Portfolio Theory and CAPM
Portfolio Theory and CAPM
Portfolio Theory and CAPM
So why therefore do not all oil companies have exactly the same level of risk?
This is because there is a second factor involved which is factors in the specific company. For
example, a company (whatever sector it is in) may have just appointed a new managing director
who may turn out to be excellent or may not. A company may have has poor labour relations in the
past and lots of strikes - in the future things may get worse or, of course may improve. These are
both examples of factors that create extra risk in the company over and above the systematic risk of
the industry. This risk is known as unsystematic or company specific risk.
A graphical representation of diversification and risk. (Portfolio risk against portfolio size)
1. Introduction
In the previous section on Portfolio Theory we looked at the nature of risk in share investments,
and described what is meant by a well-diversified portfolio. In this section we will look at the
importance of the systematic risk in relation to the return given by quoted shares and then discuss
its relevance to project appraisal.
The most important formula of all in CAPM is the formula expressing the required return,
which is as follows:
Ke = Rf + [Rm – Rf] β
This can be interpreted as
Expected return on security = Risk free rate + [Expected return on market – Risk free rate] x Beta
The graph below is an example various securities arranged according to their level of perceived risk.
Government issued securities are considered to be the least or have no risk associated with them.
Example 1
Q plc has a beta of 1.5.
The market is giving a return of 12%,
The risk free rate is 5%.
What will be the required return from Q plc?
Answer to example 1
Ke = Rf + [Rm – Rf] β
Example 2
T plc is giving a return of 20%.
The stock exchange as a whole is giving a return of 25%, and the return on government securities is
8%.
What is the β of T plc?
Answer to example 2
20% = 8% + (25% − 8%) β
β = 12
17 = 0.71
4. Combining investments
If an investment is made in a combination of several shares with different levels of systematic risk,
then the overall β will be the weighted average of the individual share β’s.
Example 3
Matiss decides to invest his money as follows:
20% in A plc which has a β of 1.2
40% in B plc which has a β of 1.8
30% in C plc which has the same risk as the market
10% in government securities.
The market return is 20% and the risk free rate is 8%.
Answer to example 3
(a) (0.2 × 1.2) + (0.4 × 11.8) + (0.3 × 1) + (0.1 × 0) = 1.26
(b) Return = 8% (20% – 8%) 1.20 = 23.12%
5. Alpha values
We have already stated that even assuming that CAPM ‘works’ in practice, it would be unrealistic in
the real world to expect that it works precisely at each moment in time. Even if it does work overall,
it will not be surprising if some days the actual return is a little higher than it should be, and some
days a little lower.
The alpha value is simply the difference between the actual return and the theoretical return (using
CAPM).
Example 4
D plc has a β of 0.6 and is giving a return of 8%.
The market return is 10% and the risk free rate is 4%.
What is the alpha value of D plc?
Answer to example 4
Theoretical return = 4% + (10% – 4%) 0.6 = 7.6%
Actual return = 8%
α = 8 – 7.6 = + 0.4%
6. Ungearing B’s
Until now, we have been ignoring gearing and assuming that the companies in our examples have
been all equity financed. In this case the risk of a share is determined solely by the risk of the actual
business.
If, however, a company is geared, then a share in that company becomes more risky due to the
gearing effect.
If, therefore, we are given the β of a share in a geared company, then the gearing in that company
will have made the β higher than it would have been had there been no gearing. The β of a share
measures not simply the riskiness of the actual business but also includes the gearing effect.
We therefore need to be careful when comparing the β’s of shares in different companies. A higher
β certainly means that the share is more risky, but it may be due to the fact that the company is
more highly geared, or due to the fact that the business is inherently more risky, or a combination
of the two!
The formula for removing the gearing effect is given in the examination and is:
βa = Ve Vd(1-T)
(Ve +Vd(1−T )) x βe + (Ve +Vd(1−T )) x βd
Example 5
P plc has a gearing ratio (debt to equity) of 0.4 and the β of its shares is 1.8.
Q plc has a gearing ratio of 0.2 and the β of its shares is 1.5.
The rate of corporation tax is 30%.
Answer to example 5
(a) P’s shares have the highest β and so are the more risky shares.
(b) Ungeared β’s:
P plc = βa = 1.8× 100
100+ (40× 0.7) = 1.41
Example 6
X plc is an oil company with a gearing ratio (debt to equity) of 0.4. Shares in X plc have a β of 1.48.
They are considering investing in a new operation to build ships, and have found a quoted
shipbuilding company – Y plc. Y plc has a gearing ratio (debt to equity) of 0.2, and shares in Y plc
have a β of 1.8.
The market return is 18% and the risk free rate is 8%.
Corporation tax is 25%
At what discount rate should X plc appraise the new project, if it is to be financed:
(a) entirely from equity?
(b) by equity and debt in the ratio 50%/50%
Answer to example 6
For Y plc:
βa=βe E 1.8 x 100
E + D(1− t) = 100 + (20 x 0.75) = 1.57
Do note, however, that when there is a major change in gearing (as in the example) it is far better to
take an Adjusted Present Value (APV) approach. This is commonly asked in the exam and will be
explained later.