CDI Board Exam Trial Ratio

Prepared by: Prof. Sharra Mei Mahinay, 8th Placer, December 2021 CLE

CI AND INTELLIGENCE 6. One of the stages of criminal investigation is

1. It deals with the identity, location and arrest the identification of criminals, which can be
of a person who commits a crime and done in any or a combination of the following,
simultaneously identify, collect, preserve and except:
evaluate evidence for the purpose of bringing a. By confession or admission by the criminal
criminal offender to justice. b. By corpus delicti
a. Investigation c. Investigative c. By circumstantial evidence
process d. By eyewitness
b. Criminal investigation d. Criminal
inquest 7. Coerced and uncounseled statements are
considered involuntary or forced confessions
2. After identifying, collecting and preserving which are usually:
information gathered about the crime, the a. Judicial c. Prosecutorial
investigator shall_______________such b. Extra judicial d. Admission
information
to determine whether it can stand prosecution 8. After apprising him of his rights under
and trial. Republic Act 7438, Gino Aquino was invited and
a. Recognize c. Preserve interrogated for the crime of murder. He
b. Collect d. Evaluate executed an extra-judicial confession
acknowledging his guilt to the crime charged.
3. Through this tool of criminal investigation What is the effect of such confession to his
tangible things may be used to detect crimes, case?
identify the criminals, facilitate, and assist the a. It can be used as evidence against him
investigator in its task in achieving the b. He will be convicted for the crime of murder
objectives of criminal investigation. c. He waived his rights to prove his innocence
a. Information c. Instrumentation d. His case will prosper
b. Criminalistics d.
Interview/Interrogation
9. Which of the following is not an element of
4. Which phase of criminal Investigation will corpus delicti?
the investigator apprise the person of his rights
under Republic Act 7438? a. Proof of the occurrence of certain event
a. During the identification of criminal offender
b. Person's criminal responsibility for the acts
b. During the arrest, detention and
interrogation of the offender c. Additional evidence of a different
c. During the gathering of evidence to prove character to the same point
the guilt of criminal offender
d. Proper chain of custody
d. During police line-up
10. An act or declaration made in the presence
5. What specific offense has been committed? and within the hearing or observation of a party
Who committed it? When was it committed? who does or says nothing, when the act or
Where was it committed? Why was it declaration naturally calls for action if comment
committed? And how was it committed? These is not true.
are called the ___________of criminal
investigation. a. Admission by Silence c. Admission
a. Cardinal Points c. Golden Rule b. Res inter alios acta d. Negative
b. Three I's d. Bridges pregnant
burned
11. In this process, written confession of the the commission of the crime
accused is used as a script in describing events d. The lapse of time between the criminal
of the crime. This strengthens the prosecutor's event and when identification was made
case and serves to convince the judge that the
accused was not maltreated nor affected by 15. Circumstantial Evidence is evidence that
sinister psychological influence. indirectly proves a fact in issue through an
inference which fact-finder draws from the
a. Mental reconstruction c. Reconstruction
evidence presented. It is sufficient to produce
b. Crime reenactment d. Physical the conviction of the accused if:
reconstruction a. There are more than one circumstances
present
b. The facts from which the inferences derived
are proven
12. Statement no. 1. Confession is a
c. The combination of all the circumstances is
voluntary statement, either oral or written,
such as to produce a conviction beyond
made by a person charged with the commission
reasonable doubt
of a crime which he admits participation in, or
All of the above
commission of, the criminal act. It cannot be
implied. It should be direct and positive
16. Covert observation of a person, place, or
acknowledgment of guilt.
things by human or technical means to acquire
Statement no. 2 Admission is a statement by information.
the accused regarding facts pertinent to the a. Surveillance c.
crime. It tends, in connection with the proof of Mobile
other facts, to prove the suspect's guilt. It can b. Stationary surveillance d. Technical
be implied.
17. This is also called "roping", an investigation
a. Statement No. 1 is true while statement no. technique in which the operative conceals his
2 is false true identity and adopts an assumed role to
b. Statement No. 1 is false while statement no. obtain information or accomplish a specific
2 is true mission.
a. Undercover assignment
c. Statements No. 1 and 2 are both true b. Dwelling assignment
c. Work assignment and social assignment
d. Statements No. 1 and 2 are both false
d. Personal contact assignment

18. You are an investigator tasked to

13. Which of the following need not be present investigate a suspected murder case which the
in order to prove the guilt of the accused by there is no known suspect, no witnesses nor
means of confession or admission? any other circumstantial evidence, except
a. Confession must be supported by physical evidence. Where can you get these
corroborative evidence pieces of evidence that may lead you to the
b. Corpus delicti must be established identity of the suspect?
separately a. The Crime Scene c. The Suspect
c. Confession must be voluntarily and freely b. The Victim d. All of the
given above
d. Confession must be ratified by the
judge or the fiscal 19. What is the type of reasoning in which the
collected information is analyzed carefully to
14. You are an investigator of a suspected develop a theory of the crime.
rapeslaying case which was allegedly witnessed
a. Inductive c. Systematic
by a certain person who volunteered to identify
and testify against the perpetrator. What are b. Deductive d. Logical
the factors that you should not consider to
determine the accuracy of his identification of
the suspect?
20. Republic Act No. 7438 defines immediate
a. His ability to observe and remember the
members of the family are as follows, except:
distinct appearance of the suspect
a. Spouse, fiance/fiancee, parents, child,
b. The prevailing conditions of visibility and brother or sister
observation when the crime was committed
c. His state of mind when he witnessed
b. Grandparents, grandson/daughter, great 27. The notion which declares that human
granddaughter/grandson behavior tends to repeat itself, can serve as
c. Uncle, aunt, guardian, ward basis of the investigator in determining:
d. Relatives, intimate friends and best A. Criminal behavior C. Nature of the
friends
21. The interview of a witness can be described by the crime acronym IRONIC,
which stands for: B. Modus D. Criminal
a. Inquiry, Recognition, Organization, Novelty, operandi intent
Identity, Continuity upon his arrival at the scene of the crime:
b. Identity, Rapport, Omnipresent, Narration, A. Secure the crime scene C. Interview of
Inquiry, Conclusion witness
c. Identity, Recognition, Opening statement, B. Taking a picture D. Attend to emergency
Narration, Inquiry, Conclusion
d. Identity, Rapport, Opening statement, 29. You are Criminologist-Police Commissioned
Narration, Inquiry, Conclusion Officer who leads the execution of a valid
search warrant. Who must be present when a
22. Which one is not a means of recording valid search warrant is conducted on a
crime a scene? domicile?
a. By photographs c. By sketches A. The house owner
b. By notes d. Surveying B. Any member of the house owner's family
C. Two witnesses residing in the same
23. Under Republic Act 7438, when does the community
police custody of suspect to a crime commence, D. All of the above
hence the latter is entitled to be informed of his
rights under the Miranda doctrine which cannot
30. In Exclusionary Rules on Evidence,
be waived?
evidence obtained in violation of any of these is
a. At the time of custodial investigation
inadmissible, except one.
b. During the actual questioning
a. Rights against unreasonable search and
c. During the announcement that he is under
seizures
arrest
b. Right to privacy and communication and
d. At the moment that he is invited for
correspondence
questioning
c. In-custodial investigation rights and right
against self-incrimination
24. "Eavesdropping the crime scene” means:
d. Right to counsel
a. Extent the estimate of the scene
b. Search physical evidence at the scene
31. A case wherein the violation of law or
c. Playing the role of a curious spectator
ordinances has just been unearthed or
and mix with the crowd to listen to their
discovered and the suspect and witness are still
conversation
emotionally affected, upset, or shocked.
d. None of the above
a. Hot case c. In flagrante delicto
case
25. You are a police officer responding to a
b. Cold case d. Hot pursuit case
crime which there is a dying person. You will
obtain dying declaration from him. Which of the
32. This law is known as the " Rape Victim
following is not one of your duties in regard to
Assistance and protection Act of 1998”.
dying declaration?
a. RA 9745 c. RA 6539
a. Observe the victim as to whether he is
b. RA 8505 d. RA 7832
manifesting a feeling of his impending death
b. Observe carefully the mental condition of
33. Why does the dead body of the victim of
the victim and jot down immediately his
violence need to be photographed after its
statements
removal from the crime scene?
c. Attempt to save the life of the victim
a. To have a set of view showing the
d. Avoid leading questions and produce the
relationship of the body with the surrounding
statement.
b. To identify the victim and have close-
up picture of thewounds
26. This is known as the Anti-Hazing Law:
c. To provide reserve picture in case of loss or
A. RA 8049 C. RA 3553
damage
B. RA 4200 D. RA 7877
d. All of the above
28. This is the first that an investigator must do
34. The photographs to be taken at the scene
of the crime are the following, except: 41. Principles in homicide investigation that
a. Over-All and environment's photograph should be borne in mind are that mistakes of
b. Photographs of articles of evidence and the homicide investigator cannot be corrected
photographs of the deceased and the homicide investigator should not cross
c. Photographs of the scene of the crime the three bridges which he burns behind him.
operatives showing their identity Which of the following is not one of the so
d. Special technique photographs of the body called "Burned bridges”?
after removal a. When the dead person has been moved
35. Which of the following must be done to b. When the dead body has been embalmed
maintain the physical integrity of evidence? c. When the dead body has been
a. Evidence must be photographed and contaminated and the chain of custody
packaged was not properly accounted
b. Evidence must be properly documented d. When the body is burned or cremated
c. Maintain its chain of custody
d. Identify, tag and seal the evidence 42. This is considered to be the beginning of
36. Which of the following must be done to any homicide investigation.
maintain the legal integrity of evidence? a. Process of establishing the accurate
a. Evidenced must be properly documented cause of death
b. Maintain its chain of custody b. Process of determining who is responsible
c. Identify, tag and seal the evidence for the death c Process of determining how the
d. Photographed and packaged the evidence victim was killed
d. Process of determining when the victim was
37. To prove the chain of custody of evidence, killed
the following must be demonstrated, except:
a. The evidence must be free from alteration, 43. Legally, when does death considered to
contamination and switching have occurred?
b. The evidence offered is the same evidence a. Respiratory system is no longer performing
found at the scene within the body
c. There is no opportunity to replace or b. Cardiac activity is no longer performing
improperly alter the evidence within the body
d. Any change in the condition of the c. Central nervous system activity is no longer
evidence can be explained performing within the body
d. All of the above
38. In questioning a witness, the ideal type of
written statement is: 44. You were a police officer who responded in
a. Narrative type because it is easier and will a violent crime just recently occurred. How
be short would you determine signs of death?
b. Question and answer because it a. By detecting signs of breathing and
provides details of acts respiratory movement
c. Combination of the two b. By hearing heart sounds
d. Your convenient type c. By applying pressure in the fingernails of a
39. Jessie was invited by the NBI operatives to person
answer questions pertinent to the murder case d. Any of the above
being investigated. After the questioning at the
NBI Headquarters however, he was held for 45. The following are the uses of physical
further questioning and considered him a evidence, except:
suspect already. Persons who can visit him are a. Determine the cause of crime
as follow, except: b. Reconstruct the crime
a. Lovers, friends and countrymen c. Identify the participants
b. Immediate member of his family d. Confirm or discredit an alibi
c. Any medical doctor, priest or religious
minister 46. Statement no. 1-The admissibility of dying
d. Personnel of the C.H.R. declaration is not dependent on it being made
in any particular form. Statement no. 2- Dying
40. Crimes moving destruction of life except: declaration has no definite form required and
a. Mutation serious physicai injuries and rape need not be under oath.
a. Statement no. 1 is true
b. Due, abortion and nfantidde b. Statement no. 2 is false
c. Homccde and murder c. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both true
d. Parricide d. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both false
47. Which of the following is not one of the 4. A wound which resembles the shape or
acts of committing violation of domicile? object of the instrument which caused it.
a. Defense wound
A. Searching domicile without witness b. Self-inflicted wound
B. Search warrants maliciously obtained and c. Patterned wound
abuse in the service of search warrant d. Mutilated wound
C. Search of the domicile without warrant
D. Entering a dwelling against the will of the 5. Pulverization of the body into shape with
owner, searching documents, papers and the use of intense heat.
effects without the previous consent of the a. Exhumation
owner or refusing to leave having b. Cremation
surreptitiously entered a dwelling when c. Charring
required by the owner d. Pounding

48. Once the crime scene has been thoroughly 6. Prescribed depth of a grave under P.D. 856,
documented and locations of evidence was Section 19 of the Code of Sanitation.
noted, the collection process begins and will a. At least 1/2 meters deep
usually starts with: b. At least 1 meters deep
A. point of exit C. fragile evidence c. At least 1 and V meters deep
B. large objects D. removal of cadaver d. At least 2 meters deep

49. What is the final phase of crime scene 7. A person who died of a communicable
investigation? disease must be buried with:
A. preliminary survey C. a. 6 hours after death, unless the local health
documentation officer permits otherwise
of scene b. 12 hours after death, unless the health
B. collection of evidence D. release of crime officer permits extension
scene c. 24 hours after death, unless the health
officer permits extension
50. How can plaster cast and photograph be d. 48 hours after death, unless the health
marked for identification? officer permits extension
A. Affixing a seal on the front e. 48 hours after death.
B. Marking at the back
C. No mark at all 8. A significant difference between the male
D. Tagging and
female skull is that in males, the supercialiary
SCI W/ LEGAL MEDICINE (CDI2) ridges are than compared with females.
1. This states that the greater number of a. Less sharp
points of similarities and variations between b. Sharper
two persons, the greater the probability of the c. More pointed
conclusion to be accurate. d. Smoother
a. Prima Facie evidence rule
b. Conclusive evidence rule 9. Female pelvis diameter is____compared with
c. Law of multiplicity of evidence in male pelvis.
identification a. Greater
d. Chain of custody of evidence b. Equal
c. Lesser
2. Effusion of blood into the tissue underneath d. Less significant
the skin due to the rupture of blood vessels as a
result of the application of a blunt force. 10. A simple test used to determine cessation
a. Contusion of respiration by placing water or mercury in a
b. Shock container on top of the chest of a person and no
c. Hemorrhage visible movement is noticed.
d. Hematoma a. Winslov test
3. Wound produced to man-s instinctive b. Florence test
reaction of self-preservation to repel attacks or c. Barberio"s test
an aggressor. d. Castle Meyer test
a. Defense wound
b. Self-inflicted wound 11. A muscular change characterized by the
c. Patterned wound d. Mutilated wound softness of the muscles and in which it no
longer responds to mechanical or electrical c. 0.6 to 0.6 mm./day
stimulus due to the dissolution of proteins. d. 0.7 to 0.8 mm./day
a. Stage of primary flaccidity
b. Stage of secondary flaccidity 19. A break or solution in the continuity of the
c. Rigor mortis skin.
d. Livor mortis a. Wound
b. Trauma
12. Livor mortis or post mortem lividity is c. Bruise
completed in how many hours when the blood d. Scratch
has already clotted or diffused to different parts
of the body wherein the discoloration is 20. A wound which inflicted in the body which
permanent and darker in color? is so serious that it will endanger one's life.
a. 12 hours a. Non-mortal wound
c. 36 hours b. Mortal wound
b. 24 hours c. Trauma
d. 48 hours d. Coup injury

13. In blood grouping, should there be no 21. A collection of blood underneath the skin.
agglutination with either group A or B what a. Contusion
would be the particular blood group of the b. Bruise
sample? c. Petechiae
a. Group A d. Hematoma
b. Group B
c. Group AB 22. A physical injury which is found at the site
d. Group O and also the opposite site of the application of
force.
14. Period of time wherein human bones will a. Extensive injury
not exhibit changes. b. Coup injury
a. 10 years c. Contre coup injury
b. 20 years d. Coup and contre coup injury
c. 30 years
23. A physical injury found at the site of the
d. 40 years application of force.
15. It is the formation of a soft, friable and a. Extensive injury
brownish white greasy substance in the soft b. Coup injury
fatty tissue after death. c. Contre coup injury
a. Saponification d. Coup and contre coup injury
b. Rigor mortis
c. Mummification 24. A wound produced by a blunt instrument
d. Maceration such as log and stone.
16. A discoloration of the body after death a. Punctured wound
when the blood tends to pool in the blood b. Hack wound
vessels of the most dependent portions of the
body and starts 20 to 30 minutes after death c. Lacerated wound
and is completed by 12 hours. d. Incised wound
a. Rigor mortis
25. When the person was stabbed by an ice
b. Primary flaccidity pick, what wound would be exhibited?
c. Maceration a. Punctured wound
d. Livor mortis c. Lacerated wound
17. Average time for the stomach to empty its b. Hack wound
contents after meals. d. Incised wound
a. 2 to 3 hours
b. 3 to 4 hours 26. A condition of a woman who has had one
c. 4 to 5 hours or more sexual experience but not had
d. 5 to 6 hours conceived a child.
a. Moral virginity
18. Rate of growth of human hair. b. Demi-virginity
a. 0.4 to 0.5 mm./day c. Physical virginity
b. 0.5 to 0.6 mm./day d. Virgo-intacta
27. Refers to the action of bacteria to a dead becomes the cause of death. It is usually
body. common to cases involving stab wounds.
a. Flaccidity a. Proximate cause of death or secondary
b. Rigidity cause of death
c. LIvidity b. Immediate or primary cause of death
d. Putrefaction c. Cardio-respiratory arrest
d. Nocturnal death
28. A condition of exposure to cold
temperature of certain parts of the body which 35. Painful spasm of the vagina during sexual
produces mechanical disruption of cell structure act.
characterized by cold stiffening and diminished a. Dyspareunia
body temperature. b. Sexual Anesthesia
a. Gangrene c. Vaginismus
b. Frostbite d. Old Age
c. Trench foot
d. Immersion foot 36. After death, the metabolic process inside
the body ceases, heat is no longer produced
29. These are superficial punctuate contusions and the body slowly loses its temperature.
seen most frequently at the side of the neck, a. Algor mortis
overlaying or anterior to the sternomostoid b. Rigor mortis
muscle, breast and other parts of the body. c. Cadaveric spasm
a. Fetishism d. Suspended animation
b. Sadism
c. Sodomy 37. Transient loss of consciousness with
d. Love Bites temporary cassation of the vital functions of the
body.
30. Its medico-legal importance is to a. Death
approximate the time of death. b. Coma
a. Cadaveric spasm c. Suspended animation
b. Putrefaction d. Rigor mortis
c. Mascular contraction
d. Rigor mortis 38. Hair on the body surface is usually:
a. Thick
31. Defloration is the laceration of the hymen b. Tapering gradually to fine points
due to: c. Fine
a. Masturbation d. all of the above
b. Fingering
c. Sodomy 39. Death occurs when there is deep
d. Sexual intercourse irreversible coma, absence of electrical brain
activity and complete cessation of all the vital
32. Most noticeable sign of death functions without possibility of resuscitation.
a. Cessation of respiration a. Cardio-respiratory Death
b. Progressive fall of body temperature b. Somatic Death
c. Insensibility of body and loss of power to c. Brain death
move d. Molecular Death
d. Cessation of heart action and
circulation 40. It occurs when there is a continuous and
persistent cessation of heart action and
33. It applies to disease or trauma kills, respiration. It is a condition in which the
wherein there is no chance for complication or physician and the members of the family
sequelae to develop. pronounce a person to be dead.
a. Proximate cause of death or secondary a. Cardio-respiratory Death
cause of death b. Somatic Death
b. Immediate or primary cause of death c. Brain death
c. Cardio-respiratory arrest d. Molecular Death
d. Nocturnal death
41. This is the state of the body in which there
34. An injury or disease which survived for a is complete, persistent and continuous
prolonged interval which allowed the cessation of the vital functions of the brain,
development of serious suquelae which heart and lungs which maintain life and health.
a. Cardio-respiratory Death a. Putrefaction
b. Somatic Death b. Caloricity
c. Brain death c. Mummification
d. Molecular Death d. Maceration

42. After cessation of the vital functions of the 48. This s a condition wherein the fatty tissues
body of the body are transformed to soft brownish
there is still animal life among individual cells. white substance known as adipocere.
About three (3) to six (6) hours later there is a. Saponification
death of individual cells. This is known as b. Mummification
______________________________________. c. Maceration
a. State of Suspended Animation d. Caloricity
b. Molecular Death
c. Clinical Death 49. The fatality is caused solely by disease.
d. Somatic Death a. Natural Death
b. Violent Death
43. This condition is not really death but c. Unnatural death
merely a transient loss of consciousness or d. None of the above
temporary cessation of the vital function of the
body on the account of disease or external 50. The so-called Sudden Infant Death
stimulus or other forms or influence. Syndrome.
a. State of Suspended Animation a. CRIB Death
b. Molecular Death b. SUND
c. Clinical Death c. Bangungot
d. Somatic Death d. None of these

44. The whole body becomes rigid due to the SCI W/ INTERVIEW AND INTERROGATION
contraction of the muscles. This develops three (CDI3)
to six hours after death and may last from 1. It is the term used by authorities in securing
twenty-four to thirty-six hours. an area where crime occurred.
a. Stage of Primary Flaccidity/Period of Muscular
Irritability

b. Stage of Post Mortem Rigidity or

Cadaveric Rigidity or Rigor Mortis
c. Stage of Secondary Flaccidity/Secondary
Relaxation
d. Stage of Caloricity

45. The stoppage of the heart action and the

loss of blood vessels cause the blood to be
under the influence of gravity. It begins to
accumulate in the most dependent portion of
the body.
a. Rigor Mortis
b. Livor Mortis
c. Algor Mortis
d. None of this

46. The blood merely gravitated into the most

dependent portion of the body but still inside
the blood vessels and still fluid in form.
a. Hypostatic Lividity
b. Diffusion Lividity
c. Caloricity
d. None of this

47. The dehydration of the whole body which

results in the shivering and preservation of the
body.
A. arrest D.investigato
B.bail r
C. cordo E. interrogatio
n n
D. detainee F. interview
2. _______is the taking of a person into custody A. investigation
in
order that he may be bound to answer for the 9. It is the process of being questioned. A tool
commission of an offense. Rule 113, Sec 1. used to collect an information.
A. arrest A. investigation
B. bail B. investigator
C. cordon C. interrogation
D. detainee D. interview

3. This is a person held in custody. 10. It is the act of looking for a person or a
A. arrest thing.
B. bail A. instrumentation
C. cordon B. SOCO
D. detainee C. search
D. search warrant
4. It is the legal act of confiscating.
A. custodial investigation 11. It is a warrant directing any peace officer
B. homicide to search and seized.
C. murder A. instrumentation
D. seizure B. SOCO
C. search
5. It is any person who, not falling within the D. search warrant
provisions of Article 246, shall kill another,
without the attendance of any of the 12. It is a law enforcement authorities or
circumstances enumerated in the next investigating officers who collects forensic
preceding article, shall be deemed guilty of evidence from the crime scene.
homicide and be punished by reclusion A. instrumentation
temporal. B. SOCO
A. custodial investigation C. search
B. homicide D. search warrant
C. murder
D. seizure 13. A point at which a check is performed by
police officers or any other law enforcers for
6. It is another way of acquiring an information security and safety purposes.
through a pleasant manner. A. warrantless arrest
A. investigation B. warrant of arrest
B. investigator C. checkpoint
C. interrogation D. raid
D. interview
14. A______is when a police make an arrest
without
7. It is a formal inquiry or systematic study. a warrant.
The action of investigating something or A. warrantless arrest
someone; formal or systematic examination or B. warrant of arrest
research. C. checkpoint
A. investigation D. raid
B. investigator
C. interrogation 15. It is the act of collecting or acquiring found
D. interview evidence at the crime scene that is relevant to
the case and may have value in the future.
8. _______is a person who conducts formal A. crime scene investigation
inquiry. B. recognition of evidence
C. documentation of evidence 22. _______ refers to the site of the original or
first
D. collection of evidence criminal activity.
A. crime scene response
16. This refers to the identification of evidence. B. primary
A. crime scene investigation C. secondary
B. recognition of evidence D. single microscopic crime scene
C. documentation of evidence
D. collection of evidence 23. It is composed of many crime scenes. E.g.
a gunshot victim's body dumped in a field
17. It is the conduct of processes particularly in represents the following crime scenes within
the recognition, search, collection, handling, overall crime scene of the field; the body, the
preservation and recognition of evidence to body's wounds, and the ground around the
include the identification and interview and the body.
arrest of suspect(s) at the crime scene. A. crime scene response
A. crime scene investigation B. primary
B. recognition of evidence C. secondary
C. documentation of evidence D. single microscopic crime scene
D. collection of evidence
24. The crime scene technician must__the first
18. This is the act of documenting every piece officer who responded to the scene or the
of evidence found in the crime scene. victim to the determine the "hypothesis" of the
Observing proper labelling of physical evidence case
by means of sketching, taking of photographs A. microscopic crime scene
or video recording. B. interview
A. crime scene investigation C. examine
B. recognition of evidence D. photograph
C. documentation of evidence
D. collection of evidence 25. Those are the one who use the 'poker' face
who hide their emotions by being
19. It is the one who conducts crime scene expressionless.
investigation thoroughly over a case. CSI are A. withholders
the people who examine crime scenes with B. revealers
distinct specialties. C. substitute expressors
A. evaluation of evidence D. ever-ready expressors
B. hypothesis
C. testing the hypothesis 26. This are individuals who readily react to
D. crime scene investigator stimulus and show it through facial expressions.
These are the easiest to deal with.
20. It is the act of determining its competence A. withholders
as an evidence. B. revealers
A. evaluation of evidence C. substitute expressors
B. hypothesis D. ever-ready expressors
C. testing the hypothesis
D. crime scene investigator 27. This describes those who demonstrate
facial expressions but contradict their true
21. This may be subsequent places which may feelings.
include the victim's home, suspect's home, A. withholders
suspect's vehicle, the road between suspect's B. revealers
home and the victim's, or any comparable C. substitute expressors
indoor or outdoor area. D. ever-ready expressors
A. crime scene response
B. primary 28. It is the confession or final conclusive
C. secondary report.
D. single microscopic crime scene A. paralanguage
B. kinetics or body motions
C. conclusion D. none of the above
D. evaluate
36. ________which is where any evidence might
29. _______refers to the manner in which words have been thrown by the suspect while fleeing.
are A. inner perimeter
spoken. B. outer perimeter
A. paralanguage C. extended perimeter
B. kinetics or body motions D. none of the above
C. conclusion
D. evaluate 37. Raid is where the crime took place.
A. true
30. _______include movements of the eyes, B. false
expressions on the face, movements of certain C. yes
parts of the body (such as hands and feet, and D. no
body posture.
A. paralanguage 38. An act defining certain rights of the person
B. kinetics or body motions arrested, detained.
C. conclusion A. search and seizure
D. evaluate B. properties subject to seizure
C. Section 1. Statement of Policy
31. Keep question as simple as possible avoid D. RA 7438
confusing questions.
A. case review
B. build rapport 39. It is an order in writing issued in the name
C. simple question of the Philippine, signed by a judge and
D. avoid implied answers directed to a peace officer, commanding him to
search for any property described therein and
32. It refers to establishing a good bring it before the court. Read Art III, Sec. 2,
communication in order to proceed a cognitive 1987 Constitution.
interview. A. search and seizure
A. case review B. properties subject to seizure
B. build rapport C. Section 1. Statement of Policy
C. simple question D. RA 7438
D. avoid implied answers
40. Is it true that cordon is the term used by
33. This means that investigators must not authorities in securing an area where crime
allow a question answerable by yes or no. occurred?
A. case review A. true
B. build rapport B. false
C. simple question C. yes
D. avoid implied answers D. no

34. The investigator must review the facts 41. Warrantless arrest is a document from
about the case. court ordering and directing a peace officer to
A. case review apprehend and detain any person whose name
B. build rapport will appear in warrant for him to answer
C. simple question matters regarding the commission of a crime.
D. avoid implied answers A. true
B. false
35. It is the surrounding area which includes C. yes
any entry and exit points, or in the case of a D. no
shooting, any area where spent ammunition
might be found. 42. Sgt. Cruz and Pat. Flores arrested and
A. inner perimeter detained Ramon without warrant for the crime
B. outer perimeter of theft. When brought to the inquest
C. extended perimeter prosecutor, the latter issued release order for
further investigation. What was the crime if any B. false
do they have committed? C. yes
A. Arbitrary detention D. no

B. Illegal detention 50._______is the deprivation by a public officer

C. Delaying release of the
D. none of the above liberty of a person w/o any legal ground.
A. detention
43. It is the wrongful restraining or B. arbitrary detention
imprisonment of a citizen. C. arrest warrant
A. Arbitrary detention D. none of the above
B. Illegal detention
C. Delaying release TRAFFIC MANAGEMENT Q AND A (CDI4)
D. none of the above
1. In general, drivers' training and education
44. It is the violation of the right to liberty. aims primarily to:
A. Arbitrary detention A. Teach the rudiments of driving
B. Illegal detention B. Instill awareness of one's legal and moral
C. Delaying release responsibilities in traffic
D. none of the above C. Teach the abilities required for one to be
eligible for a driver's license
45. Any person who killed his father, mother or D. Prepare the student pass the regulatory
child, whether legitimate or illegitimate, or any testing for driver's license
of his ascendants, or his spouse, is guilty of
what crime? 2. There are various police units involved in
A. homicide traffic enforcement. Who enforces the R.A.
B. murder 4136 and or national traffic laws along national
C. parricide roads and thoroughfares?
D. any of the choices A. Traffic Management Bureau
B. Traffic Management Division
46. It refers to the forcible expulsion of a fetus C. PNP - TRAFCOM
from the mother's womb. D. PNP-HPG
A. infanticide
B. parricide 3. What is the primary consideration when
C. abortion dealing with a violator?
D. murder A. Explaining the violation
B. All of these
47. It is the crime of killing a child within a C. Apprehension of the violator
year of its birth. D. Establishing pleasant relationship
A. infanticide
B. parricide 4. What is the enforcement activity which
C. abortion involves actual inspection of motor vehicles and
D. murder motorists on the road?
A. Checkpoint
48. In this case, a price, reward or promise has B. Road block
been considered to kill the victim. C. Road check
A. infanticide D. Preventive enforcement
B. parricide
C. abortion
D. murder 5. This is loosely defined as any acts that
violate a state or municipalities traffic laws.
49. A warrant of arrest may not be necessary A. Traffic citation
when the accused is already under detention B. Traffic warning
pursuant to warrant issued by MTC judge in C. Traffic regulations
(Rule 1112, Sec. 6) D. Traffic violation
A. true
6. What was the contribution of Etienne Lenoir A. Double sharp bend
as far as transportation is concerned? B. Pedestrian crossing
A. Pneumatic tires C. Speed limit
B. Dandy horse D. Approach to intersection
C. Motor vehicle
D. Internal combustion Engine 8. The traffic citation ticket as temporary
driving permit expires after how many hours?
7. Which of the following is not a danger A. 3 days
warning sign?
B. 36
C. 48
D. 72

9. What is the color of the traffic light located 14. Who among the following has the priority
in the center of the traffic signaling device? over the other road users?
A. Amber A. Pedestrians on unmarked highways
B. Orange B. Motor vehicles on public roads
C. Red C. Traffic emerging from private access
D. A and B D. Motor vehicles on pedestrian crossings

10. This is actually a form of safety education 15. Which is used to announce one's intention
where the traffic enforcer tells the violator that to turn?
he violated a traffic law and explains the A. Directional signals
hazards of his violation. B. Stop light
A. Traffic Education C. Head light
B. Written Warning D. Backing light
C. Verbal Warning
D. Citation Warning 16. Perpendicular intersection is the most
common configuration for roads that cross each
11. Of the following classifications of traffic other, and it is the most basic type. This type of
signal lights, which is designed primarily to intersection is also known as:
control and regulate traffic flows? A. Highway Intersection
A. Special pedestrian signals B. "Four-way" intersection
B. Traffic control signals C. "Two-way" intersection
C. Motor vehicle control lights D. "Eight-way" intersection
D. B and C
17. A flashing yellow light means, except:
12. The reduction of number of traffic violators A. This is the same as a stop sign
particularly those related to traffic obstruction B. Proceed through the intersection with
to have free-flow of traffic is a goal of traffic law caution
enforcement which is to: C. You have the right of way over a flashing
A. All of these red light
B. Increase traffic efficiency D. Vehicles on the other side will proceed after
C. Increase traffic mobility coming to a full stop
D. Increases safety level
18. A Single Continuous Line On a Four-lane
13. When you are approaching an intersection Road indicates the following, except:
with a traffic light with a steady red, which of A. When there are slow and fast lanes, never
the following should neither be expected nor overtake by passing over the solid white line
observed? B. Lanes 1 & 4 (outer) lanes are for slow
A. None of these moving vehicles.
B. Stop at the designated line. C. Vehicles on outer lanes should not be
C. Vehicles will be crossing from the below the minimum speed limit.
opposite side. D. Lanes 2 & 3(inner) lanes are usually for
D. Expect pedestrians to cross at the faster moving vehicles.
pedestrian lane.
19. A double yellow or white line with a dotted responsible for the accident
line in between means: B. The driver's reason of fleeing from the
accident could be that he is wanted for another
A. None of these crime
B. Absolutely overtaking is not prohibited
C. Overtaking is sometimes extremely C. The recovery of the hit-and-run vehicle does
dangerous not always immediately establish the identity of
D. A roadway which is extremely the driver
dangerous D. The driver of the hit-and-run vehicle may
report that his own vehicle was a victim of
20. It is the combination of simultaneous and another hit-and- run accident
sequential factors without any one of which the
result could not have occurred. 26. What is the enforcement action which does
A. cause not contemplate possible assessment of
B. factor penalty by the court or otherwise as a result of
C. primary cause warning alone?
D. attribute A. Traffic Warning
B. Traffic Citation
21. What is the circumstance that permanently C. Traffic Accosting
or temporarily alters an attribute? D. Written Warning
A. cause
B. factor 27. In deciding whether to pursue or not to
C. primary cause pursue or chase a traffic violator, consider
D. modifier whether the violation is hazardous or non-
hazardous. Which of the following does not fall
22. The speed adjusted to the potential or under the hazardous type of violations?
possible hazards or the road and traffic A. Driving under the influence of liquor
situation ahead and usually determined by the B. Traffic obstruction
road rather than the particular driver of a C. Excessive speed
vehicle is: D. Reckless Driving
A. speed limit
B. minimum limit 28. Three categories of suspects in hit-and-run
C. allowable limit cases can be explained psychologically. A driver
D. safe speed who finds the other driver as faulty is
categorized as:
23. It refers to the time from the point of A. Projectionist
possible perception to actual perception. B. Apprehensive
A. point of possible perception C. Sneak operator
B. perception delay D. Hit-and-run drivers
C. perception of hazard
D. actual perception point 29. Traffic in English is taken from the Arabic
word "taraffaqa," which means to:
24. Which could not be considered an A. Move from one place to another
exception to the hit-and-run accident? B. Sell or trade goods
A. The driver leaving the area of accident C. Transfer persons, goods, and animals
because he is in imminent danger D. Walk along slowly together
B. The driver fleeing the area of accident
to evade responsibility. 30. There are two major functions in traffic law
C. After hitting someone on the highway, the enforcement. Whose function the enforcement
driver left and reported to the police. of traffic laws deterrent to law violations,
D. After sideswiping a pedestrian the driver special assistance to prosecutors and courts?
fled to seek assistance of a physician. A. Traffic Enforcement
B. Police Traffic Law Enforcement
25. Which statement is incorrect as far as hit- C. Court Traffic Law Enforcement
and-run accident is concerned? D. Either B or C
A. The driver who flees is always
31. What is the general principle that roll over. It is usually indicated by striations,
establishes who has the right to go first? rub-off of material or puncture. This is known
A. Keep to the right as:
B. Giving priority A. Impact
C. Priority Signs and Symbols B. Contact damage
C. Maximum damage
D. Right of Way D. Wreckage

32. It refers to a number of vehicles blocking 38. In traffic accident investigation, it refers to
one another until they can scarcely move. any person using a traffic way for travel,
A. Traffic gridlock parking or other purposes as a pedestrian or
B. Traffic congestion driver, including any vehicle, or animal which
C. Traffic bottleneck he is using.
D. Traffic jam A. Traffic unit
B. Motorists
33. What is the phenomenon in which traffic C. Pedestrians
congestion reaches great intensity at D. Traffic users
predictable times of the day due to the large
number of vehicles using the road at the same 39.It is the taking of enforcement action such
time? as detection then apprehension of traffic law
A. Traffic congestion violators. It also involves either the arresting,
B. Rush hour issuance of citation tickets or inspection
C. Peak season summons, or simply warning any person who is
D. Traffic snarl believed to have violated a traffic law,
ordinance, or regulation.
34. Which of the following best describes a hit- A. Traffic law enforcement
and- run driver? B. Traffic supervision
A. Apprehensive and panicking C. Traffic patrol
B. Evading responsibility D. Traffic enforcement
C. Failure to aid victim
D. Fear of publicity 40. According to RA 4136, a professional driver
is one who:
35. The following are elements of hit-and-run A. Manifests obvious expertise in driving
accidents, except: B. Earns out of driving
A. Suspect driving the vehicle at the time of C. Possesses a professional driver's license
the accident. D. Has long years of driving experience
B. Suspect was involved in an accident
resulting in death, personal injury or damage to 41. This is a part of enforcement activity which
property. is usually done when a traffic violator fails to
C. Suspect failed to perform his responsibilities stop.
stated in Sec. 55 of R.A. 4136. A. Road check
D. Suspect had no knowledge of the B. Road block
accident C. Highway patrol
D. Pursuit operation

36. Under the three principles of preventing or 42. What is the process of training road users
reducing traffic accidents, human error in the avoidance and prevention of traffic-
condition can be corrected by "E" or pillar of related accidents?
traffic? A. Traffic education
A. Enforcement B. Road safety
B. Education C. Safety first training
C. Environment or ecology D. Traffic safety education
D. Engineering
43. Safety campaigns are usually carried on
37. Damage to a vehicle resulting from direct through the:
pressure of some foreign object in a collision or A. Local Government Units
B. Mass Media A. Reporting to the nearest police station
C. Land Transportation Office B. Aiding or helping the victim
D. PNP Traffic Management Bureau C. Calling for assistance
D. Concealing his identify as part of right
44. Traffic offenses such as mechanical to remain silent
violations and most nondangerous moving
violations do not usually carry the same stigma FIRE TECHNOLOGY AND ARSON
and penalties as serious criminal offenses. INVESTIGATION (CDI5)
These violations are called
A. Misdemeanors 1. Which causes the greatest number of fire?

B. Offenses A. spontaneous combustion

C. Felonies B. leaking gas pipes
D. Infractions C. electrical wiring
D. smoking and matches
45. Traveling too fast for conditions or in
excess of the posted speed limits is commonly 2. Which of the following does NOT fall under
called: class A fires?
A. Reckless driving A. none of these
B. Above the speed limit B. exploding gas depot
C. Over the speed limit C. burning nipa hut
D. Speeding D. forest fire

46. Roads that interconnect provinces are 3. Which of the following best illustrate arson?
maintained
A. simultaneous fire
by:
B. unexplained explosion
A. DPWH
C. faulty electric wiring
B. Provincial government
D. thick relish smoke
C. City government
D. Municipal government
4. Why water is prohibited to quench class D
47. What is the Land Transportation Code of fires?
the Philippines? A. burning metals are too hot
A. R.A. 4613 B. water is not capable of extinguishing the
B. R.A. 4316 fire
C. R.A. 6143 C. there is the danger of electrocution
D. R.A. 4136 D. explosion may occur

48. Personalized plate numbers are also called: 5. Mechanical device strategically located in
A. Vanity plate numbers an installation or street where fire hose is
B. Diplomatic plate numbers connected so that water with pressure will be
C. Individualized plate numbers available to extinguish fire.
D. Paid Plate numbers A. fire hose box
B. hose reel
49. The word "traffic" is believed to have C. fire truck
originated from the French word "Trafic" from D. fire hydrant
old French "trafique," and or from Italian word
"traffic" or "trafficare." (Italian). These ancient 6. Which of the following is considered as the
words mean the following, except: most effective fixed installation for controlling
A. to trade fire which will discharge water into incipient fire
B. commerce from heads located near the ceiling?
C. to move A. fire hydrant
D. carry on trade B. automatic water sprinkler
C. standpipe
50. What should not be done by a driver
D. fire extinguisher
involved in an accident?
7. These are fires which are caused by 13. A wall designed to prevent the spread of
flammable liquids like kerosene, gasoline, fire, having a fire resistance rating of not less
alcohol, etc than four hours with sufficient structural
A. class D stability to remain standing even if construction
B. class C on either side collapses under fire condition.
C. class A A. firewood
D. class B B. fire wall
C. post wall
8. When firemen are working at the nozzle of a D. fire trap
hose they usually lean forward on the hose. B. cooling
What is the most likely reason for taking this C. fuel removal
position? D. dilution
A. the stream is projected farther
15. What is a normally open device installed
B. the surrounding air is cool making the inside an air duct system which automatically
firemen comfortable closes to restrict the passage of smoke or fire?
C. a backward force is developed which A. fire exit
must B. damper
be counter acted C. fire trap
D. the firemen can see better where the D. fire alarm
stream strikes
16. What is the material which produces and
liberates its own oxygen when heated?
A. radiation
9. If arson is only the means of killing the
B. oxidizing agent
victim, the crime that you have to file is: C. conductor
A. arson with murder D. vapor
B. arson
C. murder 17. What is a vertical panel of non-combustible
D. murder with arson or fire resistant material attached to and
extending below the bottom chord of roof
10. Which of the following occur when a room trusses to divide the underside of the roof into
is heated enough that flame sweep over the separate compartments so that heat and smoke
entire surface? will be heated upwards to a roof vent?
A. oxidation A. fire door
B. back draft B. electric arc
C. flash over C. fire trap
D. combustion D. curtain board

11. The use of one or more electrical 18. Which of the following is a strong oxidizing
appliances or devices which draw or consumes organic compound which releases oxygen
electrical current beyond the designed capacity readily?
of the existing electrical system. A. organic peroxide
A. self-closing door B. blasting agent
B. overloading C. corrosive liquid
C. jumper D. combustible fiber
D. oxidizing material

12. An enclosed vertical space of passage that 19. What is the enclosed space of passage that
extends from floor to floor as well as from the extends from the base to the top of the
base to the top of the building building?
A. sprinkler system A. vertical shaft
B. flash point B. sprinkler system
C. vertical shaft C. standpipe
D. standpipe system D. flash point
20. What is known as the fire code of the B. Presidential Decree No 1184
Philippines C. Presidential Decree No 421
A. Presidential Decree No 448
14. If
a high wind has an extinguishing effect
on a fire, the most probable extinguishing
method is:
A. smothering
D. Presidential Decree No 1185

21. A fire hydrant should be carefully opened

when in use in order to:
A. reduce vibration of the hydrant D. radiation
B. ensure that the drip valve is all the way 29. What equipment is made of trussed or
closed solid beam where rungs are connected
C. prevent water hammer horizontally to the beam forming ascent or
D. close the coupling descent?
A. rope
22. What is a piece of metal or an electrical B. ladder
conductor used to bypass a fety device in an C. hydrant
electrical system? D. nozzle
A. magnet
B. jumper 30. What is an act which removes or
C. brace neutralizes a fire hazard?
D. wire A. distillation
B. abatement
23. This phase of fire operations is equivalent C. allotment
to the "reconnaissance" phase of military D. combustion
operation?
A. salvage 31. What kind of toxicological analysis are
B. overhaul routinely carried out for fire deaths?
C. protection of exposure A. drug test
D. size-up B. body organ fluids
C. carbon monoxide and alcohol
24. Conduction of heat transfer through: D. neuro-psychiatric exam
A. solid materials
B. smoke 32. During a conflagration, the smoke emitted
C. electromagnetic waves is grayish, what does it indicate?
D. air motion A. presence of nitrate
B. indicate humid substance
25. The most common motive of arson is C. loosely packed substance such as
A. jealousy straw and hay
B. spite D. presence of phosphorus
C. profit
D. revenge 33. What should be proven for the crime of
arson to exist?
26. Light is transferred by light rays through A. none of these
the method of B. establishment of corpus delicti
A. conduction C. identify of the perpetrator
B. convection D. malicious intent of the perpetrator
C. oxidation
27. What is the minimum temperature at which B. simultaneous fire in more than one
any material gives off vapor in sufficient part of the building
concentration to form lenitable mixture with 34. The cause of the majority of fire death is
air? A. infection
A. evaporating point B. burns
B. ignition point C. shock
C. boiling point D. asphyxiation
D. flash point
35. Passage way from one building to another
28. Which of the following is "prima facie" or through or around a wall in appropriately the
existence of arson? same floor level
A. inflammable substance found in the A. smelting
premises B. vestibule
C. fulminate
C. building
D. horizontal exit
insurance
D. any of these 36. The lowest section of an extension ladder
is known as
A. heel D. Detonation
B. bed ladder
C. butt 44. What chemical reaction specifically takes
D. fly ladder place the moment the spilled gasoline ignites?
A. Explosion
37. Which of the following restrict the spread B. Fusion
of fire to the point origin or atleast to the area C. Exothermic reaction
involved? D. Detonation
A. extinguishment
B. confinement 45. Classification of fires based on cause or
C. suppression origin are providential fires, accidental fires and
D. control -
A. commercial fires
38. The techniques used in clearing a building B. intentional fires
of smoke and with the use of smoke ejector is C. fires for profit
called as what? D. destructive fires
A. smoke ejector
B. horizontal ventilation 46. A hot piece of lump remains after solid fuel
C. forced ventilation has partially burned and is still rapidly oxidizing
D. vertical without the manifestation of flame. This is
called -
39. Which of these refers to the study of the A. ember
sources, behavior, and measurement of heat? B. glowing substance
A. Fire chemistry C. smoldering material
B. Fire investigation D. all of the above
C. Fire technology
D. Thermodynamics 47. The following are advisable techniques of
extinguishing Class B fire, except -
40. Burning is the result of rapid combination A. shutting the fuel supply
of oxygen with combustible substance. The B. pouring water over the burning liquid
French chemist who proved this in 1777 was - C. exclusion of air
A. Antoine Lavoisier D. cooling the liquid
B. John Walker
C. Thomas Alva Edison 48. What substance is commercially produced
D. Gabriel Daniel Fahrenheit purposely to put out fire?
A. Carbon dioxide
41. What are the two primary methods of B. Extinguishing liquid
starting fire? C. Free radicals
A. Electrical & Mechanical D. Extinguishing agent
B. Friction and explosion
C. Percussion & Friction 49. The Building Code of the Philippine or act
D. Rubbing & Sparking of 1977 is:
A. PD 1096
42. The relationship of the three essential B. RA 9514
elements of fire is illustrated by the - C. PD 1185
A. fireball D. RA 9263
B. fire triangle
C. fire tetrahedron 50. What kind of gas exists solely in the
D. quadrangle of fire gaseous state pressure and at normal
atmospheric temperature inside its container?
43. What chemical reaction involves combining A. cryogenic gas
2 light nuclei causing the development of a very B. compressed gas
strong energy? C. liquefied gas
A. Nuclear fission D. nuclear gas
B. Nuclear fusion
C. Exothermic reaction
DRUG EDUCATION AND VICE CONTROL A. Methamphetamine Hydrochloride
Q&A (CDI6) B. Methylenedioxymethamphetamine
C. Papaver somniferum
1. Operation of drug syndicates are usually
D. Cannabis sativa
made secretly that makes it detection quite
difficult. Various techniques were made by its
7. It is considered as the world's oldest
operator in concealing their activities
cultivated plant which is the source of
A. Hide -out operation
dangerous drug.
B. Clandestine Operation
A. Papaver Somniferum
C. Disguised operation
B. Coca Plant
D. Confidential
C. Cannabis Sativa
D. Ephedrine
2. Considered to be one of the prime suppliers
of Heroin in Asia is the so called Golden
8. Most popular plants as a source of
Triangle where 80% of illicit drugs of the world
dangerous drugs, except:
originate. This lies on the borders of:
A. Indian hemp
B. Coca bush
A. Thailand -Laos -Burma
C. Opium poppy
D. Ephedra
B. Iran -Afghanistan - Pakistan
9. What drugs that produce sensations such as
C. Thailand - Laos- Myanmar
distortions of time, space, sound, color and
other bizarre effects?
D. Peru- Columbia- Bolivia
A. Opiates
B. Narcotics
C. Heroine
3. A type of Drugs according to
D. Hallucinogens
pharmacological classification which often
relives pain and induces sleep.
10. Injection, inhalation, ingestion or other
A. Hallucinogens
means,
B. Stimulants
of dangerous drug to the body by one person to
C. Sedatives/Depressant
another is______.
D. Narcotics
A. Drug use
B. Taking
4. Which among the following is one of the
C. Administer
most abuse hallucinogenic drugs in the
D. Addict
Philippines that contains active components
known as Tethrahydro-cannabinol?
11. Diego is a drug addict. Realizing that drug
A. Mescaline
use will bring him else where he ceased from
B. LSD (Lysergic Acid Diethylamine)
using it. Diego's act is called:
C. Marijuana
A. Abstinence
D. Ecstasy
B. Self-medicatio
(methylenedioxymethamphetamine)
C. Rehabilitation
D. Dependence
5. What drug classification are solvents, paints
and gasoline which are examples of substances
that are sniffed to obtain intoxication fall?

A. Depressants
B. Energizers
C. Tranquilizers
D. Inhalants

6. The term "Ecstasy" is used for a group of

"designer" drugs closely related in chemical
form to the amphetamine family of illicit drugs.
Its scientific name is:
12. Selling, distributing, supplying or B. Drug addiction
transporting of legitimately imported, in-transit, C. Gambling
manufactured or procured controlled precursors D. Vice
and essential chemicals, by the manufacturer of
medicine to the drug trafficker is called: 19. Cocaine is from South America; ivory white
A. Drug trafficking heroin is from
B. Chemical diversion A. The Golden Crescent
C. Sale B. Hong Kong
D. Chemical smuggling C. The Golden Triangle
D. Silver Triangle
13. What are the symptoms of the use of
amphetamines? 20. What will be the disposition in a case
A. Sensation of distorted time, space, sound, where minor is convicted for the possession of
color dangerous drugs?
B. False perceptions of objects and
experiences A. Judgment will be suspended
C. Excitement, alertness and wakefulness B. Sentence will be suspended
D. Loss of appetite, anxiety and irritability
C. Turn-over to DSWD
14. Kinds of drug that excite the central
nervous system, increasing alertness, D. None of the above
decreasing fatigue and delaying sleep.
A. Narcotic
B. Shabu 21. A person found guilty of use of dangerous
C. Hallucinogen drugs for the first time shall be punished with:
D. Stimulant
A. Imprisonment of 6 years and one day to 12
15. Which of the following is the commonly years
known as the "Poor man's cocaine”. B. Rehabilitation of a minimum period of
A. Amphetamine 6 months
B. Methamphetamine
C. Ecstasy C. Rehabilitation for 6 months to 18 months
D. Shabu
D. Imprisonment of at least 6 months
16. This drug is representative of a broad class
of stimulants known as "pep pills”. It is usually
prescribed to reduce appetite and to relieve 22. Marijuana has been one of the most abuse
minor cases of mental depression. hallucinogens in the Philippines and its control
A. Amphetamine becomes difficult according to some authorities
B. Methamphetamine due to the fact that
C. Ecstasy
D. Shabu A. It is easy to smoke it secretly
17. White crystalline powder with very bitter numbing B. It is easy to taste and said
to be one of the strongest derivatives of Opium poppy. cultivate
A. Morphine
C. It is sellable in the
B. Codeine
market
C. Heroin A. Hallucinogens
D. Cocaine
B. Stimulant
18. It is any immoral conduct or habit, the C. Sedatives/Depressant
indulgence of which leads to depravity,
wickedness and corruption of the minds and D. Narcotics
body.
A. Prostitution
23. Drugs that affects sensation, thinking and 24. They serve as permanent consultant of the
selfawareness and emotion: Dangerous Drug Board
A. Secretary of DILG and Secretary of Justice A. Codeine
B. Morphine
B. NBI Director and PNP Director General C. Heroin
C. PDEA Director General and PNP, Chief D. Opium Poppy

D. PNP Director and PDEA Directo 28. The following shall undergo Mandatory
Drug Testing according to R.A. 9165, EXCEPT.
A. Officers and Employee of public and
25. A form of physical dependence, severe private offices.
craving for the drug even to the point of B. Applicant for firearms license and for
interfering with the person's ability to function permit to carry firearms outside residence.
normally. C. Officers and Members of the Military, police
and other law enforcement agencies.
A. Tolerance D. All persons charged before the
prosecutor's office with a criminal offense
B. Habituation having an imposable penalty of not less than
C. Addiction six (6) years and one (1) day.

D. Psychological Dependence 29. The prevention of drug addiction is

primarily a responsibility of what institution so
26. Removal of toxic substances from the as to prevent its members from being hook to
body as a result of abusing drugs: addiction?
A. Cleansing process A. Church
B. Abstinence B. Barangay
C. Aversion treatment C. Family
D. Detoxification D. School

27. Also known as Papaver Somniferum and 30. Percentage of alcohol blood which
considered as the mother drugs of other indicates that the person is under the influence
narcotics substance. of the liquor (alcohol)?
A. 0.05
B. 1.5
C. 0.15
D. 0.50

31. What group of drugs is used medically as medicine or in the making of medicines, which affects
pain killers? the body and mind and have potential for abuse.
A. opiates A. drug
B. shabu B. pusher
C. track C. chemical
D. coke D. manufacture

32. Which of the factors below is perceived to 35. It is the production, preparation,
be the major cause of initial drug abuse? compounding or processing a dangerous drug
A. poor environment either directly or indirectly or by extraction
B. domestic violence from substances of natural origin or by
C. experimental thrill chemical synthesis.
D. peer pressure A. drug
B. pusher
33. If cocaine is a stimulant, what is LSD?
A. solvent C. chemical
B. hallucinogen
C. narcotic
D. depressant

34. It is a chemical substance used as

D. manufacture intense physical symptoms when the drug is
stopped (withdrawal syndrome).
A. drug dependence
36. This is any substance taken into the body B. physical dependence
that alters the way and the mind and the body C. psychological dependence
work. D. chemical abuse

A. drug 42. It is a network of illegal drug operations

operated and manned carefully by groups of
B. pusher
criminals who knowingly traffic through
C. chemical nefarious trade for personal or group profit.
A. drug experimenter
D. manufacture B. drug syndicate
C. minimal dose
D. maximal dose
37. It is the person who sell, administer,
deliver or give away to another, distribute or 43. _______amount needed to treat or heal, that is, the
transport any dangerous drug. smallest amount of a drug that will produce a therapeutic
A. drug experimenter
A. drug B. drug syndicate
C. minimal dose
B. pusher
D. maximal dose
C. chemical
44. It is the one who illegally, wrongfully, or improperly
D. manufacture uses any narcotic substances for reasons of curiosity, peer
pressure, or other similar reasons.
A. drug experimenter
38. It is an instance when the use of chemical B. drug syndicate
has produced negative or harmful C. minimal dose
consequences. D. maximal dose

A. drug dependence 45. _______largest amount of a drug that will produce a

desired therapeutic effect, without any accompanying
B. physical dependence
A. drug experimenter
C. psychological dependence B. drug syndicate
D. chemical abuse C. minimal dose
D. maximal dose
39. This an attachment to drug use that arises
from a drug ability to satisfy some emotional or 46. A death occurs because the part of the
personality needs of an individual. brain that controls breathing becomes
A. drug dependence paralyzed.
B. physical dependence A. cold turkey
C. psychological dependence B. coke
D. chemical abuse C. overdose
D. high
40. It refers to the state of psychic or physical
dependence or both on dangerous drugs following the
47. It is the withdrawal effect that occurs after a
repeated opiate
administration or use of that drug. WHO defines it as the
use.
periodic, continuous, repeated administration of a drug.
A. cold turkey
A. drug dependence
B. coke
B. physical dependence
C. overdose
C. psychological dependence
D. high
D. chemical abuse

41. It is an adaptive state caused by repeated 48. This is called when a person is under the
drug use that reveals itself by development of influence of drugs.
A. cold turkey d. Selection
B. coke and exactness. In writing a report, all
C. overdose facts and information whether
D. high favorable or unfavorable to the
concerned subject should be
49.______ are those who use drugs to keep them included, and these facts are verified
awake or for additional energy to perform an important by statement of witnesses, and by
work. Such individual may or may not exhibit reference to official records or
psychological dependence. reliable sources.
A. situational users a. completeness
B. spree users
C. hardcore addicts b. accuracy
D. hippies c. clarity
d. brevity
50. This are the school age users who take
drugs for "kicks', an adventurous daring
experience, or as a means of fun. There may 4. This refers to the clearness of thought,
be some degree of psychological dependence style, or expression of the writer. An
but little physical dependence due to the mixed effective writer must use correct English,
pattern of use. and must point directly to the written
A. situational users communication to save readers from
B. spree users reading unnecessary words.
C. hardcore addicts a. completeness
D. hippies b. accuracy
c. clarity
TECHNICAL ENGLISH 1 and 2 (CDI7&8) d. brevity

1. This relates to the gathered data in

connection with how the writer
5. It refers to having all the necessary normal
part, components, and style of writing in its
presents these in his report. It is vital
entirety. In writing a complete report the
since this will affect the investigator's
elements of the crime should established
decision on the facts and information
and the additional facts should prove those
that he will include.
elements.
a. Organization
a. completeness
b. Specificity
c. Perspective b. accuracy

d. Selection c. clarity
d. brevity
2. It is the quality of writing
pertaining to being explicitly 6. This is an objective statement of the
define and specific rather than findings of the investigator, an official
general. A good writer must be record of the information that is relevant to
precise and specific in writing his an investigation.
or her report, and should avoid
a. Record
ideas that mislead the readers.
a. Organization b. Report
b. Specificity c. Memorandum
c. Perspective
d. SOP
3. This is the conformity to facts and
representation of truth with precision
7. Having this in writing is having or
 exhibiting a disposition that is c. Performance reports
free of favoritism, bias, d. Problem determining reports
impartiality, selfinterest, or
12 . These are written reports
preference in judgment. dealing with
a. Exactness technical and specialized
subjects.
b. Subjective
a. Technical reports
c. Elimination b. Summary reports
d. Fairness c. Internal business reports
d. Operational reports

8. According to the Philippine

13 . These are written reports on
National financial,
Police investigative manual, these personnel, purchase, equipment,
are the types of report writers, property maintenance, and
except: general correspondence which
a. The writers who think first are important in the agency or
and write afterwards organization's management.
b. The writers who don't a. Technical reports
write at all b. Summary reports
c. The writers who write and c. Internal business reports
think at the same time d. Operational reports
d. The writers who write without
thinking
14 . These are written reports about
police
9. These are written reports incidents, investigations, arrests,
referring to information on the identification of persons, and
status of the activity or operation other miscellaneous reports for
within a unit or organization. routine operations of police
a. Problem solution reports organization.
b. Fact-finding reports a. Technical reports
c. Performance reports b. Summary reports
d. Problem determining reports c. Internal business reports
d. Operational reports
10 . These are written reports
identifying
the existence and causes of 15. These are reports that are
furnished for the necessity of the
certain problems. Examples of
solution of crime accident, and
these are case reports on Causes
other police administrative-
of Juvenile Delinquency, Causes related problems,
of Drug Addiction, and causes of a. Technical reports
Human Trafficking. b. Summary reports
a. Problem solution reports c. Internal business reports
b. Fact-finding reports d. Operational reports
c. Performance reports
d. Problem determining
reports
16 . These are reports that cover all
the exact and exhaustive
narration of facts. These reports
11 . These are written reports on the are classified as Initial or
methods of logical gathering and Advance, progress or Followup,
presentation of data. Examples of and Final or Closing Reports.
these reports about facts and a. Spot report
figures of terrorism, Drug b. Basic report
trafficking, Human Trafficking, c. Special report
etc. d. Formal report
a. Problem solution reports
b. Fact-finding reports
17. These are reports that are d. Advance report
mostly related with ordinary, 22. This is a written narration of
miscellaneous incidents, usually
facts developed by the
in letter or memorandum form.
investigator in the course of the
a. Spot report
follow-up investigation. This is a
b. Basic report
report on subsequent details
c. Special report
which are very vital to the case
d. Formal report
but have not been incorporated in
the initial report.
18. This is a verbal or written report
a. Progress report
done within twenty-four hours
after an important incident. This b. Final report
report is written to inform an c. Traffic accidentreport
immediate chief or those in
d. Advance report
higher position of particular
occurrences in his command
responsibility
a. Spot report 23. This is the part indicating the
b. Basic report summary of the result of the
c. Special report whole investigation process. The
summary should be supported by
d. Formal report
facts basing from the order of
statement of allegations.
19. Using the notice on wanted a. Matters investigated
person, this report is about those
persons who are by the police. b. Facts of the case

a. Beat Inspection report c. Discussion

b. Arrest report d. Conclusion

c. Wanted person report

d. Crime report 24. This part is the coherent
presentation of all the important
facts supported by evidences
involving the whole investigation.
20. This is one of the widely
practiced written forms of a Matters
communication in a station. This .b investigated
-----Facts of the
is a routine report because the . case
duty beat supervisor submits this c Discussion
report daily. .
d. Conclusion
a. Beat Inspectionreport
b. Arrest report 25. This part is where the
c. Wanted person report investigator writes the purpose of
his report by generally stating
d. Crime report
what the investigation is all
about. Included in this part are
21. This is an advance information the complaints, and the
on a new or fresh case an allegations of committed crimes.
investigator; the data in this a. Matters investigated
report is not yet complete, but it
b. Facts of the case
is written and immediately
submitted after the preliminary c. Discussion
investigation of the case. d. Conclusion
a. Progress report
b. Final report 26. Just like the second step, the first
c. Traffic accident report draft should also follow the
27. chronological order or station. (PNP Manual revised
2010)
presentation. The draft should
a. Manual
be based from the outline and b. Police Blotter
should be presented in a clear c. Record
manner with the use of
appropriate transitions to d. Reports
maintain the coherent flow of
ideas. 31. Defined as a daily record of
a. Initial preparation events within the territories of a
b. Final organization of the police unit, it contains daily
material concerning events for
collected data
legal and statistical purposes.
c. Preparation of the first
(PNP Circular No.5)
draft
a. Manual
d. Rewriting and polishing the
b. Police Blotter
report
c. Record
d. Reports
28. This is the step where the
investigator will recheck, edit,
32. It is a document containing facts
and review the rough draft to
related to a legal proceeding. The
check the errors, and goes on
person who makes the
rewriting to improve the whole
declaration affixes his or her
report.
signature in a separate
a. Initial preparation
endorsement paragraph at the
b. Final organization of the
end of the document with a
statement that the declaration is
28. When an incident happens, made under oath.
this report must be made within a. Oath
hours.
twenty-four b. Affidavit
a Crime report c. Sworn statement
b.. Situation report d. Complaint
c. Spot report
d. Wanted Person
33. These are types of verified,
report
formal sworn statement of fact
signed by an affiant or author,
29. Police officer Juan arrested a and witnessed by a notary public.
suspect. This can be used as evidence in
collected data
court proceedings.
c. Preparation of the first draft
a. Oath
d. Rewriting and polishing
b. Affidavit
the report
c. Sworn statement
What should he make to d. Complaint
document all the events in
arresting a suspect? 34. A clause in an affidavit certifying
a. Situation report the oath and the date made by
b. Wanted person the affiant.
report
a. Commencement
c. Spot report
d. Arrest report b. Individual averments
c. Attestation
30. A logbook that contains the daily d. Statement of truth
registry of all crime incident
reports, official summaries of
arrests, and other significant 35. This is a statement verifying that
events reported in a police what is stated is true under oath.
a. Commencement
b. Individual averments
c. Attestation
 d. Statement of truth c. Heading
d. Attention

36. A complainant executed this when he 41. This is placed below the subject
no longer wishes to pursue a case indicating when the memorandum is
against an accused or defendant in a written.
court case. The complainant states that a. Subject
he/she didn't really intend to institute b. Date
the case and he/she no longer c. Body
interested in testifying or prosecuting. d. Complimentary ending
a. Affidavit of witness
b. Affidavit of arrest 42. This is written two spaces below the
sender and two spaces to the right
c. Affidavit of desistance colon. It contains no more than ten
d. Affidavit of complaint words.
a. Subject
b. Date
37. This is a statement given under oath c. Body
and penalty under perjury. This states d. Complimentary ending
about facts and circumstances about
the arrest, the information which led to 43. This is about instructions to be
the arrest and the observation made followed on a routinary basis
before and after the arrest. This is filled concerning regular procedures, the
out by the arresting officer. chief of the director directs
a. Affidavit of witness this.
a. Office orders
b. Affidavit of arrest b. Office circular
c. Affidavit of desistance c. Special orders
d. Affidavit of complaint d. Special operating procedure

38. The part of memorandum 44. This refers to the verified, confirmed,
which contains the date, evaluated, and analyzed reports. These
subject, thru channels and are the end products of the
addressee.
investigation, and the submission of
a. Letterhead
reports done by the investigator.
b. Addressee
c. Heading a. Record
d. Attention b. Report
c. Memorandum
39. The part where the words
"MEMORANDUM FOR” is used if sends d. SOP
to a superior office or "MEMORANDUM
TO” if sends to a subordinate. 45. This is written in three (3)
a. Letterhead copies together with the
b. Addressee booking sheet.
c. Heading These copies are to be forwarded
d. Attention to: Central record unit (original
a. Letterhead copy), Fiscal or Clerk of Court
b. Addressee (second copy), and Fiscal or Clerk
of Court with the
40 . This is mainly for faster dissemination, a. Case record
the memorandum may be addressed to a b. Arrest record
specific individual or head of a unit, or by c. Identification records
the use of an office symbol. d. Miscellaneous records
complaint or other
supporting document
(third copy). 46 . These are records of
 fingerprint identification which a. Assure good reports, set up good
is done in two (2) copies. The recording standards so that all
first copy is filed in the central will know what is expected of
record of the police station, and them
the second copy is forwarded to b. Set up a system of spot-checking
the headquarters of the to ensure that corrections are
National Bureau of being made to assure uniformity
Investigation. c. Protect the reputation of the
a. Case record department and its offices
b. Arrest record d. None of the above
c. Identification records
d. Miscellaneous records

INTRODUCTION TO CYBERCRIME AND

ENVIRONMENTAL LAWS AND
47. The other term for
PROTECTION (CDI9)
investigative report is:
a. Basic report 1. It is also called as computer crime.
b. Informal report A. cyberspace
c. Formal report B. cybercrime
C. cybercriminal
d. Special report D. none of the above

2. _______is a type of fraud that involves the

48 . Basic report is also known as
use of
informal
report. The statement is true. some form of telecommunications or the
internet.
a. True
A. Wire fraud
b. False B. ATM fraud
c. Yes C. Internet Fraud
D. Hacking
d. No
3. _______are individuals or teams of people
who
49 . Police records pertain to all written
use technology to commit malicious activities
materials such as books, papers,
on digital systems or networks with the
maps, photographs,
intention of stealing sensitive company
documentaries, that in ways
information or personal data, and generating
are written or received by any
profit.
law enforcement agency that
A. Service Providers
serve its legal purposes
B. Cyber
(Agsalda,
C. Criminals
2007). It is essential that
D. Cybercriminals
agency should have a clear
knowledge on how to manage
4. This occurs when someone uses another
them properly.
person's personal identifying information, like
a. Police personnel their name, identifying number, or credit card
management number, without their permission, to commit
b. Police records fraud or other crimes.
management A. Internet Fraud
B. ATM Fraud
c. Police personnel and records
management C. Identity theft and invasion of privacy
D. Wire Fraud
d. All of the above

50 . The records supervisory personnel 5. Computer viruses is the gaining of

need to adhere to the following unauthorized access to data in a system or
standards, except: computer.
A. true
B. false
C. yes C. seven (7) months
D. no D. eight (8) months
6. It is the access to the whole or any 12. is the gaining of
part of a computer system without unauthorized access to data in a system or
right. computer.
A. Illegal Interception A. Wire fraud
B. Illegal Access B. ATM fraud
C. Data Interference C. Internet Fraud
D. System Interference D.
7. It is the willful engagement, Hacking 13. It is an unlawful or prohibited
maintenance, control, or operation, directly acts defined and punishable by Republic Act
or indirectly, of any lascivious exhibition of No. 9775.
sexual organs or sexual activity, with the aid A. Cybersex
of a computer system, for favor or B. Unsolicited Commercial Communications
consideration. C. Child Pornography
A. Hacking D. none of the above
B. Libel
C. Child Pornography 14. The transmission of commercial
D. Cybersex electronic communication with the use of
computer system which seek to advertise,
8. is a branch of criminology that sell, or offer for sale products and services
involves the study of harms and crimes are prohibited.
against the environment broadly conceived, A. Cybersex
including the study of environmental law and B. Unsolicited Commercial
policy, the study of corporate crimes against Communications
the environment, and environmental justice C. Child Pornography
from a criminological perspective. D. none of the above
A. Criminology
B. Environmental Criminology 15. are people who specialize in
C. Green criminology attacks on the telephone system.
D. none of the above A. phreakers
B. wreakers
9. A burial ground shall at least be distant C. breakers
from any dwelling house and no house shall D. hackers
be constructed within the same distance
from any burial ground. 16. No burial ground shall be located within
A. 25 meters from either side of a river or within 50
B. 30 meters meters from any source of water supply.
C. 35 meters A. 20 meters
D. 40 meters B. 30 meters
C. 40 meters
D. 50 meters
10. Is it unlawful for any person to bury
remains in places other than those legally
17. Compliance with burial requirements
authorized?
such as death certificate, proper depth of
A. true
graves, shipment of remains abroad shall
B. false
governed by Department of Health.
C. yes
A. true
D. no
11. The integrity of traffic data and B. six (6) months
subscriber information relating to B. false
communication services provided by a C. yes
service provider shall be preserved for a D. no
minimum period of from the date of
the transaction. 18. A burial ground shall at least be 35
A. five (5) months meters distant from any dwelling house and
no house shall be constructed within the D. none of the above
same distance from any burial ground.
A. true 25. Child pornography is a form of child
B. false sexual exploitation.
C. yes A. true
D. no B. false
19. When the cause of death is a dangerous C. Child Pornography
communicable disease, the remains shall be
buried within after death. C. yes
A. 12 seconds D. no
B. 12 minutes
C. 12 hours 26. SPAM is also known as?
D. 12 days A. Cybersex
B. Unsolicited Commercial
Communications
20. Cutting, Gathering and/or Collecting C. Child Pornography
Timber, or Other Forest Products without D. none of the above
license is a criminal offense.
A. true 27. It is a published false statement that is
B. false damaging to a person's reputation.
C. yes A. Hacking
D. no B. Libel
C. Child Pornography
21. ______crime is a highly profitable and D. Cybersex
rapidly
expanding area of international criminal 28. It is also known as the Revised Forestry
activity. Code.
A. Cyber A. P.D. No. 703
B. Illegal B. P.D. No. 704
C. Common C. P.D. No. 705
D. Environmental D. P.D. No. 706

22. Phishing is the most widely used 29. It is the code on sanitation of the
technique because it's simple, affordable, Philippines.
and attacks the weakest link in any security A. P.D. NO. 855
system - people. B. P.D. NO. 856
A. true C. P.D. NO. 857
B. false D. P.D. NO. 858
C. yes
D. no 30. Washing clothes or bathing within a
radius of 25 meters from any well or other
23. It is the unauthorized input, alteration,
source of drinking water is prohibited.
or deletion of computer data or program or
A. true
interference in the functioning of a computer
B. false
system, causing damage thereby with
C. yes
fraudulent intent.
D. no
A. Computer-related Forgery
B. Computer-related Fraud
31. Compliance with burial requirements
C. Computer-related Identity Theft
such as death certificate, proper depth of
D. none of the above
graves, shipment of remains abroad shall
governed by Bureau of Quarantine.
24. _______can be defined as a subcategory
A. true
of
B. false
online sexual activity where Internet is used
C. yes
for sexually gratifying activities.
D. no
A. Cybersex
B. Unsolicited Commercial Communications
32. Except when required by legal A. 10 meters
investigation or when permitted by the local
health authority, no unembalmed remains B. 15 meters
shall remain unburied longer than 24 hours C. 20 meters
after death. D. 25 meters
A. true
B. false 40. can infect systems when users
C. yes download malicious files or visit malicious
D. no websites.
A. Resident Virus
33. This republic act is also known as the B. Network Virus
toxic substances and hazardous waste act. C. Web Scripting Virus
A. R.A. NO. 6967 D. Boot Sector Virus
B. R.A. NO. 6968
C. R.A. NO. 6969 41. is any criminal activity that
D. R.A. NO. 6970 involves a computer, networked device or a
network.
34. This republic act is also known as the A. cyberspace
ecological solid waste management act. B. cybercrime
A. R.A. NO. 9006 C. cybercriminal
B. R.A. NO. 9005 D. none of the above
C. R.A. NO. 9004
D. R.A. NO. 9003 42. A is a malware program that
modifies web browser settings without the
35. This republic act is also known as the user's permission and redirects the user to
wildlife conservation and protection act websites the user had not intended to visit.
A. R.A. NO. 9144 A. Browser hijacker
B. R.A. NO. 9145 B. File Infector
C. R.A. NO. 9146 C. Multipartite virus
D. R.A. NO. 9147 D. Network Virus

36. It is also known as the Anti-Child 43. generally copy their code onto
Pornography Act of 2009. executable programs such as .com and .exe
A. Republic Act No. 9774 files.
B. Republic Act No. 9775 A. Browser hijacker
C. Republic Act No. 9776 B. File Infector
D. Republic Act No. 9777 C. Multipartite virus
D. Network Virus
37. This republic act is also known as the
cybercrime prevention act of 2012. 44. It is a relatively new type of malware
A. RA 10175 that spreads from computer to computer
B. RA 10176 without having to drop a file-based copy of
C. RA 10177 itself in any of the affected computers.
D. RA 10178 A. Browser hijacker
B. File Infector
38. P.D. No. 715 is also known as the C. Multipartite virus
Revised D. Network Virus
Forestry Code.
A. true 45. It is a fast-moving virus that uses file
B. false infectors or boot infectors to attack the boot
C. yes sector and executable files simultaneously.
D. no A. Browser hijacker
B. File Infector
39. No artesian, deep or shallow well shall C. Multipartite virus
be constructed within from any source of D. Network Virus
pollution.
46. It is when committed intentionally, the
interception without right is made. By
technical
47.means, of non-public transmission of to its intended users. A. libel
computer data to, from, or within a
B. phishing
computer system. C. denial of service attacks
A. Illegal Interception D. direct action
B. Illegal Access
C. Data Interference 50. This virus targets a specific file type,
D. System Interference most commonly executable files (.exe), by
replicating and infecting files.
48. It is a serious hindering without right on A. libel
the functioning of a computer system by B. phishing
inputting, transmitting, damaging, deleting, C. denial of service attacks
deteriorating, altering or suppressing D. direct action
computer data.
A. Illegal Interception 51. It is the practice of sending fraudulent
B. Illegal Access communications that appears to come from
C. Data Interference a reputable source.
D. System Interference A. libel
B. phishing
49. It is an attack meant to shut down a C. denial of service attacks
machine or network, making it inaccessible D. direct action