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Comprehensive Examination On Photography (Faaic Class)

This document contains a comprehensive examination on photography for a forensic photography class. It includes 10 multiple choice questions testing various photography concepts and techniques important for crime scene photography such as equipment needed, camera angles, lens types, and details that must be photographed for different types of crime scenes like bombings, hangings, and robberies. The questions cover topics like overview photos, mid-range shots, close-ups, proper lighting and framing, and documenting original positions of bodies or evidence.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
163 views14 pages

Comprehensive Examination On Photography (Faaic Class)

This document contains a comprehensive examination on photography for a forensic photography class. It includes 10 multiple choice questions testing various photography concepts and techniques important for crime scene photography such as equipment needed, camera angles, lens types, and details that must be photographed for different types of crime scenes like bombings, hangings, and robberies. The questions cover topics like overview photos, mid-range shots, close-ups, proper lighting and framing, and documenting original positions of bodies or evidence.

Uploaded by

Just Sanchez
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as DOCX, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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COMPREHENSIVE EXAMINATION ON PHOTOGRAPHY

(FAAIC CLASS)
ASST. PROF. JEZREEL B. VICENTE, Ph. D

1. In forensic photography, what is needed to produce photograph?SUBJECT

2. Photograph of the crime scene is necessary to preserve the following,


except.TIME

3. In forensic photography, the following guidelines must be followed, except


_____.
*Do not disturb the scene
*Get a complete set of pictures
*Pay attention to camera angles
*Record all data

4. This kind of photograph should cover the entire scene to bring out the
relationships between the objects.OVERVIEW

5. What photograph is produces using 50mm lens that shows and important
object and its immediate surroundings?MID RANGE
6. How about the photograph that shows a key detail clearly of the subject in
order to emphasize identity and details?CLOSE UP

7. A crime scene photographer has command of the art of photography. Thus,


alll pictures must have the following, except _____.
Sharp
Focused
Properly exposed
Framed properly
Have proper lighting

8. The following are best used in crime scene photography, except _____.
Hanging
Drowning
Bombing
Robbery
Rape

9. In hanging incidents, the following should be observed, except _____.


Original position of the body
Over all views of the body
The rope used
Length of the body to the ground
Relative position of object like chairs or stool

10. In a Bombing incident, the photographer must take photographs of the


following, except _____.
Take photos that will help determine whether the explosion is directed against
person, property or both
Nature of explosives device
Undetonated parts of the explosives
Traces of liquids explosives
Point of origin
Condition of household items

EXAM ON QUESTIONED DOCUMENT EXAMINATION


Prepared by: Dr. Jezreel Vicente

1. A document completely written and signed by one person. In a number of


jurisdictions, a holographic will can be probated without anyone having witnessed its
execution.HOLOGRAPHIC WILL

2. It is the study and analysis of handwriting to assess the writer's traits or


personality. GRAPHOLOGY

3. On the legal kinds of documents, this refers to any instrument notarized by a


notary public or competent public official with solemnities required by
law.PUBLIC DOCUMENTS

4. If the movement in writing is made by the hand and arm supported with the
elbow of the center of the lateral swing, it is described as:ARMS MOVEMENT

5. The term that refers the situation when a person is able to use the right and the
left hand with equal skills in writing. AMBIDEXTROUS

6. An oversized capital letter used to start a paragraph.DROP CAP


7. Refers to characters that combine or connect. For instance, letter A combines
with E, following (ff); street (st.)LIGATURE

8. Refers to the portion of the letter that rises above the waistline showing the
height of an ascending letter.ASCENDER LINE

9. Refers to the writing line that the body of the letter sits upon.
Waistline
Baseline
X-height
Capline

10. It’s the line just below the ascender line. DESCENDER LINE

11. Refers to the height of the letter between the baseline and the waistline. It also
refers to the height of the lowercase letters except long letters. X HIEGHT

12. This refers to the horizontal stroke to complete letters t, and H. CROSS BAR

13. This refers to the "t" crossing and dots of the letter "i" & "j". An element
added to complete certain letters. It could also be a mark above or below a
printed letter that indicates a change in the way it is to be pronounced or
stressed. It includes the cute and grave accents, tilde(~), and cedillas (ç an
ş).DIACRITICS

14. In handwriting analysis, this refers to the skillfully made handwritings.


CALLIGRAPHY

15. The side out portion of the top curve of letters m, n, h is called
_____.SHOULDER

16. It is a minute curve or a ankle which often occurs at the beginning or ending
of strokes. The terminal curves of the letters "a", "d", "n", "m", "p", "u", is the
hook. HOOK

17. A loop made as a flourish which is added to the letters, as in small letters "k, b
& p or in capital letters "A", "K.” BUCKLE KNOT

18. The act of going back over a defective portion of a written stroke. PATCHING
19. A writing weakness portrayed by irregular shaky strokes that is found in
handwriting of a person.TREMOR

20. The harmonious appearance of characters, concerning its general style and
appearance. Such style or design of letters if found to be consistently used, there
is rhythm in writing.RHYTHM

21. The classifications of individual characteristics that can be found always in


handwriting of a person. CLASS

22. This refers to writings of a person written in the course of daily life such as
signatures in legal documents, signatures on canceled checks, handwritings in
school notebooks, formal letters, commercial/ official/ public and private
document and other handwritings.
Collected or procured standards
Requested or dictated standards
Exemplar
Standards

23. A signature that is done by writing the full name which is readable. Others
make use of this kind to acknowledge important documents, regardless of its
design or kind.FORMAL

24. The act of erasing or obscuring some entries in a document leaving no trace.
OBFUSCATION/OBFUSCATE

The presence of twisted letters, horizontal and vertical mal-alignment, which


can be corrected by special adjustments to the type bar.ALIGNMENT
DEFFECT

25. The condition of a typeface or letter heavier on one side or corner than the
remainder of its outline.OFF ITS FEET

EXAM ON HAZMAT

1. Level of Chemical Protective Clothing used for unknown substance.


a. Level A Haz Mat Suit
b. Level B Haz Mat Suit
c. Level C Haz Mat Suit
d. Level D Haz Mat Suit

2. A primarily guide to aid first responders in quickly identifying the specific or


generic hazards of the materials involved in the incident.

a. National Fire Protection Association b. National Institute for Occupational


Safety and Health c. Occupational Safety and Health Administration
d. Emergency Response Guidebook

3. It provides highest form of respiratory protection.

a. APR b. PAPR c. SCBA d. All of the above

4. The lowest temperature at which a volatile liquid can gives off sufficient vapor
concentration to form an ignitable mixture in air near the surface of the liquid.

a. Fire Point b. Flash Point c. Autoignition Temperature d. Boiling Point

5. It is implemented to improve worker understanding of labels and


classifications of chemicals.

a. Chemical Abstract Service b. Standard Transportation Commodity Code


c. Material Safety Data Sheet d. Globally Harmonized System

6. This is the contamination control or reduction zone.

a. Hot zone b. Green zone c. Yellow zone d. Support zone

7. Defines the radius of a zone surrounding the spill in all directions.

a. Initial Isolation zone b. Initial Isolation Distance


c. Protective Action zone d. Protective Action Distance

8. Category in which responders are only given ideas to recognize the presence
of hazardous materials in an incident.

a. Operational level b. Specialist level


c. Technician Level d. Awareness Level
9. This principle of decontamination includes absorption, adsorption, and dilution
which it to remove contaminant without changing the degree of hazard of the
material.

a. Dry decontamination b. Wet decontamination


c. Physical Decontamination d. Chemical decontamination

10. As a first responder, which of the following must be observed during the
occurrence of a hazardous materials incident?

a. Recognition, Identification, Protection, Evacuation


b. Recognition, Isolation, Protection, Evacuation
c. Recognition, Isolation, Protection, Notification
d. Recognition, Isolation, Protection, Decontamination

11. It is defined as an area surrounding the incident in which persons may be


exposed to dangerous and life-threatening concentration of material.

a. Initial isolation zone b. Protective action zone


c. Cold zone d. Warm zone

12. This is the area where treatment occurs prior transporting the patient to the
hospital.

a. Cold zone b. Warm zone c. Hot zone d. Decontamination zone

13. Refers to the technical process to remove and neutralize contaminant.

a. Permeation b. Degradation c. Penetration d. Decontamination

14. One of the basic clues to recognition mostly handled by the authorized
personnel during transportation.

a. Placards and labels


b. Markings and colors
c. Shipping papers
d. Transportation containers

15. The Protective Distance tab suggest distances useful to protect people from
vapors/gases resulting from spills except:

a. Other regulated Material b. Chemical Warfare agents

c. Toxic Inhalation Hazard materials d. Water Reactive Material


FORENSIC CHEMISTRY

1. A viscid, gelatinous fluid which is composed of seminal fluid and


spermatozoa –

a. Cowpergland

b. Epididymis
c. Semen
d. Seminal Vesicle
2. Biological evidence member for DNA testing is –
a. Blood and blood stains
b. Semen and seminal stains
c. Saliva and buccal swabs
d. Hair with follicle and roots
e. All of the above

3. After undergoing the diphenylamine test, the suspect was positively


identified as the real perpetrator who fired the gun. What was the result of
the test?
a. Deep-blue specks
b. Greenish-brown specks
c. Deep purple specks
d. Deep-blue specks with tailings

4. Bite mark comparison is aa job of –


a. Forensic pathologist
b. Forensic chemist
c. Forensic anthropologist
d. Forensic odontologist
5. Which of the following can be used to test for gunshot residue?
a. Phenciphthalein Test
b. Modified Griess Test
c. Iodine-Starch Test
d. Teichmann-Haemin Test

6. Which of the following is not a method of collection for semen samples?


a. Masturbation or self production
b. Aspiration from vaginal vault
c. Coitus interruptus
d. Condom collection with spermicide
7. Which of the following is the gold standard test for confirmatory drug
testing?
a. Gas chromatography-Mass Spectrometry
b. Thin Layer Spectrometry
c. Thin Layer Chromatography
d. Gas Spectrophotometry Chromatograhy

8. In the crime scene, spherical blood stains where seen on the floor. What
type of blood pattern is this?
a. Projected
b. Combination
c. Transfer
d. Passive

9. How many percent of alcohol is needed to be considered intoxicated ad


can be convicted as driving under the influence?
a. 0.05%
b. 0.15%
c. 1.05%
d. 0.50%
10. Which of the following is the test to determine whether blood is present
in a mixture or compound?
a. Kastle Meyer Test
b. Benzidine Test
c. Luminol Test
d. Precipitin Test

11. Which of the following is said to be the best test to determine the
presence of blood because of its sensitivity?
a. Kastle-Meyer Test
b. Benzidine Test
c. Hemastix
d. Taxayaman Test

12. What color is exhibited by seminal stains under UV light examination?


a. Bright whitish-grey fluorescence
b. Bright bluish-yellow fluorescence
c. Bright bluish fluorescence
d. Bright yellow-green fluorescence

13. This test is of value in the determination whether the blood is of human
origin or not although the blood of the anthropoid ape and other related
animals may give the same result.
a. Takayama’s Test
b. Schombein’s Test
c. Precipitin Test
d. Phenciphthalein Test

14. An ill effect of dangerous drugs wherein there is craving or compulsion


for a continuous usage of a drug to maintain a sense of well being
a. Physiological dependence
b. Psychological dependence
c. Tolerance
d. Synergy
15. A child playing in the garden run to her mother when she felt irritations
in her eyes, nose and throat. As she was getting her car keys, the mother
saw a frog jumping towards the bushes. What could have the irritations of
the child?
a. Arsenic
b. Venum
c. Bufotoxin
d. Mycotoxin

FORENSIC MEDICINE

1. It is the rise of temperature of the body due to rapid and early


putrefactive changes or some internal changes
a. Post-mortem suggilation
b. Post-mortem caloricity
c. Thermal agitation
d. Dolor

2. Special type of wound wherein wound is because of instinctive reaction


of self-preservation
a. Patterned wound
b. Castrated wound
c. Defense wound
d. Self-inflicted wound

3. The bacteria which has the major responsibility in the decomposition of


the cadaver –
a. Clostridium bacilli
b. Clostridium coil
c. Basillus welchi
d. Clostridium perfringens

4. There is disturbance in the place of death is a characteristic of what kind


of gunshot wound?
a. Suicidal
b. Accidental
c. Homicidal
d. None of the above

5. It is the condition of the body after death caused by the breaking of the
complex proteins into simpler components
a. Decomposition
b. Adipocere
c. Putrefaction
d. Maceration

6. A witness stated that he saw the suspect running from the crime scene
during clear starlight and he was sure about his identity. His statement may
be deemed admissible in court if one of the following circumstances is true
a. The witness was less than 25 yards from the crime scene
b. The witness was less than 100 yards from the crime scene
c. The witness was less than 10-13 yards from the crime scene
d. The witness was less than 16-17 yards from the crime scene

7. An open wound produced by a sharp-pointed instrument and is


characterized by a small opening of the wound
a. Shrapnel wound
b. Punctured wound
c. Gunshot wound
d. Stab wound

8. The greater the number of points of similarities and dissimilarities of two


persons compared, the greater the probability for the conclusion to be
correct is found in the –
a. Law of super imposition
b. Law of multiplicity of evidence in identification
c. Identification by comparison and exclusion
d. All of the above

9. It is the means sanctioned by law, of ascertaining in a judicial


proceeding that truth respecting a matter of fact wherein scientific medical
knowledge is necessary
a. Medical evidence
b. Real evidence
c. Testimonial evidence
d. Experimental evidence

10. A victim had burns on the front and back of his upper and lower torso,
and the whole of his two arms. What is the total percentage of the burnt
area of the victim?
a. 72%
b. 54%
c. 63%
d. 45%

11. In post-mortem rigidity, which of the following parts of the body may
show the earliest stiffening?
a.Jaw
b. Legs
c. Arms
d. Torso

12. Which of the following types of injuries is manifested by an


overstretching or tearing of the tendons?
a. Sprain
b. Musculo-tear
c. Hamstring
d. Strain

13. A blunt instrument can cause the following except –


a. Incisions
b. Contusions
c. Hematoma
d. Lacerations

14. What is the chronological occurrence of the following changes


occurring in the muscles of a person after death? 1) Putrefaction; 2) Rigor
Mortis; 3) Stage of Primary Flaccidity; and 4) Stage of Secondary Flaccidity
a. 3, 4, 1, 2
b. 3, 2, 4, 1
c. 3, 4, 2, 1
d. 3, 2, 1, 4

15. Comprehensive study of dead body without, performed by a trained


physician, to determine the cause of death
a. Dissection
b. Autopsy
C. Physicians
d. Post-mortem examination

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