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QUESTIONS AND SOLUTIONS

MODULE 1
UNIT I
1. The Indian constitution is
a) Based on conventions.
b) A brief document.
c) An evolved constitution.
d) Written and bulky document.

2. The constituent assembly adopted the Indian constitution on

a) August 15, 1947.
b) November 26, 1949.
c) January 26, 1950.
d) January 26, 1948.

3. The government of India Act 1935 provided for

a) Diarchy at the center.
b) Establishment of federal court.
c) Provincial autonomy.
d) All of the above.

4. India is a sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic, republic. This expression occurs in

a) Fundamental rights.
b) Citizenship.
c) Preamble
d) Directive principles.

5. The ultimate source of authority in India

a) The people.
b) The government.
c) The constitution.
d) The parliament.

6. The constitution of India declares India as

a) A unitary state.
b) A federation
c) A quasi-federal state
d) A union of states.

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7. The constitution of India is

a) Unitary in form but federal in spirit.
b) Unitary with strong federal bias.
c) Is full of strong unitary features.
d) Federal in form but unitary in spirit.

8. The President of the constituent assembly of India was

a) Pandith Jawaharlal Nehru.
b) Dr. Babu Rajendra Prasad.
c) Mahathma Mohandas K Gandhi.
d) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.

9. In the Indian constitution, the fundamental rights

a) Were added by the first amendment.
b) Were added by the 42nd amendment.
c) Formed a part of the original constitution.
d) None of the above.

10. The fundamental rights granted by the Indian constitution to its citizens cannot be
suspended
a) Except by an order of the President during national emergency.
b) Except through an order of the President during war.
c) Except by an order of the Supreme Court.
d) Under any circumstances.

11. Which of the following is no longer a fundamental right?

a) Right to liberty.
b) Right to equality.
c) Right to freedom of religion.
d) Right to property.

12. The constitution of India says 'untouchability' is abolished and its practice in any form is
prohibited. This is provided under
a) Right to equality.
b) Right to liberty.
c) Right against exploitation.
d) Right to constitutional remedies.

13. The basic feature of the Indian Constitution is found in

a) Fundamental Rights b) Fundamental Duties c) Preamble d) DPSP

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14. Original constitution classified fundamental rights into seven categories but now there are,
a) Eight b) Six c) Regrouped into social, economic and political d) Five

15. Writ of prohibition cannot be issued against the :

a) Judicial functions b) Legislative functions
c) Acts of lower courts d) Quasi - Judicial functions

16. According to 44th Amendment of 1978 the right to property was emitted as a
fundamental right and made it a
a) Social right b) Legal right c) Universal right d) None of these

17. Our constitution prohibits :

a) Untouchability b) Freedom c) Liquor d) Politics

18. The phrase economic justice is found in,

a) Fundamental rights and fundamental duties.
b) Preamble and Directive principles of state policy
c) Fundamental duties and directive principles of state policy
d) Fundamental rights and fundamental duties.

19. How many subjects are there in the central, state and concurrent list:
a) 97, 66 and 47 b) 47, 66 and 98
c) 97, 47 and 65 d) 47, 96 and 55

20. Right to primary education is a

a) Directive principle b) Fundamental right
c) Fundamental duty d) None of the above

21. Chairman of the constitution drafting committee was,

a) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
c) Jagajeevan ram d) Jawaharlal Nehru

22. Right to equality under article 14 means

a) Treating all people equally
b) Equality among equals and not equality among unequals
c) Upliftment of S.C.'s and S.T.'s and backward class people
d) None of the above

23. This is not the right of the arrested person

a) To inform him the ground of his arrest b) To consult his lawyer
c) To produce before the magistrate immediately
d) To produce before the magistrate within 24 hours

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24. Total number of articles in Indian constitution is

a) 397 b) 395 c) 400 d) 445

25. The preamble of the constitution declared India as

a) Sovereign, Democratic, Republic .b) Sovereign, Socialist, Democratic, Republic
c) Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic d) Sovereign, Republic
(Jan 2015)
26. Which one of the following writs is issued by the court in case of an illegal detention of
a person.
a) Habeas corpus b) Mandamus c) Certiorari d) Quo-Warranto

27. Right to cultural and educational rights implies

a. Provision of free and compulsory education
b) Special assistance to backward classes to educate them
c) Provision of religious and cultural instructions in schools run by the government
d) Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions of
their choice

28. Our constitution was adopted on and came into effect on .

a) 26m Nov 1949; 26l" Jan 1950 b) 26th Jan 1949; 26'" Jan
1959 c) 26th Feb 1946; 26lh Jan 1949 d) 15th Jan 1949; 15th Jan 1950

29. A person arrested has to be produced before magistrate

within
a) 48 hours b) 24 hours c) One week d) 72 hours

30. One of the salient features of our constitution is

a) It is fully rigid b) It is fully flexible
c) It is partly rigid and partly flexible d) None of these.

31. Writ is an order issued by HC or SC for of our fundamental rights.

a) Enforcement b) Encroachment c) Endangering d) Dissolving

32. Right against exploitation seeks to protect the weaker sections of the society by
a) Giving equal pay for equal work for men and women
b) Prohibiting human trafficking and Begar
c) Providing compulsory education for children below the age of 14 yrs
d) None of these

33. Chairman of the constituent assembly was and was the chairman of
drafting committee.
a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad & Dr. B.R.Ambedkar
b) Dr. B.R.Ambedkar & Dr. Rajendra Prasad
c) Pt. Jawaharlai Nehru & M.K.Gandhi
d) Sardar Vallabhai Patel & Dr. Rajendra Prasad

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34. According to , "Const it ut io n” means, the s ystem o f fundament al po lit ical

Institutions or an autobiography of power relationship.
a) G.C. Lewis b) Herman Fimer
c) Wade & Philips d) None of these.

35. The objective of the Constitution is to establish

a) a Sovereign State b) Democratic form of Govt.
c) a Sovereign Socialist, Secular. Democratic & Republic Govt.
d) None of these.

36. Fundamental Rights are available against

a) the action of the state b) the action of the Private individual
c) the action of both state & private individual
d) None of these.

37. Which one of the following is not a Fundamental Right?

a) Right to constitutional remedies b) Right to freedom of religion
c) Right to freedom d) Right to property

38. In case of an illegal detention of a person, normally the court issues writ.
a) Mandamus b) Quo - warranto,
c) Habeas corpus d) Certiorari

39.Which one of the following Article is known as heart and soul of the constitution?
a) Article-19 b), Article -32 c) Article-21 d) Article-22

UNIT II
1.'Secular' means
a) Full authority of Government to legislate on its people
b) No King or Queen, President is head of state
c) Treating all religions equally
d)Peoples' Government

2. The act of 1935 abolished

a) Diarchy at the center b) Diarchy in the provinces
c) Provincial autonomy d) All the above

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3. Diarchy means a system of
a) Double government b) Responsible government
c) Bureaucratic government d) All the above

4. The cabinet mission came to India in

a) 1944 b) 1945 c) 1946 d) 1943

5. The constituent assembly of India started its work in 1946 and completed its work in
a) Nov 1949 b) Jan 1949 c) Dec 1948 d) Jan 1950

6. The constituent assembly on Aug 29, 1947 appointed a drafting committee under the
chairmanship of
a) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar b) Sri. Sardar Patel.
c) Sri. B. G. Tilak d) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru

7. Which of the following words were added to the preamble of the Indian constitution by
the 42nd amendment?
a) Secular b) Socialist c) Integrity d) All the above.

8. Which of the following writ is issued by the Supreme Court if it sends an order to
restrain a person from acting in an office to which he is not entitled?
a) Habeas corpus b) Prohibition c) Certiorari d) Quo warranto

9.Under the Indian Constitution, the subjects of administration have been divided into
a)Two lists b) Three lists c) Four lists d) Five lists

10. The famous Dandi March done by Mahatma Gandhiji was against
a) British Rule b) Untouchability c) Sati System d) Salt Tax

11. The Indian constitution came into force on

a) 26.11.1949 b) 26.01.1950 c) 15.08.1947 d) 26.12.1950

12.The Preamble of the Constitution of India has been amended so far

a) Four times b) Thrice c) Twice d) Once

13. A state which does not promote or interfere in the affairs of religion is referred to as
a) Socialist b) Democratic c) Secular d) Fundamental rights

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14. Minority may be
a) Regional or National b) Linguistic or Religious
c) National or Racial d) Racial or Regional

15. Which one is not a fundamental right?

a) Right against exploitation b) Right to strike
b) Right to freedom of religion d) Right to equality

16. The Phrase 'Economic Justice' is found in

a) Preamble and Fundamental Rights
b) Preamble and Directive Principles
c) Fundamental Rights and Duties
d) Directive Principles and Fundamental Duties

17. In the Indian constitution, the fundamental rights

a) were added by the first amendment b) formed part of the original constitution
nd
c) were added by the 42 amendment d) were added by the 24' amendment

18. Right to religion is not subject to

a) public order b) public morality c) public welfare d) public health

19. Article 19 provides

a) Seven freedoms b) Five freedoms c) Two freedoms d} Six freedoms

20. Equality before law permits

a) Legislation based on race, religion, caste sex and place of birth
b) Legislation classification and prohibits class legislation
c) Class legislation and prohibits legislature classification
d) Legislative classification based on caste but prohibits class legislation based on religion.

21. Match the following :

i) Right to equality a) Article – 17
ii) Abolition of Untouchability b) Art icle- 14
iii) Freedom of Assembly c) Article - 19( 1) (d)
iv) Freedom of movement d) Article - 19(1) (b)
a) i - d , ii - c , iii - a , iv - b b) i - a , ii - d . iii - b , iv - c
c) i - b , ii - a , iii - d , iv - c d) i - d , ii - b . iii - c , iv - a.

22. The right Guaranteed under Article - 19 will be suspended only when a proclamation of
emergency is declared on the ground of
a) External aggression b) Armed rebellion
c) Internal aggression d) None of these

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MODULE 2

UNIT III

1. The main purpose of including directive principles of state policy in the constitution of India
is
a) To check the arbitrary action of the government.
b) To establish a secular state.
c) To establish a welfare state.
d) To provide opportunities for the development

2. Fundamental duties were incorporated in the constitution by the

a) 42nd Amendment Act, 1976.
b) 44th Amendment Act,
1978. c) 45lh Amendment
Act, 1980.
d) 46th Amendment Act, 1982.

3. This is not a directive principle,

a) Uniform civil code b) Workers participation in management
c) Minimum wage d) Prohibition of slaughtering of cows and calves

4. This is not a fundamental duty

a) Respect to national flag and national anthem
b) Safeguard public property
c) Respect to elders and teachers
d) Renounces the practices insulting to the dignity of women

5. The main objectives of directive principles are

a) Establish political democracy in the country
b) Establish social and economic democracy in the country
c) Raise the moral and ethical standard of people
d) Establish a police state in the country

6. Which one of the following directive principles can be described as Gandhian in nature?
a) Providing equal pay for equal work for men and women
b) Workers' participation in management
c) Organization of village panchayats as units of self-government
d) Separation of judiciary from the executive.

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7. Directive principles of state policies are
a) Non-justiciable b) Justiciable c) Only some are justiciable d) None

8. Which of the following is not a fundamental duty?

a) To protect and improve natural environment
b) To develop scientific temper
c) To abide by the constitution
d) To secure a uniform civil code applicable to the entire country

9. Directive principles of stale policies were incorporated in the constitution with a view to
a) Ensure a democratic government in the country
b) Provide a strong central government
c) Establish welfare state
d) Raise Ihe living standards of the weaker sections of the society

10. To respect the National Flag and National Anthem is a

a)- Fundamental duty of every citizen b) Fundamental right of every citizen
c) Directive principle of the state d) None of these

11. Fundamental duties under the Indian Constitution are provided by

a) An order of the President b) An order of the Supreme Court
c) An amendment to the Constitution d) A legislation by the Parliament
12. The Directive principles of State Policies are
a) Social Rights b) Fundamental Rights
c) Constitutional Rights d) Directive Principles of State

13. This is not a fundamental duty

a) To develop scientific temper
b) To protect natural environment
c) Not to indulge in corrupt practice
d) To abide by the constitution

14. The directive principles of the state policy do not direct the state to endeavour to protect
a) Environment b) the objects of artistic interest of National importance
c) Forest d) the interest of minorities

15. This is not a fundamental duty

a) Respect to National Flag and National Anthem b) Safeguard public property
c) Respect to elders and teachers d) Renounce the practices insulting the dignity of women

16. Directive principles come under of the constitution

a) Part-II b) Part-III c) Part -IV d) Part I

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17. The President of India may from time to time
a) Dissolve the Rajya Sabha.
b) Adjourn the Rajya Sabha.
c) Dissolve the Lok Sabha.
d) Adjourn the Lok Sabha

18. Presidents rule can be imposed in the states

a) a) During the national emergency. b) During general elections.
c) On failure of the constitutional machinery in a state.
d) All of the above

19. The minimum age prescribed for the membership of the Rajya Sabha is
a) 25 years.
b) 30 years.
c) 35 years.
d) 40 years.

20. Which of the following is not done by the President?

a) Prorogation of the houses of parliament.
b) Summoning the houses of parliament to meet.
c) Adjournment of the houses of parliament.
d) Dissolving the Lok Sabha.

21. No person can contest elections for the membership of the Lok Sabha unless he is a
citizen of India and has competed the age of
a) 21 years.
b) 22 years.
c) 24 years.
d) 25 years.

22. The ministers of the union cabinet are answerable to

a) The Prime Minister.
b) The Lok Sabha.
c) The President.
d) The Vice-President.

23. The executive power of the state is vested in

a) The Governor.
b) The state Legislature.
c) The Chief M inister.
d) None of the above.

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24. The speaker of the Lok Sabha

a) Is appointed by the President.
b) Is elected by the members of the Parliament.
c) Is elected by the members of the Lok Sabha.
d) None of the above.
25. Which of the following is the guardian of the fundamental rights of the citizens?
a) The Supreme Court.
b) The President.
c) The Parliament.
d) The Lok Sabha.

26. The President of India has power to issue ordinances when

a) There is a national emergency.
b) The Lok Sabha has been dissolved.
c) The Government wants immediate legislation.
d) The Parliament is not in session.

27. The Indian judiciary is a

a) Highest law-making body.
b) Single and integrated judicial system.
c) Dependent judicial system.
d) None of the above.

28. Which of the following falls under the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?
a) Disputes relating to the civil matters.
b) Disputes relating to the criminal matters.
c) Disputes between two citizens belonging to two different states.
d) Disputes between the two states of the Indian union.

29 The Supreme Court of India can review

a) Its own orders or judgments.
b) The orders issued by the executive.
c) The laws passed by the legislature.
d) Both (a) and (b).

30. All the union ministers sail and swim together. The entire ministry has to resign if it
loses the confidence of the
a) President of India.
b) LokSabha.
c) Rajya Sabha.
d) None of the above.

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31. The ministers hold office during the pleasure of the President which infact means during
the pleasure of
a) The Parliament.
b) The LokSabha.
c) The Prime Minister.
d) None of the above.

32. Which of the following contains largest number of subjects?

a) State list.
b) Concurrent list.
c) Union list.
d) None of these

33. An integral part of the Parliament is

a) The President of India.
b) The Chief Justice of India.
c) The Prime Minister of India.
d) The Election Commissioner.
34. — of the members of the Rajya Sabha retire
a) Every year.
b) Every two years.
c) Every three years.
d) None of the above.

35. Chief Justice and other Judges of the Supreme Court hold office until they attain the age
of
a) 50 years.
b) 55 years.
c) 60 years.
d) 65 years.

36. A person to be appointed as Prime Minister

a) Should be a member of Lok Sabha
b) Should be a member of Rajya Sabha
c) Should become member of Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha within six months
d) Should be a post graduate

37. Rajya Sabha has a term of

a) 5 years b) 6 years c) Permanent body d) 4 years

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38. To become a Judge of Supreme Court

a) He must be a distinguished jurist
b) He must be a judge of High Court for at least 5 years
c) He must have served at least 10 years in any High Court
d) One among above option is sufficient

39. There is a provision for impeachment of

a) Governor b) Vice President
c) President d) Judges of the Supreme Court and high court

40. Who discharges the duties of the President in the event of President and Vice- President
being not available?
a) The Prime Minister b) The Chief justice of India
c) The speaker of Loka Sabha d) Attorney General of India

41. Who of the following, are not appointed by the President on the advice of Prime Minister?
a) Chief Justice and other judges of SC
b) Chairman and members of Union Public Service Commission
c) Governors of states
d) Speaker of Lok Sabha

42. What is the minimum age in years for becoming MP at LS and RS?
a) 25 and 30 b) 30 and 25 c) 18 and 25 d) 25 and 18

43. Which one of the following can the President of India declare?
a) Emergency due to threat of war, external aggression or armed rebellion
b) Emergency due to break down of constitutional machinery in the state
c) Financial emergency on account of threat to the financial credit of India
d) All the above.

47. President can be removed by impeachment procedure on the ground of violating the
constitution by
a) Supreme court b) LS only c) Both the houses of Parliament d) High court

48. Which of the following confers upon the citizens, the right to approach a court of law
for the protection and restoration of fundamental rights?
a) Right to constituent remedies b) Right against exploitation.
c) Right to equality d) Right to liberty

49. Which of the following statement is correct?

a) Parliament cannot amend fundamental rights
b) Parliament can amend fundamental rights
c) Only President can ask the parliament not to amend a particular fundamental rig ht
d) Only President can issue orders to amend fundamental rights

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50. A citizen's fundamental rights are protected
a) By the executive when the citizen brings the issue before it
b) Automatically by the Supreme Court
c) When the citizen approaches the court for a remedy
d) By parliament when the issue is brought before it by the executive

UNIT IV
1. A bill presented in the parliament becomes an act after
a) It is passed by both the houses b) The Prime Minister has signed it
c) The Supreme Court has declared it to be within the competence of union parliament
d) The President has given his assent

2. Which of the following shall not be introduced in the Rajya Sabha?

a) Union budget b) A money bill c) A constitutional amendment d) None of the above

3. A person shall not be qualified to be chosen to fill a seat in the Rajya Sabha unless he is
a) Not less than 21 years of age b) Not less than 35 years of age
c) Not less than 30 years of age d) Not less than 25 years of age

4. The seat of a member of parliament may be declared vacant, if he is, without the
permission of the house absent from the meeting of that house for a period of
a) 40 days b) 60 days c) 90 days d) 25 days

5. The President of India is elected indirectly by an electoral college, which of the

following is not included in such Electoral College?
a) Elected members of assemblies of the union territories
b) Elected members of Lok Sabha
c) Elected members of Rajya Sabha
d) Elected members of the legislative assemblies of states

6. The Rajya Sabha from amongst its own members elects

a) Its speaker b) Its deputy speaker c) Its chairman d) Its deputy chairman

7. According to the Indian constitution, the executive power of the union is vested with
a) The Parliament b) The Prime Minister c) The President d) The Vice-President

8. The President of India

a) Can address either house of the parliament b) Can dissolve the Lok Sabha
c) Can promulgate ordinance during the recess of parliament d) All the above

9. No person shall be eligible for the election as President of India unless he is

a) A member of the Rajya Sabha b) Qualified for election to the Lok Sabha
c) A member of the Lok Sabha d) Qualified for election to the Rajya Sabha.

10. The President of India has power to issue ordinances when

a) The parliament is not in session b) The Government wants immediate legislation

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c) The Lok Sabha has been dissolved d) There is a national emergency

11. Which of the following administers oath of office to the President of India?
a) The Vice-President b) The Prime Minister
c) The speaker of Lok Sabha d) The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court

12. The President of India is

a) Nominated b) Appointed c) Selected d) Elected

13. After having been passed by both the houses of parliament when a non money bill is
presented to the President for his assent, he may
a) Sign it b) Return the bill for reconsideration
c) With hold it d) All the above.

14. Which of the following can issue ordinances during the recess of parliament?
a) The deputy speaker of Lok Sabha b) The Minister of parliamentary affairs.
c) The Prime Minister d) The President

15. Chief Justice or other judges of the Supreme Court after their retirement or removal are
not eligible to practice in
a) Any court other than Supreme Court b) Any court in India or outside India
c) Any court or before any authority within the territory of India
d) Any courts other than the state High Courts

16. Which of the following administers oath of the office and secrecy to the Ministers in a
state?
a) The Chief Justice of High Court b) Senior judge of High Court
c) The Governor d) The Chief Minister of the state

17. The salary of the judges of High Court is charged on

a) The consolidated fund of India b) The contingency fund of India
c) The contingency fund of state d) The consolidated fund of the slate

18. According to the marriage act of 1954, the age is fixed at 21 years for men and
for women for getting married :
a) 18 years b) 19 years c) 20 years d) 14 years

19. Which of the following has the power of judicial review?

a) High courts b) District courts c) Supreme court d) All the above

20. Which of the following is not one of the three organs of the Union / State?
a) Executive b) Press c) Judiciary d) Legislative
21. How many Anglo - Indians and other members can be nominated by the President to the
Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha?
a) 2 and 12 b) 2 and 10 c) 1 and 12 d) 1 and 10

22. Who will preside over the Joint session of both houses of Parliament?

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a) President b) Prime Minister c) Speaker d) None of these

23.'Judicial Review' means:

a) Reviewing the lower court judgement b) Reviewing the laws passed by the legislature
c) Examining the actions of executives d) Advising the president of India

24.The Controller and Auditor General acts as the,

a) Guardian of public finances b) Chief legal advisor of the government
c) Guardian of public interests d) Guardian of fundamental rights

25. The president can appoint to Lok Sabha from Anglo Indian community:
a) Two persons b) One person c) Five person d) Three persons

26. Which article of the constitution provides protection to the civil servants?
a) 315 b) 311 c) 368 d) 388

27. India is known as Parliamentary Democracy because:

a) Powers have been clearly distributed between center and states.
b) President is elected indirectly.
c) MPs are directly elected by the people.
d) Executive is responsible to the parliament

28. The Vice President is having power:

a) To sign bills passed by Rajya Sabha b) To preside over Rajya Sabha.
c) To nominate two members to Rajya Sabha d) To Promulgate ordinance

29. Parliament of India consists of,

a) Lok Sabha b) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
c) Only Rajya Sabha d) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha & the President of India

30. The ground for the impeachment of the President

a) Failure to follow the advice given by the Prime Minister
b) Unable to discharge his duties due to old age
c) Violation of constitution
d) Misbehavior with Foreign dignitaries.

31. The Ministers hold office during the pleasure of President which infact means during the
pleasure of a) the Parliament b) the Lok sabha c) the Prime Minister d) None of these

32.The total number of ministers in the council of ministers of the Union shall not exceed

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a) 21 % of the total members of Lok sabha
b) 12 % of the total members of Lok sabha
c) 15 % of the total members of Lok sabha
d) 15 % of the total members of both Lok sabha and Rajya sabha

33. There is no provision for impeachment of

a) Judges of Supreme court and high court c) President
b) Vice President d) Governor

MODULE 3

UNIT V

1. The Governor in the state plays a dual role as an agent of the President and
a) As the agent of Chief Minister in the state. b) As the agent of Chief Justice of India
c) As the constitutional head of the state. d) As the agent of the Prime Minster.

2. The state legislative assembly is prorogued by

a) The Chief Minister.
b) The Governor.
c) The Speaker of the assembly.
d) None of the above.

3. The Chief Justice and other Judges of the other state High Courts hold office until they attain the
age of
a) 58 years.
b) 60 years.
c) 62 years.
d) 65 years.

4. Chief minister of a state is appointed by

a) President b) Governor
c) High Command of a political party d) Chief Justice of the high court

5. Which state among the following has two houses,

a) Tamilnadu b) Andhra Pradesh c) Kamataka d) West Bengal

6. A Legislature council is
a) Dissolved every 6 years b) Dissolved every 4 years
c) It is a permanent body d) None of the above

7. Can the governor be the governor of two states?

a) Yes b) No c) Only one state d) None of the above

8. What is the minimum age to contest Vidhana Parishad

a) 25 years b) 30 years c) 18 years d) 35 years

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9. Who is the Present Governor of Karnataka?

a) T. N. Chaturvedi b) V. S. Ramadevi
c) Rameshwar Thakur d) None of the above

10. In state, the Governor is given certain special powers with respect to the administration of
the tribal areas as provided in the sixth schedule of the constitution.
a) Karnataka b) Maharashtra c) Assam d) Kerala

11. The Governor recommends the imposition of President's rule in the state
a) On the recommendation of state Legislature
b) On the recommendation of Chief Minister
c) On the recommendation of Council of ministers
d) If he is satisfied that the Government of state can not be carried on in accordance with the
provisions of constitution.

12 The meetings of Council of Ministers are presided over by

a) Chief Minister b) Governor
c) The Minister for parliamentary affairs d) By all the Ministers by rotation.

13. Governor reserves the right to issue ordinances

a) When the state legislature is not in session and he feels that there is an immediate need of
action.
b) Whenever the state is under President's rule c) Whenever he likes d) None

14.The Chief Justice and other judges of high court are appointed by
a) The President b) The Chief Justice of India c) Governor d) Chief Minister

15. In which of the following, is it constitutionally obligatory for the state to have a separate
minister for tribal welfare?
a) Bihar b) Madhya Pradesh c) Orissa d) All of these

16. The council of ministers, with the Chief Minister as the head is
a) To guide the Governor b) Collectively responsible to the legislature of the states
c) Responsible to the Governor d) Appointed by the Governor

17. The Governor is the constitutional head of the state and he is appointed by
a) The President.
b) The President on the recommendation of the speaker of the Lok Sabha and Chairman of the
Rajya Sabha.
c) The Prime Minister on the recommendation of both the houses of parliament.
d) The President on the recommendation of the state legislative assembly.

18.The Governor of the State is

a) Chosen by the Chief Minister b) Elected by the citizens of that state

c) Appointed by the President d) Selected by the state legislature

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19. The Governor may resign his office by writing to

a) The Vice-President of India b) The President of India
c) The Chief Justice of High Court d) The Chief Minister of state

20.The Council of Ministers in the state shall be collectively responsible to the

a) Chief Minister b) Legislative assembly of the state
c) Governor d) Chief Justice of High Court

21. The oath of like to a Governor of a state is administrated by

a) The Prime Minister b) The Chief Justice of the High Court in the state
c) The President d) The Chief Minister of the state.

22. The Governor of a state may be removed by the

a) President b) State legislature c) Chief Minister d) None of the above

23. Generally the Governor belongs to

a) Neighboring State b) Same State c) Some other State d) IAS Officer

24.The emoluments, allowances and privileges of the Governor shall be determined by the
a) Chief Minister b) Prime Minister c) President d) Parliament

25. 'Bicameral' means

a) Presence of two Houses in the State b) Presence of one House in the State
c) Presence of half House in the State d) Presence of no House in the State

26. What is the effect of the resignation or death of the Chief Minister of the State?
a) New Chief Minister Takes Oath b) Mid - term polls
c) dissolves the Legislative Assembly d) None of these

27. The minimum gap permissible between the two sessions of the legislature is
a) Three months b) Six months c) Two months d) Six weeks

28. Who is the neutral in the affairs of the party politics?

a) Chief Minister b) Home Minister c) Finance Minister d) Speaker

29. Which state among the following has two houses

a) Tamilnadu b) Andlira Pradesh c) West Bengal d). Karnataka

30. To become a judge of the High Court, one must be practicing advocate of High court for
a period of at least ----- years

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a) 20 b) 10 c) 15 d) 5

31. According to the Marriage Act of 1954, the age is fixed at 21 years for the men and
for women
a) 15 years. b) 18 years. c)21 years d)25 years.

32. The Election Commissioners are appointed by

a) The President. b)The Prime Minister. c)The Chief Justice of India. d)The Vice President.

33.Which amendment of the constitution repealed right to property

a) 42nd b) 43rd c) 44th d) 46th

34. This is not the function of election commission

a) Preparation of electoral rolls b) Determines code of conduct to candidates
c) Selection of the candidate d) Allotment of symbols

35. 74th amendment of the constitution refers

to a) Rural local bodies b) Urban local bodies
c) Repealment of right to property d) None of the above

36. Which article deals with Amendment procedure of Indian Constitution?

a) Article 352 b) Article 360 c) Article 368 d) Article 356

37. Regional Election Commissioners may be appointed by the President with the consultation
of the
a) Governor b) Prime Minister
c) Vice President d) Election Commission

38. Which amendment deals with the establishment of Municipalities as a part of

constitution
system?
a) 42nd b) 74th c) 76th d) 86th

39.A citizen of India may be debarred from the right to vote on the ground of
a) Unsoundness of mind b) Non-residence
c) Crime or corrupt or illegal practice d) All the above

40. Who has been made responsible for free and fair elections in the country?
a) The President b) The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
b) The Chief Election Commission d) Vice-President

UNIT VI

1.The Election Commission does not conduct election to the

a) Members of State Legislative Assembly b) Members of Parliament
c) President d) Speaker of Lok Sabha

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2. What is the system used to elect the President of India?

a) Direct Election b) Proportional Representation
c) Secret Ballet d) preferential system

3. The 'Amendment Procedure' to the constitution is borrowed from the constitution of

a) South Africa b) United States c) Australia d) Britain

4. Which was the lengthiest Amendment to the constitution?

a) 44th b) 42nd c) 43rd d) 24th

5. The final stage of the election process is:

a) Polling b) Counting of votes c) Announcement of results d) None of these

6. Voting age of citizens is changed from 21 to 18 years by which Constitutional

Amendment Act:
a) 42nd b) 56th c) 61st d) 76th

7. 74th Amendment of the constitution refers to :

a) Rural local bodies b) Right to property
c) Urban local bodies d) None of these

8. This is not the function of Election commission

a) Selection of the candidates b) preparation of electoral rules
c) Determine code of conduct to candidates d) allotment of symbols

9. Legally permissible age for boy and girl is

a) 25 and 23 b) 21 and 18 c) 16 and 18 d) 20 and 18

0. Voting age of citizen is reduced from 21 to 18 years by constitutional amendment

a) 42nd b) 61st c) 7th d) 55th

MODULE 4

UNIT VII
1. Creamy layer means
a) Upper caste people b) Highly cultured people
c) Persons holding high post and having higher income of backward class people
d) Children of the ministers.

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2. If the national emergency is declared, the following fundamental rights cannot be

suspended,
a) Art 14 b) Article 19 c) Article 32 d) Article 20 and 21

3. National commission for women was constituted under

a) Act of 1990 b) Act of 1993 c) Act of 1995 d) Act of 1998

4. The constitution empowers state government to make special law for

a) Farmers b) Women and children c) Workers d) Unemployed youth

5. There is reservation of seats for S.C's and S.T's in both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
a) Yes b) No c) Only in Lok Sabha d) Only in Rajya Sabha

6. President can declare National Emergency under

a) Article 256 b) Article 356 c) Article 352 d) Article 360

7. Which is the commission appointed by the Government of India to investigate the

conditions of socially and educationally backward classes of the society?
a) Nanavathi b) Singhvi c) Narasimhan d) Mandal

8. Indian Constitution guarantees reservation to SCs and STs in

a) Legislative Assembly only b) Lok Sabha only
C) Legislative Assembly and Lok Sabha d) Rajya Sabha only.

9. Jobs are reserved for scheduled castes and scheduled tribes people
a) Both at the time of appointment and promotion
b) On the basis of their annual income
c) At the time of appointment
d) At the time of promotion.

10. Breakdown of constitutional machinery in a State is popularly known as

a) National Emergency b) President's Rule
c) Financial Emergency d) All of these

UNIT VIII
11. The President can proclaim an emergency on the ground of
a) War b) Armed rebellion
c) External aggression d) All of these

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12. Which one of the following types of emergency has not yet declared, till now?
a) State Emergency b) National Emergency
c) Financial Emergency d) None of these

13.Exclusion of Creamy layer makes a backward class:

a) Socially backward b) Truly back
c) More backward d) Economically backward

14. State emergency is declared by the:

a) Chief minister b) Governor c) Lok Sabha d) President

15. The Mandal commission for backward classes was setup in,
a)1987 b)1978 c) 1996 d)1986

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16. Which amendment deals with establishment of municipalities as a part of constit utional
system th
a) 74th b) 76 c) 86Ih d). 44th

17. The constitution empowers State Government to make special law for
a) unemployed youth b) farmer c) workers d) women and children

18. To declare National Emergency a decision must be taken by the

a) Rajya Sabha
b) Lok Sabha
c) Union Cabinet
d) Both by the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.

19. According to Indian constitution, the power of amending the constitution are vested with
a) Parliament of India b) President of India
c) People of India d) The Prime Minister of India

20. The right to education was made a fundamental right in

a) 42nd amendment b)86th amendment c) 44th amendment d) 91st amendment

21. A new fundamental duty was added where parents or guardians were direct to provide
educational opportunities to children between 6 and 14 years in
a) 42nd amendment b)86th amendment c) 44th amendment d) 91st amendment

22. which amendment is called as mini constitution of INDIA

a)42nd b) 44th c)86th c) 91st

23. Three words are added to preamble i.e. Socialist, Secular & Republic by------------- amendment
a)42nd b) 44th c)86th c) 91st

24. The fundamental duties of INDIAN Citizen were added to the constitution by -------------
amendment

a)42nd b) 44th c)86th c) 91st

MODULE 5

UNIT IX

1. Engineers can use codes of ethics as guide lines to

a ) Resolve the conflicts.
b) Formulate the problem.
c) Shift the responsibility.
d) Overcome the work pressure.
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2. No code will give ...... to get solutions for ethical problems
a) Guide lines. b) Set of ideas.
c) An algorithm.
d) Ethical standards

3. Which of the following is not considered as the aim of engineering ethics?

a) Moral imagination.
b) Identification of ethical issues.
c) Development of analytical skills.
d) Shifting of responsibility.

3. In ........ concept of responsibility, an attention is paid to those who are at the risk of
being harmed
a.) Minimalist.
b) Reasonable care.
c) Good works views.
d) All of the above.

4. Fear is .......... to responsibility

a) A way to shift.
b) An impediment.
c) A way to corrupt.
d) Both (a) and (c).

5. As applied to engineering research and testing, retaining the data to draw a non-
contradictory statement, discarding the rest is called
a) Cooking.
b) Trimming.
c) Scanning.
d) Skimming.

6. The public is put to increased risk by allowing increased number of deviations from
specified standards of safety and acceptable risk is known as
a) Normal accident.
b) Normalizing deviance.
c) Risk assessment.
d) Overestimated risk.

7. Conflict of interest exists for an engineer when he is subject to,

a) Threat b) Loyalties c) Professional harassment d) Professional impediments

8. Corrupt professional judgment leads to

a) Integrity in R&D b) Conflicts of interests c) Reliabiliaty d) None of these

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9. Stealing of intellectual property means

a) Cooking b) Forging c) Trimming d) Plagiarism

10. One of the aims of studying engineering ethics is to

a) Inspire engineers to acquire in-depth knowledge in their field
b) Acquire new skills in engineering testing
c) Stimulate moral imaginations
d) Make engineers self-confident in discharging their duties.

11. Which one is not an impediment to responsibility?

a) Group-think b) Microscopic vision
c) Trade mark d) Ego-centric tendencies

12. 'Being safe or blaming others' is

a) Minimalist b) Reasonable care

c) Good- works d) None of these.

13. The professional ethics deals with accepted by the professional community.
a) Scientific standards b) Ethical standards.
c) Personal ethics d) Technical specifications

14.A professional engineer takes the help of codes of ethics when he enters into
a) Doubts b) Legal problems c) Ethical crises d) Confusion

15. Responsibility is assigned as belonging to engineers in

a) Rule b) Morality c) Both rule and morality d) Obligation

16. As applied to responsibility, attitude of avoiding blame or being safe is the prime
concern in
a) Reasonable care b) Minimalist approach c) Good works views d) All the above

17. Ignorance as a hindrance to responsibility is not due to

a) Over confidence b) Lack of imagination c) Pressure of deadlines d) Fear

18. An ethical theory that finds the basis of moral distinctions in the utility and actions (i.e.
fitness to produce happiness or maximizing well being is known as
a) Utilitarianism b) Normal deviance c) Break even analysis d) Both (b) and (c).

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19. In issuing testimony, which of the following is not expected by an engineer

a) Not to accept, if there is no adequate time
b) Not to accept, if he/she cannot do so with good conscience
c) Being open to information, during the course of the trail
d) Not to maintain an objective and be biased

22. Engineering Ethics is a

a) Developing ethics b) Natural ethics
c) Scientifically developed ethics d) Preventive ethics

23. This is not the aim of studying Engineering Ethics

a) Analyzing concepts b) Engaging sense of responsibility
c) Addressing unclarity d) Procuring faultless results

24. An engineer may not be held legally liable for causing harm, when the harm is caused.
a) Intentionally b) Ignorantly c) Negligently d) Recklessly

25. This is not impediment to responsibility

a) Self - deception b) Self - respect c) Ignorance d) Fear

26. These are not trade secrets

a) Principles b) Patterns c) Formulas d) Devices
27. The use of intellectual property of others without their permission or credit is referred as
a) Trimming b) Cooking c) Forging d) Plagiarism

28. Patent holder does not allow others to use patented information for years from data
of filing.
a) 40 b) 30 c) 20 d) 10

29. Which of the following does not depict the attitude towards responsibility?
a) Good works a) Protest c) Reasonable care d) Minimalist

30. Which of the following is not preserved as an intellectual property?

a) Government Regulations b) Copy rights c) Patents d) Trade secrets

31. Engineers must:

a) Recognize the value of a code of Ethics b) Support a code of ethics
c) Look upon a code of ethics as a sacred writ d) Both (a) and (b).

32. Group thinking:

a) Gives a good result b) Leads to a better result
c) Widens our knowledge d) Is an impediment to responsibility

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33. One of the basic attitudes towards responsibility is:

a) Vigilant view b) Minimalist view c) Moralistic view d) All

34. Which of the following is not the conflict of interest as applied to making professional
judgement
a) Virtual.
b) Actual.
c) Apparent.
d) Potential.

35. "The ideal fuel for modern living" is an example of

a) Trade secret.
b) Patent.
c) Copy right.
d) Trade mark.

36. A compound measure of the probability and magnitude of adverse effect is known as
a) Compensation. b) Benefit c) Risk d) Accident

37. This is not dishonesty in engineering research and testing

a) Crimping b) Forging c) Cooking d) Plagiarism

38. Revealing confidential information amounts to

a) Breach of contract b) Misusing of truth
c) Criminal breach of trust d) Violation of patent right

39. Minimalist view means

a) A ministerial view b) A narrow thinking
c) A concept of responsibility d) A novel plan to minimize industrial loss

40. If one considers engineering profession as a building, then the following is its
foundation, a) Imagination b) Creativity c) Honesty d) Accepting the risk

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UNIT X

1. The use of intellectual property of others without their permission is known as

a) Forging b) Cooking c) Trimming d) Plagiarism

2.A fault tree is used to

a) Assess the risk involved b) To claim compensation
c) Take free consent d) To improve safety

3. Fear is to responsibility
a) A way of shift b) An impediment c) A conflict d) None of the above

4. It is not a kind of trade mark

a) Designs b) Symbols c) Sounds d) Good will

5. Owner of the patent rights will be having patent rights for

a) 100 years b) 75 years c) 50 years d) 20 years

6. Tight couple means

a) Binding two beams tightly b) Process tightly coupled
c) Erecting two pillars side by side d) Strong adhesive material

7. To overcome an impediment, 'Uncritical Acceptance", what step an engineer has to take?

a) Accept and analyze b) Analyze and accept
c) Always say Yes Boss d) None of these.

8. Which one is not dishonesty in engineering R&D?

a) Cooking b) Forging c) Rolling d) Trimming

9. 'Respite" means
a) Death due to drawing b) Awarding lesser punishment
c) Death due to strangulation d) Painless death

10. Which one is not the way of misusing truth?

a) Withholding information
b) Failing to adequately promote the dissemination of information
c) Deliberate deception
d) Patenting
11. Engineers are hired as experts for technical investigations. 'Expert testimony' demands
a) Adequate time for thorough investigation b) Consulting extensively with the lawyer
c) Objective and unbiased demeanor d) All of these.

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12. Risk of harm equal to probability of producing benefit is a) Inevitable risk b)

Acceptable risk
c) Risk winch cannot be avoided d) None of these

13. The owner of' Patent right retains his patent right for _years.
a) 20 b) 50 c) 75 d) 100

14. As applied to engineering research and testing, trimming is

a) Acquiring and consolidating the data
b) Scanning and/or skimming the information
c) Smoothing of irregularities to make the data to appear accurate and precise
d) Retaining all the data and subjecting it to manipulation

15. In which of the following systems, the risk estimation is difficult?

a) Complexly interactive b) Tight coupled c) Loosely coupled d) Both (b) and (c)

16. 'Fault Tree' is used:

a) To trace the risk
b) To assess the accuracy
c) To trace the result
d) To assess the risk

17. This is not dishonesty in science and engineering,

a) Cooking b) Forging
c) Trimming d) Blending

18. As applied to engineering research and testing retaining the contradictory statement,
discarding the rest is called:
a) Trimming b) Scanning c) Cooking d) Skimming

19. Cooking means

a) Boiling under pressure b) Retaining result which fit the theory
c) Making deceptive statements d) misleading the public about the quality of product

20. Egocentric tendencies mean

a) Superiority complex b) Interpreting situation from limited view
c) Arrogant and irresponsible behavior d) Habit of condemning views of others

21. If one considers engineering profession as a building, then the following is its foundation
a) accepting the risk b) imagination c) Honesty d) Creativity

22. Lying is a) dishonesty b) one of the ways of misusing the truth

c) Cheating d) None of these

23. Revealing confidential information amounts to

a) violation of patent b) misuse of truth c) breach of contract d) criminal breach of trust.

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