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LL.B. SEMESTER III

M.C.Q. TEST QUESTION

ENVIRONMENTAL LAW

1. National Environment Tribunal Bill 1992 is aimed at achieving the object to

achieve as mentioned in A.B. And C i.c.
(A) To achieve all the above objects
(B) To create authorities for effect control of environment pollution.
(C) To admit and decide the cases filed by the pollution control Board.
(D) To provide for papal and compensatory justice n environment as pollution
cases.
Ans. ‘A’

2. Eco Toxicity means.

(A) Polluting the air with carbon dioxide gases.
(B) Introduction of chemicals as component mixture in to the atmosphere.
(C) Elimination of toxic substance from the air.
(D) A city named ‘Eco-Toxic’ in a scandivian carmtry.
Ans. ‘A’

3. The current controversy over the Sardar Sarovar Project centers around the following
staff.
(A) Maharashtra (B) Gujarat.
(C) Madhya Pradesh (D) Punjab.
Ans. ‘A’
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4. Internatinal conyentin on bio-diversity was held at
(A) Geneva. (B) Stock Holm.
(C) Rio-de-Jenero. (D) New Delhi
Ans. ‘A’

5. Most Serve type of penalty provision for polluting the human environment can be
found in.
(A) The Environment Act. (B) The Air Act.
(C) The water Act. (D) None of these.
Ans. ‘A’

6. Centre and State pollution Board were established under.

(A) The water Act. (B) The Air Act.
(C) The Constitution. (D) The Environment (Protection)
Ans. ‘A’

7. The most serious type of pollution that is affecting the health and well bring of Indian
People.
(A) Air Pollution. (B) Noise Pollution.
(C) Water Pollution. (D) Land Pollution.
Ans. ‘A’

8. The contraction of Tehari Dam is opposed by the environmental group for the
following reason.
(A) An apprehension that it posses a neither serious threat to the life, ecology, and
environment of the entire nor then Indian.
(B) It results in the indiscriminate felling of threes of Himalayan Region.
(C) It is the source of pollution in Tehari Region.
(D) Local people are not employed in the project work.
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9. The main cases of the pollution of Environment is.

(A) Pillage of natural resources. (B) Burning of chemicals.
(C) Pollution Growth (D) Raising standard of living.
Ans. ‘A’

10. Biosphere comprises of.

(A) All of the above. (B) Life giving water and air.
(C) All Living things. (D) The Earth.
Ans. ‘A’

11. The Indian Forest Act was enacted in the year.

(A) 1927 (B) 1976 (C) 1879 (D) 1972
Ans. ‘A’

12. The most polluted river in Indian.

(A) Ganga. (B) Godavari. (C) Masi. (D) Damodar.

13. Acid rain means.

(A) Cloud seeding with acid. (B) An artificial rain.
(C) Rain due to sulpher compounds in the atmosphere.
(D) None of these.
Ans. ‘A’.
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14. The Kankan Railway Project is being opposed by the environments on the ground
that.
(A) The part of the railway tract affects the eco system of estuaries and lakes in
Goa.
(B) Local people are not being received in the project work.
(C) It is against the interest a Maharashtra State.
(D) It results in are pollution of the west coast.
Ans. ‘A’.

15. Green House Effect refers to.

(A) The graduate warming of the earth’s atmosphere.
(B) The effect on human health.
(C) The enigmatic imbalance.
(D) The reduction of oxygen in the air.

Ans. ‘A’.

16. The air (prevention and control of pollution) Act was enacted with a view to achieve
the objects.
(A) To achieve all the above objects.
(B) To impose resignation on the establishment of industries.
(C) To remove urban slum.
(D) To preserve the quality of air and control air pollution.
Ans. ‘A’

17. Water Act was reused to make more effective in the year.
(A) 1988. (B) 1978. (C) 1981. (D) 1986.
Ans. ‘A’.
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18. The year 1972 marks a water shed in history of environment management in Indian
because.
(A) The Water Act was enacted.
(B) Because India participated in Stockholm qnbenence.
(C) Sengare disposal, sanitary and public health rules was framed.
(D) A committee of national planning and environment was established.
Ans. ‘A’.

18. Narmada Bachao Andolan is started to achieve the following object.

(A) To protect pollution of Narmada river

(B) To protect against construction to large dam over narmada river
(C) To gain political advant age in election.
(D) To protest against industrialization in narmada basin.
Ans. ‘A’.

20. Indian Court has jurisdiction to hear on environment save

(a) All of the above
(b) Only for social steps
(c) Only for the benefit of a class
(d) Only on public interest application
Ans: ‘ A’

21. Except remaining causes the main reason for pollution

(a) Increasing population
(b) Crazy materialism
(c) Civilization
(d) Industrialization Ans: ‘A’
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22. Following is included in human environmental system

(a) Natural and manmade particulars
(b) Forests and rivers only
(c) Livelihood air only
(d) Biosphere Ans: ‘A’

23. In which part of environmental law to control the hazardous substance

(a) Air pollution and control act 1981
(b) Water pollution and control act 1974
(c) (a) and (b) both
(d) none of the above Ans: 'C’

24. Power hold for jurisdiction of air pollution and control act 1981 by
(a) State government – conciliation with central pollution and control board
(b) Central government – conciliation with central pollution and control board
(c) Central government – conciliation with state pollution and control board
(d) State government- conciliation with state pollution and control board

Ans: ‘A’

25. Principle of “absolute liability “laid down by the Supreme Court to the users of
hazardous substance in the case of
(a) Shri Ram Gas leakage case M.C.Mehta v/s union of India
(b) Union carbide corporation v/s union of India
(c) Municipal council of Ratlam v/s Vardhi chand
(d) Sachchidanand pande v/s state of West Bengal
Ans: ‘A’
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26. For the case of environment, under article 21 Supreme Court has given
(a) Right to live
(b) Absolute environmental right
(c) Right to privacy
(d) Right to avoid nuisance Ans: ‘A’

27. To clean the street and remove garbage the permissible Writ against municipality is
(a) Mandamus
(b) Certiorari
(c) Habeas Corpus
(d) Quo Warranto Ans: ‘A’

28. To close the industrial unit under environmental protection under Act 1986 power
holds
(a) Central government
(b) Central pollution control board
(c) State pollution control board
(d) State government Ans: ‘A’

29. Conservation of forest act is included in the schedule of Constitution

(a) Concurrent list
(b) Central list
(c) State list
(d) Central list no. 97 Ans: ‘A’

30. Environmental protection and amendment is in execution by

(a) 42nd Amendment of the Constitution
(b) 74th Amendment of the Constitution
(c) 73rd Amendment of the Constitution
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(d) None of these Ans: ’A’

31. The committee formed under the presidential ship of Prime Minister is liable for
purification and cleanliness of river
(a) Ganga
(b) Jamna
(c) Godavari
(d) Kaveri Ans :- ‘A’

32. Environmental damages is caused by the Mathura refinery to

(a) Vrandavan
(b) Varanasi Krishna temple
(c) Taj Mahal
(d) None of these Ans: ‘C’

33. Ozone layer means

(a) Layer of air who restrict the hazardous rays of sun to the earth
(b) Transparency in college administration
(c) Air circulation surrounding the sun
(d) Layer on ozone
Ans: ‘A’

34. Time taken to stabilize the balance the balance of ecology

(a) 10 crore years
(b) 100 crore years
(c) 50 crore years
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(d) None of these Ans: ‘A’

35. The provision of Indian Penal Code for environmental protection is

(a) Inadequate
(b) Adequate
(c) old
(d) None of these Ans: a

36. To maintain the ‘Human Environment’ and natural resources is the result of
(a) Delhi Declaration 1954
(b) World declaration 1972 of Human Right
(c) Stockholm declaration 1972
(d) Draft of United Nation

37. CHIPCO movement means

(a) To prevent the destruction of forest
(b) Protection of tree
(c) Protection of Wild animals
(d) To restrict excavation of minerals Ans: a

38. Public interest legislation can be file by

(a) Any citizen of India
(b) Minimum 10 person
(c) M.L.A of municipal councilor
(d) Any registered association Ans: A
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39. Environmental resolution amends
(a) Above all
(b) Position of biosphere
(c) Position of Human beings on earth
(d) Livelihood of animals
Ans: ‘A’

40. Reason of pollution is on the utilization of

(a) Water
(b) Air
(c) Noise
(d) Above all Ans: a

41. Join committee on ‘Human Environment’ in 1972 was held at

(a) Stockholm
(b) New York
(c) Geneva
(d) New Delhi Ans: A

42. Indian Constitution describe the duty to protect environment under

(a) Article 48 A
(b) Article 51 A
(c) Article 48 A and 51 A
(d) Preamble Ans: a

43. Pollution is included in which of the following tort

(a) Nuisance
(b) Negligence
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(c) Damage to immovable property
(d) Personal injury Ans: A

44. Noise pollution is included in

(a) None of these
(b) Water pollution prevention and control Act 1974
(c) Environment protection Act 1974
(d) Air pollution prevention and control Act 1981
Ans: a

45. Principles of Indian Penal Code and Torts is to penalise the nuisance but by special
resolution and amendment to execute Air and Water pollution Act because
(a) It is not applicable
(b) Applicable only on personal way
(c) It is inadequate in modern time
(d) None of these Ans: b

46. Injury by nuisance is affected

(a) To the citizen of City
(b) To all people
(c) To the two persons
(d) To one person Ans: ‘A’

47. Decibel can measure

(a) Water pollution
(b) Noise of loud speaker
(c) Carbon monoxide in air
(d) level of flood
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48. Bhopal Gas accident is base on the principle of

(a) Article 21 of Indian Constitution
(b) donaught v/s stevensen
(c) Ratlam municipalality case
(d) Reyland v/s Fletcher case
Ans: ‘A’

49. Environmental protection Act means

(a) Establishment of legal central Government
(b) Absolute powers to central Government
(c) To establish special courts
(d) to give guidance to municipality

50. Pollution of environment is because of

(a) all of the above
(b) Water
(c) Noise
(d) Air Ans: ‘A’

51. Supreme count firestone magmata the principle in the Bar Council for envier large
achieve v/s union of India.
(A) Polluter Pay. (B) Guiltier Pay.
(C) Labor Pay. (D) Government pay.
Ans. ‘A’
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52. The cooled commission gives the concept of Environment and development is
reference to.
(A) Sustainable development (B) Non sustainable distinction.
(C) Non Sustainable development (D) Sustainable distinction.
Ans. ‘A’

53. Before knowing ecology it is necessary to know.

(A) Eco-system. (B) Eco development
(C) Eco balance. (D) Eco- creation.
Ans. ‘A’.

54. Existent of prospered means.

(A) Eco system (B) Air.
(C) Metter. (D) Human being.
Ans. ‘A’

55. The biggest enemy of environment is

(A) Hazardous waste. (B) House.
(C) Roads. (D) Industries.
Ans. ‘A’.

56. Remedies against environment pollution is

(A) 3. (B) 8
(C) 6. (D) 1.
Ans. ‘A’.
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(57) Improvement and maintenance in the public health one of the following is
responsible.
(A) Static govt. (B) Central Gover.
(C) Both Central Govt. & State Govt. (D) Municipality.
Ans. ‘A’.

(58) Under An-51-A to protect and improvement of forest, pound, river, wildlife and
natural environment is the fundamental duties of
(A) Every citizen. (B) Industries.
(C) Only Govt. (D) None of these.
Ans. ‘A’.

(59) The act of fear, terror, injury to public under sec 268 of I.P,C. constrain

(60) The duty of occupier to ‘disclose with reference to hazardous production,

warehousing transportation etc. is
(A) mandatory (B) Uncommon
(C) Common. (D) Fundamental.
Ans. ‘A’

(61) The duty of every citizen is with reference to water pollution.

(A) Outlet. (B) Storage (C) Drinking (D) None.
Ans. ‘A’
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(62) Water Pollution Board is.

(A) Govt. (B) Local asjontion
(C) Corporate Body (D) Religious institution.

(63) State Board of water pollution meets.

(A) Every three month. (B) Every Year.
(C) Every Six Months. (D) Every month.
Ans. ‘A’

(64) Central Board of Water Pollution Board Provide to Central Government.

(A) Advice. (B) Mandate.
(C) International (D) Promise.
Ans. ‘A’

(65) On the dishonor of order of W.P. Board of state is

(A) Punishable. (B) Fine.
(C) Fine & Punishment (D) None of these.
Ans. ‘

(66) Authority to Supersea wotoer pollution Board holds.

(A) Municipality. (B) High Court.
(C) Supreme Court. (D) Circular.
Ans. ‘A’
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(67) Central Government will publish the rules to control environmental pollution in
(A) Gazette. (B) News Paper.
(C) Resolution. (D) Circular.
Ans. ‘A’

(68) In case of injury to a person or damage to the property with reference to

environmental law tribunal can.
(A) Intertie. (B) Suo moto
(C) Appeal (D) Argument.
Ans. ‘B’

(69) Under forest conservation act to fire in the forest area is.
(A) Restriction. (B) Permission.
(C) Prohibition. (D) Provision.
Ans. ‘C’

(70) Under Indian forest animal conservation Act is prohibited.

(A) Touring. (B) Permission.
(C) Hunting. (D) Entry.
Ans. ‘

(71) To protect animal resides in forest the state government has provision for.
(A) Immunization. (B) Food.
(C) Water. (D) Air.
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Ans. ‘A’

(72) Plants in the forest is a property.

(A) Government. (B) Natural.
(C) Private. (D) Public.
Ans. ‘A’

(73) For the trading of plant of Forest trader has to take.

(A) License. (B) SANAD.
(C) Certificate. (D) Permission.
Ans. ‘A’.

(74) For the permission to enter and stay in the forest is essential
(A) Conditions & Payment. (B) Identity Card.
(C) Citizenship. (D) Trust.
Ans. ‘A’.

(75) To declare reserved forest the power is with.

(A) State Government. (B) Collector.
(C) Taluka Development officer. (D) Municipality.
Ans. ‘D’
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(76) To cut the trees of protected forest is.

(A) Punishable. (B) Permissible.
(C) Essential (D) Not- essential.
Ans. ‘A’.

(77) Jointly Administration of Govt and Private person of forest is.

(A) legal. (B) Illegal.
(C) Absolute. (D) Contradictory.
Ans. ‘A’

(78) Forest officer who is the plantation whatever has power to arrest the offerdor.
(A) Without-warrant. (B) By warrant.
(C) By Summons. (D) By permission.
Ans. ‘A’

(79) State Govt. can appoint forest settlement office at least.

(A) Three. (B) Five.
(C) One. (D) Two. Ans. ‘A’.

(80) While the Court of wards looks after the property of forest, owner will be
(A) Forest-department. (B) State Govt.
(C) Court. (D) Central Govt.
Ans. ‘’
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(81) Pollution may be caused by means of using.

(A) All or any of them. (B) AIR.
(C) Sound. (D) Water. Ans. ‘A’

(82) The Environment protection Act….

(A) Establishes a statutory authority at the national basis.
(B) Vests great power in the central government.
(C) Creates a special court.
(D) Authorizes Municipalities to carry out the directions.

(83) Decibel is unit of measurement applies to find out the approval level of
pollution caused by.
(A) Amount of noise by loudspeaker.
(B) Coloration of water.
(C) Presence of carbon monoxide in the air.
(D) The level of river water it the time of floods.
Ans. ‘A’

(84) A Public misname is caused only if the following are injuriously affected.
(A) Residents of the entire locality in a village.
(B) The entire public.
(C) Only Two persons.
(D) Only one persons.
Ans. ‘A’
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(85) Public interest litigation can be initiated by.

(A) Even one person.
(B) A member of legislative Assembly or municipal corporation.
(C) At Least ten persons.
(D) At least an association which is registered.
Ans. ‘A’

(86) ‘CHIPCO’ movement is so called because.

(A) The people in the area emblince the trees and prevent anybody cutting.
(B) Forests are burnt.
(C) The wood in the forest is made into chips.
(D) Trees are out and destroyed.
Ans. ‘A’

(87) The Penal code and the Tort law constrain principles which penalize public
misance yet special legislation is passed concerning air and water pollution because those
principles.
(A) Do not apply.
(B) Apply only in the case of Acts of individuals.
(C) Proved inadequate in modern

(88) Retlam mauncipality case is based on.

(A) The tort law of nuisame.
(B) The criminal procedure code.
(C) The law of contreats.
(D) Special legislation plohibiting public nlisance.
Ans. ‘A’
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(89) Environment legislation is intended to improve the……..

(A) All of them.
(B) The condition of the biosphere
(C) conditions of man’s life on earth.
(D) Non of them.
Ans. ‘A’

(90) Noise pollution as provide in.

(A) The Air (prevention and control) of pollution Act-1974
(B) The water (prevention and control of pollution) Act-1974
(C) The environ (protection) Act 1986
(D) None of the Above.
Ans. ‘A’

(91) An abettor is a public nuisance because

(A) Cattle wealth of country is depleted thereby.
(B) Such killing is done with automatic.
(C) Hundreds of animals are killed everyday.
(D) Blood and other waste material thereby is allowed to flow openly or
underground which is hazardous.
Ans. ‘A’

(92) The Mathura refinery is reported to have caused a loss and significant
damage olmage to.
(A) Brindaban (B) Temle of Krishna brindaben.
(C) Taj-Mahal (D) None of this.

(93) United conference on Human environment, 1972 was held in

(A) Stockholm. (B) Newyork
(C) Geneva. (D) New Delhi.
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Ans. ‘A’

(94) Pollution may be caused by means of using….

(A) Water. (B) Sound.
(C) Air. (D) None of them.
Ans. ‘A’

(95) Environmental legislation is intended to improve.

(A) All of them.
(B) The Conditions of biosphere.
(C) Conditions of man’s life on the earth.
(D) The living conditions of Animals.

Ans. ‘A’

(96) Public interest litigation is initiated by.

(A) Every citizen of India.
(B) At least ten persons.
(C) A member of legislative Assembly or Municipal Corporation
(D) An Association which is registered.
Ans. ‘A’

(97) Natural Environment’s protection and prevention is like.

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(A) Fundamental duties.
(B) Fundamental lights.
(C) Human rights.
(D) Direct principals.
Ans. ‘A’.

(98) Lays down on the second and every subsequent conviction to be punishable
with imprisonment for a term which shall not be fewer penalties.

(99) ‘CHIPCO’ movement is started.

(A) To prevent destruction of forests.
(B) To preserve the trees.
(C) To preserve wild life.
(D) To prevent extraction of mineral wealth.
Ans. ‘A’

(100) The Penal Code provisions to protect environment.

(A) Inadequate
(B) Adequate
(C) Deterrent.
(D) None of the above.
Ans . ‘A’.
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