ZEAL COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING AND RESEARCH, NARHE

DEPARTMENT OF CIVIL ENGINEERING

Building Technology and Architectural Planning
QUESTION BANK
Unit 1: Introduction to Building Construction and Masonry
1. The brick laid with its length parallel to the face of a wall, is a known as
(A) Mansard truss
(B) Queen post truss
(C) King post truss
(D) Collar truss
2. In verandah (corridor) floors outward slope is
(A) 1 in 40
(B) 1 in 50
(C) 1 in 60
(D) 1 in 70
3. Black cotton soil is unsuitable for foundations because its
(A) Bearing capacity is low
(B) Permeability is uncertain
(C) Particles are cohesive
(D) Property to undergo a volumetric change due to variation of moisture content
4. A temporary rigid structure having platforms to enable masons to work at different stages of a
building, is known as
(A) Scaffolding
(B) Dead shore
(C) Raking shore
(D) Under pinning
5. The stone whose crushing strength is least, is
(A) Granite
(B) Chalk
(C) Marble
(D) Slate
6. The portion of a brick cut across the width, is called
(A) Closer
(B) Half brick
(C) Bed
(D) Bat
7. The type of bond in which every course contains both headers and stretchers, is called
(A) English bond
(B) Flemish bond
(C) Russian bond
(D) Mixed bond
8. To support a heavy structure in sandy soil, the type of foundation generally used, is
(A) Combined footing
(B) Raft footing
(C) Pier footing
(D) Strap footing
9. The form work from the sides of beams can be removed only after
(A) 1 day
(B) 4 days
(C) 7 days
(D) 14 days
10. The least bearing capacity of soil is that of
(A) Hard rock
(B) Moist clay
(C) Soft rock
(D) Coarse sandy soil
11. Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) English bond is used for brick masonry to support heavy loads
(B) Double-Flemish bond is suitable for brick masonry to give uniform face appearance
(C) The stretcher bond is used for the construction of half brick masonry brick
(D) All the above
12. The pile which is provided with a bulb filled with concrete at its lower end, is known as
(A) Simplex pile
(B) Mac-Arthur pile
(C) Raymond pile
(D) Franki pile
13. In soils possessing low bearing capacity, the type of foundation generally provided, is
(A) Column footing
(B) Grillage footing
(C) Raft footing
(D) All the above
14. The minimum strength of the mortar used in load bearing brick masonry, is
(A) 50 N/cm2
(B) 100 N/cm2
(C) 150 N/cm2
(D) 200 N/cm2
15. As compared to stretcher course, the thickness of joints in header course should be
(A) Less
(B) More
(C) Equal
(D) Equal or more
16. To obtain good bonding in brick masonry
(A) First class bricks are used
(B) Vertical joints in alternate courses are kept in plumb line
(C) Bats are used where necessary
(D) All the above
17. The type of pointing in which upper side of mortar joints is kept about 12 mm inside the face
of the masonry and bottom is kept flushed with face of wall, is
(A) Truck pointing
(B) Recessed pointing
(C) Struck pointing
(D) Grooved pointing
18. The maximum total settlement for isolated foundations on clayey soils should be limited to
(A) 25 mm
(B) 40 mm
(C) 65 mm
 (D) 100 mm

19. The foundation which consists of a thick reinforced cement slab covering whole area to support
heavy concentrated structural loads, is known as
(A) Combined footing
(B) Strap footing
(C) Raft footing
(D) None of these
20. The position of a brick when laid on its side 9 cm × 9 cm with its frog in the vertical plane, is
called
(A) Brick on edge
(B) Brick on end
(C) Brick on bed
(D) Brick held vertically
21. Raft foundation are generally preferred to when the area required for individual footing, is
more than
(A) 25% to total area
(B) 30% of total area
(C) 40% to total area
(D) 50% of total area
22. The type of footing which is used to transmit heavy loads through steel columns is
(A) Raft foundation
(B) Grillage foundation
(C) Well foundation
(D) Isolated footing
23. Dutch bond is a modification of
(A) English bond
(B) Stretcher bond
(C) Header bond
(D) Single Flemish bond
24. In ordinary residential and public buildings, the damp proof course is generally provided at
(A) Ground level
(B) Plinth level
(C) Water table level
(D) Midway ground level and water-table level
25. The important test to be conducted on a stone used in docks and harbors is
(A) Hardness test
(B) Workability test
(C) Weight test
(D) Toughness test
26. The bond in which headers and stretchers are laid in alternate courses and every stretcher
course is started with a three fourth brick bat, is known as
(A) English cross bond
(B) Dutch bond
(C) Monk bond
(D) Rat-trap bond
27. The type of stone masonry in which stones of same height are laid in layers, is called
(A) Random rubble masonry
(B) Course rubble masonry
(C) Uncoursed rubble masonry
 (D) Ashlar masonry

28. Single Flemish bond consists of

(A) Double Flemish bond facing and English bond backing in each course
(B) English bond facing and double Flemish bond backing in each course
(C) Stretcher bond facing and double Flemish bond backing in each course
(D) Double Flemish bond facing and header bond backing in each course
29. The foundations are placed below ground level, to increase
(A) Strength
(B) Workability
(C) Stability of structure
(D) All the above
30. The type of bond in a brick masonry containing alternate courses of stretchers and headers, is
called
(A) Flemish bond
(B) English bond
(C) Stretcher bond
(D) Header bond
31. The arrangement made to support an unsafe structure temporarily, is known as
(A) Shoring
(B) Scaffolding
(C) Underpinning
(D) Jacking
32. The type of pointing in which a V-shaped projection outside the wall surface, is provided, is
called
(A) Recessed pointing
(B) Weather pointing
(C) V-pointing
(D) Tuck pointing
33. In English garden wall bond
(A) One course of headers to three or five course of stretchers
(B) Queen closer in provided in each heading course
(C) The middle course of stretchers is started with a header to give proper vertical joints
(D) All the above
34. In case of foundations on sandy soil, maximum permissible differential settlement, is usually
limited to
(A) 15 mm
(B) 25 mm
(C) 35 mm
(D) 45 mm
35. The dimensions of a half queen closer, are
(A) 9 cm × 9 cm × 9 cm
(B) 9 cm × 9 cm × 4.5 cm
(C) 9 cm × 4.5 cm × 9 cm
(D) 1.8 cm × 4.5 cm × 9 cm
36. As compared to English bond, double Flemish bond is
(A) Stronger
(B) More compact
(C) Costly
(D) None of the above
37. The stone masonry of finely dressed stones laid in cement or lime, is
(A) Random rubble masonry
(B) Coursed rubble masonry
(C) Dry rubble masonry
(D) Ashlar masonry
38. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:
(A) The function of foundation is to distribute the load of super structure over a large bearing
area
(B) No timbering is required for shallow trenches
(C) Shallow foundations can be constructed on made-up soil
(D) Black cotton soil is very good for foundation bed
39. The maximum bearing capacity of soil is that of
(A) Black cotton soil
(B) Loose fine sandy soil
(C) Dry coarse sandy soil
(D) Hard rocks
40. The 19 cm × 9 cm side of a brick as seen in the wall face, is generally known as
(A) Stretcher
(B) Face
(C) Front
(D) Header
41. Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) A combined footing is so proportioned that centre of gravity of supporting area coincides
with centre of gravity of two column loads
(B) A combined footing may be either rectangular or trapezoidal in shape
(C) Trapezoidal shaped footings may be provided under any loading
(D) All the above
42. The piece of a brick cut along the centre of width in such a way that its length is equal to that
of full brick, is called
(A) Half brick
(B) Queen closer
(C) King closer
(D) Bevelled closer
43. Number of vertical joints in a stretcher course is x times the number of joints in the header
course, where x is equal to
(A) 1/2
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 1/4
44. The maximum total settlement for raft foundation on clayey soils should be limited to
(A) 25 mm
(B) 25 to 40 mm
(C) 40 to 65 mm
(D) 65 to 100 mm
45. The arrangement of supporting an existing structure by providing supports underneath, is
known as
(A) Shoring
(B) Underpinning
(C) Jacking
(D) Piling
 ZEAL COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING AND RESEARCH, NARHE
DEPARTMENT OF CIVIL ENGINEERING
Building Technology and Architectural Planning
QUESTION BANK
Unit 2: Building Bye Laws and Introduction to
Architectural Drawing
1. A ______________ is a set of rules that specify the standards for constructed objects such as
buildings and non-building structures.
a) Building code
b) Building bye-laws
c) IS code
d) Procedure
2. Which is not included in building codes?
a) Mechanical integrity
b) Safety
c) Providing employment
d) Structural integrity
3. Which is not a objectives of Building Bye laws?
a) Allows disciplined and systematic growth of buildings and towns and prevent haphazard
development
b) Protect safety of public against fire, noise, health hazards and structural failures
c) They provide health, safety and comfort to the people who live in buildings
d) Renovation of old buildings without any charge by the government
4. Combining two or more plots as a single plot is called __________
a) Amalgamation
b) Frontage
c) Bifurcation
d) Building setback
5. Which is not a Building Bye-Laws Characteristic?
a) The rules must be specific, clear and the language of rules should be grammatically correct
b) Terms used should be defined clearly so that there must be one and only one meaning of the
term
c) Due to some special conditions and requirements, some bye-laws differ from the bye-laws of
other places
d) No modification is allowed if required
6. Which of the following is not a zone?
a) Residential
b) Commercial
c) Industrial
d) Electrical
7. Which is not a type of building?
a) Educational Building
b) Mercantile Building
c) Institutional Building
d) Domestic building
8. Line up to which the plinth of a building adjoining a street may be law-fully extended is called?
a) Building line
b) Building boundary
c) Building extend
d) Building plan
9. Door opening is not counted in the lighting and ventilation of the building.
a) True
b) False
10. Carpet Area does not include the thickness of the inner walls.
a) False
b) True
11. Fire safety is the set of practices intended to reduce the destruction caused by fire.
a) True
b) False
12. Subdivision/layout plan which shall be drawn on a scale of not less than _______
a) 1:100
b) 1:500
c) 1:1000
d) 1:50
13. The plan of the buildings and elevations and sections accompanying the notice shall be drawn
to a scale _________
a) 1:10
b) 1:50
c) 1:100
d) 1:500
14. A ___________ line usually parallel to the plot boundaries and laid down in each case by the
Authority, beyond which nothing can be constructed towards the site boundaries.
a) Building line
b) Control line
c) Property line
d) Plot line
15. The ratio of the total floor area inclusive of all the floors to the area of the plot on which building
stands is known as ___________
a) Groundage
b) Plot area
c) Floor area
d) Built-up area
16. The aggregate area of doors and windows shall not be less than ___________ of the floor area
of room.
a) 1/10
b) 1/9
c) 1/7
d) 1/6
17. The placing of various rooms or units of a structure in proper correlation of their functions and
in due proximity with each other is known as ___________
a) Aspect
b) Prospect
c) Circulation
d) Grouping
18. The term ____________ is used to mean the external views as seen from certain rooms of the
building.
a) Aspect
b) Prospect
c) Elegance
d) Roominess
19. Landscape architecture comes under in which principle of planning?
a) Function
b) Form
c) Aesthetic
d) Elegance
20. When building bye-laws came into force?
a) April 1984
b) July 1983
c) April 1983
d) July 1972
21. For residential building the liveable area should be 50% to 65% of the plinth area.
a) True
b) False
22. Drawing room should be light and ventilated and located in the heart of the building.
a) False
b) True
23. Bedroom should not be placed on the sides of the building.
a) True
b) False
24. Which factor is not considered on studying of site?
a) Number of gender ratio
b) Study of site with respect to other surrounding sites
c) Study of geographical and geological conditions of site
d) Location site
25. What should the planner must have an interaction with the master/residents to understand the
following?
a) Aim/object/purpose of building
b) Number of people using the building
c) Type of people, their education, awareness
d) Dressing sense of the people
26. Which among the following is not a principle of planning?
a) Furniture requirements
b) Aspect
c) Prospect
d) Respect
27. ____________ refers to the effect produced by deriving the maximum benefits from the
minimum dimensions off a room.
a) Compactness
b) Roominess
c) Grouping
d) Privacy
28. __________ is nothing, but the movement.
a) Circulation
b) Privacy
 c) Grouping
d) Ventilation
29. Designing a structure that stands on its own regardless of how old it is; this includes
maintenance.
a) Variety
b) Durability
c) Unity
d) Beauty
30. This design, shows equality between its elements visually and structure wise.
a) Symmetrical
b) Asymmetrical
c) Repetition
d) Emphasis

31. Works using pattern to make the design come together; this principle creates unity in the
piece.
a) Rhythm
b) Unity
c) Proportion
d) Repetition
32. Which of the following types of plans is the plan at the roof level?
a) Foundation plan
b) Floor plan
c) Terrace plan
d) Structural plan of a typical floor
33. A foundation plan depicts the details of different types of foundations provided for the building.
a) True
b) False
34. The symbol shown below represents __________
construction-building-materials-questions-answers-building-plans-
a) Bricks and brick masonry
b) Stone and stone masonry
c) Cement concrete
d) Wood
35. The symbols marked A and B represent ___________
and ___________ respectively.
construction-building-materials-questions-answers-
building-plans
a) Plaster, glass
b) Glass, plaster
c) Wood, plaster
d) Wood, soil
36. The Low income housing construction funding is provided by __________
a) National Governments
b) State Governments
c) World Bank
d) National Governments, State Governments and World Bank
37. _______ used to mean the regulation of admitting more or less sunshine in the room.
(A) Elegance
(B) Roominess
 (C) Circulation
(D) Aspect
38. _______ used to mean the regulation of admitting more or less sunshine in the room.
(A) Elegance
(B) Roominess
(C) Circulation
(D) Aspect
39. The placing of various rooms or units of a structure in a proper correlation of their functions and
in due proximity with each other is known as ________
(A) Sanitation
(B) Prospect
(C) Economy
(D) Grouping
40. One of the important requirements of good planning is ______
(A) Privacy
(B) Furniture requirements
(C) Prospect
(D) Roominess
 ZEAL COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING AND RESEARCH, NARHE
DEPARTMENT OF CIVIL ENGINEERING
Building Technology and Architectural Planning
QUESTION BANK
Unit 3: Building Components
________ consists of a group of member which form a support for a door or window.
a) Sill
b) Head
1.
c) Style
d) Frame
Answer: d
_________ is the top most horizontal member of the shutter.
a) Head
b) Bottom rail
2.
c) Top rail
d) Style
Answer: c
__________ is the middle horizontal member of the shutter where the locking arrangement is
provided.
a) Lock rail
3. b) Cross rail
c) Top rail
d) Bottom rail
Answer: a
he top or uppermost horizontal part of a frame is known as the _______
a) Panel
b) Hold fast
4.
c) Horn
d) Head
Answer: d
________ is the area of shutter enclosed between the adjacent rails.
a) Sash
b) Jamb
5.
c) Holdfast
d) Panel
Answer: d
The entire assembly of styles, panels and rails is known as the __________
a) Putty
b) Horn
6.
c) Sash
d) Shutter
Answer: d
_________ is a vertical member which is employed to subdivided a window or door opening
vertically.
7.
a) Transom
b) Jamb
 c) Mullion
d) Rebate
Answer: c
____________ is a piece of timber which is fixed in an inclined position within a frame.
a) Jamb
b) Reveal
8.
c) Rebate
d) Louver
Answer: d
__________ is a mixture of a linseed oil and whiting Chalk.
a) Putty
b) POP
9.
c) Concrete
d) Jamb
Answer: a
_________ is a strip of wood, usually moulded or Splayed, which is fixed on the sides and
head of opening.
a) Style
10. b) Architrave
c) Architect
d) Head
Answer: b
The most common type of door is:
a) Double leaf door
b) Louvred door
11.
c) Single leaf door
d) Battened door
Answer: c
The representative figure below shows the mechanism of
a _________ door.
a) Rotating
12. b) Swing
c) Spinning
d) Sliding
Answer: a
A casement window hung horizontally is called:
a) Hopper
b) Awning
13.
c) Pivot
d) Transom
Answer: b
Light, a term used in windows, is:
a) Area between outer parts of a window
b) Glazed part of the window
14.
c) Area between inner parts of a window
d) Opening of the window allowing light
Answer: a
If a door swings towards the person opening it, it is called:
15. a) Left handed
b) Reverse
 c) Normal
d) Right handed
Answer: b
Which of the below material of window has life span of 50 years?
a) PVC
b) Steel
16.
c) UPVC
d) Aluminium
Answer: c
_________ door swings both ways.
a) Mead
b) Dutch
17.
c) Garden
d) French
Answer: a
A bay window is a multi-panel window, which:
a) Is provided at corners
b) Runs parallel to the wall
18.
c) Embeds inside wall
d) Projects outside wall
Answer: d
A roof lantern is also called:
a) Skylight
b) Cupola
19.
c) Celestory
d) Oriel
Answer: b
In a ventilator, top edge of shutter opens,
a) Outside
b) Inside
20.
c) Sideways
d) Does not open
Answer: b
Which of the below doors is generally used in residential and office buildings?
a) Flush door
b) Rotating door
21.
c) Louvered door
d) Hinged door
Answer: a
The middle horizontal member of the shutter is called:
a) Median rail
b) Mid rail
22.
c) Sill rail
d) Lock rail
Answer: d
Mullion is _________ member employed to sub divide a window or door opening vertically.
a) Horizontal
23. b) Inclined (at 45o)
c) Vertical
d) Inclined (at 60o)
 Answer: c

Which type of floor is used for residential buildings?

a) Ground timber floor
b) Single joist timber floor
24.
c) Double joist timber floor
d) Framed timber floor
Answer: b
Floor under the flooring is called:
a) Plinth
b) Sunken floor
25.
c) Sub floor
d) Hind floor
Answer: c
A ________ floor makes noise when an intruder walks on it.
a) Glass
b) Chirping
26.
c) Sound
d) Nightingale
Answer: d
_________ floor is used for spans of more than 7.5m.
a) Framed timber
b) Stone
27.
c) Glass
d) Double joist timber
Answer: a
Distribution of loads on the wall is not uniform in single joist timber floor.
a) True
28.
b) False
Answer: b
Which of the below is a problem with floors?
a) Cracks
b) Stains
29.
c) Vibration
d) Projections
Answer: c
Which of the below utility cannot be provided underneath a floor?
a) Plumbing
b) Sound proofing
30.
c) Air-conditioning
d) Gas lines
Answer: d
The upper floors are floating floors.
a) True
31.
b) False
Answer: b
In suspended concrete floors, _________ beams are used.
a) T shaped
32.
b) Inverted L shaped
c) Inverted T shaped
 d) I shaped
Answer: c
The flat, segmental, semicircular, horse-shoe and Stilted arches are __________
a) Two centred arch
b) Three centred arch
33.
c) Five centred arch
d) One centred arch
Answer: d
Identify the type of Arch given below.
a) Semi circular arch
b) Inverted arch
34. c) Segmented arch
d) Flat arch
Answer: d

Identify the type of Arch given below

a) Horse shoe arch
b) Pointed arch
35.
c) Relieving arch
d) Stilted arch
Answer: c
Identify the type of Arch given below
a) Florentine arch
b) Venetian arch
36. c) Horse shoe arch
d) Relieving arch

A _________ is a horizontal member which is placed across an opening to support the

position of the structure above it.
a) Door
37. b) Window
c) Sill
d) Lintel
Answer: d
At present, the lentils of _________ are widely used to span the openings for doors,
windows, etc. in a structure.
a) Timber
38. b) Wood
c) RCC
d) Cement
Answer: c
_________ lintels consist of pieces of timber which are placed across the opening.
a) Timber
b) RCC
39.
c) Steel
d) Brick
Answer: a
 In Wood or Timber lintels, the depth of lintel should be about __________ to __________ of
the span with the minimum value of 80 mm.
a) 1/6,1/4
40. b) 1/12,1/4
c) 1/12,1/8
d) 1/6,1/8
Answer: c
___________ consist of slabs of Stones which are placed across the opening.
a) Stone Lintels
b) Brick Lintels
41.
c) Steel Lintels
d) Wood Lintels
Answer: a
___________ consist of bricks which are generally placed on one end or edge.
a) Stone Lintels
b) Brick Lintels
42.
c) Wood Lintels
d) Timber Lintels
Answer: b
______________ consists of Steel angles or rolled Steel joists.
a) RCC Lintels
b) Steel Lintels
43.
c) Wood Lintels
d) Timber Lintels
Answer: b
____________ consists of the reinforcement cement concrete and they have replaced
practically all other materials for the lintels.
a) RCC Lintels
44. b) Wood Lintels
c) Stone Lintels
d) Timber Lintels
Answer: a
___________ arrangement helps in improving the appearance of the face and also reduces
the quality of concrete.
a) Rebated boot lintel
45. b) D.P.C.
c) RCC
d) Reboot Lintel
Answer: a
 ZEAL COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING AND RESEARCH, NARHE
DEPARTMENT OF CIVIL ENGINEERING
Building Technology and Architectural Planning
QUESTION BANK
Unit 5: Planning of Public Buildings
For residential building the liveable area should be 50% to 65% of the plinth area.
a) True

1. b) False

Answer: b
Drawing room should be light and ventilated and located in the heart of the building.
a) False

2. b) True

Answer: b
Bedroom should not be placed on the sides of the building.
a) True

3. b) False

Answer: b
Kitchen should be placed opposite to the direction of the prevailing wind.
a) True

4. b) False

Answer: b
The minimum width of staircase should be 0.9 m clear of railing and may range up to 1.5 m.
a) True

5. b) False

Answer: a

6. Which factor is not considered on studying of site?

 a) Number of gender ratio
b) Study of site with respect to other surrounding sites
c) Study of geographical and geological conditions of site
d) Location site
Answer: a
What should the planner must have an interaction with the master/residents to understand the
following?
a) Aim/object/purpose of building
b) Number of people using the building
7. c) Type of people, their education, awareness
d) Dressing sense of the people

Answer: d
Which among the following is not a principle of planning?
a) Furniture requirements
b) Aspect

8. c) Prospect
d) Respect

Answer: d
____________ refers to the effect produced by deriving the maximum benefits from the
minimum dimensions off a room.
a) Compactness
b) Roominess
9. c) Grouping
d) Privacy

Answer: b
_________ is nothing, but the movement.
a) Circulation

10. b) Privacy
c) Grouping
d) Ventilation
 Answer: a
Subdivision/layout plan which shall be drawn on a scale of not less than _______
a) 1:100
b) 1:500

11. c) 1:1000
d) 1:50

Answer: b
The plan of the buildings and elevations and sections accompanying the notice shall be drawn
to a scale _________
a) 1:10
b) 1:50
12. c) 1:100

d) 1:500

Answer: c
A ___________ line usually parallel to the plot boundaries and laid down in each case by the
Authority, beyond which nothing can be constructed towards the site boundaries.
a) Building line
b) Control line
13. c) Property line

d) Plot line

Answer: a
The ratio of the total floor area inclusive of all the floors to the area of the plot on which
building stands is known as ___________
a) Groundage
b) Plot area
14. c) Floor area

d) Built-up area

Answer: d
 The aggregate area of doors and windows shall not be less than ___________ of the floor area
of room.
a) 1/10
b) 1/9
15. c) 1/7

d) 1/6

Answer: c
he placing of various rooms or units of a structure in proper correlation of their functions and
in due proximity with each other is known as ___________
a) Aspect
b) Prospect
16. c) Circulation

d) Grouping

Answer: d
The term ____________ is used to mean the external views as seen from certain rooms of the
building.
a) Aspect
b) Prospect
17. c) Elegance

d) Roominess

Answer: b
The area on the earth which lies between the zones of cancer and Capricom is known as the
_______
a) Tropic zone
b) Frigid zone
18. c) Torrid zone

d) Arctic zone

Answer: a
Landscape architecture comes under in which principle of planning?
19.
a) Function
 b) Form
c) Aesthetic
d) Elegance

Answer: c
When building bye-laws came into force?
a) April 1984
b) July 1983

20. c) April 1983

d) July 1972

Answer: a
Which factor is not considered on studying of site?
a) Number of gender ratio
b) Study of site with respect to other surrounding sites

21. c) Study of geographical and geological conditions of site

d) Location site

Answer: a
What should the planner must have an interaction with the master/residents to understand the
following?
a) Aim/object/purpose of building
b) Number of people using the building
22. c) Type of people, their education, awareness

d) Dressing sense of the people

Answer: d
Which among the following is not a principle of planning?
a) Furniture requirements

23. b) Aspect
c) Prospect
d) Respect
 Answer: d
____________ refers to the effect produced by deriving the maximum benefits from the
minimum dimensions off a room.
a) Compactness
b) Roominess
24. c) Grouping

d) Privacy

Answer: b
__________ is nothing, but the movement.
a) Circulation
b) Privacy

25. c) Grouping
d) Ventilation

Answer: a
Daylighting is the practice of placing windows, other openings, and reflective surfaces so that
sunlight (direct or indirect) can provide effective internal lighting.
a) True
26. b) False

Answer: a
You can achieve good passive solar performance at minimal cost if you have a right
____________
a) Area
b) Location
27. c) Space

d) Site

Answer: d
________ roofs have vertical roof glass facing away from the equator side of the building to
capture diffused light (not harsh direct equator-side solar gain).
28.
a) Clerestory
 b) Sawtooth
c) Translucent
d) Curved

Answer: b
A tube structure which is placed into a roof and admits light to a focused area of the interior
is _________
a) Solar panel
b) Tubular daylighting device
29.
c) Heliostats
d) Solarium

Answer: b
Orientations of up to 60° west of north and 45° east of north still allow good passive sun
control.
a) True
30.
b) False

Answer: b
 ZEAL COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING AND RESEARCH, NARHE
DEPARTMENT OF CIVIL ENGINEERING
Building Technology and Architectural Planning
QUESTION BANK
Unit 6: Town Planning and Legal Aspects
The ratio of the total floor area inclusive of all the floors to the area of the plot on which
building stands is known as ___________
a) Groundage
b) Plot area
1. c) Floor area
d) Built-up area

Answer: d
Which of the following is not a characteristic of sound?
a) Intensity
b) Frequency

2. c) Speed
d) Quality

Answer: c
Sound travels faster in gases than in solids.
a) True

3. b) False

Answer: b
The velocity of sound in bricks is __________
a) 1450 m/sec
b) 343 m/sec

4. c) 3000 m/sec
d) 4300 m/sec

Answer: d
 The intensity of sound is proportional to __________ of amplitude.
a) Square root
b) Cube root

5. c) Square
d) Cube

Answer: c
Which of the following relations between loudness and intensity is correct?
a) I ∝ log L
b) I ∝ log L2

6. c) L ∝ log I
d) L ∝ log I2

Answer: c
Which law states that the magnitude of a sensation is directly proportional to the logarithm of
the physical stimulus producing it?
a) Beer-Lambert law
b) Huygens–Fresnel law
7. c) Lorentz law
d) Weber and Fechner’s law

Answer: d
The intensity of sound depends on the ear of the listener.
a) True

8. b) False

Answer: b
________ is the number of cycles made by a sounding body per unit time.
a) Amplitude

9. b) Frequency
c) Intensity
d) Loudness
 Answer: b

The amount of sound transmitted outside a room depends on the surface while the amount of
sound reflected or absorbed depends on the sound insulation properties of the surface.
a) True
10. b) False

Answer: b
Which of the following statements is correct?
a) Pitch of the sound increases with increase in frequency
b) Pitch of the sound decreases with increase in frequency

11. c) Decibel is equal to 1/100 of bel

d) Increase in the amplitude of the sound decreases the intensity

Answer: a
For an echo to be distinguished as separate, it should reach the ear _________ of a second after
the direct sound.
a) One-fourth
b) One-fifth
12. c) One-eighth

d) One-tenth

Answer: d
Reverberation time is directly proportional to ____________
a) Effective surface area
b) Lateral surface area

13. c) Volume of the room

d) Shape of the room

Answer: c
In the Sabine’s expression for reverberation time t=0.16V/A, A represents __________

14. a) Area of the room

b) Volume of the room
 c) Total absorbing power
d) Total adsorbing power

Answer: c
Reverberation time is independent of the shape of the room.
a) True

15. b) False

Answer: a
The absorption of a surface is the product of the __________ of the surface and its absorption
coefficient.
a) Length
b) Area
16. c) Volume

d) Width

Answer: b
Calculate the transmission loss given the sound levels measured on either side of the wall is
60 dB and 40 dB.
a) 20 dB
b) 100 dB
17. c) 60 dB

d) 2400 dB

Answer: c
Hard materials used for sound insulation are good absorbers.
a) True

18. b) False

Answer: b
n rigid homogeneous walls, the transmission loss of a one-brick wall is _________

19. a) 10 dB
b) 20 dB
 c) 50 dB
d) 70 dB

Answer: c
In cavity wall construction for soundproofing, the width of the cavity should be at least
_________
a) 3 cm
b) 5 cm
20. c) 8 cm

d) 12 cm

Answer: b
The sound insulation offered by rigid homogenous walls decreases with the increase in the
thickness of the wall.
a) True
21. b) False

Answer: b
Concrete floor floating construction provides good insulation against __________ sounds.
a) Impact
b) Air-borne

22. c) Water-borne
d) Structural

Answer: a
If the direction of the wind is at 90° to one of the faces, positive pressure will be produced on
__________
a) Windward face
b) Leeward face
23. c) Two windward faces

d) Two leeward faces

Answer: a
 n the expression for finding the rate of flow of air arising due to the difference in temperature
of outside and inside, the coefficient of effectiveness for general conditions is taken as
___________
a) 0.35
b) 0.65
24.
c) 0.85
d) 1.5

Answer: b
Ventilation arising from the temperature difference between outside and inside takes place due
to ____________ effect.
a) Stack
b) Stark
25. c) Zeeman

d) Spark

Answer: a
According to the Indian Standard Code IS: 3362-1977, in the case of natural ventilation, flow
per unit area of the opening is greatest when the inlet and outlet openings are of nearly equal
__________
a) Lengths
b) Volumes
26.
c) Areas
d) Mass

Answer: c
The maximum rate of air change is __________
a) 30 per min
b) 30 per hour

27. c) 60 per min

d) 60 per hour

Answer: d

28. Removal of inside air and supply of fresh outside air in a closed room is known as _________
 a) Ventilation
b) Absorption
c) Adsorption
d) Transmission

Answer: a
The general temperature difference between inside and outside of a room is not more than
____________
a) 3°C
b) 5°C
29.
c) 6°C
d) 8°C

Answer: d
. Partially ventilated single stack system is the modified form of __________
a) Single stack system and two-pipe system
b) Single stack system and one pipe system
30. c) One pipe system and two-pipe system
d) Two pipe system

Answer: b
In the two-pipe system for the drainage of buildings, the discharge from the waste pipe is
disconnected from the drain by using __________
a) Gully trap
b) Silt trap
31.
c) Floor trap
d) Grease trap

Answer: a
Septic action is produced by the septic tank by __________
a) Fungi
b) Virus
32. c) Termites
d) Anaerobic bacteria

Answer: d
The length of the bathtubs generally varies from ___________
a) 1.7-1.85 m
b) 2.5-3.2 m
33. c) 3.6-4.7 m
d) 4.8-5.2 m

Answer: a
The pedestal type European water closet is also known as ________
a) Commode
34.
b) Corundum
c) Luminite
 d) Limonite

Answer: a
Which of the following is not a classification of traps based on their shape?
a) P-trap
b) Q-trap
35. c) S-trap
d) W-trap

Answer: d
 ZEAL COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING AND RESEARCH, NARHE
DEPARTMENT OF CIVIL ENGINEERING
Building Technology and Architectural Planning
QUESTION BANK
Unit 4: Residential Buildings and green buildings

Sustainable building means that

(A) Green building
(B) Environmental building
1. (C) Both A and B
(D) None of the above

Answer C

Which of the following elements should be used optimum to make a green building?
(A) Agni
(B) Jal
2. (C) Prithvi
(D) All of the above

Answer D

Which of the following is not the purpose of a green building?

(A) To reduce use of water
(B) To minimize damage of the environment
3. (C) Re-use of waste materials
(D) None of the above

Answer D

Where is India's first green building located?

(A) ITC Green Centre, Gurgaon
(B) CII – Sohrabji Green Business Centre, Hyderabad
4. (C) Wipro Technologies, Gurgaon
(D) Suzlon one Earth, Pune

Answer B

Which of the following is not an economic benefit for a green building?

(A) 20 – 30 % energy used
5.
(B) 20 – 30 % less water used
(C) Enhance asset value
(D) None of the above
 Answer D

Which of the following is not an environment benefit for a green building?

(A) To reduce use of water
(B) Reduce solid waste
6. (C) Decrease air quality
(D) None of the above

Answer C

Which of the following is a disadvantage of green building?

(A) Increases 15-20% cost as compared to normal building
(B) Modern techniques are required
7. (C) Experts technicians are required
(D) All of the above

Answer D

Which of the following is not a green building component?

(A) Water efficiency
(B) Design efficiency
8. (C) Material efficiency
(D) None of the above

Answer D

Which of the following benefit is for green building material?

(A) Lower cost
(B) Reduced maintenance cost
9. (C) Greater design flexibility
(D) All of the above

Answer D

Which of the following green rating systems are currently working in India?
(A) LEED
(B) GRIHA
10. (C) Both A and B
(D) None of the above

Answer C

Which of the following green rating systems are currently working in India?
11.
(A) LEED
(B) GRIHA
 (C) Both A and B
(D) None of the above

Answer C

LEED gives rating in form___

(A) Platinum
(B) Gold
12. (C) Silver
(D) All of the above

Answer D

GRIHA means that___

(A) Green Rating for Integrated Habital Assessment
(B) Green Rating for Information Habital Assessment
13. (C) Green Rating for Indian Habital Assessment
(D) Green Rating for International Habital Assessment

Answer A
MCQ No - 14
When GRIHA was launched in india?
(A) 2001
14. (B) 2008
(C) 2010
(D) 2011

Answer B

GRIHA has been prepared by ___

(A) USGBC
(B) TERI
15. (C) LEED
(D) None of the above

Answer B

When LEED was launched in india?

(A) 2001
(B) 2008
16. (C) 2010
(D) 2011

Answer A
 Full name of TERI is___
(A) The Energy and Resources Institute
(B) The Energy and Rating Institute
17. (C) The Energy and Resources India
(D) The Environmental and Resources Institute

Answer A

Full form of IGBC is that___

(A) International Green Building Council
(B) International Green Building Control
18. (C) Indian Green Building Council
(D) Indian Green Building Control

Answer C

What rating did the Government of India make mandatory for government buildings in
2010?
(A) GRIHA - 2 Star
19. (B) GRIHA – 3 Star
(C) Gold
(D) Platinum

Answer B

ADARSH means___
(A) Association for Design and Research of Sustainable Habitas
(B) Association for Development and Rating of Sustainable Habitas
20. (C) Association for Development and Research of Sustainable Habitas
(D) Association for Design and Rating of Sustainable Habitas

Answer C

Which rating star is given by GRIHA for points between 71 – 80?

(A) 1
(B) 2
21. (C) 3
(D) 4

Answer C

How many set of criteria formulated by GRIHA for rating the building?
(A) 31
22.
(B) 32
(C) 33
(D) 34
 Answer D

LCA means that___

(A) Life Cycle Assessment
(B) Life Council Assessment
23. (C) Life Cycle Association
(D) Local Cycle Assessment

Answer A

LCA associated with a___

(A) Product
(B) Process
24. (C) Service
(D) All of the above

Answer D

Which of the following assessments is made by LCA throughout the life of a building?
(A) Use of building
(B) Transportation of construction material
25. (C) Disposal of surplus waste material
(D) All of the above

Answer D

Which of the following phases is not a LCA process?

(A) Life cycle inventory
(B) Life cycle impact assessment
26. (C) Life cycle interpretation
(D) None of the above

Answer D

Which of the following are not a benefits for LCA?

(A) Does not improvement in the quality of environment
(B) To know about Eco-friendly materials
27. (C) Promotion to recycle and reuse of waste materials
(D) None of the above

Answer A

Which of the following are not a measure for a green building?

28.
(A) Use B-rated elements that save energy
(B) Install solar panels for lighting or heating water
 (C) Install water meters in a building
(D) None of the above

Answer D
The vertical portion between each tread on the stair is called:
a) Going
b) Nosing
29.
c) Winder
d) Riser
Answer: d
The figure below represents a:
a) Dog-legged stairs
b) Turning stairs
30.
c) Straight stairs
d) Well stairs
Answer: a
Baluster in a stair is the _________ member supporting _________
a) Horizontal, handrail
b) Vertical, landing
31.
c) Vertical, handrail
d) Horizontal, landing
Answer: c
How many types of stairs are there based on the material?
a) 4
b) 5
32.
c) 8
d) 6
Answer: b
Speed of an escalator is usually:
a) 10-20m/min
b) 30-45m/min
33.
c) 40-50m/min
d) 25-30m/min
Answer: d
Which IS code gives details about wooden stairs?
a) IS 2634
b) IS 2643
34.
c) IS 1634
d) IS 1643
Answer: c
_________ stairs are a variation of L shaped stairs.
a) Winder
b) Spiral
35.
c) Half turn
d) Switch back
Answer: a
The decorative cap to the top of a newel post is called:
36. a) Finial
b) Fillet
 c) Easing
d) Apron
Answer: a
After how many stairs is a landing provided in public, residential places?
a) 18
b) 20
37.
c) 12
d) 16
Answer: c
In ________ all steps lead in one direction only.
a) Turning steps
b) Circular steps
38.
c) Straight steps
d) Geometrical steps
Answer: c
A Stair turning through one right angle is known as a _______ stair.
a) Quarter- turn
b) Half-turn
39.
c) Dog-legged
d) Open navel
Answer: a
In case of _______ stair, there is a well or hole or opening between the flights in the plan.
a) Spiral
b) Three Quarter Turn
40.
c) Open Newel
d) Dog-legged
Answer: c
A Stair turning through three right angles is known as a ________ stair.
a) Three Quarter Turn
b) Two Quarter Turn
41.
c) Four Quarter Turn
d) Single Quarter Turn
Answer: a
In ___________ types of stairs, the steps radiate from the centre and they do not have either
any landing or any intermediate Newel post.
a) Helical
42. b) Geometrical
c) Turning
d) Straight
Answer: a
The ___________ stairs are useful where the space available is limited and where the traffic
is less.
a) Straight
43. b) Turning
c) Spiral
d) Geometrical
Answer: c
________ stairs have any geometrical shape and they require no newel posts.
44. a) Helical
b) Circular
 c) Dog-legged
d) Geometrical
Answer: d
The stairs which are kept in motion by a revolving drum is known as a _______
a) Escalator
b) Revolving Stairs
45.
c) Lift
d) Elevator
Answer: a