Sinhgad College of Science, Ambegoan (Bk) Pune 41

Department of Commerce

Course: TYBBA Subject: Business Law Subject Code: 503

Semester: V Marks-70 (50+20)
Question paper pattern:
1) 60 MCQ question out of that 50 needs to attempt (1 mark each).
2) 5 to 6 Short Notes out of that 4 needs to attempt (4 marks each) max 300
words.
MCQ and Short Notes questions
Chapter 1: Indian Contract Act 1872
Also refer to this link for MCQ
http://www.geekmcq.com/judiciary/1872ContractAct/

1. The Indian Contract Act came into force on:

(a) 15th September, 1872
(b) 1st September, 1872
(c) 1st October, 1872
(d) 15th October, 1872.
Answer: (b) 1st September, 1872

2. The Indian Contract Act, applies to the:

(a) Whole of India excluding Jammu & Kashmir
(b) Whole of India including Jammu & Kashmir
(c) States notified by the Central Government from time to time
(d) None of the above.
Answer: (b) Whole of India including Jammu & Kashmir

3. An agreement consists of reciprocal promises between at least

(a) four parties.
(b) six parties.
(c) three parties.
(d) two parties.
Answer: (d) two parties.

4. Every promise and every set of promise forming the consideration for each other is a/an
(a) contract.
(b) agreement.
(c) offer.
(d) acceptance.
Answer: (b) agreement.

5. Contract is defined as an agreement enforceable by law, vide Section … of the Indian

Contract Act.
(a) Section 2(e)
(b) Section 2(f)
(c) Section 2(h)
(d) Section 2(i)
Answer: (c) Section 2(h)
6. Valid contracts
(a) are made by free consent.
(b) are made by competent parties.
(c) have lawful consideration and lawful object.
(d) all of the above.
Answer: (d) all of the above.
7. A contract creates
(a) rights and obligations of the parties to it.
(b) obligations of the parties to it.
(c) mutual understanding between the parties to it.
(d) mutual lawful rights and obligations of the parties to it.

Answer: (b) obligations of the parties to it.

8. In agreements of a purely domestic nature, the intention of the parties to create legal
relationship is
(a) to be proved to the satisfaction of the court.
(b) presumed to exist.
(c) required to the extent of consideration.
(d) not relevant at all.

Answer: (a) to be proved to the satisfaction of the court.

9. ………………. is forbidden by law.

(a) Valid contract
(b) Illegal agreement
(c) Voidable contract
(d) Unenforceable contract

Answer: (b) Illegal agreement

10. A makes a contract with B to beat his business competitor. This is an example of
(a) valid contract.
(b) illegal agreement.
(c) voidable contract.
(d) unenforceable contract.

Answer: (b) illegal agreement.

11. ……………… is made by words written.

(a) Express contract
(b) Implied contract
(c) Tacit contract
(d) Unlawful contract

Answer: (a) Express contract

12. Agreement the meaning of which is uncertain is
(a) Void
(b) Valid
(c) Voidable
(d) Illegal Answer:

Answer: (a) Void

13. Which of the following is false with respect to minor entering a contract?
(a) An agreement with or by a minor is void ab initio
(b) A minor can be a beneficiary of a contract
(c) The contracts involving a minor as a beneficiary may be enforced at the option of the third
party
(d) A minor cannot ratify a contract on attaining majority

Answer: (c) The contracts involving a minor as a beneficiary may be enforced at the option
of the third party.

14. Drawing cash from ATM, sale by fall of hammer at an auction sale, etc., are example of
(a) express contract.
(b) implied contract.
(c) tacit contract.
(d) unlawful contract.

Answer: (b) implied contract.

15. All Contract is a/an ……………..

(a) Offer
(b) Agreement
(c) Acceptance
(d) Transaction

Answer: (b) Agreement

16. A/an …………… is every Promise and every set of promises , forming
consideration for each other
(a) Offer
(b) Agreement
(c) Acceptance
(d) Transaction

Answer: (b) Agreement

17.. Every agreement and promise enforceable by law is …………….

(a) Offer
(b) Contract
(c) Acceptance
(d) Consideration
Answer: (b) Contract
18. The Law of Contract is nothing but ...............
(a) A Child of Commercial dealing
(b) A Child of Religion
(c) A Child of day to day Politics
(d) A Child of Economics.

Answer: (a) A Child of Commercial dealing

19. To form a valid contract, there should be atleast .............

(a) Two parties
(b) Three parties
(c) Four parties
(d) Five parties.

Answer: (a) Two parties

20. Agreement is defined by the section ............... of the Indian Contract Act, 1872.
(a) Section 2(c)
(b) Section 2(e)
(c) Section 2(g)
(d) Section 2(i)

Answer: (b) Section 2(e)

21. As per section 2(e) of the Indian Contract Act, “Every Promise and every set of promise
forming the consideration for each other is a/an
(a) Contract
(b) Agreement
(c) Offer
(d) Acceptance

Answer: (b) Agreement

22. An Agreement is ...................

(a) Offer
(b) Offer+ Acceptance
(c) Offer + Acceptance + Consideration
(d) Contract

Answer: (b) Offer+ Acceptance

23. Goods displayed in a Shop window with a price label will amount to:
(a) Offer
(b) Acceptance of offer
(c) Invitation to offer
(d) Counter offer

Answer: (c) Invitation to offer

24. Which one of the following statement about a valid acceptance of an offer is incorrect?
(a) Acceptance should be absolute and unqualified.
(b) Acceptance should be in the prescribed manner
(c) Acceptance should be communicated
(d) Acceptance should be made while the offer is subsisting

Answer: (d) Acceptance should be made while the offer is subsisting

25. A Counter offer is ...............

(a) A rejection of the original offer
(b) An acceptance of the offer
(c) A bargain
(d) An invitation to treat

Answer: (a) A rejection of the original offer

26. An offer made by words spoken or written is called:

(a) Implied offer
(b) Express offer
(c) Formal agreement
(d) Informal agreement

Answer: (b) Express offer

27. A tender is
(a) an offer
(b) invitation to an offer
(c) acceptance of offer
(d) none of the above

Answer: (a) an offer

28. For an acceptance to be valid, it must be

(a) Partial & qualified
(b) Absolute & unqualified
(c) Partial & unqualified
(d) Absolute & qualified

Answer: (b) Absolute & unqualified

29. Communication of offer is complete when

(a) The letter is posted to the offeree
(b) The letter is received by the offeree
(c) The offer is accepted by the person to whom it is made
(d) It comes to the knowledge of the offeror that the letter has been received by the offeree

Answer: (b) The letter is received by the offeree

30. An agreement is a Voidable Contract when it is
(a) Enforceable
(b) Enforceable by Law at the option of the aggrieved party
(c) Enforceable by both the parties
(d) Not enforceable at all.

Answer: (b) Enforceable by Law at the option of the aggrieved party

Short Notes: In 30 to 300 words.

Note: Refer for Short notes given at the end of chapter in question, the text book you refer.
1. Concept of Fraud in a Contract.

Chapter 2: Sales of Goods Act 1930

1. Condition is a stipulation which is

a. Essential to the main purpose of contract
b. Collateral to the main purpose of contract
c. Not essential to the main purpose of contract
d. Collateral to the main purpose of contract

Answer: (a) Essential to the main purpose of contract

2. The sale of goods Act deals only with goods which are ______________ in nature
a. Immovable b.Movable c. Specific d. All of the above

Answer: (b).Movable

3. Goods that are identified at the time of contract of sale is called ________________ goods
a. Specific Goods
b. ascertained goods c) clear Goods d) both a & b

Answer: (d) both a & b

4. _________________ is a Stipulation which is Collateral to purpose of contract

a. Condition b. Warranty c. Guaranty d. Collateral Contract

Answer: (b).Warranty

5. __________________________ is the concept of “LET THE BUYER BEWARE”.

a. Information Center b. Unfair Trade Practices
c. Caveat Emptor d. Buyer Kingdom

Answer: ( c. ) Caveat Emptor

6. ___________________ and _______________ are the two parties involved in Contract of

sale
a. Seller & Buyer b) Agent & Principle
c) Customer & Sales man d) Customer and supplier

Answer: a. Seller & Buyer

7. It is a standard rule that risk follows ____________________
a. Seller b. buyer c. property d. Possession

Answer: ( c ). property

8. The sale of Goods Act enforces in the year

a) 1935 b) 1930 c) 1945 d. 1955

Answer: (b) 1930

9. The subject matter of the contract under Sale of goods Act must be
a. Money b. Goods c. Immovable Goods d. All of the above

Answer: (b) .Goods

10. Sale under Sale of goods Act is a/an ____________________ contract

a. Executory b. Executable c. Executed d. None of the above

Answer: ( c ). Executed

11. In sale the transfer of property in goods from the seller to the buyer takes place
a. At the end of contract b. Immediately
c. In a future Date d. Both a & b

Answer: (d.) Both a & b

12. In Agreement to sell the transfer of property in goods from the seller to the buyer takes
place
a. At the end of contract b. Immediately
c. In a future Date d. Both b & c
Answer: ( c ). In a future Date

13. Which of the following is not a subject matter in a Sale of goods Act
a. Trade mark b. Good will c. Money d. Water
Answer: ( c.) Money

14. As per Sale of goods Act Movable goods does not include
a. Gas b. Growing crop c. Electricity d. Money
Answer: ( d ). Money

15.The goods must be ________ goods for transferring the property in the goods
a. Ascertained b. Unascertained c. Future d. All of the above
Answer: (a). Ascertained

16. The subject matter of the contract must necessarily be _____________

a. Sale b. Product c. Service d. Goods
Answer: (a.) Sale

17. A consideration in contract of sale must be ______________ only

a. Goods b. movable only c. price d. Purchase
Answer: ( c ). price
18. Transfer or agree to transfer the _____________ of the goods is the purpose of sale of
goods Act
a. Property b. Possession c. Value d. Usage
Answer: (b.)Possession

19. A sale is a ______________ contract

a. Implied b. Executed c. Agreed d. Executory
Answer: ( b.) Executed

20. An agreement to sell is a ______________ contract

a. Implied b.Executed c. Agreed d. Executory
Answer: ( d.) Executory

21. A sale is said to be completed when ___________ is transferred from one party to the
other party
a. Money b. Goods c. Interest d. Ownership
Answer: ( d ). Ownership

22. In contract of sale the payment of price is __________ to the transfer of property in goods
a. concurrent b .important c. mandatory d. immaterial
Answer: (d). immaterial

23. An agreement to sell will become a sale in _______________

a. Future date b. immediate effect c. 30 days d. None of the
above
Answer: (a). Future date

24. An agreement to sell the transfer of ownership is ___________

a. Definite b. Mandatory c. Conditional d. immaterial
Answer: ( c ). Conditional

25. A contract of sale of goods is a contract whereby the seller transfers or agrees to transfer
the property in goods to the buyer for ___________
a. price b. interest c. credit d. value
Answer: ( a.) price

26. In sale in case of loss of goods, the loss will fall on the _____________
a. offeror b. buyer c. seller d. surety
Answer: ( b ). buyer

27. In sale after the sale is done, the goods are in the possession of the seller, , in case of loss
of goods, the loss will fall on the _________
a. offeror b. buyer c. seller d. surety
Answer: ( b ). buyer

28. A sold his laptop to B, but for some repairing purpose A retained the laptop with him.
The laptop is stolen by C , in this case the loss will fall on
a. B b. C c. A d. None of them
Answer: ( a ). B
29. In case of Sale the risk is associated with___________________
a. money b. goods c. ownership d. possession
Answer: ( c ). Ownership

30. In case of sale the seller can sue the buyer for _________ in case of breach
a. damages b. price c. interest d. fraud
Answer: ( b ). Price

31. In case of agreement to sell the seller can sue the buyer for _________ in case of breach
a. damages b. price c. interest d. fraud
Answer: ( c ). Interest

32. „Goods‟ means every kind of __________________ property

a. sellable b. immovable c. existing d. movable
Answer: ( d.) movable

33. Which of the below said is not included in goods as per Sale of goods Act 1930
a. forming part of the land b. stocks
c. Actionable claims d. crop
Answer: ( c.) Actionable claims

34. __________ cannot be a subject matter of Sale of goods

a. Gas b. Electricity c. Money d. All of the above
Answer: ( c.) Money

35. ___________________ can be a subject matter of sale of goods Act

a. Trademark b. patent c. goodwill d. All of the above
Answer: ( d.) All of the above

36. Existing goods can be classified as

a. Ascertained b. Generic c. both a & b d. Nor a neither b
Answer: ( c ). both a & b

37. Ascertained goods is otherwise called as _______________ goods

a. specific b. generic c. future d. none of the above
Answer: ( a ). Specific

38. Unascertained goods is otherwise called as _______________ goods

a. specific b. generic c. future d. none of the above
Answer: ( b ). generic

39. Goods identified and agreed upon at the time a contract of sale is made is called
a. Ascertained b. Specific c. both a & b d. Nor a neither b
Answer: ( c ). both a & b

40. Goods indicated by description and not specifically identified.

a. unascertained b. generic c. both a & b d. none of the above
Answer: ( c ). both a & b
Short Notes: (30 to 300 words)
Note: Refer for Short notes given at the end of chapter in question, the text book you refer.

1. Modes of Delivery of Goods.

2. Important features of consideration

Chapter 3: The Company Act 1956

Link for extra mcq questions:

https://www.smartvidya.co.in/2017/05/mcqs-on-companies-act-1.html

1. Section 12 of Companies Act 1956, deals with

a. Incorporation b. Share capital
c. Number of Directors d. Share holders
Answer: ( a.) Incorporation

2. Minimum number of members required to apply for incorporation certificate in a public ltd
company is
a. 3 b. 2 c. 7 d. 50
Answer: ( c ). 7

3. The application for registration of a company should be presented to the registrar of the
state in which the _______________ of the company is to be situated
a. Manufacturing plant b. first branch
c. business office d. any of the above.
Answer: ( c ). business office

4. The application for registration of a company should be presented to the _______________

of the state appointed under Companies Act 1956
a. Controller b. registrar
c. Governor d. registration officer
Answer: ( b ). Registrar

5. Number of documents to be submitted, by a public ltd company, to the registrar while

applying for incorporation of the company is
a. 3 b. 2 c. 7 d. 50
Answer: ( c ). 7

6. The address of the registered office of the company must be notified to the registrar within
_________ days of registration, if it is not done at the time of incorporation
a. 15 b. 30 c. 60 d. 45
Answer: ( b.) 30

7. Among the following which documents are not mandatory to be submitted to the registrar
along with incorporation application by a private company.
a. Address of Registered office & undertaking
b. Undertaking and statement of capital
c. statement of capital & list of directors
d. list of directors and statement of capital
Answer: ( a ). Address of Registered office & undertaking
8. A statement of nominal capital must be given at the time of incorporation by the company
when the share capital is less than
a. 50 Lakh b. 1 crore c. 10 Lakh d. 25 Lakh
Answer: ( d ). 25 Lakh

9. If the proposed nominal capital is more than 25 lakh at the time of incorporation then the
company needs to submit ________________ along with the application
a. statement of capital b. certificate of incorporation
c. certificate of capital d. certificate of incorporation
Answer: ( c.) certificate of capital

10. The certificate of capital will be issued by

a. Registrar of companies Act b. Controller of companies Act.
c. Registrar of capital issues d. controller of capital issues
Answer: ( d.) controller of capital

11. The articles of association needs to be signed by

a. all proposed directors b. registrar
c. subscribers of memorandum d. none of the above
Answer: ( c ). subscribers of memorandum

12. The company will be considered as separate person and different from its members from
the date (when the) _____________
a. start of business b. Apply for registration
c. receive incorporation certificate d. mentioned in certificate
Answer: ( d.) mentioned in certificate

13. Number of clauses in Memorandum of Association is

a. 5 b. 6 c. 7 d. 8
Answer: ( b) . 6

14. Which of the following is not a clause of memorandum of association

a. situation b. capital
c. subscription d. directors
Answer: ( d ). directors

15. If a company is instructed to change its name which resembles the name of an existing
company then the company can change the name by
a. Passing a special resolution b. obtaining permission from central government
c. Passing an ordinary resolution d. Both a & b
Answer: ( c ). Passing an ordinary resolution

16. Which of the following clause of Memorandum of Association cannot be altered

a. Name b. Object c. situation d. liability
Answer: ( d ). Liability

17. When the registered office of a company is changed within a city then it has to be
intimated to the registrar within ________ days of such change
a. 60 b. 45 c. 30 d. 7
Answer: ( c ). 30

18. “Men may come and men may go but the company exist”- this explains which
characteristics of the company as per companies Act 1956
a. Separate legal entity b. Perpetual Succession
c. Capacity to sue d. None of the above
Answer: ( b ). Perpetual Succession

19. The liability of the members of the company can be limited by

a. Share b. Guarantee
c. Both a & b d. Neither a nor b
Answer: ( c ).. Both a & b

20. The shares of a _______________ company can be freely transferable

a. Private ltd b. Public ltd
c. Partnership d. all of the above
Answer: ( b ). Public ltd

21. _________ are the company created by special act of the legislature
a. Registered company b. Public Ltd Company
c. Private ltd company d. Statutory company
Answer: ( d ). Statutory company

22. A private company means a company which has a minimum paid up capital of Rs.———
—-
a. 1,00,000 b. 5,00,000 c. 50,00,000 d. none of the above
Answer: ( a ). 1,00,000

23. A private company means a company which has a minimum paid up capital of Rs.———
—-
a. 1,00,000 b. 5,00,000 c. 50,00,000 d. none of the above
Answer: ( b ). 5,00,000

24.___________ cannot give invitation to the public to subscribe for any shares in or
debentures of the company
a.Subsidiary company b. Statutory Company
c. Private company d. Registered company
Answer: ( c ). Private company

25. A Government Company means any company in which not less than 51% of the paid-up
share capital is held by
a. Central Government b. State government
c. Both a & b d. Neither a nor b
Answer: ( c ). Both a & b
26. . A copy of the ________________ must accompany each from of application for shares
offered to the public.
a. Memorandum of association b. Prospectus
c. Articles of association d. None of the above
Answer: ( b ). Prospectus

27. If the company can make arrangements for raising the capital privately so that pubic
appeal is unnecessary, the company is required to prepare a _________________
a. Prospectus b. statement in lieu of Prospectus
c. certificate of Prospectus d. none of the above
Answer: ( b ).. statement in lieu of Prospectus

28. The Prospectus must be issued to the public within ______________ days of its date
a. 30 b. 60 c. 90 d. 100
Answer: ( c ). 90

29._______________ capital means the sum mentioned in the capital clause of Memorandum
of Association
a. Full capital b. Maximum capital
c. share capital d. Nominal Capital
Answer: ( d.) Nominal Capital

30. Par value of shares means the __________ value of the shares
a. Actual b. face c. Market d. dividend
Answer: ( b ). Face

31. The dividend payable to ___________ share holders is payable on fixed figure or percent
a. Equity b. non preference c. Preference d. all of the
above
Answer: ( c ).. Preference

32._____________ share capital has priority both in repayment of dividend as well as capital.
a. Equity b. non preference c. Preference d. all of the
above
Answer: ( c ).. Preference

33__________ means the total amount of called up share capital which is actually paid to the
company by the members
a. nominal capital b. reserve capital c. called up capital d.
Paid-up capital
Answer: ( b ). reserve capital

34. __________ means the total amount of called up capital on the shares issued and
subscribed by the shareholders on capital account.
a. Called-up capital b. subscribed capital
c. nominal capital d. Paid-up capital
Answer: ( a ). Called-up capital
35. For example Par value is Rs10 and it is issued at Rs15 then Rs5 is the ___________
amount
a. Profit b. Market value c. dividend d. premium
Answer: ( d ).. premium

36. Powers, rights, remuneration, qualification and duties of directors are discussed clearly in
a. Memorandum of Association b. Articles of Association
c. Prospectus d. none of the above
Answer: ( b ). Articles of Association

37. A company is known as the _______company of another company if it has control over
that other company.
a. subsidiary b. holding c. controlling d. statutory
Answer: ( b ). holding

38. A person cannot hold directorship in more than ____ public companies
a. 3 b. 10 c. 20 d. 7
Answer: ( c ). 20

39.Private company prohibits any invitation or acceptance of deposits from persons other
than its ___________
a. Members b. directors c. Partners d. banks
Answer: ( a ). Members

40. The company needs to obtain prior permission from central government when it changes
the address of its registered office from
a. one city to another city b. with in the same city
c. one state to another d. one country to another country
Answer: ( c ). one state to another

Short Notes: ( 30 to 300 words)

Note: Refer for Short notes given at the end of chapter in question, the text book you refer.

1. Statement in Lieu of Prospectus

2. Extra Ordinary Meeting of a Company

Chapter 4 : Information Technology Act, 2000

https://www.gkindiaonline.com/group/General-Knowledge/RTI-Act-2005
https://www.gkseries.com/mcq-on-rti-act/multiple-choice-questions-and-answers-on-rti-act

1. The things carried out by means of electronic data interchange, and other means of
electronic communication is commonly referred to as
a. e-communication b. e- governance c. e- record d. e-commerce
Answer: ( d ). e-commerce.
2. The authentication to be affected by use of asymmetric crypto system and hash function is
known as
a. Public key b. Private Key c. Digital Signature d. e- governance
Answer: ( c ). Digital Signature

3. Verification of electronic record is possible through

a. Public key b. Private Key c. Digital Signature d. e- governance
Answer: ( c ). Digital Signature

4. Digital signatures created and verified using

a. Program b. graphical coding c. HTML d. cryptography
Answer: ( d ). Cryptography

5. Private key is used to

a. digitally sign b. verify the sign
c. verify the documents d. make payments
Answer: ( a ). digitally sign

6. Public Key is used to

a. digitally sign b. verify the sign
c. publish the documents d. make payments

Answer: ( b ). verify the sign

7. The Central Government may appoint a __________ of Certifying Authority who shall
exercise supervision over the activities of Certifying Authorities
a. commissioner b. Controller c. executive d. president
Answer: ( b ). Controller

8. __________ means a person who has been granted a license to issue a Digital Signature
Certificate.
a. controller b. Certifying Authority c. certified issuer d. licensed
authority
Answer: ( b ). Certifying Authority

9. The Certifying Authority empowered to issue a Digital Signature Certificate shall have to
procure a license from the ____________ to issue Digital Signature Certificates.
a. Controller of Certifying Authority b. Central government
c. state government d. commissioner
Answer: ( a ). Controller of Certifying Authority

10. _________ is a person in whose name the Digital Signature Certificate is issued
a. certified authority b. subscriber c. holder d. controller
Answer: ( b ). subscriber

11. The ___________ has the power to suspend or revoke Digital Signature Certificate.
a. Commissioner b. Certifying Authority c. subscriber d. controller
Answer: ( b ). Certifying Authority
12. As per Information Technology Act 2000, if you Fails to maintain books of accounts you
will be penalized upto
a.5000 per day b. 50000 c. 25000 d. 1,50,000
Answer: ( c ). 25000

13. As per Information Technology Act 2000,Those who Fail to furnish documents will be
penalized upto
a.5000 per day b. 50000 c. 25000 d. 1,50,000
Answer: ( d ). 1,50,000

14. E- records and digital signatures are used to

a. Filling of any form in government b. issue of grant
c. making payment d. all of the above
Answer: ( d ). all of the above

Short Notes: ( 30 to 300 words)

Chapter 5 :The Right To Information Act, 2005

Q.1 The Right to information Act was has been passed in the year-----------------------.
A) 2007 B) 2005 C) 2008 D) 2014
Answer: ( b ). 2005

2. RTI Act 2005 came into force on

(a) 12 October 2005 (b) 15 August 2005
(c) 15 June 2005 (d) 1 November 2005
Answer: ( a ). 12 October 2005

3. Which of the following is not come under the definition of 'information' under RTI Act
2005?
(a) Log books (b) File noting‟s
(c) Data material held in any electronic form (d) Circulars
Answer: ( b ). File noting’s

4. The officer designated by the public authorities in all administrative units or offices under
it to provide information to the citizens requesting for information under the Act is know as
(a) Appellate Authority (b) Chief Information Commissioner (CIC)
(c) Public Information Officer (PIO) (d) Assistant Public Information Officer
Answer: ( c ). Public Information Officer (PIO)

5 .What is the time limit to get the information under RTI Act 2005?
(a) 15 days (b) 45 days
(c) 60 days (d) 30 days
Answer: ( d ). 30 days

6. What is the time limit to get the information concerning the life and liberty of a person?
(a) 48 hours (b) 24 hours
(c) 5 days (d) 10 days
Answer: ( a ). 48 hours

7 .If the interests of a third party are involved in information sought for, the maximum time
limit to get the information will be
(a) 30 days (b) 40 days
(c) 45 days (d) 60 days
Answer: ( b ). 40 days

8 .If information sought has been supplied by third party or is treated as confidential by that
third party, the third party must be given a representation before the PIO in reply to the notice
issued to him within ------ days from the date of receipt of such notice.
(a) 5 days (b) 15 days
(c) 10 days (d) 7 days
Answer: ( c ). 10 days

9 .What is the fee for getting information under RTI Act

(a) Rs.20/- (b) Rs.50/-
(c) Rs.100/- (d) Rs.10/-
Answer: ( d ). Rs.10/-

10. First appeal to the first appellate authority can be preferred by the applicant within -------
- days from the expiry of the prescribed time limit or from the receipt of the decision from the
PIO
(a) 30 days (b) 45 days
(c) 60 days (d) 90 days
Answer: ( a ). 30 days

11 .First Appeal shall be disposed of by the first appellate authority within ------ days from
the date of its receipt.
(a) 40 days (b) 30 days
(c) 60 days (d) 50 days
Answer: ( b ). 30 days

Short Notes: ( 30 to 300 words)

Note: Refer for Short notes given at the end of chapter in question, the text book you refer.