians?
A. wearing appropriate personal protective clothes
B. Follow proper surgical protocol
C. Make sure all the surgical instruments are available
D. Ask all the required surgical instruments when needed

Answer: D

51. A gram positive bacteria differ from gram negative due to the presence of
A. Outer membrane
B. Teichoic acid
C. Periplasmic space
D. Peptidoglycan

Answer: A

52. Which bacteria is the normal flora of the upper respiratory tract?
A. Enterobacter
B. Brucella
C. Pasteurella
D. Salamonella
 Answer: C

53. Which one the following is not a screening test for diagnosis of animals diseases?
A. Milk ring test
B. California mastitis test
C. Rose benegal plate test
D. Complement fixation test

Answer: D

54. Chlamydia have the following properties EXCEPT:

A. Possess cell wall

B. Possess DNA as well as RNA
C. Are susceptible to antibiotics
D. Are not filterable
Answer: D
55. Spores of which of the following are used as a microbiological test of dry heat
efficiency:
A. Toxigenic strains of E. coli
B. Toxigenic strains of Clostridium tetani
C. Non-toxigenic strains of Clostridium tetani
D. Non-toxigenic strains of Proteus
Answer: C

56. Step-wise” mutation for drug resistance is seen with:

A. Penicillin

B. Strepromycin

C. Garamycin

D. Kanamycin.
Answer: A

57. Bacterial resistance to antibiotics through conjugation is transmitted by:

A. Transduction
B. Transformation
C. Mutation
D. Plasmids
Answer: D

58. __________ is responsible for antibiotic resistance is bacteria due to slime production.

A. Co-aggregation
B. Biofilm formation
C. Mutation evolving in altered target site for antibiotic
D. Mutation evolving a target bypass mechanism
Answer: B

59. Which infectious disease could be so devastating to the poultry industry that veterinarians
must report suspected cases to the appropriate authorities?
A. Newcastle disease
B. Trichomoniasis
C. Bumblefoot
D. Pasteurellosis
Answer: A

60. A fungi that can exist as a mold as well as yeast form.

A. Hyphae
B. Tinea pedis
C. Dimorphic
D. Spore forming
Answer: C

61. Viruses that infect bacteria are known as ________.

A. Virons
B. Bacteroids
C. Bacteriophages
D. Retrovirurses
Answer: C

62. Which of the following is not an RNA virus?

A. Retrovirus
B. Enterovirus
C. Rhabdovirus
D. Adenovirus
Answer: D

63. Which one of the following statements is NOT true about viral infections?

A. Virus infections are all life threatening

B. Number of viruses cause similar symptoms
C. Virus infection may cause immunosuppression
D. Some viruses require other viruses for replication

Answer: B

64. The first step in all virus infection is:

A. Uncoating
B. Migration to nucleus
C. Attachment to cell receptor
D. Transcription
Answer: C

65. Structural component that is found in all viruses is:

A. The envelope
B. DNA
C. Capsid
D. Spikes
Answer: C

66. The region of an antibody that binds to an antigen is called the:

A. Variable region
B. Constant region
C. Fc region
D. Hinge region
Answer: A
67. Which of the following is a primary function of the immune system?
A. Regulation of body temperature
B. Digestion of food
C. Defence against pathogens
D. Production of hormones
Answer: C

68. The specific three-dimensional shape of an antigen that is recognized by an antibody is

called a (n):
A. Epitope
B. Paratope
C. Hapten
D. Isotype
Answer: A

69. Which of the following is an example of innate immunity?

A. Antibody production

B. T lymphocyte activation

C. Skin barrier

D. Memory cell formation

Answer: C

70. Which of the following immune cells are responsible for producing antibodies?
A. Neutrophils
B. Macrophages
C. B cells
D. T cells
Answer: C

71. Where are T cells produced and matured?

A. Thymus
B. Spleen
C. Bone marrow
D. Lymph nodes
Answer: A

72. Which immune cell is primarily involved in allergic reactions and parasitic infections?
A. Basophils
B. Eosinophils
C. Monocytes
D. Mast cells
Answer: B

73. Which type of immunity provides immediate, nonspecific defense against pathogens?
A. Innate immunity
B. Adaptive immunity
C. Acquired immunity
D. Active immunity
 Answer: A

74. What is the main difference between an antigen and an antibody?

A. An antigen is a foreign substance that triggers an immune response, while an antibody
is a protein produced by the immune system to recognize and fight antigens.
B. An antibody is a foreign substance that triggers an immune response, while an antigen
is a protein produced by the immune system to recognize and fight antibodies.
C. An antigen and an antibody are both proteins produced by the immune system, but they
have different functions in the immune response
D. An antigen and an antibody are both foreign substances that the immune system
recognizes as non-self and attacks
Answer: A

75. Which of the following is wrong in approaching animal’s owner during parasitological
sample collection?
A. Discuss the case with scientific language
B. Positive welcoming approach
C. Discuss the case with local language
D. Wearing white gown

Answer: A

76. Which of the following test is not used to diagnosis trypanosomossis?

A. Buffy coat method
B. Baermann apparatus
C. PCR
D. Giemsa stained thick and thin smear

Answer: B

77. Which of the following is wrong about modified Baerman technique?

A. Leave it for 1 hour

B. Suspend feces enclosed in gauze in a glass filled with water
C. Siphoning off the supernatant
D. The sediment is examined under low magnification of microscope

Answer: A

78. _______In which type of association both partners are benefited

A. Commensalism B. predator C. mutualism D. parasitism
Answer: C
79. Which of the following helminths are not blood feeding?
A. Haemonchus
B. Bunostomum
C. Fasciola
D. Dictyocaulus
Answer: D
80. Which of the following are true about control and prevention of helminthes parasites

A. Use of antihelminthics drugs

B. Biological Control
C. Dietary Manipulation of Worm Burdens
D. All

Answer: D

81. One of the following laboratory/smear technique is used to identify the morphology of
protozoa parasite under microscope
A. Thick smear
B. Wet smear
C. Thin smear
D. Direct smear
Answer: C

82. The most important protozoa which affect livestock production and only found in Africa
is_____
A. Animal trypanosome
B. Animal babesia
C. Animal theileria
D. Animal coccidia
Answer: A

83. Suppose you are working at Guder Mamo Mezemir Campus veterinary clinic and a
farmer brought a cow with fever, emaciation and bloody urine. What will be your tentative
diagnosis for this case?
A. Babesiosis
B. Trypanosomosis
C. Coccidiosis
D. Amebiosis
Answer: A

84: In one of the following protozoal diseases cat and dog play an important role in
transmission of diseases respectively
A. Trypanosomiasis, leishmaniasis
B. Toxoplasmosis, babesiosis
C. Trpanosomiasis, babesiosis
D. Toxoplasmosis, leishmaniasis
Answer: D

85. Which one of the following developmental stages of Fasciola is infective?

A. Cercariae
B. Metacercariae
C. Radiae
D. Sporocysts
Answer: B
86. Which of the following ectoparasite developmental stages cannot be killed by
insecticide and accaricide?
A. Egg
B. Adult
C. Nymph
D. Larvae
Answer: A

87. Which of the following are not true about control and prevention of helminthes
A. Regular treatment of herds
B. Use of rotational grazing
C. Pastures should not be overstocked-
D. Animals should not be kept for long on the same pasture.
Answer: D

88. Nematodes parasite that inhabit the trachea of chicken?

A. Ascaris C. Capillaria
B. Heterakis D. Syngamus

Answer: D

89. A parasitic nematode that affect ceca of chickenis

A. Capillaria
B. Ascaris
C. Syngamus
D. Heterakis
Answer: D
90. Which of the following is not true about nematodes?
A) Nematodes are round when viewed in cross section.
B) They are bilaterally symmetrical
C) The sexes are separate in most species
D) Nematodes have incomplete digestive system
Answer: D
91. Which one of the following is the cornerstone of any disease prevantion program?
A. Vaccination
B. Preventive medicine
C. Biosecurity
D. Serological monitoring
Answer: C
92. One is not principles of biosecurity?
A. Isolation C. Traffic control
B. Sanitation D. Vaccination
Answer: D
93. Identify wrong recommendation to prevent the dissemination of infectious agents to and
from live bird markets
A. Personnel should wash their hands with soap and water before and after handling
birds.
B. Birds from diseased flocks should be transported to live bird markets.
C. All containers should be cleaned and disinfected every time they leave the
market.
D. Live birds that leave the market should be kept separately from other birds for a
period of time
Answer: B

94. A 2-year-old backyard chicken was severely emaciated. Postmortem examination

revealed yellow to grey nodules in the liver, spleen and serosal surface of the intestine. The
nodules could be readily enucleated from surrounding tissue. Which disease would be the
first on your list of rule-outs?
A. Tuberculosis C. Coligranuloma
B. CRD D. fowl cholera
Answer: A

95. Dead, 7-day old chickens were presented to you because of high mortality in the flock.
Postmortem examination revealed diffuse hemorrhage in the caecal mucosa and in some birds,
distension of the ceca by white hard cores, Yolk sac infection, regressing ovarian follicle,
enlarged and bronze liver with milliary necrosis. Which of the following diseases would be the
first on your list rule-outs?
A. Ulcerative enteritis C. Colibacillosis
B. Necrotic enteritis D. Salmonellosis
Answer: D

96. What is the rationale for using inactivated infectious Bursal disease vaccine in breeder
hens?
A. To minimize egg-transmission of IBD virus from hens to progeny
B. To prevent drop in egg production caused by IBD virus
C. To prevent immunosuppression during the kaying period
D. To provide the progeny with protective levels of maternal antibodies
Answer: D

97. Which of the following lesions may be present in chickens affected with marek’s disease
but not in those affected with lymphoid leucosis?
A. Thickening of peripheral nerves
B. Thickening of peripheral nerves and discoloration of the iris
 C. Thickening of peripheral nerves and tumors in the gonads
D. Thickening of peripheral nerves and tumors in the and kidneys
Answer: B

98. There was a dramatic increase in mortality in a flock of 5 –week-old broiler chickens. In
10 days, the mortality dropped significantly but many birds in the developed torticollis. From
this case history, which of the following disease would be the first on your list of rule outs?
A. Nutritional encephalomalacia C. Newcastle disease
B. Marek’s disease D. Avian influenza
Answer: C

99. If you walked into your hen house and noticed swelling in the face and eyes and nasal
discharge, which of the following diseases do your chickens most likely have?
A. Infectious coryza C. Fowl typhoid
B. Fowl cholera D. Chicken pox
Answer: A
100. Which of the following poultry diseases cannot be cured by antibiotics or a vaccine?
A. Fowl typhoid C. Fowl cholera
B. Infectious coryza D. Vitamin E deficiency
Answer: D
101. When processing delicate specimens using a standard closed tissue processor,
dehydration should be done by which of the following methods to minimize tissue
distortion?
A. A graded series of reagents of increasing concentration
B. A graded series of reagents of decreasing concentration
C. A single reagent at a single concentration
D. Delicate specimens do not require a dehydration step
Answer: A

102. A positive tuberculin skin test, with a firm 15 mm diameter dark red firm area
of induration on the forearm, appears 60 hours following injection of the purified
protein derivative (PPD). This finding is most likely to be a consequence of which of
the following types of hypersensitivity reaction?
A. Type II
B. Type III
C. Type IV
D. Complement activation
 Answer: C
103. Post mortem clot is differ from the Thrombus in that it is
A. Attached to vessel wall C. Not attached to vessel wall
B. Endothelium is damaged D. May be partially organized
Answer: C
104. Suppose that, the horse faint after a long race. Which shock can be a result of this
condition?
A. Hypovolemic shock C. Cardiogenic shock
B. Neurogenic shock D. Septic shock
Answer: C

105. If there is an increase in size of the liver that develops subsequent to an increase in size
of individual hepatic cells, the condition is appropriately referred to as:
A. Hypertrophy
B. Hyperplasia
C. Metaplasia
D. Atrophy
Answer: A

106. A pathologist notes that a biopsy from the lung of living patients shows the morphologic
changes indicative of irreversible injury and cell death. Which of the following is most likely
responsible for cell death in a living body?
A. Necrosis
B. Putrefaction
C. Autolysis
D. Somatic death
 Answer: A
107. The pattern of cell death that is characterized by the conversion of a single cell to an
acidophilic body, usually with loss of the nucleus but with preservation of its shape to permit
recognition of cell boundaries is termed:
A. Apoptosis
B. Caseous necrosis
C. Fibrinoid necrosis
D. Liquefactive necrosis
Answer: A

108. Which of the following is false about necrosis and apoptosis?

A. Necrosis is always accompanied by inflammatory cells.
B. Apoptosis is a cellular process of death occurring when the cells are highly exposed to
extreme external conditions
C. Necrosis is series of morphological change in lethally injured cells.
D. Apoptosis is a regular process of death of the cell that occurs in the body where the
cell itself takes part in the death
Answer: B
109. The serum sample taken from dog showed that the increment of Creatinine Kinase and
Alanine aminotransferase beyond the range of normal standard. From this information, which
organ/tissue most probably at risk?
A. Muscle
B. Liver
C. Pancreas
D. Brain
 Answer: B

110. If you get a red urine that sedimented with clear supernatant on centrifugation and you
get intact blood cells on smear evaluation under microscope. Most probable it can be
________.
A. Heamoglobinura
B. Heamaturia
C. Myoglobinuria
D. Bilirubinemia
Answer: B

111. Which one of the following is best & early step to investigate whether the tumor has
spread to another site?
A. Biopsy
B. Histology
C. Fine-needle aspirates
D. Immunohistochemistry
 Answer: C
112. Which of the following are correct steps in the process of metastasis of cancer?
A. Invasion Dissemination Separation Proliferation
Establishment
B. Separation Invasion Proliferation Dissemination
Establishment
C. Invasion Separation Dissemination Establishment
Proliferation
D. Invasion Separation Establishment Dissemination
Proliferation
Answer: C

113. If a pathology report came back saying the cells have prominent anaplasia,
pleomorphism, and mitotic figure-what would you conclude?
A. That you are dealing with a benign specimen
B. That you need to phone a friend
C. That you are dealing with a malignant specimen
D. That you Histologic specimens
Answer: C

114. What type of necrosis would you expect to observe in the brain of a dog that suffered
from prolonged hypoxia? __________.
A. Fatty
B. Coagulative
C. Caseous
D. Liquefactive
Answer: D

115. Which of the following is the first step during clinical diagnosis of an animal in the
clinic?
A. Restraining the animal
B. History taking
C. General clinical examination
D. Physical clinical examination
Answer: B
116. Assessing the condition of part of the body by striking and then listening the
audible sounds produced is known as________________.
A. Palpation
B. Percussion
C. Auscultation
D. Inspection
Answer: B
117. Which of the following organ or tissue of the animal cannot be auscultated
during clinical diagnosis?
A. The heart
B. The rumen and intestine
C. The lungs
D. The liver
 Answer: D
118.Which of the following restraining approach is the most restrictive type of restraint?
A. Physical restraining
B. Chemical restraining
C. Psychological restraining
D. Use of crash
Answer: B
119.Which of the following physical diagnostic approach is best for detecting presence of
pain on the animal body?
A. Inspection
B. Percussion
C. Palpation
D. Auscultation
Answer: C
120.Which of the following are more appropriate and commonly used physical
examination approaches for skin and coat?
A. Palpation & inspection
B. Inspection & auscultation
C. Percussion & auscultation
D. Percussion & Palpation
Answer: A
121.A cow of adult age was brought to the clinic with a major complaint of weight loss
and untriftness. In the clinic during general clinical examination, you found the cow
has thin body condition and rough hair coat. How can you diagnose whether this cow
has dehydration or not in the clinic?
A. No need for further diagnosis because all thin animals are dehydrated.
B. By skin elasticity test
C. If the cow is febrile then it will be dehydrated
D. By laboratory evaluation of body fluid
Answer: B

122.A bull of adult age was presented to the veterinary clinic with a major complaint of
sudden illness. During history taking, the owner exposed that the bull was eating
maize (corn) by-product in the morning. The bull suddenly stopped eating, and later,
showed sign of bloating. Clinical examination revealed that the body parameters are
all under normal range, but the left flank was extremely full. Based on this case, what
is the most probable clinical condition to be suspected.
A. Disease of the oral cavity
B. Blockage of the esophagus
C. Disease of the pharynx and larynx
D. Traumatic-reticlulo pericarditis (TRP)
Answer: B
123.Urine can be collected using different methods. In this aspect which of the urine
collection method is more appropriate when urine is need for bacterial culture.
A. Free catch of voided urine
B. Catheterization
C. Manual bladder expression
D. Collecting voided urine from the ground
Answer: B

124.A horse presented to the clinic has a major complaint of red urine. What procedure
do you follow to differentiate whether it is hematuria, hemoglobinuria.
A. By visual inspection: hematuria is deep red but not hemoglobinuria.
B. By linking to the other clinical signs
C. By centrifugation which results in clear supernatant urine in hemoglobinuria
D. By centrifugation which results in sedimentation of RBC in hematuria
Answer: D
125. ________is the complex sequence of events that occurs after a drug is
administered to a patient.
A. Half-life
B. Metabolism
C. Pharmacokinetics
D. Residue
Answer: C
126. Which one of the following statements is correct?
A. The kidney is the major site of drug metabolism.
B. Drugs are poorly absorbed from the lungs
C. Bioavailability is a measure of the amount of drug administered
D. Most drugs, when taken orally, are absorbed adequately from small intestine
Answer: D
127.Irrational use of drugs could not be: ______
A. Lower dose prescription
B. High dose prescription
C. Prescription of two or more drug to single patient
D. Prescription of antibiotic for bacterial case
Answer: D
128.What is the study of weights and measures as applied to preparation and
administration of drugs?
A. Clinical pharmacology c. Pharmacotherapeutics
B. Molecular pharmacology d. Metrology
Answer: D
129.Which one of the following anti-helminthes are used for the treatment of both endo
and ecto-parasites?
A. Albendazole
B. Ivermectin
C. Dizinone
D. Amitraz
Answer: B
130.All of the following are the mechanisms by which bacteria produce resistance against
antibacterial agents except:
A. Alteration of the drugs’ binding sites
B. Decreasing the efflux of the drugs
C. Reduction of the up-take of the drugs
D. Alteration or synthesis of their own enzymes
Answer: B

131.Which one of the following groups of antibacterial agents do not exert bactericidal
activity based on their concentration:
A. Fluoroquinolones
B. Aminoglycosides
C. Metronidazole
D. Penicillin
Answer: D
132.Route of drug administration with most rapid onset of action is:
A. Oral
B. Intramuscular
C. Subcutaneous
D. Intra Venous
Answer: D
133.A pharmacodynamic interaction resulting in drug antagonism may be caused by the
concurrent administration of penicillin G and_____
A. Cephalexin.
B. Gentamicin.
C. Doxycycline.
D. Enrofloxacin
Answer: C
134.The most commonly used anesthetic agent in Ethiopia for local and regional
anesthesia is_________________
A. Ketamine C. Lidocaine
B. Thiopental sodium D. Propofol
Answer: C
135. Which one of the following groups of antibacterial agents do not exert
bactericidal activity based on their concentration:
A. Fluoroquinolones
B. Aminoglycosides
C. Metronidazole
D. Penicillin
Answer: D
136. All the following are sites for IV administration in small animals, except
______.
A. Jugular vein
B. Carotid artery
C. Lateral saphenous vein
D. Cephalic vein
Answer: B
137. If you were to give a horse 1 mL per 100 lb of body weight of an anthelmintic,
how many milliliters would you give to a horse that weighs 1100 lb?
A. 25ml
B. 10ml
C. 12.5ml
D. 11 ml
Answer: D
138. Which one of the following is considered as minor surgical case?
A. Removal of benign tumor on heart
B. Drainage of abscess on skin over the ventral abdomen
C. Repair of diaphragmatic hernia
D. Hysterectome
Answer: B

139.Performing minor surgical operations does not need one of the following skills?
A. Skill of administration of drugs
B. Skill of suturing
C. Skill on to use mechanical ventilator
D. Skill of wound dressing
Answer: C

140. Importance of veterinary surgery in veterinary medicine does not include ________?
A. Cosmetic purpose
B. For research purpose
C. Prevention of occurrence or spread of disease
D. Treat life threatening diseases
Answer: C
141.Which one of the following is not correct about preparation and use of surgical
instruments?
A. Surgical equipment should always be ready for surgery
B. The instrument should be arranged in their order of use in the surgical pack
C. All the materials used for surgery should be sterilized in autoclave
D. Instruments used should be sterile
Answer: C
142.Which one of the following comes as first step surgical site preparation?
A. Shaving of hair
B. Trimming long hair
C. Make incision
D. Suturing
Answer: B
143. Which one of the following is the appropriate suture material for suturing
incision on intestine?
A. Nylon
B. Silk
C. Catgut
D. Cotton
Answer: C
144. Which one of the following basic surgical equipment and materials do you
need to perform closed castration?
A. Surgical blade and handle
B. Surgical scissors
C. Burdizo
D. Suture materials
Answer: C
145. Which one of the following is not mandatory to be considered in any surgical
procedure?
A. Communication with the animal owner on the need and prognosis of the case
B. Preparation of animal for surgery
C. Preparation of the surgical team
D. Consent/opinion of animal owner
Answer: D
146. Which one of the following is not among the Halsted’s principle, which
veterinary professionals need to consider during performing surgical operations:
A. Accurate haemostasis
B. Strict asepsis
C. Rough tissue handling
D. Avoidance of dead spaces
 Answer: C
147. Which of the following practice is not considered as post-operative care for
most surgical cases?
A. Administration of anesthetic agent
B. Care for surgical wound
C. Feed the animal with proper feed
D. Removal of non-absorbable suture material
Answer: A
148. In pregnancy diagnosis which diagnostic imaging technology is safe to use?
A. Ultrasonography
B. X-ray
C. Magnetic resonance imaging
D. Computed tomography
Answer: A
149. Why x-ray is so hazardous to health? because
A. It produces bleeding
B. It interacts with living tissue and can cause biological changes
C. It can produce tumor and lesion
D. It is allergic to body parts
Answer: B
150. Which hormone are used to synchronize estrus and holds sows in luteal phase
A. PGF2
B. LH
C. Estrogen
D. FSH
Answer: C
151. Induction of estrus to bring a large percentage of a group of females into
estrus at a short, predetermined time is known as.
A. Synchronization C. Estrus detection
B. Controlled intra-vaginal Drug release D. Artificial Insemination
Answer: A
152.From the following infectious causes of abortion which one is not occurs at any stage
of gestation.
A. BVD- virus C. Brucellosis
B. Toxoplasmosis D. Listeriosis
Answer: C
153.One of the following is not maternal causes of dystocia.
A. Uterine inertia B. Incomplete dilatation of the cervix
C. Vertex posture D. Uterine torsion
Answer: C
 154.Minor surgical procedure to increase the diameter of the vulva outlet to treat dystocia
is called
A. Episiotomy B. Fetotomy
C. Laparohysterotomy D. Caesarean section
Answer: A
155.From the following alternative one is not correct about breeding soundness
examination of bull.
A. There is high correlation between testis size and sperm-producing potential.
B. Tests should be asymmetrical for bull to be selected.
C. Bulls with cryptorchidism should not be selected.
D. Presence of penile deviation can prevent successful service
Answer: B
156. What the structures you examine during early pregnancy diagnosis at 1-3
months?
A. Uterus is flaccid
B. Placentome and sometimes fetus palpable
C. Asymmetry of uterine horn
D. The medial uterine artery increases in diameter
Answer: C
157. In extension work, farmers should be encouraged to learn new things by
doing and by direct participation. What is the name of this principle?
A. Principle of co-operation C. Principle of whole family approach
B. Principle of learning D. Principle of adaptability
Answer: B
158. Which one of the following is the key element of extension communication?
 A. Communicator
B. Message
C. Channel/media
D. Group discussion
Answer: D
159. Which one of the following is Not the barrier to effective communication?
A. Badly expressed message
B. Biasness of the communicator
C. Poor listening and premature evaluation
D. Qualified assumptions of the sender
Answer: D
160. Which of the following is not the purpose of an animal health information system?
 A. For outbreak investigations
B. Provide relevant information on
animal health
C. an early warning system
D. For disease treatment
Answer: D
Choose the best answer among the given alternatives

1. The actual duration of the resting period depends on many factors such as?
A. species of animals’
B. age
C. sex
D. class and condition
E. All
Answer: E
2. The abnormalities which are checked on ante mortem examination include the following except?
A. Abnormalities in respiration
B. Abnormalities in behaviour
C. Abnormalities in internal part
D. Abnormalities in gait
Answer: C
3. Which one of the following is a non-conventional food animal?
A. llama
B. cattle
C. buffalo
D. sheep
Answer: A
4. Professional and technical knowledge must be fully utilized by?
A. Viewing, incision, palpation and olfaction techniques.
B. Classifying the lesions in to one of two major categories - acute or chronic.
C. Establishing whether the condition is localized or generalized
D. All
Answer: D
5. The most acute and severe form of brucellosis in human is caused by?
A. B. suis.
B. B. melitensis
C. B. abortus
D. B. canis
Answer: B
6. A physical or biological agents or agents with a potential to cause adverse effect on health is?
A. Food safety
B. A risk
C. A hazards
D. Food spoilage
Answer: A
7. What is the most laboratory acquired and zoonotic species of Brucella?
A. B. abortus
B. B. canis
C. B. suis
D. B. melitensis
Answer: D
8. Which one of the following bacterium is spore forming foodborne pathogens ?
A. Yersinia entercoloitica
B. Brucella abortus
C. Salmonella typhimurium
D. Clostridium botulism
Answer: D
9. Which of the following is not correct about the scope of food processing?
(A) Unit operations occurring before harvest of raw materials
(B) Packaging
(C) Processed into food products
(D) Shipped for retailing
(E) All
Answer: E
10. Which of the following is normally present in samples of plasma but not in serum from a healthy
domestic animal?
(A) Albumin
(B) Creatinine
(C) Fibrinogen
(D) Sodium
Answer: C
11. A sheep operation is experiencing spontaneous abortions among the ewes and congenital
deformities in lambs. A tentative diagnosis of bluetongue is made. The pathogen involved is most
likely transmitted by which of the following means?
(A) Aerosol spread
(B) Fecal-oral spread
(C) Iatrogenic inoculation
(D) Insect vector
Answer: D
12. Which of the following is not the deferential diagnosis of contagious ecthyma?
A) Ulcerative dermatosis
(B) Rinder pest
(C) Proliferative dermatitis
(D) African horse sickness
Answer: B
13. Culicoides transmitted disease?
(A) African horse sickness
(B) Foot and mouth disease
(C) Contagious ecthyma
(D) Rift valley fever
Answer: A
14. Which of the following bacteria is normal inhabitant of the bovine mouth?
(A) Actinomyces bovis
(B) Salmonella bovis
(C) Corynebacterium bovis
(D) Streptococcus bovis
(E) Arcanobacterium Answer: A
15. The cause of bacillary hemoglobinuria in animal?
(A) Clostridium haemolyticum
(B) Clostridium septicum
(C) Clostridium chauvoei
(D) Clostridium sordellii
(E) Clostridium perfringens
Answer: A
16. Which one of the following disease is associated with infection of skin wounds at shearing and
docking in sheep?
A) Anthrax
(B) Lightning strike
(C) Bacillary hemoglobinuria
(D) Black leg
Answer: D
17. What is the analysis of observations using suitable diagnostic and statistical procedures?
A. analytical
B. experimental
C. descriptive,
D. theoretical epidemiology
Answer: A
18. Is the ability of an infectious agent to cause disease, in a particular host, in terms of severity?
A. pathogenicity
B. dose
C. infection rate
D. Virulence
Answer: D
19. Which one of the following epidemiological investigation types is involves observing and
recording diseases and possible causal factors?
A. analytical,
B. experimental
C. descriptive,
D. theoretical epidemiology
Answer: C
20. Which one of the following is innate immunity?
A. antibodies
B. macrophages
C. Immunoglobulin
D. lymphocytes
Answer: B
21. Before either a control or an eradication campaign can be undertaken, several factors must be
considered. These include?
A. level of knowledge about the cause of the disease
B. veterinary infrastructure
C. adequate surveillance
D. All
Answer: D
22. The following is defined as animals can be removed from 'high risk' areas where infections are
endemic?
A. movement of host
B. Quarantine
C. doing nothing
D. Chemotherapy
Answer: A
23. The transfer of a small portion of genome from one bacterium to another, ‘accidentally?
A. Transduction
B. Transformation:
C. Mutation
D. Conjugation
Answer: A
24. Which one the following is microclimate?
A. Rainfall
B. Temperature
C. humidity
D. Piggery
Answer: D
25. Good prescribing practice requires
A. Assessment of the benefit-to-risk ratio of prescribing
B. Justification for veterinary drug therapy
C. Dosage and course of treatment
D. Selection of appropriate drug(s)
E. All are answers
Answer: E
26. The first step in rational treatment is
A. Defining the patient’s problem
B. Specifying the therapeutic objectives
C. Prescription writing
D. Give information, instruction and warning
Answer: A
27. After establishing the drug to be used in treatment, the next step animal health professionals should
do is
A. Plan drug regimen
B. Correct diagnosis
C. Order owner to inject animals
D. Use broad spectrum agent
Answer: A
28. It is irreversible removal of drug from the body
A. Excretion
B. Biotransformation
C. Distribution
D. All are answers
Answer: A
29. The following statement is incorrect?
A. Increasing the dose of a drug with a small therapeutic index increases chance of toxicity
B. The therapeutic index helps determine the efficacy and safety of a drug
C. Therapeutic index is ratio of minimum toxic concentration to effective concentration
D. Increasing a drug dose with a small therapeutic index has effectiveness of the drug
Answer: D
30. Once a drug has been transformed, it is must be _____________ soluble to get rid of a body?
A. Water
B. Lipid
C. Ionizable
D. Metabolite
Answer: A
31. The principle of pharmacodynamics is about
A. Drug’s ite of action
B. Drug’s mechanism of action
C. Drug’s absorption
D. All are answers
E. A and B
Answer:E
32. Of the best management of adverse drug reaction are:
A. Modification of dosage
B. Continuation of drug
C. Switching to the same drug
D. All are answers
E. None of the above
Answer: A
33. The degree to which a drug is absorbed and reaches the general circulation is
A. Bio-transformation
B. Distribution
C. Bioavailability
D. Clearance
E. All are answers
Answer: B
34. Of the following, one is not recommended reasons for combination therapy?
A. To the microbes that are not susceptible to the common agent
B. To achieve the synergistic effect against the particular strains
C. To decrease the emergence of resistance strains
D. To provide narrow-spectrum empirical therapy in seriously ill patients
E. All except D
F. All are answers
Answer: F
35. The reason why we do not administer general anesthetic agent to ruminant species is/are
A. Rumen stasis or bloat through muscle relaxation
B. Unconsciousness
C. Relieve tenesmus
D. Prevent obstetric straining
E. All are answers
Answer: A
36. Prescription should be written in
A. Generic name
B. Non-proprietory name
C. Proprietory name
D. Brand name
E. A and B
Answer: E
37. The following adverse drug reaction type should be immediately discontinued and not tried again?
A. Dose-related ADRs
B. Allergic ADRs
C. Idiosyncratic ADRs
D. All are answers
E. None of the above
Answer: B
38. Which of the following drug formulations always needs to be shaken before being administered?
A. Solution
B. Suspension
C. Cream
D. All are answers
E. None of the above
Answer: B
39. As a result of its high risk to humans from consumption of products from treated animals, it is no
longer used in food-producing animals
A. Penicillin
B. Chloramphenicol
C. Tylosin
D. Oxytetracycline
E. All are answers
Answer: B
40. A calf with a history of diarrhea and weight loss presented to your care. On further examination
you suspected the cause to be gastrointestinal parasite. What sample would you take for laboratory
confirmation of your tentative diagnosis?
A. Blood sample
B. Urine
C. Fecal sample
D. Rectal swab
Answer: C
41.On handling a particular case the owner gave you details about a previous episode the disease and
medications administered. This piece of information is called __________.
A. Past history
B. Immediate history
C. Chief complaint
D. Anamnestic sign
Answer: A
42. A tympanic sound on percussion of the cecum in horses can be a sign of ?
A. Empty bowel
B. Accumulation gas
C. Fluid filled bowel
D. Impaction of ingesta
Answer: B
43. Presence of protrusion of supra orbital fossa in horse is confirmatory that the case is African horse
sickness. Therefore protrusion of the supraorbital fossa is __________.
A. Pathognomonic sign for AHS
B. Pathognomonic lesion for AHS
C. Prognostic sign for AHS
D. A normal finding
Answer: A
44. If you are planning on mass vaccination of cattle which restraining technique would be the most
appropriate?
A. Lane chute
B. Squeeze chute
C. Casting individual animals
D. No restraining is required
Answer: A
45. You suspected that a dog might be suffering from a lower respiratory tract infection. Which one of
the following physical examination techniques would you apply for further examination of the case?
A. Auscultation of the lungs
B. Percussion of the thorax
C. Visual inspection of the nostril
D. All of the given
Answer: D
46. Which one of the following parameters is not the measure of peripheral circulation?
A. Capillary refill time
B. Respiratory rate
C. Pulse rate
D. Color of visible mucus membrane
Answer: B
47. The normal range of heart rate in horse is ______.

A. 40-60
B. 60-80
C. 28-60
D. 14-40
Answer: C

48. Palpation helps to asses _____

A. Size
B. Shape
C. Consistency
D. All of the given
Answer: D
49. A solid elevated inflammatory lesion o the skin with a diameter up to 1cm and no necrotic center is
called __________.
A. Papule
B. Pustule
C. Nodule
D. Vesicle
Answer: C
50. Small volume and frequent urination, dribbling, and animal standing in urination position long
after urine flow has stopped can be a sign of _______.
A. Colic
B. Dysuria
C. Dystocia
D. Hardware disease
Answer: B
51. Reduced skin elasticity sunken eye balls increased pcv are all signs of
A. Dehydration
B. Hypocalcemia
C. Toxemia
D. Nervous disorder
Answer: A
52. A mixed breed dog is presented to the clinic for frequent diarrhea and vomiting. It was markedly
depressed when brought to the clinic with significant loss of skin elasticity, retracted eyeballs, and
weak rapid pulse. The estimated percentage of dehydration from the above clinical signs is
_________.
A. <5
B. 6-8
C. 10-12
D. >12
Answer: C
53. Markedly abdominal shallow and rapid respiration in cattle can be a sign of __________.
A. Normal respiration
B. Plueritis
C. Acidosis
D. Peritonitis
Answer: B
54. Which one of the following local aneasthetic agents has the longest duration of effect?
A. Lidocaine
B. Bupivacaine
C. Mepivacaine
D. Procaine
Answer: B
55. You are treating a case of vaginal prolapse in a cow. Which of the following anesthetic technique
would be the most appropriate?
A. Para vertebral block
B. Epidural block
C. General anesthesia
D. Local infiltration
Answer: B
56. Which one of the following is not the purpose of veterinary surgery?
A. Improving animals welfare
B. Improving animal production
C. Preventing production loss
D. None
Answer: D
57. You are assisting in a surgery and the surgeon asks you to pass an absorbable suture. Which one of
these would not be the correct choice?
A. Polygalactin 910
B. Polglycolic acid
C. Chromic catgut
D. Silk
Answer: D
58. You are in charge of preparing a cow for a rumentomy. Which part of the body would you
aseptically prepare for incision?
A. Left flank
B. Right flank
C. Ventral abdomen
D. Inner thigh
Answer: A
59. A bitch is scheduled for an elective ovariohysterectomy. In what position would you place the
animal for the procedure?
A. Left lateral recumbence
B. Dorsal recumbence
C. Sterna recumbence
D. Standing
Answer: B
60. An old and compromised dog is presented to the clinic for a procedure that requires sedation.
Which one of the following sedatives would be the safest for this particular case?
A. Thiopental
B. Ketamine
C. Xylazine
D. Diazepam
Answer: B
61. An ox is presented to your care with a fresh cur wound that is inflicted by a steel sheet. Which one
of the following preparations is the most appropriate to clean the wound?
A. Tap water
B. Hydrogen peroxide
C. Savlon
D. Normal saline
Answer: D
62. Identify the odd item?
A. Thumb forceps
B. Allis tissue forceps
C. Hemostatic forceps
D. Intestinal clamp
Answer: D
63. Identify the wrong match.
A. Skin--mayo scissors
B. Tendon-- tenotomy knife
C. Bone--embryotomy wire
D. Intestine--metbenzuam scissors
Answer: A
64. Which one of the following is the correct order of placing items in the surgical pack?
A. Instruments-gauze sponges-surgical drapes with slit-surgical drapes without slit-surgical gown-
towels
B. gauze sponges-Instruments- surgical drapes with slit-surgical drapes without slit-surgical gown-
towels
C. surgical gown-towels- Instruments-gauze sponges-surgical drapes with slit-surgical drapes without
slit
D. Instruments-gauze sponges- surgical drapes without slit -surgical drapes with slit-surgical gown-
towels
Answer: A
65. Which one of the following is the correct order of preparing surgical incision site?
A. Clipping and Shaving- -scrubbing--staining with antiseptic—draping
B. Clipping and Shaving --staining with antiseptic - -scrubbing--draping
C. Clipping and Shaving-- draping - -scrubbing--staining with antiseptic
D. Draping-- Clipping and Shaving- -scrubbing--staining with antiseptic
Answer: A
67. Which one of the following is not the component of post-operative care?
A. Antiseptic dressing
B. Suture removal
C. Pain management
D. None of the given
Answer D
68. What is the shock rate fluid dosage?
A. 90ml/kg/hr
B. 50ml/kg/hr
C. Body weight *50ml/kg/24hr
D. 90ml/kg/hr
Answer: A

69. All are true for identification of bacterial pathogen(s) except

A. Examination of stained smears made directly from specimens.
B. The growth and colonial characteristics of the bacterial pathogen on appropriate culture media
C. Biochemical and other tests carried out on a pure culture of suspected pathogen (s).
D. None of these
ANSWER: D
70. All are the adverse effects of antimicrobial drugs except
 A. Alteration in host microflora
B. Dose-related toxic reactions, usually involving a specific organ or system
C. Hypersensitivity reactions
D. Intrinsic resistance

ANSWER: D

71. All play important role in resistance of bacteria to antimicrobial drugs except
A. Modification of the antimicrobial agent itself
B. Antimicrobial synergy interaction between two drugs
C. Reduced intracellular accumulation of the agent
D. Modification of the target site of the agent.
ANSWER: B
72. Among the given below one is not a virulent factor of bacteria
A. Exotoxin
B. Spike proteins
C. Lipopolysaccharide
D. Capsule
ANSWER: B
73. An immunological assay where by antibodies in the test serum detects proteins that have been
electrophoretically separated on a gel transferred to a membrane is called
A. Neutralization tests
B. Western blotting
C. Precipitation test
D. Agglutination test

ANSWER: B

74. All the following infectious diseases can be readily acquired when handling infected animals
except
A. Trichinosis
B. Ringworm
C. Orf
D. Leptospirosis
ANSWER: A
75. The causative agent of contagious pustular dermatitis (orf) is
A. Avulavirus
B. Lyssavirus
C. Parapoxvirus
D. Paramyxoviridae

ANSWER: C
76. The proper scientific naming for foot and mouth disease
A. Filoviridae
B. Picornaviridae
C. Paramyxoviridae
D. Rhabdoviridae
ANSWER: B
77. Media which are designed to give a presumptive identification of bacterial colonies due to the
biochemical reactions in the media are
A. Basic nutritive media
B. Selective media
C. Indicator media
D. Enrichment broth
ANSWER: C
78. Bacteria that can metabolize glucose under either aerobic or anaerobic conditions in O-F test are
said to be
A. Fermentative
B. Facultative
C. Facultative anaerobes
D. Oxidative
ANSWER: A
79. Marker bacteria such as Serratia rubidaea can be used for
A. Test biochemical features of bacteria
B. To quantify an approximate bacterial load
C. Testing the efficiency of a disinfection programme
D. None of these
ANSWER: C
80. Transfer of resistance by transduction occurs when bacterial resistance genes are transferred
between organisms by means of

A. Plasmids
B. Bacteriophages
C. A sex pilus
D. Transposons
ANSWER: B
81. All are principal methods of antimicrobial susceptibility test except
A. Disc diffusion
B. Broth dilution
C. Agar dilution
D. Pour-plate method
ANSWER: D
82. All play important role in innate immunity except
 A. Lysozyme
B. Antibodies
C. Neutrophil
D. Natural killer cells
ANSWER: B
83. Among the following cells, one secrets antibody
A. Natural killer cells
B. Macrophage
C. Dendritic cells
D. Plasma cells
ANSWER: D
84. Molecules that neutralize the negative charges of bacteria by coating them and so promote
phagocytosis are called
A. Opsonins
B. Cytokines
C. Binding proteins
D. Lactoferrin
ANSWER: A
85. The sites of an antigen that interact specifically with antigen binding site of an antibody are called
A. Cytokines
B. Defensins
C. Epitopes
D. Haptens
ANSWER: C
86. Among the given cells below, one is an effective antigen-processing cells
A. Neutrophils
B. Dendritic cells
C. Basophils
D. Eosinophils
ANSWER: B

87. Antibodies directed against a protein in one species may also react in detectable manner with
similar protein in another species and these phenomena are called
A. Cross-reactions
B. Antibody detection
C. Epitope test
D. Neutralization test
ANSWER: A
88. Which one of the following molecules is specialized for antigen presenting
A. MHC molecules
B. Alarmins
 C. Cytokines
D. Toll like receptors (TLRs)

ANSWER: A

89. Which one is an appropriate chemical and concentration for preservation of nematode eggs in
faecal sample?
A. 90% ethanol
B. 100% methanol
C. 4% formalin
D. 50% ethanol

ANSWER: C

90. Which sample and laboratory technique are appropriate for the diagnosis of verminous pneumonia
in ailing animal?
A. Blood and Buffy coat technique
B. Urine and Filtration
C. Faeces and Baermann technique
D. Nasal swab and Direct smear
ANSWER: C

91. Which one is an infective stage of fasciola?

A. Cercaria
B. Redia
C. Sporocyst
D. Metacercaria
ANSWER: D

92. If you are asked to collect and count Haemonchus contortus in slaughtered sheep, which organ or
tissue would you take as a sample?
A. Small intestine
B. Liver
C. Lung
D. Abomasum
E. Omasum

ANSWER: D

93. Which one is non-cyclically transmitted Trypanosome species?

A. T. equipardum
B. T. brucie
C. T. vivax
 D. T. congolense

ANSWER: A

94. Anemia is not a feature in one of the following disease of cattle

A. Trypanosomosis
B. Babesiosis
C. Anaplasmosis
D. Ehrlichiosis

ANSWER: D

95. One of the following is not significance of parasitism in livestock

A. Loss of production
B. Induce morbidity and mortality
C. Food insecurity
D. Transmission of secondary pathogen
E. Hasten the conception rate

ANSWER: E

96. Which one of the following anthelmintic drug belongs to the class Macrocyclic lactone?
A. Albendazole
B. Ivermectin
C. Piperazine
D. Levamisole

ANSWER: B

97. Which one of the following ante mortem diagnostic method can be employed for chicken
coccidiosis?
A. Faecal sedimentation
B. Baermann technique
C. Faecal floatation
D. Post mortem examination

ANSWER: C

98. Which of the following anthelmintic drug targets glutamate-gated chloride channel receptors of the
parasite to induce flaccid paralysis?
A. Benzimidazole
B. Imidazothiazole
C. Tetrahydropyramidine
D. Macrocyclic lactone
 E. Organophosphate

ANSWER: D

99. Which of the following condition could not favor the emergence of anthelmintic resistance?
A. Inappropriate storage
B. Under dosing
C. Over dosing
D. Appropriate measuring of live weight
E. All

ANSWER: D

100. Bovine demodicosis is characterized by

A. Alopecia
B. Cutaneous ulcerative wound
C. Cutaneous nodular lesion
D. Cutaneous hemorrhage

ANSWER: C

1. What term describes the abnormal noise heard when the linings of the
lungs and chest are inflamed?

A. Cyanosis
B. Expiration
C. Pleural friction rub
D. Mild Crepitus

Answer key: C: Pleural friction rub

2. What term describes the organized muscle contractions that move food
along the gastrointestinal tract?

A. Peristalsis
B. Blepharospasm
C. Agglutination
D. Lysis

Answer key:A: Peristalsis

3. What term describes a disorder of unknown cause?

A. Isotonic
B. Idiopathic
C. Infectious
D. Iatrogenic
Answer key :B: Idiopathic

4. Bile is stored in which organ?

A. Liver
B. Gallbladder
C. Pancreas
D. Small intestine

Answer key: B: Liver

5. A producer calls you because his cow is in labor and he can see
"the bag of waters." What is he seeing?

A. Amniotic sac
B. Umbilical cord
C. Chorion
D. Caruncles

Answer key: A: Amniotic sac

6. The vestibular system directly affects which of the following?

A. Digestion
B. Reproduction
C. Balance
D. Temperament

Answer key: C: Balance

7. When a cow is in heat (or "standing heat"), she is in which phase of

the estrous cycle?

A. Proestrus
B. Estrus
C. Metestrus
D. Anestrus

Answer key: B: Estrus

8. Body tissues may look yellowish (icteric) when what organ is not functioning?

A. Heart
B. Stomach
C. Lungs
 D. Liver

Answer key: D: Liver

9. The fetus receives nutrients through the:

A. umbilical cord
B. cadual vena cava
C. stomach
D. large intestine

Answer key: A: umbilical cord

10. Which clinical sign is associated with congestive heart failure?

A. Hyperthermia
B. Stranguria
C. Halitosis
D. Ascites

Answer key: D: Ascites

11. Which organ absorbs the majority of nutrients from ingested food?

A. Large intestine
B. Stomach
C. Esophagus
D. Small intestine

Answer key: D: Small intestine

12. Rickettsial diseases are transmitted by which parasite?

A. Roundworms
B. Flies
C. Mosquitos
D. Ticks

Answer key: D: Ticks

13. Dirofilariasis is another name for infection of which parasite?

A. Heartworm
B. Roundworm
C. Hookworm
D. Tapeworm
Answer key: B: Roundworm

14. Which of these clinical signs can also be a cause of diabetes mellitus?

A. Excessive thirst
B. Weight gain
C. Increased urination
D. Urinary tract infection

Answer key: C: Increased urination

15. A jaundiced animal's gums will be which color?

A. Pink
B. Purple
C. Blue
D. Yellow

Answer key: D: Yellow

16. You are monitoring a patient under anesthesia. Fluid therapy helps to:

A. Lower the blood pressure

B. Prevent bleeding
C. Slow the heart rate
D. Maintain cardiac output

Answer key: D: Maintain cardiac output

17. Lyme disease is caused by what organism?

A. Rickettsia Rickettsii
B. EhrlichiaCanis
C. Borelliaburgdorferi
D. Anaplasma Platys

Answer key: C: Borelliaburgdorferi

18. The descriptive information that identifies the veterinary patient presented
for evaluation is called:

A. History
B. signalment
C. chief complaint
D. vital signs

Answer key: A: History

 19. What is the most common clinical sign observed with salmonellosis?

A. Fever
B. Headache
C. muscle spasms
D. diarrhea

Answer key: D: diarrhea

20. Bone marrow produces:

A. blood cells
B. Periosteum
C. calcium and ph
D. spongy bone

Answer key: A: blood cells

21. What arteries supply blood to the head?

A. carotid arteries
B. renal arteries
C. mesenteric arteries
D. iliac arteries

Answer key: A: carotid arteries

22. The term used to describe a heart rate that is faster than normal is:

A. Tachycardia
B. Bradycardia
C. arrhythmia
D. atrial fibrillation

Answer key: A: Tachycardia

23. When oxygen levels in the blood fall, the mucous membranes of a
veterinary patient may appear:
A. Red
B. Pink
C. Purple
D. Blue

Answer key: D: blue

 24. The basic types of animal restraint used in most forms of veterinary
medicine are:

A. physical, psychological, and hypnotic

B. traumatic, chemical, and physical
C. chemical, psychological, and physical
D. chemical, hypnotic, and psychological

Answer key: C: chemical, psychological, and physical

25. What is the name of the condition when one or both testes fail to descend
into the scrotum?

A. Pyometra
B. Hypothyroidism
C. Urethrostomy
D. cryptorchidism

Answer key: D: cryptorchidism

26. Ovariohysterectomy is the technical term for which procedure?

A. removal of testicles
B. removal of ovaries and uterus
C. removal of uterus
D. removal of fetus

Answer key: B: removal of ovaries and uterus

27. The medical term for inflammation of the urinary bladder is:

A. Cystitis
B. Peritonitis
C. Dystocia
D. uremia

Answer key: A: Cystitis

28. You are instructed to give a medication SQ. This abbreviation means you
give the medication via:

A. intraperitoneal injection
B. intramuscular injection
C. subcutaneous injection
D. intravenous injection

Answer key: C: subcutaneous injection

 29. Which of the following items is defined as "difficult birth"?

A. Dyspnea
B. Dysphagia
C. Dystocia
D. Dyslexia

Answer key: C: Dystocia

30. A flotation test to look for internal parasites is conducted on which of the
following?

A. Urine
B. Feces
C. Blood
D. saliva

Answer key: B: Feces

31. Which organ is most involved in the excretion of water-soluble drugs?

A. Liver
B. Stomach
C. Kidney
D. Brain

Answer key: C: Kidney

32. Which disease is caused by a virus?

A. Salmonellosis
B. Rabies
C. Tetanus
D. ringworm

Answer key: B: Rabies

33. What is one of the innate, or primary body defenses against disease causing
organisms?

A. Skin
B. Antibiotics
C. Antigens
D. lymph nodes

Answer key: A: Skin

 34. Which of the following would be prescribed for a veterinary patient to
directly fight a bacterial infection?

A. Analgesic
B. Antibiotic
C. anti-inflammatory
D. antiprotozoal

Answer key: B: Antibiotic

35. Cystocentesis is the sterile collection of:

A. Blood
B. Urine
C. abdominal fluid
D. cerebrospinal fluid

Answer key: B: Urine

36. Which medical term is used for inflammation of the sac around the heart?

A. Cephalitis
B. Arthritis
C. Pericarditis
D. Bradycardia

Answer key: C: Pericarditis

37. All of the following are true about rabies EXCEPT:

A. it is caused by a virus
B. it is also known as hydrophobia
C. it only occurs in mammals
D. it can be treated with antibiotics

Answer key: D: it can be treated with antibiotics

38. The term for lack of development of an organ or a cell is:

A. Aplasi
B. Hypoplasia
 C. Neoplasia
D. Anaplasia

Answer key: D: Anaplasia

39. Abnormal respiratory sounds include all of the following except:

A. Wheezes
B. Gurgling
C. Crackles
D. Murmurs

Answer key: D: Murmurs

40. ___________ media are growth media that prevent the growth of some
types of organisms and are used to facilitate isolation of organisms from
mixed cultures.

A. Enrichment
B. Differential
C. Selective
D. Transport

Answer key: B: Differential

41. There are some drugs that are safe to deliver through an endotrachial tube
in an emergency situation. They are easily remembered through the
acronym "NAVEL." The "A" stands for:

A. Atropine
B. Acetaminophen
C. Acepromazine
D. Atipamezole

Answer key: A: Atropine

42. __________ , also referred to as feline infectious enteritis or cat distemper,
is caused by a parvovirus or DNA virus.

A. Panleukopenia
B. Rhinotracheitis
 C. Calicivirus
D. Pneumonitis

Answer key: A: Panleukopenia

43. All of the following are examples of zoonotic diseases EXCEPT

A. cutaneous larva migrans

B. Mad cow disease
C. Toxoplasmosis
D. Bovine viral diarrhea (BVD)

Answer key: D: Bovine viral diarrhea (BVD)

44. Copper toxicity most affects what organ?

A. Kidney
B. Liver
C. Intestines
D. Uterus

Answer key: B: Liver

45. What is another name for milk fever?

A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypercalcemia
C. Hypokalemia
D. Hypocalcemia

Answer key: D: Hypocalcemia

46. What is the process of bringing up food material from the stomach to the
mouth for further chewing?

A. Mastication
B. Rumination
C. Defecation
D. Eructation

Answer key: D: Eructation

 47. Which infectious disease could be so devastating to the poultry industry
that veterinarians must report suspected cases to the appropriate authorities?

A. Newcastle disease
B. Trichomoniasis
C. Bumblefoot
D. Pasteurellosis

Answer key: A: Newcastle disease

48. What is another name for a blood clot?

A. Fibroid
B. Neoplasia
C. Lipoma
D. Thrombus

Answer key: D: Thrombus

49. A longitudinal or prospective study is also referred to as

A. ecological study
B. crosssectional study
C. cohort study
D. observational study

Answer key: C: cohort study

50. Which is the most common and potentially serious complication following administration of
antineoplastic drug?

A. bone marrow depression

B. GI disturbances
C. immunosuppression
D. teratogenicity

Answer key: A: bone marrow depression

 51. Type of gangrenous necrosis occur in toe and feet due to arteriosclerosis, thromboangitis, trauma,
and arterial obstruction (dry, shrunken, black); no clear demarcation line, no bacterial
contamination.

A. Wet gangrene
B. Dry gangrene
C. Gas gangrene
D. watery gangrene

Answer key: B: Dry gangrene

52. The possible outcome and severity of disease is called

A. Prognosis
B. Lesions
C. Symptom
D. Sign

Answer key: A: Prognosis

53. Local death of cells or tissue in living animal is known as

A. Gangrene
B. Necrosis
C. Degeneration
D. Regeneration

Answer key: B: Necrosis

54. Collection and examination of tissue in the live animals is known as

A. Autopsy
B. Necropsy
C. Biopsy
D. Necrosis

Answer key: C: Biopsy

55. Type of coagulative necrosis, seen in TB characterized by cheesy white deposition in tissue.

A. Liquefactive necrosis
 B. Caseous necrosis
C. Gangrenous necrosis
D. Fibrinoid necrosis

Answer key: B: Caseous necrosis

56. Postmortem examination to discover cause of death or extent of disease

A. Autopsy
B. Necropsy
C. Biopsy
D. Necrosis

Answer key: B: Necropsy

57. Among the following which one is the most deadly/fatal/disease of cat

A. Feline bartonellosis
B. Feline panleukopenia
C. Toxoplasmosis
D. Feline Coronavirus

Answer key: D: Feline Coronavirus

58. Which of the following is true about rabies virus

A. it is single stranded DNA virus

B. Rabies virus is very resistant outside the host
C. trapping/control of stray dog is the one of its control strategies beside vaccination
D. domestic cats are the reservoir host for rabies

Answer key: C: trapping/control of stray dog is the one of its control strategies beside vaccination

59. Which one of the following not true about rabies virus

A. predilection site of rabies virus is central nervous system

B. presence of ‘negri body’ by histopathology indicates rabid dog at preclinical stage
C. Furious clinical stage lasts for about 2 weeks
 D. humans in high-risk situations should pre-exposure vaccine

Answer key: C: Furious clinical stage lasts for about 2 weeks

60. When an organism is located intracellular in host what it facilitates for organism?

A. easily transmissible
B. less pathogenic
C. resistance to antimicrobial therapy
D. resistant to environment

Answer key: C: resistance to antimicrobial therapy

61. muco-cutaneous contact with urine of Suburban “backyard” wildlife may be especially important
sources of:

A. parvo-virus
B. toxoplasmosis
C. ehrlichiosis
D. Leptospirosis

Answer key: D: Leptospirosis

62. disseminated intravascular coagulopathy (DIC) result from widespread occurrence of leptospirosis
lead to cause jaundice in infected animals, this sign is related to:

A. renal failure
B. hepatic failure
C. vascular failure
D. heart failure

Answer key: B: hepatic failure

63. Among the following which one is the most virulent babesia species that lead dog to
haemolyticanaemia

A. Babesia vogeli
B. Babesia annae
C. Babesia rossi
 D. Babesia canis

Answer key: C: Babesia rossi

64. Which one the following sign indicate that typically animal’s infection is by heamo-parasite?

A. pink mucous membrane

B. Anorexia
C. Anemia
D. Fever

Answer key: C: Anemia

65. An infective form of toxoplasmosis that found in final host is called :

A. Sporozoite
B. Bradyzoites
C. Tachyzoites
D. Merozoites

Answer key: A: Sporozoite

66. The only form of toxoplasmosis that transmits through Transplacentally

A. Sporozoite
B. Bradyzoites
C. Tachyzoites
D. Merozoites

Answer key: C: Tachyzoites

67. Which stage of toxoplasmosis produce chronic cyst in intermediate host?

A. Sporozoite
B. Bradyzoites
C. Tachyzoites
 D. Merozoite

Answer key: B: Bradyzoites

68. Which one of the following the cause of left side heart failure?

A. Mitral valve diseases

B. Tricuspid valve disease
C. Pulmonary valve disease
D. Pulmonary hypertension

Answer key: A: Mitral valve diseases

69. Which one of the following sign indicates Glomerulonephritis in small animals

A. Proteiuria
B. Polyuria
C. Ketonuria
D. Heamaturia

Answer key: A: Proteiuria

70. Mycotic disease that exist on mouldy feeds such as poorly made hay and silage, are generally
thought to cause abortions fairly late in pregnancy is called:

A. Infectious bovine rhinotracheitis (IBR)

B. Leptospirosis
C. Aspergillus fumigates
D. Actinomycocis

Answer key: C: Aspergillus fumigates

71. Which one the following occurs at Precopulatory stage in male animals?

A. Intromission
B. Refractory period
C. Courtship
D. ejaculation
Answer key: C: Courtship

72. Which one of the following is animal-related factor that affects the outcome of superovulation?

A. Transportation
B. artificial insemination
C. semen quality
D. Ovarian follicular waves

Answer key: D: Ovarian follicular waves

73. A cow that has normal reproductive tract with normal oestrus cycle but which does not conceive
three or more insemination with fertile semen is called

A. Anoestrus
B. pro-estrus
C. di-estrus
D. Repeat breeding

Answer key: D: Repeat breeding

74. Which one of the following drug has antifungal and anti-inflammatory in addition to
antinematodal activity?

A. Mebendazole
B. Thiabendazole
C. Albendazole
D. Levamisole

Answer key: B: Thiabendazole

75. The preferred drug used for Coccidiosis outbreak having both chemotherapeutic and
prophylactic effect is called.

A. Amprolium
B. Diminazenediaceturate
C. Metronidazole
D. Sulfadimethoxine

Answer key: A: Amprolium

 76. The only beta lactamase drug that penetrate through purine channels in the bacterial cell
membrane is called

A. Penicillins
B. cephalosporins
C. carbapenems
D. monobactams

Answer key: C: carbapenems

77. Assume you are diagnosing a diseased cow; after taking case history and undergoing certain
parametric evaluation, you might intend to conduct lab examinations of blood sample taken
from ear vein. Eventually, you might detect the flagellated protozoan parasite
called Trypanosomabrucei. So just from this finding, what would be preferable drug therapy?

A. Isometamidium chloride (semidium)

B. Diminazenediaceturate (veriben)
C. Quinapyramines (Antrycide)
D. Tetraconazash

Answer key: B: Diminazenediaceturate (veriben)

78. Fluoroquinolones which is described as the type agent that is especially used in animals

A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Ofloxacin
C. Pefloxacin
D. Enrofloxacin

Answer key: D: Enrofloxacin

79. Antinematodal drug which is only used for treatment of ascarids

A. Pyrantel
B. Piperazine
C. Levamisole
D. Albendazole
E. Answer key: B: Piperazine
 80. Which of the following one exhibits both antiprotozoal and antibacterial activity and is
considered as the choice of drug for anaerobic cerebral meningitis?

A. Ivermectin
B. Albendazole
C. Penicillin G
D. Metronidazole

Answer key: C: Penicillin G

81. Which one of the following drugs is/are more effective in the treatment of infection caused by
Gram +ve bacteria?

A. Cephalexin
B. Cefuroxime
C. Ceftriaxone
D. Cefotaxime

Answer key: A: Cephalexin

82. The preferred drug against contageus bovine plueropneumonia (CBPP) in cattle is called

A. Pen strep
B. Procain Penicillin G
C. Ceftriaxone
D. Tylosin

Answer key: D: Tylosin

83. From the following Aminoglycosides, which one is not intended for veterinary clinical use?

A. Streptomycin
B. Gentamycin
C. Kanamycin
D. Neomycin

Answer key: D: Neomycin

84. Which one of the following is narrow spectrum of activity?

 A. Bacitracin
B. Fluoroquinolones
C. Cephalosporins
D. Tetracyclines

Answer key: A: Bacitracin

85. Which one of the following is/are not Strategies to minimize emergency of antibiotic
resistance?

A. Appropriate use of drug dosage regimen

B. Using individual full dosage during combined therapy
C. Using of broad spectrum drugs as much as possible
D. Being well-aware of the sensitivity pattern & infection epidemiology

Answer key: C: Using of broad spectrum drugs as much as possible

86. Of the following, one is considered to be the most commonly used FQS that is effective against
Typhoid fever.

A. Ceftriaxone
B. Ciprofloxacin
C. Tylosine
D. Norfloxacin

Answer key: B: Ciprofloxacin

87. What is the reversing agent for animal collapsed by xylazine?

A. Atipamezole
B. Detomidine
C. Nalorphine
D. Tolazoline

Answer key: A: Atipamezole

88. Which one of the following is true about thiopentene?

A. Slow induction
 B. Analgesia
C. Irritant per-vascularly
D. Administered IV or IM

Answer key: A: Slow induction

89. Which is false about absorbable suture materials?

A. Get absorbed by tissue

B. Used to close internal organs wounds
C. Used to close skin
D. Have unpredictable rates of absorption

Answer key: C: Used to close skin

90. Which one is an inverting suture patterns

A. Parker-kerr Technique
B. Schmieden’s Suture
C. Lembert Suture
D. Cushing and Connel

Answer key: A: Parker-kerr Technique

91. Not appropriate time for spaying in dog

A. During anoestrus period

B. After puberty
C. After weaning the puppies
D. During oestrus period

Answer key: A: During anoestrus period

92. The presence of foreign material in the blood vessels is known as

A. Thrombus
B. Emboli
C. Ischemia
D. Infarction
Answer key: B: Emboli
93. The inflammatory cell seen in acute inflammation.

A. Neutrophil
B. Lymphocytes
C. Plasma cell
D. Macrophage

Answer key: D: Macrophage

94. Partial or complete obstruction of some parts of the cardiovascular system by foreign body
transported by the blood stream termed as

A. Coagulation
B. Ischaemia
C. Thrombosis
D. Embolism

Answer key: D: Embolism

95. A type of shock characterized by decreased in circulating blood volume because of blood loss from
hemorrhage and fluid loss secondary to vomiting, diarrhea or burns.

A. Cardiogenic Shock
B. Hypovolemic Shock
C. Distributive Shock
D. Obstructive Shock

Answer key: B: Hypovolemic Shock

96. Type of inflammation characterized by the presence of neutrophils as principal constituent of the
exudates (pus).

A. Catarrhal inflammation
B. Serous inflammation
C. Fibrinous inflammation
D. Suppurative inflammation

Answer key: D: Suppurative inflammation

 97. One of the following marek’s disease forms show paralysis of the wing and jumpers leg
symptom

A. Visceral form
B. Neural form
C. Ocular form
D. skin form

Answer key: B: Neural form

98. A perfect from which still provides an ethical basis for practice of therapeutic, is “above all, do
no harm

A. Aristotle
B. Hippocratus
C. Edward Gener
D. John snow

Answer key: B: Hippocratus

99. Calabar beans gives physostigmine, which is cholinomimetic agent is drug that is originated
from part plants called:s

A. Seed
B. Leaf
C. fruit
D. steam

Answer key: C: fruit

100. which one of the followig is not true about factors affecting Drug delivery strategies for
veterinary formulations

A. The diversity of species and breeds treated

B. The wide range in body size
C. Different husbandry practices
D. rout of administration

Answer key: D: rout of administration

1.Trypanosoma equiperdum cause disease in equines called as ________________.
A. Nagana
B. Dourine
C. Surra
D. Chagas
ANSWER: B

2. __________ is the predilection site of immature stages of Fasciola?

A. Gall bladder
B. Hepatic vein
C. Bile duct
D. Liver paranchyma
ANSWER: D

3. What are the common problems faced to anthelmintic usage?

A. Residues in animal byproducts
B. Toxicity to animals
C. Environmental contamination
D. All
ANSWER: D

4. Which one of the following hemo-flagelate protozoan parasites are transmitted by Glossina vectors
called Tse-tse flies?
A. Cryptosporidium
B. Trypanosomes
C. Toxoplasmosis
D. A and B
ANSWER: B

5. Which class of anthelmintics is effective against both endo- and ecto- parasites?
A. Salicylanilids
B. Benzimidazoles/Pro-benzimidazoles
C. Macrocyclic lactones
D. Imidazothiazole
ANSWER: C

6. Which one of the following thick fleshy flatworm mainly occurs in the rumen and reticulum?
A. Fasciola
B. Paramphistomum
C. Dicrocoelium
D. Schistosoma
ANSWER: B

7. Which one of the following is the major intermediate host for babesiosis?
A. Mites
 B. Lice
C. Ticks
D. None
ANSWER: C

8. ________________are dorso-ventrally flattened wingless insects that are classified under Suborder
Cyclorrhapha.
A. Sheep ked
B. Culicoides
C. Tse tse flies
D. None
ANSWER: A

9. Which one of the following parasites glues its eggs/nits to the hair shaft of the host?
A. Fleas
B. Mites
C. Ticks
D. Lice
ANSWER: D

10. One of the following is the target for antifungal drugs.

A) Cell membrane
B) Ergosterol
C) Cholestrol
D) None
ANSWER: B

11. The resistance and toughness of bacterial endospores is attributed to

A) Their layered structure(Core, spore wall, cortex and protein coat)
B) Their dehydrated state and negligible metabolic activity
C) Their high content of Calcium dipicolinate
D) All
ANSWER: D

12. The purpose of adding of Kovac’s reagent in indole test is

A) To enhance the activity of tryptophanase enzyme to hydrolyze tryptophan
B) To enhance the ability of the organism to utilize the amino acid tryptophan
C) To determine indole production
D) To hydrolyze the amino acid tryptophan in the medium
ANSWER: C

13. Which one of the following can result false gram positive reaction in gram stain?
A) Preparation of too tick smear
B) Over decolorization of smear
C) Making smear from old culture
D) Cell wall damage due to antibiotics
ANSWER: A

14. In motility test, the growth of bacteria is diffused throughout the media, which one of the
following is true about this?
A. The bacteria is motile and flagellated
B. The bacteria is non-motile and non-flagellated
C. The bacteria can be flagellated and non-flagellated
D. We cannot determine whether the bacteria is motile or non-motile
ANSWER: A

15. What is the correct order in which these reagents are used in the Gram stain?
A. Crystal Violet, Ethanol, Iodine, Safranin,
B. Crystal Violet, Safranin, Ethanol, Iodine
C. Crystal Violet, Iodine, Ethanol, Safranin
D. Safranin, Iodine, Crystal Violet, Ethanol
ANSWER: C

16. You streak an unknown bacterium on a blood agar plate, after incubation a distinct zone around the
colonies that is completely clear represents, what?
A. The bacteria excrete acid.
B. The bacteria excrete an enzyme that degrades protein.
C. The bacteria are alpha-hemolytic.
D. The bacteria are beta-hemolytic.
ANSWER: D

17. Which one of the following statements is false about Escherichia coli?
A. Escherichia coli are a Gram positive coccus.
B. Escherichia coli can grow on MacConkey agar.
C. Most samples of mammalian feces contain some Escherichia coli.
D. Escherichia coli do not produce amylase, lipase or gelatinase.
ANSWER: A

18. Which is the chief producer of Aflatoxins?

A. Aspergillus fumigatus
B. Aspergillus flavus
C. Aspergillus terreus
D. Aspergillus niger
Answer- B

19. Which cell can process and present antigens to lymphocytes?

A. Eosinophils
B. Basophils
C. Neutrophils
D. Macrophages
ANSWER: D
20. Which blood cells increase during allergic and parasitic infection?
A. Neutrophils
B. Eosinophils
C. B-lymphocytes
D. T-lymphocytes
ANSWER: B

21. Which cell can express both MHC I and MHC II?
A. Lymphocytes
B. Neutrophils
C. Dendritic cells
D. Basophils
ANSWER: C

22. Type I interferons predominantly high in the blood during?

A. Bacterial infection
B. Viral infection
C. Nematode infection
D. Protozoal infection
ANSWER: B

23. One of the following immunological tests is considered as a confirmatory test for detecting
brucella bacteria
A. Rose Bengal Test
B. Fluorescent antibody test
C. Complement fixation Test
D. Hemagglutination inhibition test
ANSWER: C

24. A strong ammonia odor in a urine specimen could manifest the presence of ---
A. Ketones
B. Normal
C. Glucose
D. Bacterial infection
ANSWER: D

25. An increase in urobilinogen is detected under the following conditions except------

A. Hemolytic jaundice
B. Liver disorder
C. Obstructive Jaundice
D. None
ANSWER: C

26. A urine specimen that produces persistent yellowish foam when shaken can be suggestive for
containing: --
A. Bilirubin
 B. Protein
C. Hemoglobin
D. All
ANSWER: A

27. A cytological technique for the assessment of fistulous tracts, ear canals, and vaginal cytology is?
A. Swab
B. Imprints
C. Brushings
D. Scrapings
ANSWER: A

28. The incorrect statement regarding metabolic functions of liver?

A. Undertaking high rate of metabolisms in the body
B. Importing energy from different part of the body.
C. Processing and synthesizing multiple substances
D. None
ANSWER: D

29. ______________ is a test capable of assessing the liver synthetic function.

 A. Serum transferrin level
B. Serum albumin level
C. Prothrombin time
D. Serum enzyme level
ANSWER: C
30. Which describes anemia?
A. A deficiency of white blood cells
B. A reduction in oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood
C. A reduction in number of platelets
D. All
ANSWER: D

31. Which leukocyte is not correctly matched with its description?

A. Eosinophil - bilobed nucleus, deep red granules
B. Lymphocyte - round nucleus, thin rim of cytoplasm
C. Neutrophil-lobed nucleus with two to five segments, light purple granules
D. None
ANSWER: D
32. Nematode parasite that affect trachea of poultry?
A. Heterakis
B. Ascaris
C. Syngamus
D. Capillaria
ANSWER: C

33. Bumble foot is a disease of poultry caused by?

A. Pasteurella mutocida
B. Salmonella pullurom
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. E coli
ANSWER: C

34. Which of the following is not the characteristic of Infectious coryza in poultry?
A. Caused by Haemophilus paragallinarum
B. The bacteria remain viable outside the host for periods exceeding 2 weeks
C. Transmission is by direct contact, airborne droplet and contaminated water & feed
D. Cause difficulty in breathing, swollen face &eye & sinus filled with cheese
ANSWER: B

35. Which of the following doesn’t describe avian mycoplasmosis?

A. Transmitted by insect
B. Characterized by chronic respiratory signs
C. Particularly important in chicken & turkey
D. Can be treated with tylosin or a fluoroquinolones
ANSWER: A

36. Which of the following statements is wrong about avian infectious laryngotracheitis?
A. Transmission by airborne, intraocular route, & contaminated equipment &clothing
B. Caused by Orthomyxovirus
C. Clots of blood coughed up& found on the floor & walls
D. Birds recover from infection can act as latent carriers up to 16 months
ANSWER: B

37. In poultry Marek’s Disease is characterized by?

A. Paralysis of nerves
B. Production of tumor on internal organs
C. Transmitted by dander and feathers
D. all
ANSWER: D

38. Which of the following statements is not characteristic feature of fowl pox?
A. Caused by the genus Capripoxvirus
B. Transmitted by biting insect, wound on the skin
C. Cutaneous lesions on wattle & comb and diphtritic lesion on the oropharynx
 D. Prevented and controlled by vaccination applied on wing-web using stab
ANSWER: A

39. One of the following isn’t the responsibility of Veterinarians’ to the clients?
A. Veterinarians must be open and honest with clients
B. Veterinarians must provide independent and impartial advice to the client
C. Veterinarians must communicate effectively with clients and ensure informed owner
consent is obtained before treatments or procedures are carried out.
D. All
ANSWER: D

40. Which veterinary ethics is concerned for Ethiopian Veterinary Association (EVA)?
A. Administrative Veterinary Ethics.
B. Official Veterinary Ethics
C. Descriptive Veterinary Ethics
D. Normative Veterinary Ethics
ANSWER: B

41. Any person shall obtain an entrance permit by applying to the Ministry by stating;
A. Transit countries
B. Date of arrival
C. Transit countries
D. All
ANSWER: D

42. Which international organization is addressing some welfare issues of animals?

A. World Organization for Animal Health (OIE)
B. Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD)
C. Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species and Wild Fauna and Flora
D. None
ANSWER: A

43. One of the following doesn’t describeBlue Tongue disease (BT)?

A. Has about 26 serotype
B. Cattle is most severely affected animal
C. Prevented & controlled by vaccination and control ofCulicoides imicola
D. Hyperemic and hemorrhagic lesions mainly in the oral cavity and feet
ANSWER: B

44. Carrier hostsfor Malignant Cateral Fever (MCF)?

A. Cattle & buffalo
B. Buffalo & wild beast
C. Wilde beast and sheep
D. Sheep & cattle
ANSWER: C
45. Which of the following bacteria causes abortions in cattle, fistulous withers in horses,
and undulant fever in human?
A. Brucellosis
B. Campylobacteriosis
C. Leptospirosis
D. Erysipelas
ANSWER: A

46. In equine prolapse of the third eye lid is caused by?

A. Clostridium botulinum
B. Bacillus anthracis
C. Clostridium tetanus
D. Clostridiumchauvoei
ANSWER: C

47. One of the following is wrong aboutListeriosis?

A. Commonly occur in improperly prepared silage
B. Characterized by abortion, septicemia and encephalitis
C. Characterized by signs such as circling
D. Common in immunocompetent people
ANSWER: D

48. One of the following is wrong about Ring worm in domestic animals?
A. Transmitted directly by contact with infected animals & indirectly by fomites
B. Spore may be found on the skin & harness for long period of time
C. Warm and humid condition prevent growth of the fungus
D. Caused by Genus of Trichophytum and Microsporum
ANSWER: C

49. Of the following statements which one is wrong about copper deficiency?
A. Caused by soil or feed deficient in copper
B. Caused by soil or feed low in molybdenum or sulphur
C. Caused by soil or feed high in molybdenum or sulphur
D. Cause swayback or enzootic ataxia of lambs
ANSWER: B

50. Canine parvovirus primarily affects which system in dogs?

A. Respiratory system
B. Nervous system
C. Digestive system
D. Cardiovascular system
ANSWER: C

51. How is Malassezia dermatitis diagnosed in dogs?

A. Skin scraping and microscopic examination
B. Blood test
 C. Urinalysis
D. X-ray
ANSWER: A

52. What is the primary trigger for allergic reactions in dogs with flea allergy dermatitis?
A. Flea saliva
B. Flea feces
C. Flea eggs
D. Flea exoskeleton
ANSWER: A

53. Which type of mite is primarily responsible for sarcoptic mange in dogs?
A. Demodex canis
B. Sarcoptes scabiei
C. Cheyletiella spp.
D. Otodectes cynotis
ANSWER: B

54. What is the primary route of transmission for tapeworms in dogs?

A. Ingestion of infected fleas
B. Inhalation of airborne larvae
C. Direct contact with infected dogs
D. Consumption of contaminated water
ANSWER: A

55. When performing a physical examination of a cow's udder, which of the following is a
common indicator of mastitis?
A. Warmth and swelling of the udder
B. Normal milk production without abnormalities
C. Soft and pliable udder tissue
D. Absence of milk upon udder palpation
ANSWER: A

56. When assessing the rumen of a cow, which of the following findings would indicate a
potential digestive issue?
A. Audible rumen contractions every 5 minutes
B. Distension of the left abdomen with a firm feel
C. Normal ruminal pH of 7.0
D. Absence of ruminal contractions
ANSWER: B

57. What is the primary method used to assess body condition score (BCS) in cattle during a
clinical examination?
A. Measuring abdominal girth
B. Evaluating coat color and shine
C. Palpating the ribs and loin area
 D. Observing hoof structure
ANSWER: C

58. When restraining a horse for a veterinary procedure, what is an essential step to ensure
safety for both the horse and the handler?
A. Standing directly in front of the horse
B. Applying pressure to the horse's hindquarters
C. Utilizing a secure halter and lead rope
D. Using a prong collar for control
ANSWER: C

59. When examining a sheep for signs of respiratory disease, which clinical sign would indicate
a potential respiratory issue?
A. Increased appetite
B. Wheezing or labored breathing
C. Bright and alert demeanor
D. Normal lung sounds on auscultation
ANSWER: B

60. When evaluating the gastrointestinal system of a cow, which finding would suggest a
potential digestive issue?
A. Clear nasal discharge
B. Normal rumen contractions
C. Firm and distended abdomen
D. Absence of regurgitation
ANSWER: C

61. One of the following is not property of Anti-helminthic Drugs which affect the energy
production of parasites
A. Inhibit fumarate reductase enzyme and mitochondrial reactions.
B. Inhibit glycolysis
C. Inhibit tubulin polymerization and glucose uptake
D. Inhibit GABA receptor
ANSWER: C

62. Which one of the following drugs is Cholinergic agonists and affect neuromuscular system
of parasite
A. Tetramisole
B. Piperazine
C. Ivermectin
D. Abamectin
ANSWER: B

63. Which one of the following drugs affecting parasite reproduction

A. Benzimidazoles
B. Praziqunatel
 C. Triclabendazole
D. Lvermectin
ANSWER: B

64. Which of the following drug is not free from teratogenic effects?
A. Mebendazole,
B. Fenbendazole,
C. Oxfendazole,
D. Albendazol
ANSWER: D

65. Which one of the following is not the property of ideal anthelmintic drug?
A. Should have high efficacy
B. Broad spectrum of activity
C. Wide therapeutic index
D. Should have Residue effect
ANSWER: B

66. Which one of the following is/are not possible measurements to be taken to reduce anti-
fungal drug resistance?
A. Avoid prudent use of antifungals
B. Appropriate dosing with special emphasis on
C. Avoid appropriate frequency of treatment
D. Use of surveillance studies to determine the true frequency of antifungal resistance
ANSWER: C

67. Sulphonamides used to treat gut infections (Gut-active Sulphonamides)

A. Phthalylsulpfthiazole
B. Succinylsufathiazole
C. Sulphaguinidine
D. All
ANSWER: D
68. Which one is a Useful feature of local analgesia for veterinary practice?
A. It does not enables to perform prolonged surgery in a standing animal
B. The surgeon himself/herself can induce anaesthesia
C. It requires expensive and sophisticated instruments
D. The principles of infiltration analgesia are simple and are diffrent for all species
ANSWER: B

69. One of the following is INCORRECT about dog castration.

A. Performed on Pre-scrotal site and scrotal site
B. Done under General anaesthesia and Dorsal recumbency
C. In cases of scrotal incision, the skin wound is closed after operation
D. No incision is given in tunica vaginalis in closed method
ANSWER: C
70. One of the following is different from other types of hernia that the content of the hernia
isn’t covered by peritoneum.
A. Epigastric Hernia
B. Diaphragmatic Hernia
C. Perineal Hernia
D. Scrotal Hernia
ANSWER: C

71. One of the following is the most used suturing techniques to close the rumen during
rumenotomy.
A. Cushing by parker-ker
B. Cushing followed by lambert
C. Connell followed by lambert
D. Connell by Cushing
ANSWER: B

72. Which one of the following is correct about bone fracture treatment?
A. Restoration of movement in the joint and power in the muscle
B. The broken ends are placed in contact and allow to mobilize the part
immediately after union
C. Union of the fragment in a good functional position
D. All
ANSWER: A

73. Which one of the following is the not the Benefits of disbudding and dehorning?
A. Increased bruising of carcasses by pen-mates
B. Increased space at the feeding trough
C. Ease of transport, both through a facility and during shipping
D. Decrease trauma caused by dominant and aggressive animals
ANSWER: A

74. Which one of the following is used in internal fixation?

A. Plaster of Paris
B. Bamboo-padded with cotton-wool
C. Robert jones bandage
D. Bone plates and screws
ANSWER: D
75. ___________________ is a long day seasonal polyestrus breeder.
A. Cow
B. Mare
C. Bitch
D. Ewe
ANSWER: B

76. Select the wrong expression about ovary

A. It is the primary sex organ
 B. Paired and functional in all species
C. It is responsible for steriodgensis
D. A site for egg production
ANSWER: B

77. Select the correct alternative among the following choices

A. Sensitivity of GnRH tonic center in hypothalamus increased in prepubertal period
B. Pheromones is a chemical substance used to communicate between different species
C. Hormones are physiologic and organic substances secreted & released by ductless glands
D. There is no an endocrine secretion pattern difference in female and male after puberty
ANSWER: A

78. Select the correct ascending chronological orders of luteual cell

A. Corpus hemorrhagica ----Corpus albicans ---Corpus Luteum
B. Corpus Luteum --- Corpus albicans --- Corpus hemorrhagica
C. Corpus hemorrhagica --- Corpus Luteum --- Corpus albicans
D. Corpus albicans --- Corpus Luteum --- Corpus hemorrhagica
ANSWER: C

79. Which one of the following animal is a seasonal monoestrus breeder.

A. Mare
B. Bitch
C. Sow
D. Ewe
ANSWER: B

80. Which one of the following infectious disease causes abortion in first trimester in cows?
A. Leptospirosis
B. Infectious Bronchorhenitis (IBR)
C. Brucelosis
D. Trichomonas
ANSWER: D

81. Which one of the following is abnormal fetal orientation?

A. Transverse presentation
B. Dorsosacral position
C. Front leg extension
D. Posterior presentation
ANSWER: A

82. Which one is not among the objectives of milk hygiene?

A. To provide consumers with wholesome milk
B. To reduce milk (economic) losses resulting from milk spoilage
C. To make the milk free from any microorganisms
D. To give advice on the proper handling of milk and milk products
ANSWER: C
83. Which one of the following is spoilage organism?
A. Pseudomonas
B. Listeria monocytogenes
C. Yersinia enterocolitica
D. Campylobacter jejuni
ANSWER: A

84. Milk testing and quality control is an essential component of any milk processing industry
because of the following except one.
A. Milk is prone to adulteration
B. Milk is ideal medium for pathogenic bacteria
C. Milk is highly perishable
D. Milk has a long shelf life
ANSWER: D

85. Which one is among emerging zoonoses

A. COVID-19 (SARS-CoV-2)
B. Tuberculosis
C. Anthrax
D. Rabies
ANSWER: A

86. The following are the common prevention mechanism of food borne zoonoses except---.
A. The pasteurization and cooking of food products
B. Use of face mask
C. Proper meat inspection
D. Application HACCP
ANSWER: B

87. Among the following zoonoses the one is milk-borne

A. Taeniasis
B. Brucellosis
C. Rabies
D. Hydatidosis
ANSWER: B

88. Among the following professions the one is less risky for anthrax.
A. Veterinarians
B. Livestock producers
C. Officers
D. Butchers
ANSWER: C
89. Except one, all are static measures of disease frequency?
A. Proportion
B. Rate
 C. Ratio
D. Odds
ANSWER: B

90. Which one of the following is incorrect about cohort study design?
A. It allows to establish cause and effect relationship
B. It is an interventional study type
C. It is suitable to study rare disease occurrence in a population
D. It is appropriate to study the incidence of a disease
ANSWER: B

91. The Agent in the epidemiological triad refers to?

A. The affected animal population
B. The disease-causing microorganism or factor
C. The physical surroundings of the animal population
D. The mode of disease transmission
ANSWER: B

92. Ecosystem facilitates the transmission of zoonotic infections from their animal hosts to
man is?
A. Anthropurgic ecosystems
B. Synanthropic ecosystems
C. Autochthonous ecosystems
D. Biocenosis
ANSWER: B

93. A complete list of individuals is referred to as?

A. Sampling unit
B. Sampling fraction
C. Sampling frame
D. Study population
ANSWER: C

94. Which one of the following is true about sampling?

A. Cluster sampling provides more precise estimate when compared to random
sampling
B. Sampling frame is required for non-probability sampling approaches
C. Non-probability sampling guarantees the random inclusion of sampling units
D. Probability sampling guarantees the random inclusion of sampling units
ANSWER: D

95. Which of the following represents a characteristic of cross-sectional study designs?

A. Participants are followed over a long period to observe disease outcomes.
B. Exposure status is determined after the onset of disease.
C. Data is collected at a single point in time.
D. Participants are randomly assigned to treatment groups.
ANSWER: C
96. What role do Information and Communication Technologies (ICTs) play in modern animal
health extension?
A. They are not relevant to animal health extension
B. They facilitate real-time data collection and communication
C. They increase the cost of extension services
D. They replace the need for human extension workers
ANSWER: B

97. What is the significance of gender-sensitive approaches in animal health extension?

A. They prioritize the health of female animals over males
B. They ensure that extension services are accessible to all genders
C. They exclude men from participating in extension programs
D. They have no impact on the effectiveness of extension services
ANSWER: B

98. Which of the following factors contributes to the sustainability of animal health extension
programs?
A. Dependency on external aid
B. Limited community involvement
C. Integration with local cultural practices
D. Isolation from other development initiatives
ANSWER: C

99. How does traditional knowledge contribute to the resilience of Ethiopian pastoralists?
A. By relying on modern technologies instead of traditional methods
B. By adapting to changing environmental conditions based on ancestral knowledge
C. By abandoning traditional practices in favor of modern lifestyles
D. By ignoring the importance of cultural heritage
ANSWER: B

100. Which one is not among the objectives of milk hygiene?

A. To provide consumers with wholesome milk
B. To reduce milk (economic) losses resulting from milk spoilage
C. To make the milk free from any microorganisms
D. To give advice on the proper handling of milk and milk products
ANSWER: C
1 Which one of the following statement is incorrect about nematodes?
A. They have separate sex
B. They have complete gut
C. Males are smaller than females
D. They have blunted anterior and posterior ends
ANSWER: D

2 One of the following is incorrect about trematodes?

A. Trematodes are hermaphroditic, except Schistosoma
B. Most of adult trematodes are leaf shaped flat worms
C. Trematodes have separate sex, except Schistosoma
D. The life cycle of trematodes include at least a single intermediate host
ANSWER: C

3 Which one of the following is not true about Moniezia?

A. The gravid segments are wider than they are long
B. The scolex has neither rostellum nor hooks
C. The gravid segments are longer than they are wide
D. The intermediate stage is a cysticercoid in forage mites
ANSWER: C

4 From the following species of Trypanosoma, which one is transmitted both cyclically and
mechanically?
A. T.congolense
B. T. brucei
C. T.vivax
D. T.evansi
ANSWER: C

5 All of the following reproductive process of Eimeria occur inside the host, except?
A. Schizogony
B. Gametogony
C. Zygote formation
D. Sporulation
ANSWER: D

6 Among the following list of mites one is temporary ectoparasite.

A. Chorioptes
B. Psoroptes
C. Dermanyssus
D. Demodex
ANSWER: C

7 Which one of the following is true about fleas?

A. They are host specific ectoparasites
B. They are obligatory permanent ectoparasites
 C. They are laterally compressed wingless insects
D. They have hemi-metabolous life cycle
ANSWER: C

8 Which one of the following is false about sucking lice?

A. They are relatively larger than chewing lice
B. They are found only on mammals
C. They have pointed and elongated heads
D. They move fast within the hair of the host
ANSWER: D

9 Which one of the following animal can be an intermediate hosts to Toxoplasma gondi?
A. Cattle
B. Birds
C. Cat
D. All
ANSWER: D

10 Which of the following is the best safety protocol used in the laboratory?
A. Wearing open-toed shoes
B. Wearing closed-toed shoes
C. Wearing sandals
D. Wearing shorts
ANSWER: B

11 Which practice is an example of correct laboratory practice?

A. Eating in the laboratory
B. Pipetting chemicals by mouth
C. Using chemicals from unlabelled container
D. Taking every precaution to prevent accidents
ANSWER: D

12 Which one of the following structural components may not found in all viruses?
A. Capsid
B. Envelope
C. Genome
D. Nucleocapsid
ANSWER: B

13 Which of the following reflects the correct order of events that take place during the
multiplication of a virus?
A. Attachment, penetration, assembly, biosynthesis, release
B. Penetration, attachment, biosynthesis, assembly, release
 C. Attachment, penetration, biosynthesis, assembly, release
D. Attachment, release, biosynthesis, assembly, penetration
ANSWER: C

14 Which of the following structure is present in any bacteria?

A. Flagella
B. Cell membrane
C. Spore
D. Fimbriae
ANSWER: B

15 Which of the following media is different based on physical state classification?

A. Liquid media
B. Semisolid media
C. Solid media
D. Synthetic media
ANSWER: D

16 Which of the following media is not selective but differential media?

A. MacConkey’s agar
B. Manitol salt agar
C. Blood agar
D. Eosin methylene blue agar
ANSWER: C

17 Which of the following does not determine the diameter of drug inhibition zone?
A. The type of sample
B. The amount of drug in the disk
C. Susceptibility of the microorganism
D. Size of inoculums
ANSWER: A

18 If we observe an image by 40X objective lens, which one is correct statement?

A. The image have more clear resolution than we observe it by 10X objective lens
B. The image have equal resolution than we observe it by 10X objective lens
C. The image have less clear resolution than we observe it by 10X objective lens
D. Resolution of an image have no connection with the magnification of objective lens
ANSWER: C

19 Which one is not the first line of defense in the animal body?
A. Mucus membrane
 B. Skin
C. Normal flora of bacteria
D. Immunoglobulin (IgG)
ANSWER: D

20 Transfer of antibodies from pregnant dam to the fetus is a kind of?

A. Naturally acquired passive immunity
B. Naturally acquired active immunity
C. Artificially acquired active immunity
D. Artificially acquired passive immunity
ANSWER: A

21 Immunologically active regions on a complex antigen named as?

A. Pathogen associated molecular patterns
B. Haptens
C. Epitopes
D. Paratopes
ANSWER: C
22 Neutrophilia in the blood indicates?
A. Parasitic infection
B. Viral infection
C. Acute bacterial infection
D. Allergic condition
ANSWER: C

23 One of the following is not the advantages of live attenuated vaccines?

A. No risk of reversion
B. Require fewer doses
C. Induce both humoral and cell mediated immunity
D. Do not require adjuvants
ANSWER: A

24 General Pathology does not include one of the following activities.

A. Necropsy
B. Lethopsy
C. Autopsy
D. Microscopy
ANSWER: A

25 Decrease in number of all components of leucocytes is known as_______?

A. Leucopoenia
B. Panleucopenia
 C. Leucocytosis
D. Leukemia
ANSWER: B
26 Parturition of a dead foetus on its full development and gestation is termed as_______.
A. Abortion
B. Still birth
C. Premature birth
D. Normal birth
ANSWER: A
27 Hog cholera occurs in_______.
A. Pig
B. Dog
C. Horse
D. Cow
ANSWER: A
28 Radiation affects the dividing cells of_____.
A. Ovary
B. Testes
C. Lymphocytes
D. All of the above
ANSWER: D
29 Transmission of diseases from one generation to another is known as____.
A. Vertical
B. Triangular
C. Horizontal
D. All of the above
ANSWER: B
30 Cannibalism is aggravated by_____.
A. Over crowding
B. Prolapse of cloaca
C. Wounds
D. All of above
ANSWER: D

31 Substitution of one type of cells by another type is knownas ____.

A. Hyperplasia
B. Metaplasia
C. Anaplasia
D. Aplasia
ANWER: B

32 Which one of the following are not pathologic features of hemolytic anemia?
A. Icterus
B. Hemoglobinurea
 C. Increased number of erythrocytes
D. Hemosiderin laden cells in spleen
ANSWER: C

33 One of the following doesn’t describe Newcastle disease in poultry?

A. Transmission through aerosol & ingestion of contaminated water & feed
B. Velogenic strain cause mild respiratory infection
C. Causative agent is avian paramyxoviruses-1
D. Main body parts affected are respiratory, GIT and nervous systems
ANSWER: B
34 Infectious bursal disease (Gumboro disease) in poultry is not characterized by?
A. Severe & acute form occurring in 0–3 week old chicken
B. Severe & acute form occurring in 3–6 week old chicken
C. Cause congestion &hemorrhage pectoral, thigh & leg muscle
D. Bursa of fabricius is swollen & congestion in acute and atrophy in chronic case
ANSWER: A
35 Fowl cholera in chicken is caused by which of the following bacteria?
A. Salmonella pullurom
B. E coli
C. Pasteurella mutocida
D. Vibrio cholera
ANSWER: C
36 Which of the following is wrong about Salmonella Pullorum?
A. Also called bacillary white diarrhea
B. Affect mainly adult chicken
C. transmission occurs by transovarial route &by direct or indirect contact with fomites
D. Recovered chicken are carriers
ANSWER: B
37 Eimeria species of poultry that is found in the cecum?
A. E. necatrix
B. E. acervulina
C. E. tenella
D. E. burnetii
ANSWER: C
38 Mite species that cause Scaly leg in chicken is called?
A. Knemidocoptes mutans
B. Dermanyssus gallinae
C. Knemidocoptes gallinae
D. Laminosioptes cysticola
ANSWER: A
39 Vitamin D deficiency in poultry is not manifested by?
A. Rickets in young chicken
B. Osteoporosis in adult
C. Softening of egg shell
 D. Crazy chick disease
ANSWER: D

40 Which statement shows the correct view of Animal welfare proponents?

A. Provide proper care and management for all animals for good interaction
B. Seek to improve the treatment and well-being of animals.
C. Believe that humans cannot interact with animals in anyway
D. All
ANSWER: C

41 Which behavioral indicator shows good welfare?

A. Avoids humans – flight distance
B. Aggression towards humans
C. Pain behaviours
D. Fighting
ANSWER: A

42 How positive relationships benefit the owner of animals?

A. Potentially enhancing reproductive performance
B. Suppress immunity
C. Reduced yields
D. Reduce meat quality
ANSWER: A

43 Which negative subjective states reduced the welfare of animals?

A. Frustration
B. Fear
C. Malnutrition
D. All
ANSWER: D
44 One of the following is not characteristic feature of Foot and mouth disease (FMD)?
A. Reservoir host in Africa is sheep
B. May cause oral and hoof vesicle and erosion
C. Pig is amplifier hosts
D. Affect cloven hooved animals
ANSWER: A
45 One of the following doesn’t describePeste des petitis ruminants (PPR)?
A. Transmitted by close contact
B. Primarily a disease of goat and sheep
C. Cause high morbidity & high mortality
D. Recovered animals remain lifelong carrier
ANSWER: D

46 Which of the following statements is wrong about Anthrax?

A. Enlarged and pulpy spleen
B. Outbreak of the disease usually occur during heavy rain & drought
 C. Presence of rigor mortis
D. Bloody discharges from nose, mouth and anus, vulvathat doesn’t clot
ANSWER: C

47 Which of the following statements is wrong about Blackleg in cattle?

A. Causative agent is Clostridium chauvoei
B. Affect mainly muscle and cause lameness
C. Most affected animals are old aged and animals in poor body condition
D. Affected tissue become rancid, dark & swollen
ANSWER: C
48 Of the following statements one doesn’t describeHeart water?
A. Transmitted by tick Amblyoma
B. Very young animal are relatively resistant than old
C. High fever, nervous signs, diarrhea, and death in acute case
D. Can be easily treated using penicillin
ANSWER: D
49 One of the following is not characteristic features of Rabies?
A. syndromes are prodromal, furious and dumb
B. Transmitted mainly by bite of rabid dog
C. Can be treated with broad spectrum antibiotic after clinical sign is manifested
D. Move to central nervous system though nerve axon
ANSWER: C
50 One of the following statements doesn’t describe milk fever?
A. Affect high milk yielding cows
B. Rectal temperature show high fever
C. Occur in the last few days of pregnancy or immediately after parturition
D. Cause nervousness, excitement, tetany & tremor of head & limbs, lastly coma
ANSWER: B
51 What are common symptoms of infectious canine hepatitis?
A. Jaundice, lethargy, vomiting
B. Sneezing, coughing, runny nose
C. Diarrhea, weight loss, fever
D. None of the above
ANSWER: A

52 Canine parvovirus primarily affects which system in dogs?

A. Respiratory system
B. Nervous system
C. Digestive system
D. Cardiovascular system
ANSWER: C

53 How is Malassezia dermatitis diagnosed in dogs?

A. Skin scraping and microscopic examination
B. Blood test
 C. Urinalysis
D. X-ray
ANSWER: A

54 What is the primary trigger for allergic reactions in dogs with flea allergy dermatitis?
A. Flea saliva
B. Flea feces
C. Flea eggs
D. Flea exoskeleton
ANSWER: A

55 Which type of mite is primarily responsible for sarcoptic mange in dogs?

A. Demodex canis
B. Sarcoptes scabiei
C. Cheyletiella spp.
D. Otodectes cynotis
ANSWER: B

56 When performing a physical examination of a cow's udder, which of the following is a

common indicator of mastitis?
A. Warmth and swelling of the udder
B. Normal milk production without abnormalities
C. Soft and pliable udder tissue
D. Absence of milk upon udder palpation
ANSWER: A

57 When assessing the rumen of a cow, which of the following findings would indicate a
potential digestive issue?
A. Audible rumen contractions every 5 minutes
B. Distension of the left abdomen with a firm feel
C. Normal ruminal pH of 7.0
D. Absence of ruminal contractions
ANSWER: B

58 What is the primary method used to assess body condition score (BCS) in cattle during a
clinical examination?
A. Measuring abdominal girth
B. Evaluating coat color and shine
C. Palpating the ribs and loin area
D. Observing hoof structure
ANSWER: C

59 When restraining a horse for a veterinary procedure, what is an essential step to ensure safety
for both the horse and the handler?
A. Standing directly in front of the horse
B. Applying pressure to the horse's hindquarters
 C. Utilizing a secure halter and lead rope
D. Using a prong collar for control
ANSWER: C

60 When examining a sheep for signs of respiratory disease, which clinical sign would indicate a
potential respiratory issue?
A. Increased appetite
B. Wheezing or labored breathing
C. Bright and alert demeanor
D. Normal lung sounds on auscultation
ANSWER: B

61 When evaluating the gastrointestinal system of a cow, which finding would suggest a
potential digestive issue?
A. Clear nasal discharge
B. Normal rumen contractions
C. Firm and distended abdomen
D. Absence of regurgitation
ANSWER: C

62 Which of the following is true about Sulphonamide?

A. Plenty of water and urinary alkaliser is used during administration of this drug
B. Sign of anuria and hematuria will not be reason for discontinuity of sulfa therapy
C. It should be given for more than one week
D. Are bactericidal
ANSWER: B

63 Among the following which one is short acting Sulphonamide?

A. Sulphadimidine
B. Sulfamethizole
C. Sulphadimethoxine
D. Sulfadoxine
ANSWER: C

64 Nitrofurans are?
A. Natural antibacterial compounds
B. 5-nitro group is essential for their antibacterial action
C. Narrow spectrum antibacterial.
D. Totally Bactericidal
ANSWER: C

65 Which one is true about Metronidazole?

A. Active against obligate anaerobic bacteria
B. More active against nons poreforming, gram-positive bacilli
C. Not cause Neurologic disturbances
 D. Will not treat protozoal infections
ANSWER: D

66 Fungal infections therapy requires all the following except?

A. Extended treatment
B. Removal of predisposing factors
C. Combined therapy
D. Treatment with low dosage
ANSWER: D

67 Which of the following Antifungal agents grouped under polyene?

A. Triazoles
B. Flucytosine
C. Nystatin
D. Potassium iodide
ANSWER: C

68 One of the following is Imidazole.

A. Itroconazole
B. Ketoconazole
C. Voriconazole
D. Fluconazole
ANSWER: B

69 One turns tissue edges towards the patient, away from the surgeon or toward the center of the
hollow organ.
A. Inverting Suture pattern
B. Appositional Suture pattern
C. Transfixation ligation
D. Everting Suture pattern
ANSWER: A

70 Which one of the following is a local anesthetic drug?

A. Detomidine
B. Lidocaine (Lignocaine)
C. Ketamine
D. Atropine sulphate
ANSWER: B

71 One of the following is true about castration?

A. Done When fly population is high
B. Done on working horse less than 1 year
C. When feed is less available
D. None
ANSWER: B
72 Which one approach is routinely used for caesarean section in canine and feline?
A. High flank
B. Lower flank
C. Mid-ventral
D. Paramedian
ANSWER: C

73 Which one is a Useful feature of local analgesia for veterinary practice?

A. It does not enables to perform prolonged surgery in a standing animal
B. The surgeon himself/herself can induce anaesthesia
C. It requires expensive and sophisticated instruments
D. The principles of infiltration analgesia are simple and are diffrent for all species
ANSWER: B

74 One of the following is INCORRECT about dog castration?

A. Performed on Pre-scrotal site and scrotal site
B. Done under General anaesthesia and Dorsal recumbency
C. In cases of scrotal incision, the skin wound is closed after operation
D. No incision is given in tunica vaginalis in closed method
ANSWER: C

75 One of the following is different from other types of hernia that the content of the hernia isn’t
covered by peritoneum.
A. Epigastric Hernia
B. Diaphragmatic Hernia
C. Perineal Hernia
D. Scrotal Hernia
ANSWER: C

76 Which one is not the immediate cause of dystocia?

A. Uterine inertia
B. Malposition
C. Hypoplasia of uterus
D. Deficiency of cortisol
ANSWER: C

77 Which one is a long day seasonal polyestrus breeder?

A. Cow
B. Mare
C. Bitch
D. Ewe
ANSWER: B

78 Select the wrong expression about ovary.

A. It is the primary sex organ
B. Paired and functional in all species
 C. It is responsible for steriodgensis
D. A site for egg production
ANSWER: B

79 Select the correct alternative among the following choices.

A. Sensitivity of GnRH tonic center in hypothalamus increased in prepubertal period
B. Pheromones is a chemical substance used to communicate between different species
C. Hormones are physiologic and organic substances secreted & released by ductless glands
D. There is no an endocrine secretion pattern difference in female and male after puberty
ANSWER: A

80 Which one of the following animal is a seasonal mono-estrus breeder?

A. Mare
B. Bitch
C. Sow
D. Ewe
ANSWER: B

81 Which one of the following infectious disease causes abortion in first trimester in cows?
A. Leptospirosis
B. Infectious Bronchorhenitis (IBR)
C. Brucelosis
D. Trichomonas
ANSWER: D

82 Which one of the following is abnormal fetal orientation?

A. Transverse presentation
B. Dorsosacral position
C. Front leg extension
D. Posterior presentation
ANSWER: A

83 Which one of the following is food safety issue?

A. E. coli O157:H7
B. Off flavor
C. off-odors
D. None
ANSWER: A

84 Which one of the following is chemical hazard?

A. Listeria monocytogenes
B. Pesticides
C. Bone fragments
D. None
ANSWER: B
85 Which one of the following sentence is incorrect about intestinal taeniasis?
A. It can be caused by ingesting undercooked pork
B. It can be caused by ingesting undercooked beef
C. Humans are intermediate hosts
D. Humans are definitive hosts
ANSWER: C

86 Which one of the following biological hazard is most commonly encountered in refrigerated
foods?
A. E. coli O157:H7
B. Campylobacter spp
C. Clostridium botulinum
D. Listeria monocytogenes
ANSWER: D

87 Which one of the following is the lowest source of contamination for beef?
A. Hide
B. Muscle tissue
C. GIT
D. Processing environment
ANSWER: B

88 Which one of the following is spoilage organism?

A. Pseudomonas
B. Listeria monocytogenes
C. Yersinia enterocolitica
D.Campylobacter jejuni
ANSWER: A

89 Which one of the following is the causative agent of bacterial food borne intoxication?
A. Salmonella Enteritidis
B. Yersinia enterocolitica
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Listeria monocytogenes
ANSWER: C

90 Identify the incorrect statement about veterinary epidemiology and clinical medicine?
A. Restorative of an individual animal is the primary objective of clinical medicine
B. Field is the usual setting of veterinary epidemiology
C. The unit of concern for veterinary epidemiology is the general population
D. Clinical medicine is concerned about the prevention of diseases in the population
ANSWER: D

91 Except one, all are static measures of disease frequency?

A. Proportion
B. Rate
 C. Ratio
D. Odds
ANSWER: B

92 Which one of the following is incorrect about cohort study design?

A. It allows to establish cause and effect relationship
B. It is an interventional study type
C. It is suitable to study rare disease occurrence in a population
D. It is appropriate to study the incidence of a disease
ANSWER: B

93 The Agent in the epidemiological triad refers to?

A. The affected animal population
B. The disease-causing microorganism or factor
C. The physical surroundings of the animal population
D. The mode of disease transmission
ANSWER: B

94 Ecosystem facilitates the transmission of zoonotic infections from their animal hosts to man
is?
A. Anthropurgic ecosystems
B. Synanthropic ecosystems
C. Autochthonous ecosystems
D. Biocenosis
ANSWER: B

95 A complete list of individuals is referred to as?

a. Sampling unit
b. Sampling fraction
c. Sampling frame
d. Study population
ANSWER: C

96 Which one of the following is true about sampling?

A. Cluster sampling provides more precise estimate when compared to random
sampling
B. Sampling frame is required for non-probability sampling approaches
C. Non-probability sampling guarantees the random inclusion of sampling units
D. Probability sampling guarantees the random inclusion of sampling units
ANSWER: D

97 Which of the following is not a typical role of an animal health extension worker?
A. Providing training on animal husbandry practices
B. Administering vaccines to livestock
C. Conducting market analysis for livestock products
D. Advising farmers on disease prevention and control
 ANSWER: C

98 What is the importance of community involvement in animal health extension programs?

A. It reduces the workload of extension workers
B. It fosters a sense of ownership and sustainability
C. It increases the cost of implementing programs
D. It limits the effectiveness of interventions
ANSWER B

99 What role do Information and Communication Technologies (ICTs) play in modern animal
health extension?
A. They are not relevant to animal health extension
B. They facilitate real-time data collection and communication
C. They increase the cost of extension services
D. They replace the need for human extension workers
ANSWER: B

100 What is the significance of gender-sensitive approaches in animal health extension?

A. They prioritize the health of female animals over males
B. They ensure that extension services are accessible to all genders
C. They exclude men from participating in extension programs
D. They have no impact on the effectiveness of extension services
ANSWER: B

101 Which of the following statements about neoplasia is true?

A. It refers to abnormal growth of cells
B. It is a normal physiological process
C. It only occurs in healthy cells
D. It cannot lead to cancer
ANSWER: A
102 Which of the following is not a common treatment for neoplastic disease?
A. Chemotherapy
B. Surgery
C. Radiation therapy
D. Antibiotic therapy
ANSWER: D
103 Which of the following can cause passive congestion?
A. Heart failure
B. Infection
C. Active hyperemia
D. Inflammation
ANSWER: A
104 Which type of congestion results from a local obstruction of venous outflow?
A. Passive congestion
B. Acute congestion
C. Active hyperemia
D. Chronic congestion
ANSWER: A
105 What is the most common cause of acute pancreatitis in dogs?
A. Trauma
B. Idiopathic
C. Infection
D. Neoplasia
ANSWER: B
106 Which neoplasm is most likely to arise from the melanocytes in horses?
A. Squamous cell carcinoma
B. Fibrosarcoma
C. Malignant melanoma
D. Mast cell tumor
ANSWER: C
107 Tick control is an important practice for preventing:
A. Rabies
B. Parasitic infections
C. E.coli
D. FMD
ANSWER: B
108 What is the meaning of extension in animal health extension?
A. service that offers financial support
B. health scheme that extends to a wide range of individuals
C. Activities that extend technical knowledge to end users
D. The use of technology for diagnosing livestock diseases.
ANSWER: B
109 What is the preferred method of anesthesia for small animal surgery?
A. General anesthesia with intubation
B. Local anesthesia only
C. General anesthesia without intubation
D. Conscious sedation
ANSWER: A
110Which of the following is considered an emergency surgery in farm animals?
A. Castration
B. Dehorning
C. Rumenotomy
D. Abdominal surgery
ANSWER: C
111What do you call the surgical removal of an animal's reproductive organs?
A. Orchidectomy
B. Hysterectomy
C. Neuter
D. Spay
ANSWER: D
112 Which of the following surgeries is commonly performed on cows to prevent mastitis?
A. Dehorn
B. Castration
C. Lactation duct cannulation
D. Episiotomy
ANSWER: C
113 Which of the following surgeries is typically performed on chickens to prevent aggressive behavior?
A. Beak trimming
B. Toe amputation
C. Wing clipping
D. Comb removal
ANSWER: A
114 What types of sutures are commonly used in skin closures?
A. Absorbable monofilament
B. Non-absorbable multifilament
C. Absorbable multifilament
D. Non-absorbable monofilament
ANSWER: D
115 Which of the following test is not used in diagnosis of vesicular stomatitis?
A. ELISA
B. CFT
C. Virus Neutralization
D. Rose Bengal test
ANSWER: D
116 Which of the following organism gain access to bovine udder during milking?
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. E.coli
C. Pseudomonas
D. Klebsiella
ANSWER: A
117 Which of the following is not a sign of PPR in goats?
A. Occulo-nasal discharge
B. Diarrhea and dehydration
C. Swelling of knee joints
D. Sore mouth with swollen lips
ANSWER: C
118 Tools used to detect normal and abnormal sound of internal hollow organs is called _.
A. Digital thermometer
B. Weighbridge
C. Stethoscope
D. Pleximeter
ANSWER: C
119 Which SPP of animals of animals have costo-abdominal type of respiration?
A. Horse
B. Dog
C. Sheep
D. Cow
ANSWER: A
120 Where would you deposit the semen during AI in a cow?
A. vagina
B. cervix
C. uterine body
D. uterine horn
ANSWER: C
121 What type of placenta is present in the cow?
A. cotyledonary
B. diffuse
C. zonary
D. discoidal
ANSWER: A
122 Which of the following describes the correct parturition process?
A. cranial long, presentation, dorso-pubic position, extended posture
B. cranial long presentation, dorso-sacral position, extended posture
C. cranial long presentation, dorso-sacral position, flexed posture
D. caudal long presentation, dorso-sacral position, extended posture
ANSWER: B
123 What is the most common assisted reproduction technique used in cows?
A. multiple ovulation-embryo transfer
B. in-vitro fertilization-embryo transfer
C. Artificial insemination
D. intracytoplasmic sperm injection
ANSWER: C
124 You are ready to transfer an embryo into the recipient cow. The cow has a corpus luteum on her right
ovary. What is the best site to deposit the embryo?
A. cervix
B. uterine body
C. right uterine horn
D. left uterine horn
ANSWER: C
125 What type of uterus do pigs have?
A. Simplex
B. Duplex
C. Bicornuate with a well-developed uterine body
D. Bicornuate with a poorly developed uterine body
ANSWER: D
126 Which one of the following is not true about descriptive studies?
A. Comparisons is not possible between study groups
B. Descriptive studies are not designed to evaluate any associations
C. Making inferences to the population is possible
D. Survey is one of the descriptive study types
ANSWER: C
127 Which one of “observational” study design that surveys exposures and disease status at a single point
in time?
A. Case-Control Studies
B. Cohort Studies
C. Controlled Trials
D. Cross-sectional studies
ANSWER: D
128 Which of the following study design provides most convincing evidence of relationship between
exposure and effect?
A. Case-Control Studies
B. Cross-sectional studies
C. Clinical trials
D. Cohort Studies
ANSWER: C
129 Which one of the following is the ideal probability sampling method if sampling frame available?
A. Simple random sampling
B. Multistage sampling
C. Systematic random sampling
D. Cluster sampling
ANSWER: A
130 Which one refers to the regional extinction of an infectious agent?
A. Elimination
B. Eradication
C. Prevention
D. control
ANSWER: B
131 The viruses that live as parasites on bacteria are
A. Fungi
B. Commensals
C. Bacteriophages
D. Mutualistic
ANSWER: C
132 Which medium is used to grow Mycobacterial spp?
A. XLD medium
B. Brilliant green agar
C. MacConkey agar
D. Lowenstein Jensen medium
ANSWER: D
133 Which of the following antimicrobial drugs is synthetic?
A. Sulfanilamide
B. Penicillin
C. Actinomycin
D. Neomycin
ANSWER: A
134 Which of the following condition is not considered during prescribing drugs?
A. Body weight of animal
B. Species of animal
C. Breed of animal
D. Physiological conditions of animal
ANSWER: C
135 Which rout of drug administration is safest and easiest?
A. Po
B. IM
C. IV
D. SC
ANSWER: A
136 Which of the following processes proceeds in the second phase of biotransformation?
A. Acetylation
B. Reduction
C. Oxidation
D. Hydrolysis
ANSWER: A
137 Vitamin D3 deficiency is the most probable cause in what nutrition related condition?
A. Coccidiosis
B. Rickets
C. Bumblefoot
D. Botulism
ANSWER: B
138 Which diseases of poultry is known as fowl plague
A. New castle diseases
B. Bird flu
C. Gumbero diseases
D. Fowl pox
ANSWER: B
139 Which cell type produces antibodies?
A. Macrophages
B. T-lymphocytes
C. NK
D. Plasma cells
ANSWER: D
140 Whether or not disease occurs in an individual depends on 3 factors.
A. individual factors, spatial factors and temporal factors
B. the host, agent and environment
C. huge epidemic
D. endemic, epidemic, pandemic and sporadic
ANSWER: B
141 Which of the following statements does not apply to IgG?
A. Appears early in the primary immune response
B. Neutralizes bacterial toxins
C. Can fix complement
D. Crosses the human placenta
ANSWER: D
142 Which immunoglobulin is preferentially produced in type III hypersensitivity reactions?
A. IgA
B. IgE
C. IgG
D. IgM
ANSWER: C
143 Which of the following food-borne diseases is caused by a protozoon?
A. Typhoid fever
B. Shigellosis
C. Amebiasis
D. Cholera
ANSWER: C
144 Which one of the following is venereally transmitted trypanosome species?
A. T. equiperdum
B. T. congolense
C. T. evansi
D. T. vivax
ANSWER: A
145 Which of the following describe the infective stage of the Fasciola?
A. Encysted metacercaria on aquatic plants
B. Leptocercus cercaria
C. Adult Faciola in liver
D. Encysted metacercaria on cattle meat
ANSWER: A
146 What clinical sign would you expect in sheep heavily infected with Heamoncus contortus?
A. Diarrhea
B. Labored breathing
C. Anemia
D. Paralysis
ANSWER: C
147 Which of the following has direct life cycle?
A. Ascaris
B. Schistosoma
C. Echinococcus
D. Trypanosome
ANSWER: A
148 Which clinicopathologic finding is not compatible with ketosis in ruminants?
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Ketonemia
C. Ketonuria
D. Hypocalcemia
ANSWER: A
149 What happens to a cell during apoptosis?
A. The cell divides into two identical daughter cells
B. The cell undergoes programmed cell death and is eliminated by the immune system
C. The cell becomes cancerous and begins to grow uncontrollably
D. The cell stops growing and goes into hibernation mode
ANSWER: B
150 What is the main function of lysosomes in a cell?
A. To produce energy
B. To break down and digest cellular waste
C. To synthesize proteins
D. To help defend against bacterial infection
ANSWER: B
151 system of moral principles that apply values and judgments to the practice of veterinary medicine is
A. Veterinary Ethics
B. The Veterinarian-Client-Patient Relationship
C. Animal welfare
D. Principles of Veterinary Medical Ethics
ANSWER: A
152 Which one is incorrect about the veterinarian-client-patient relationship?
A. Dispensing /prescribing a product requires a VCPR
B. It is ethical for vets to dispense prescription products in the absence of a VCPR
C. Vets may terminate a VCPR under certain conditions
D. Clients may terminate the VCPR at any time
ANSWER: B
153 Which one is incorrect according to the animal rights view?
A. Animals have inherent value and some things should not be done to animals
B. Animal should be used as food, clothing, research subjects, or entertainment
C. Animals have certain moral rights, and those rights should be protected, no matter what.
D. Animals have the right to be treated respectfully
ANSWER: B
154 One of the following is incorrect.
A. Contractarianism asserts that people should act morally because it is in their own self-interest to do so.
B. The respect for nature view is concerned about the loss or extinction of species
C. Utilitarianism deals with the interests of those involved, which may include the animals being raised
for food production and the humans consuming those products
D. Animal law encompasses only animals used in entertainment and animals raised for food and research
ANSWER: D
155 One of the following is not Principles of Veterinary Medical Ethics (PVME)
A. Complaints about behavior that may violate the PVME should be addressed in an appropriate and
timely manner
B. Professional veterinary associations should not adopt the PVME
C. Veterinarians should conduct their professional and personal affairs in an ethical manner
D. Professional organizations may establish ethics, grievance, or peer review committees to address
ethical issues.
ANSWER: D
156 Which one is wrong?
A. In consulting veterinarian, the VCPR remains the responsibility of the attending vet
B. In an attending veterinarian, A VCPR remains the responsibility of the consulting veterinarian.
C. In the referral veterinarian, a new VCPR is established.
D. When a client seeks services from a different vet without a referral, a new VCPR is established with
the new attending vet.
ANSWER: B
157 One of the following is not an example of critical control point for pathogen in food industries.
A. Cooking
B. Time/temperature
C. Fermentation
D. Pasteurization
ANSWER: B
158 Which one is not true about mode of transmistion of brucellosis?
A. Consumption of raw milk from infected animals.
B. Consumption of dairy products from infected animals.
C. Direct contact with infected animals, aborted fetuses
D. Through bite of rabid dogs
ANSWER: D
159 A place that provides temporary housing for animals’ prior to slaughter is
A. Abattoir
B. Isolation pen
C. Lairage
D. Slaughter slabs
ANSWER: C
160 The procedures that are followed when a deviation in a critical limit occurs is
A. Establish Corrective Actions
B. Establish Monitoring Procedures
C. Determine Critical Control Point
D. Conduct Hazard Analysis
ANSWER: A
161 The removal of internal organs such as stomach, liver, spleen, intestines and lungs is called
A. Bleeding
B. Carcass splinting
C. Trimming
D. Evisceration
ANSWER: B
162 One of the following is incorrectly describe a minimum requirement of transporting food animals.
A. Avoid overcrowding by providing adequate space for each animal.
B. Provide rest during journey, at least every 24hrs for cattle.
C. The vehicle must be kept clean and disinfected
D. Inadequate bedding must be provided
ANSWER: D
163 One of the following is not objectives of ante mortem examination.
A. Make post-mortem examination more efficient, accurate and less laborious
B. Detect the risk of non-visible contamination
C. Ensure that injured animals and those with pain and suffering receive emergency slaughter.
D. Require and ensure the cleaning and disinfection of trucks used to transport vehicles.
ANSWER: B
164 The bacterial cells are at their metabolic peak during
A. Lag phase
B. Log phase
C. Stationary phase
D. Decline phase
ANSWER: B
165 The differences between Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria is in
A. Cell wall
B. Nucleus
C. Cell membrane
D. Mesosomes
ANSWER: A
166 Spore forming bacterias are killed by
A. 70% alcohol
B. Glutaraldehyde
C. Autoclaving
D. 10% formalin
ANSWER: C
167 Which of the following is not a type of β-lactam antimicrobial?
A. Penicillins
B. Getamycine
C. Cephalosporins
D. Amoxicillin
ANSWER: B
168 Which of the following resistance mechanisms describes the function of β-lactamase?
A. Efflux pump
B. Target mimicry
C. Drug inactivation
D. Target overproduction
ANSWER: C
169 Which of the following drug is used to treat both endo and ectoparasite in animal?
A. Albendazole
B. Fenbendazole
C. Ivermectin
D. Deltametrin
ANSWER: C
170 Which avian disease has no risk to be transmitted to human beings?
A. Gumbero disease
B. Avian influenza
C. Avian Tuberculosis
D. Paratyphoid
ANSWER: A
171 Broiler Poultry Farming is mainly aimed at.?
A. Eggs
B. Meat
C. Quils
D. Fat Oil
ANSWER: B
172 How many days are required to turn an egg into a chicken in poultry hatcheries?
A. 14 days
B. 21 days
C. 28 days
D. 35 days
ANSWER: B
173 You want to induce ovulation in a cow that is in estrus. Which hormone do you use?
A. Progesterone
B. Oxytocin
C. Follicle-stimulating hormone
D. Luteinizing Hormone
ANSWER: D
174 On transrectal palpation of an ovary in one of the cows, you feel a firm structure 17mm in diameter
on the ovary with a prominent projection above the surface of the ovary. What is the structure most likely
to be?
A. follicle
B. corpus hemorrhagicum
C. corpus luteum
D. corpus albicans
ANSWER: C
175 Which of the following is most likely a definitive sign of pregnancy?
A. presence of corpus luteum
B. one uterine horn is bigger than the other
C. presence of placentomes
D. cervix pressed firmly against the pelvis due to a heavy uterus
ANSWER: C
176 During a routine pregnancy check on a beef farm, you palpate a hard object (almost the size of a cat)
inside the uterus of a cow. The uterine wall feels tightly contracted over the object, and no fetal fluids can
be palpated, and one of the ovaries has a corpus luteum on it. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. pregnant
B. mummification
C. maceration
D. calcification
ANSWER: B
177 A farmer calls you about a 6-month-pregnant cow that seems to have doubled in size of her abdomen
over the last 4-5 days. On transrectal palpation, the uterus feels extremely distended with fluid, but neither
fetus nor placentomes are present. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. hydroallantois
B. hydroamnion
C. mummification
D. maceration
ANSWER: A
178 What are the two characteristic features of the second stage of parturition?
A. cervical dilation
B. uterine contractions
C. Expulsion of the placenta
D. expulsion of fetus
ANSWER: D
179 What would be the best sample if we needed to test a bull for trichomoniasis or vibrio?
A. semen
B. urine
C. preputial scraping
D. preputial lavage
ANSWER: C
180 What is the best treatment for ringwomb in ewes?
A. oxytocin
B. PGF2alpha
C. manual dilation of the cervix
D. Caesarean section
ANSWER: D
181 What treatment would you use to terminate pregnancy in a ewe at 1 month of gestation?
A. dexamethasone
B. PGF2alpha
C. GnRH
D. eCG
ANSWER: B
182 It is a venereal disease of cattle spread at the time of artificial insemination with improperly handled
and treated semen and characterized by infertility with an increased number of services per conception
A. Vibriosis
B. Anthrax
C. Brucellosis
D. Salmonellosis
ANSWER: A
183 Which one of the following is not true about causes of food spoilage?
A. Inadequate storage temperatures
B. Prolonged storage times
C. Proper ventilation
D. Cross contamination
ANSWER: C
184 Which one of the following food preservation method is important to inactivate or kill microorganism
in food?
A. Cooking
B. Cooling
C. Freezing
D. Chilling
ANSWER: A
185 Food borne intoxications can be caused by one of the following microorganisms.
A. Salmonella spp.
B. Listeria monocytogenes
C. Campylobacter jejuni
D. Staphylococcus aureus
ANSWER: D
186 Which one of the following zoonotic control is true about control of vectors and vehicles?
A. Destruction of pathogenic material
B. Control of animal populations
C. Notification of certain diseases in man and animals
D. Treatment of infected animals
ANSWER: A
187 One of the following is viral zoonoses
A. Brucellosis
B. Salmonellosis
C. Rabies
D. Tuberculosis
ANSWER: C
188 Epizootic lymphangitis is caused by:
A. Histoplasma capsulatum capsulatum
B. Histoplasma farciminosum
C. Cryptococcus neoformans
D. Sporothrix schenckii
ANSWER: B
189 What is the drug of choice for treatment of Haemorrhagic Septicaemia in cattle?
A. Streptopenicillin
B. Sulphadimidine
C. Gentamycin
D. Erythromycin
ANSWER: B
190 The urine of a cow affected with Brackern fern poisoning shows:
A. Haematuria
B. Oliguria
C. Haemoglobinuria
D. Anuria
ANSWER: A
191 One of the following is explanatory of canine brucellosis:
A. Serosanguinous vaginal discharge
B. bloody discharge in the vigina
C. Abscess mixed with serous exudate
D. Clear mucosal discharge
ANSWER: A
192 Sudden hypovolemia and death in kitten is due to:
A. Feline panleukopenia
B. Feline Leukemia
C. Feline Immunodeficiency
D. Infectious canine hepatitis
ANSWER: A
193 Western blot test is applied to:
A. Canine distemper
B. Feline immunodeficiency virus
C. Canine parvo virus
D. Feline panleukopenia
ANSWER: B
194 Presence of pus in urine is known as:
A. Anuria
B. Pyorrhoea
C. Pyuria
D. Polyuria
ANSWER: C
195 The respiration is controlled by respiratory centres present in:
A. Hypothalamus of brain
B. Medulla oblongata of brain
C. Hippocampus of brain
D. Spinal cord
ANSWER: B
196 Increased respiration rate with reduced depth of respiration is known as:
A. Eupnea
B. Dyspnea
C. Polypnea
D. Hyperpnea
ANSWER: C
197 Which of the following is the appropriate diagnostic method to examine the motility of
haemoparasites?
A. Wet film & Buffy coat technique
B. Thick & Thin smears
C. Floatation technique
D. Sedimentation technique
ANSWER: A
198 Cattles become infected with bovine cysticercosis:
A. By ingestion of insect intermediate hosts when grazing
B. By ingesting eggs from a contaminated environment with human feces
C. Transmammarily from larvae mobilized in cow somatic tissue
D. By ingesting eggs which are excreted by dogs
ANSWER: B
199 A three-host ornate tick that can transmit heartwater in ruminants and distribute mainly in Africa?
A. Hyalomma
B. Boophilus
C. Ambyloma
D. Rhipicephalus
ANSWER: C
200 A five-year-old horse presents with tail rubbing and anal pruritus. You suspect infection with the
equine pinworm, Oxyuris equi. What diagnostic test is preferred to recover the eggs of this parasite?
A. Direct smear
B. Centrifugal fecal flotation with sugar solution
C. Fecal sedimentation
D. Scotch tape test
ANSWER: D
201 Molecules and structures that can trigger a specific immune reaction?
A. Antibodies
B. Immunoglobulin
C. Antigens
D. B-lymphocytes
ANSWER: C
202 Which one of the following is the principal antibody of the circulating blood?
A. IgG
B. IgA
C. IgD
D. IgE
ANSWER: A
203 One of the following immune cells is not engaged for innate immunity?
A. Macrophages
B. Dendritic cells
C. Neutrophils
D. B cells
ANSWER: D
204 A type of hypersensitivity mediated by IgE antibodies, whose Fc region binds to receptors on mast
cells or blood basophils?
A. Type I hypersensitivity
B. Type II Hypersensitivity
C. Type III Hypersensitivity
D. Type IV Hypersensitivity
ANSWER: A
205 Which example provides artificially acquired active immunity?
A. Recovering from infection
B. Vaccines
C. Injections of anti-serums
D. Maternal antibodies
ANSWER: B

206 Taking their epidemiology into account, which diseases are the most difficult to control?
A. Soil-borne diseases
B. Vector-borne diseases
C. Contiguous diseases
D. Disease with multiple hosts
ANSWER: D
207 The most important source infectious for CBPP during outbreaks?
A. Exposure to insect vectors
B. Exposure to wild animals
C. Exposure to fomites
D. Introduction of carrier animals into the herd
ANSWER: D .
208 Which of the following is not a disease of intensification in livestock production?
A. Mastitis
B. Tuberculosis
C. Rift valley fever
D. Brucellosis
ANSWER: C
209 A tuberculosis test conducted in a large dairy farm Addis Ababa on a particular day revealed that
60% of the 250 cattle tested were positive for bovine tuberculosis. Which measure of disease frequency
does the result obtained indicate?
A. Incidence rate
B. Incidence risk
C. Prevalence
D. Odd ratio
ANSWER: C
210 Which of the following epidemiological study designs is best suited for assessing a cause - effect
relationship between an exposure and outcome?
A. prospective
B. cohort study
C. Cross sectional study
D. Retrospective study
ANSWER: C
211 A drug with half-life of 6 hours will be expected to be at steady state
A. 12 hrs
B. 24 hrs
C. 48 hrs
D.72hrs
ANSWER: B
212 A process by which of a drug is transported to the sites of action through the walls of blood vessels
is:
A. Drug distribution
B. Drug absorption
C. Drug excretion
D. Drug metabolism
ANSWER: A
213 An adverse reaction of the drug that may leads to deleterious effects on organ development is:
A. Organ toxicity
B. Mutagenicity
C. Teratogenicity
D. All of the above
ANSWER: C
214 The chemotherapy is slow, treatment must be administered for months to years; this type of drug is
called____
A. Anti-mycobacterial drugs
B. Anti-protozoal drug
C. Anticancer drug
D. Antipyretic drug
ANSWER: A
215 Micro-organisms can resist the action of antimicrobials by:
A. Influx pump of the drug
B. Antimicrobial activation
C. Increasing of drug uptake
D. Efflux pump of the drug
ANSWER: D
215 Antiviral drugs can act by:
A. Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
B. Inhibit the un-coating of viral nucleic acid
C. Cell membrane function inhibitors
D. All of the above
ANSWER: B
216 Agent used for constipation is called____
A. Laxatives
B. Diuretics
C. Emetics
D. Adsorbent
ANSWER: A
217 When the therapeutic effect of two drugs are greater than the effect of individual drugs, it is referred
to as:
A. Drug interaction
B. Drug synergism
C. Drug Antagonism
D. Drug tolerance
ANSWER: B
218 Drugs used to reduces elevated temperature are referred to as:
A. Analgesics
B. Antipyretic
C. Anti-inflammatory
D. Antibiotics
ANSWER: B
219 The best antidote for organophosphate poisonings is:
A. Atropine
B. Propranolol
C. Prazosin
D. Carbachol
ANSWER: A
220 A series of doses that may be given at the onset of therapy with the aim of achieving the target
concentration rapidly is:
A. Maintenance dose
B. Loading dose
C. Steady state
D. concentration
ANSWER: B
221 An activity implemented during the high-risk periods of infectious disease in the absence of clinical
illness as preventative treatment is called____
A. Vaccination
B. Prophylaxis
C. Treatment
D. Deworming
ANSWER: B
222 One of the following is function of reproductive hormones in livestock
A. Regulatory and homeostasis functions
B. Estrus Synchronization
C. Ovulation induction
D. All of the above
ANSWER: D
223 _____is a factor that contribute to the longer the gestation period.
A. Being male
B. Being bull calves
C. Being larger animals
D.‘B’ and ‘C’
ANSWER: C
224 ________ is the period of time during which an infant animal physically develops inside the mother’s
body until it is born.
A. Gestation
B. Parturition
C. Puberty
D. Estrous cycle
ANSWER: A
225 Which of the following pathologies are differentiated from pregnancy by their characteristic feature,
bilateral enlargement of both uterine horns?
A. Pyometra and hydrometra
B. Endometriosis and fibroids
C. Ovarian cysts and pelvic inflammatory disease
D. None of the above is answers
ANSWER: A
226 Which of the following are the three parameters used to evaluate semen analysis in animals?
A. Volume, color, and consistency
B. Motility, morphology, and concentration
C. pH, fructose level, and sperm count
D. None of the above
ANSWER: B
227 Which of the following is considered to be the normal presentation, position, and posture for bovine
parturition?
A. Presentation: anterior; Position: dorsosacral; Posture: extended limbs
B. Presentation: posterior; Position: ventrosacral; Posture: flexed limbs
C. Presentation: anterior; Position: ventral; Posture: flexed limbs
D. Presentation: posterior; Position: dorsosacral; Posture: extended limbs
ANSWER: A
228 It is characterized by great increase in fetal volume caused by excess of fluid in the subcutanous
tissues particularly the head and hind limbs.
A. Hydramnios
B. Hydrocephalus
C. Fetal Anasarca
D. Fetal ascites
ANSWER: C
229 Which one of the following diseases causes reproductive loose in human and animals
A. Rabies
B. anthrax
C. brucellosis
D. tuberclosis
ANSWER: C
230 Dog is definitive host for following tape worm
A. taeniea multiceps
B. echnococcus granulosus
C. diphylidium caninu
D. Taenia saginata
ANSWER: B
231 One of the following zoonotic infections has bioterrorism potential
A. Rabies
B. Anthrax
C. Bovine spongy form encephalopathy (BSE)
D. Taenia saginata
ANSWER: B
232 Which one of the following tests used to know proper pasteurization of milk
A. Phosphatase test
B. Specific gravity test
C. Boiling point test
D. Alcohol test
ANSWER: A
233 All are conducted in lairage except
A. Antemortum inspection
B. stunning
C. feeding
D. resting
ANSWER: B
234 Which one of the following is true procedure of slaughtering at export abattoir?
A. Lairage → Stunning → Bleeding →Dressing → Evisceration
B. Lairage → Stunning → Bleeding → Evisceration → Dressing
C. Dressing → Stunning→ Dressing →Bleeding → Evisceration
D. Bleeding → Stunning → Dressing → Evisceration→ Stunning
ANSWER: B
235 Which one of the following is a protozoal zoonotic disease transmitted by cat feces?
A. Toxoplasmosis
B. salmonellosis
C. trichinellosis
D. cysticercosis
ANSWER: A
236 Taenia solium develops in the definitive host after ingestion of
A. Cysticercoid larva
B. Cysticercus bovis
C. Cysticercus cellulosae
D. Taenia egg
ANSWER: C
237 Which of the following clinical and postmortem finding does not describe anthrax?
A. presence of rigor mortice
B. enlarged and pulpy spleen
C. bloody discharges from nose,mouth, anus
D. the oozed blood does not clot
ANSWER: A
238 ______ is the science concerned with the distinction between right and wrong
A. Morality
B. Ethics
C. welfare
D. Behaviour
ANSWER: A
239 Which of the following are not parts of animal freedom
A. Freedom from discomfort
B. Freedom from hunger and thirst
C. Freedom to express normal behaviour
D. none
ANSWER: D
240 Of the following alternative which one is the core principle of veterinary ethics
A. Conserve livestock resource
B. Render service to the society
C. Professional Relationship
D. all
ANSWER: D
241 As ethical profession a veterinarian should not be involved in____
A. Communicate and co-operate with each other
B. Illegal commence
C. Respect their colleague
D. Protection of the environment
ANSWER: B
242 Which of the following is not true about extension education?
A. Extension work starts with practical
B. Teaching is mainly vertical
C. Farmers study problems
D. all
ANSWER: D
243 What are the main constraints to scale up agricultural extension work with women’s?
A. Due to social reasons in some conservative areas
B. presence of few female extension workers
C. Fear of authority and shyness
D. all
ANSWER: D
244 As a field animal health worker you have a plan to eradicate PPR (pest des petites ruminant) by
vaccination campaign, so which extension method not effectively apply to conduct your work?
A. Group meeting with community using local leaders
B. Motivational Tours
C. Prepare brusher about the importance of vaccination and spreads in to the community
D. Give appropriate information by using community radio
ANSWER: B
245 From the following alternatives which one is the universal challenge with pastoral community?
A. Poverty and food insecurity
B. Climatic change and drought
C. Escalation of desertification and land degradation
D. all
ANSWER: D
246 From the following alternative which one is not parts of key strategies of the pastoralists
A. Mobility
B. Livestock adaptation
C. Diversification of livestock species and breeds
D. none
ANSWER: D
247 All of the followings comprises the most common cause of pulmonary edema’s in pets that are non-
cardiogenic cause’s, except one.
A. Cancer of the lungst
B. Acute respiratory distress syndrome
C. Seizures
D. Dilated cardiomyopathy
ANSWER: C
248 Which one of the followings is true about Rabies disease in Pets?
A. Cranial nerve deficits are one of the first signs in Dogs with dumb form Following paralysis
B. death occurs within 2-4 days that results from respiratory arrest
C. There is Hyper excitability in response to auditory and visual stimuli in Dogs with furious forms
D. All of the above
ANSWER: D
249 A 3 Years old male dog is presented to your veterinary clinic complained with history of painful
urination and scant urine production. Upon physical examination through the palpation of the abdomen,
enlarged urinary bladder is noted. In this case, which one of the following is the most suspected diagnosis
for a 3 years old dog?
A. Urinary tract obstruction
B. Gastric Dilatation and Volvulus
C. Pyloric obstruction
D. intestinal obstruction
ANSWER: A
250 Which one of the following is the most common congenital heart defects in dogs, but rare in cats.
A. Patent ductus arteriosus
B. Constrictive pericardial disease
C. Aortic stenosis
D. Atrial septal defect
ANSWER: A
251 A localized infection or inflammatory process within the uterine portion of the oviduct is called_____
A. Metritis
B. Uterine Inertia
C. EndometritisD. Cystic Endometrial
D. Hyperplasia
ANSWER: A
252 Among the following scientists, which was the first scientist who postulated the germ theory of
diseases and Developed many microbial techniques to isolate pure colonies?
A. Robert Koch
B. Louis Pasteur
C. Joseph Lister
D. Lazzaro Spallanzani
ANSWER: A
253 Which one of the following statements is false about microorganisms?
A. Microbes are unicellularor cell-cluster microscopic organisms
B. Microorganisms Have no any importance
C. Microbes keep the biosphererby carrying out essential functions
D. Microorganisms have disrupted society over the millennia
ANSWER: B
254 All of the followings are the components of cell wall of Gram-positive bacteria except one
A. Thick Peptidoglycan
B. Lipoteichoic acids linkages
C. Ionic polymers
D. lipopolysaccharide
ANSWER: D
255 Among the following, which one is incorrect concerning growth and metabolism in bacteria when
there are inoculated in to a suitable medium and incubated under appropriate conditions?
A. Bacterial cells selectively take up nutrients
B. Some species reached maximum population within 24 hr
C. They have a growth phases sequentially Lag, Stationary, exponential and decline phase.
D. None of the above
ANSWER: C
256 A type of genetic variation in the microbes, which is occurred when sequences of microbial genetic
material called DNA or RNA, from two separate sources are integrated, is called_______
A. Recombination
B. Conjugation
C. Transduction
D. Transformation
ANSWER: A
257 Among the followings one is not distinctive features of RNA viruses
A. Positive sense RNA viruses have a base sequence, identical to that of viral mRNA
B. Negative sense RNA viruses have a base sequences complementary to viral mRNA
C. The RNA base sequence that is identical to that of viral mRNA is called the minus strand.
D. The RNA viral genome varies in size and the Largest in the family of Coronaviridae
ANSWER: C
258 An important information that obtained from the patient animal through asking question the animal
owner’s is known as:-
A. Clinical examination
B. History
C. Diagnosis
D. Patient data taking
ANSWER: B
259 From the following methods, one is not used for Equines restraining
A. Two Rope Casting
B. The Lip twitches
C. Halter
D. None
ANSWER: D
260 From the following disease conditions of cattle, one cannot match in correctly?
A. Infectious keratoconjuctivitis→Reddening of the mucus membrane of eye
B. Rinderpest→ Erosion lesion on mouth mucus
C. Trypanosomiasis→ Jaundice
D. Myocarditis→Bluish discoloration of visible mucous membranes
ANSWER: C
261 Abnormal distended shaped abdomen in large ruminants may be by caused by the following
condition except:
A. Abomasal displacement
B. Tempany
C. Urine retention
D. Pyelonephritis
ANSWER: D
262 Of the following disease condition one cannot match correctly
A. Brucellosis→Carpal hygroma
B. Africa horse sickness →Swelling of supra orbital fossa
C. New castle disease →Torticollis
D. Hypocalcaemia in sheep→Dog like sitting
ANSWER: A

263 Which of the following are causes of alopecia?

A. Demodicosis
B. Hypothyroidism
C. Pruritus
D. All
ANSWER: D
264 What respiratory lung sounds is produced when there is no air beneath the area of percussion:
A. Ringing sounds
B. Tympanic sounds
C. Cracked pot sounds
D. Dull sounds
ANSWER: D
265 Which of the following is not true about infectious bovine rhinotrachities?
A. Caused by bovine herpes virus -2
B. Cattle of all ages are affected
C. Manifested as disease of upper respiratory tract and the reproductive tract.
D. None
ANSWER: A
266 Which of the following is not true about malignant catterhal fever?
A. Acute, fatal disease of cattle
B. Caused by bovine herpes virus -1
C. Carrier animals are used as source of infection
D. It has seasonal occurrence and transmitted by insects
ANSWER: B
267 Which of the following is not true about Foot and mouth disease?
A. Potential for rapid and extensive spread within and between countries
B. Serotype A, O, C, SAT-1, SAT-2 and SAT-3 are currently recognized in Ethiopia.
C. There is no cross-immunity between serotypes
D. Direct contact is the most common mechanism of spread of FMD
ANSWER: B
268 All of the following are true about Rabies except
A. Invariably fatal once the clinical signs develop.
B. Globally dog is the definite host
C. Caused by enveloped Single ssRNA genome viruses belonging to Aphthovirus
D. The virus is predominantly transmitted by infected saliva through bite or scratch
ANSWER: C
269 One of the following animals is thought to be the natural reservoir host for African Horse Sickness in
most regions of Africa
A. Camels
B. Zebra
C. Horse
D. Mule
ANSWER: B
270 Which of the following disease of pigs is characterized by sudden and unexpected deaths, febrile
episodes, painful joints, and diamond skin (rhomboid urticaria) lesions in acute outbreaks?
A. African swine fever
B. Classical swine fever
C. Swine Erysipelas
D. Dermatophilosis
ANSWER: C
271 Which of the following is not true about epidemiology of septicemic pasteurellosis of cattle?
A. It causes heavy death losses, particularly in low-lying areas
B. The most susceptible age group is 6 months to 2 years of age
C. There is difference in susceptibility between breeds.
D. Outbreaks of the disease are often associated with wet humid weather during the rainy season.
ANSWER: C
272 Which of the following is not secondary lymphoid organ of immune system?
A. Spleen
B. Lymph nodes
C. Tonsils
D. Thymus
ANSWER: D
273 Which of the following cells generally are the first to arrive at a site of infection, tissue damage?
A. Monocytes
B. Neutrophils
C. Macrophages
D. Eosinophil
ANSWER: B
274 A stimulus that produces a humoral or cell-mediated immune response is:-
A. Immunogen
B. Antibody
C. Antigen
D. Epitope
ANSWER: A
275 MHC-Class I loci code for MHC molecules found on the surface of the:
A. Dendritic cells
B. Macrophages
C. Nucleated cells
D. B-cells
ANSWER: C
276 Which of the following vaccine is not considered as live vaccine?
A. Oral Polio Vaccine
B. PPR vaccine
C. Rinder pest vaccine
D. Black leg vaccine
ANSWER: D
277 A bilateral hollow created immediately ventral to the lumbar vertebrae due to the effect of gravity on
the abdominal contents is:
A. Laparotomy
B. Rumenotomy
C. Paralumbar fossa
D. The Linea Alba
ANSWER: C
278 Which of the following is not anatomical part of hernia?
A. Hernial Ring
B. Muscle
C. Hernial Sac
D. Contents
ANSWER:B
279 All of the following are indications for rumenotomy, except;
A. Foreign body in the reticulum
B. Blocking the reticulo-omasal orifice
C. Grain overload
D. Enterectomy
ANSWER: D
280 Common method of producing local anesthesia for suturing wounds and removing cutaneous lesions
is:
A. Surface (topical) anesthesia
B. Regional anesthesia
C. Infiltration anesthesia
D. Intravenous regional local anesthesia
ANSWER: C
281 One of the following is not goal of pre anesthetic medication?
A. Relief of anxiety & apprehension preoperatively & facilitate smooth induction
B. Amnesia for pre- & post-operative events
C. Antiemetic effect extending to post-operative period
D. None of the above
ANSWER: D
282 Which of the shock result from inadequate intravascular circulatory volume commonly resulting from
hemorrhage, fluid loss in excess of intake, or third spacing of body fluids?
A. Hypovolemic
B. Cardiogenic
C. Septic
D. Vasogenic shock
ANSWER: A
183 A standard aseptic technique aims to reduce the number of organisms and prevents their spread by
use of standard principles of infection prevention is called__________________ A.
Sterilization
B. Medical asepsis
C. Disinfection
D. Surgical asepsis
ANSWER: B
284 All are true about Sialagogues, except
A. They increase the volume of saliva
B. They increase the digestibility of food
C. They decrease the appetite for food
D. They stimulate taste buds.
ANSWER: C
285 Which one of the following statement indicates source of infection of Fowl typhoid?
A. Cohabitation
B. Farm visitors
C. Reactors and carriers
D. All of the above
ANSWER: D
286 -----------is an acute, highly contagious and immunosuppressive viral disease of young chickens and
mainly destroys actively differentiating IG-M bearing B-cells in bursa of fabricious.
A. New castle disease
B. Marek’s disease
C. Avian tuberculosis
D. Gumburo disease
ANSWER: D
287 ___________ is practice designed to prevent the spread of disease in the commercial poultry farm.
A. Culling
B. Biosecurity
C. Critical Control
D. None of the above
ANSWER: B
188 _____is applying indigenous knowledge for disease prevention and control in poultry farm
A. Vaccination
B. Prophylaxis Fumigation
C. Disinfection with magnesium permanganate
D. Fumigation
ANSWER: D

289 Of the following, which one is not component of biosecurity plan in certain commercial chicken
farm?
A. Physical security
B. Personnel reliability
C. Information security
D. None of the above
ANSWER: D
290 During diagnosis of pathological condition by X-ray the tissue that white radiological image is
A. air filled cavity that is transparent to ray
B. fat and other tissue less ray
C. bone that absorbs high amount of ray
D. a tissue that scatters and absorb ray
ANSWER: C
291 Which of the following are the characteristics of the ideal anaesthetics agent?
A. potent enough permit adequate oxygen supply in mixture
B. compatible with the preanesthetic and easy to be neutralized
C. produces a rapid and short induction
D. irreversible and has effective biotransformation
ANSWER: D
292 A 12 kg dog is assessed to be 7% dehydrated and has been vomiting. What is total deficit
replacement volume of fluid that should be given within 24 hours?
A. 672 ml
B. 430 ml
C. 1102 ml
D. 2016 ml
ANSWER: C
293 Of the following suture pattern, which one is used for suturing circular opening of hollow organs by
tying entire circumstances?
A. purse -string suture
B. Parker-kerr
C. cushing and connel
D. Lambert
ANSWER: A
294 Handling of surgical environment and equipments free of microbes and contaminating agents by
using concentrated chemicals is?
A. Disinfection
B. Asepsis
C. Antisepsis
D. Sterilization
ANSWER: A
295 Which of the following is advantages of absorbable suture material over non-absorbable?
A. Capillarity
B. Ability to potentiate infection
C. High degree of tissue reaction
D. Susceptable to degradation
ANSWER: D
296 A loop of suture used for securing of blood vessel to control hemorrhage by passing in to the middle
and then around entire the vessels is?
A. surgons knot
B. trans fixture ligation
C. Granns knot
D. Square knot
ANSWER: B
297 A young entrepreneur man living in Batu town reported active chicken case with a history of bloody
diarrhoea of 20 chickens along with mortality of 8 chickens from the same farm. According to the owner,
the chickens were 12 weeks old and reared in deep litter system with wood shavings and sawdust as litter
materials. The owner complaint that there was a history of continuous rain for a week which made
unmanageable to make the litter clean and dry and subsequently the chickens showed the clinical signs as
presence of blood tint in faeces, decreased feed intake and depression. Clinical signs revealed bloody
diarrhea which was observed in feeder and litter materials and the birds appeared as emaciated,
dehydrated, inappetance and dull. Post mortem examination of the dead birds showed the presence of
clotted blood engorged in the caecal region of intestine. Based on the history, clinical signs and post-
mortem examination listed above, what is the tentative diagnosis of the presented case?
A. Theileriosis
B. Babesiosis
C. Coccidiosis
D. Marek’s disease
ANSWER: C
298 Temperature range used for autoclaving is....
A. 100°C for 10 min
B. 100°C for 30 min
C. 121°C for 15 min
D. 121°C for 30 min
ANSWER: C
299 ________ is the period of time during which an infant animal physically develops inside the mothers
body until it is born.
A. Gestation
B. Parturition
C. Puberty
D. Estrous cycle
ANSWER: A
300 Which one of the following tick species is potential vector for the transmission of heart water?
A. Rhipicephalus sanguines
B. Ambyloma variegatum
C. Rhipecephalus appendiculatus
D. Hyaloma dromederi
ANSWER: B
301 Of the following parasites, which one is absolutely depend on the parasitic way of life?
A. Facultative parasite
B. Obligate parasite
C. Temporary parasite
D. Paratenic parasite
ANSWER: B
302 Which one of the following zoonotic pseudophylidean cestode is serious challenge to raw fish
consuming community and fish industry?
A. Hymenolepis nana
B. Raillietina echinobothrida
C. Diphyllobothrium latum
D. All of the above
ANSWER: C
303 Which one of the following parasite species of male holds the female in the shape of ‘Y’ in non-
aquatic birds?
A. Hymenolepis nana
B. Schistosoma gallinarium
C. Oesophagostomum gallinarium
D. Syngamus trachea
ANSWER: D
304 Which one of the following is true about ideal anthelmintic?
A. Anthelmintic should persist very long period in the body of host as being effective
B. It should be effective against only larval stage of a particular species of parasite
C. It should be cost-effective and easily administered
D. None of the above
ANSWER: C